Brilliant Trophy Juniors Online Chess Tournament

Source: Telangana Today

TGPSC Relevance: Awards and Honours

Context: Brilliant Trophy Juniors Online Chess Tournament

Why in News?

Sricharan Tej of Care Model High School won the Brilliant Trophy Juniors online chess tournament, highlighting growing participation in youth online chess competitions in India.

Introduction

  • The Brilliant Trophy Juniors online chess tournament is a platform for young chess players to showcase their talent in a competitive environment.
  • The recent edition witnessed participants from various age categories, promoting early development of strategic thinking and analytical skills among children.

Brilliant Trophy Juniors Online Chess Tournament

  • national-level online chess competition for junior players in India.
  • Provides a platform for young talents to showcase strategic thinking and analytical skills.
  • Encourages participation across various age categories, from under-7 to under-15.

Format & Scoring:

  • Conducted online over 12 rounds.
  • Standard scoring system: 1 point for a win, 0.5 for a draw, 0 for a loss.
  • Separate categories for boys and girls to promote gender equality.

Significance:

  • Encourages cognitive development, problem-solving, and critical thinking among children.
  • Helps in identifying and nurturing emerging chess talent at state and national levels.
  • Promotes mind sports and makes chess accessible through online platforms.
  • Integrates extracurricular skill development with education, fostering discipline and sportsmanship.

Key Highlights:

  • Top Winners (Juniors Category):
  • Champion: Sricharan Tej – 11 points from 12 rounds
  • Runner-up: Leeladityavardhan – 10 points
  • Third Place: P. Harshit – 9 points
  • Top 10 Junior Placings: K. Sricharan Tej , Leeladityavardhan , P. Harshit , S. Harivardhan , T. Hanshit , Medhansh , P. Lakshith , Yeshwin , Teja Anusha , Vihaan Rachuri

Category-wise Winners:

Boys:

Under-15: 1. K. Harshavarshan, 2. P. Nikhil

Under-13: 1. G. Ranay Reddy, 2. K. Kulakarni

Under-11: 1. Manas Arun Sritej, 2. Laxmi Rishaank

Under-9: 1. A. Shanmukha Vasudeva, 2. Nihal Naga Saitej

Under-7: 1. Keshav Garg, 2. Ashrit Padhy

Girls:

Under-13: 1. Jaya Ahalya, 2. Varshitha

Under-11: 1. Akanksha S. Biradar, 2. R. Manaswini

Under-9: 1. Sree Sivatmika, 2. R. Vishalini

(Image Source: Telangana Today)

Significance:

  • Encourages strategic thinking, problem-solving, and analytical skills among children
  • Provides a platform for emerging chess talent at state and national levels
  • Promotes gender equality in sports, with separate categories for boys and girls
  • Highlights the rise of online chess platforms, improving accessibility for participants across regions

Chess in Telangana & India

  • Telangana has produced notable chess players including Grandmaster Harika Dronavalli from Guntur, who has represented India internationally.
  • India is a chess powerhouse, producing 77+ Grandmasters, with Viswanathan Anand being the most iconic figure.
  • Chess is recognized under the Khelo India program, and its inclusion in schools enhances cognitive development.
  • Online tournaments, especially post-COVID, have increased youth participation and talent scouting.

Conclusion:

  • The Brilliant Trophy Juniors online chess tournament exemplifies the growing importance of mind sports in India. By providing young players like Sricharan Tej an opportunity to excel, it contributes to skill development, holistic education, and competitive excellence, while promoting chess as an inclusive and strategic sport.

CARE MCQ

Q1.  Consider the following statements regarding the Brilliant Trophy Juniors Online Chess Tournament:

  1. It is a national-level online chess competition for junior players in India, conducted across multiple age categories from under-7 to under-15.
  2. Telangana has produced notable chess players including Grandmaster Harika Dronavalli.
  3. The tournament is held exclusively offline to promote in-person competitive experience.

Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above

Answer 1- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The tournament’s primary objective is to identify and nurture young chess talent through competitive online play across multiple age categories.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Telangana has produced notable chess players, including Grandmaster Harika Dronavalli.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The tournament is online, not held exclusively offline.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Hyderabad man becomes first Indian to scale all accessible 8,000-metre peaks

Source: Times of India

TGPSC Relevance: Sports

Context: ‘Advaita Vedanta Ratna’ Award

Why in News?

Bharath Thammineni, a mountaineer from Hyderabad, became the first Indian to summit all nine 8,000-metre peaks accessible to Indian climbers.

Introduction

  • Bharath Thammineni, a mountaineer from Hyderabad, etched his name in history by becoming the first Indian to successfully summit all nine of the world’s 8,000-metre peaks currently accessible to Indian climbers.
  • On October 14, 2025, he reached the summit of Cho Oyu (8,201 metres), the sixth-highest peak globally, marking the completion of a decade-long quest that captured the imagination of India’s adventure sports community.
  • Chronology of Summits: Bharath’s remarkable mountaineering journey spans multiple high-altitude expeditions:
MountainHeightYear of SummitSignificance
Mount Everest8,848 m2017First Indian-led expedition of the season, notable for surviving the 2015 Nepal earthquake aftermath.
Kangchenjunga8,586 m2022Third-highest mountain in the world.
Lhotse8,516 m2019Known for its steep climbs and proximity to Everest.
Makalu8,463 m2023Fifth-highest peak, technically challenging.
Dhaulagiri8,167 m2025Seventh-highest peak, completed recently.
Manaslu8,163 m2018Eighth-highest peak, notable for avalanche risks.
Annapurna I8,091 m2022Tenth-highest peak; considered one of the deadliest peaks historically.
Shishapangma8,012 m2024Fourteenth-highest peak, located in Tibet.
Cho Oyu8,201 m2025Sixth-highest peak, completing Bharath’s 8,000-metre goal.

Challenges and Leadership:

  • Bharath’s expeditions tested perseverance, resilience, and leadership skills. During his Everest expedition in 2017, he led the first team of the season, despite having survived the devastating Nepal earthquake in 2015 during a previous attempt.
  • Hyderabad man becomes first Indian to scale all accessible 8,000-metre peaks Each climb demanded extreme physical endurance, mental fortitude, and strategic planning to navigate high-altitude risks, including avalanches, crevasses, and severe weather conditions.

Contribution to Adventure Sports:

  • Beyond personal achievements, Bharath actively promotes sustainable climbing practices and encourages youth participation in outdoor sports. Some notable initiatives include:
  • Guiding India’s youngest climber (16 years old) to complete the Seven Summits Challenge.
  • Assisting the first blind Indian girl to successfully summit Mount Everest in April 2025.

Significance:

  • Adventure and Sports: Bharath’s feat highlights India’s growing presence in high-altitude mountaineering and adventure sports.
  • Leadership and Mentorship: His efforts to mentor young climbers and differently-abled mountaineers demonstrate the integration of sports with social impact.
  • Sustainability in Mountaineering: Advocating eco-friendly climbing practices aligns with global efforts to preserve fragile Himalayan ecosystems.

Prominent Peaks in Telangana

  • Doli Gutta – 965 m Located on the border of Mulugu district (Telangana) and Bijapur district (Chhattisgarh), Doli Gutta is Telangana’s highest peak. Its prominence increased following the transfer of certain mandals from Khammam district to Andhra Pradesh in 2014.
  • Bedam Gutta – 856 m Situated near the Godavari River, Bedam Gutta is notable for its elevation and prominence.
  • Pātāl Toka – 826 m Recognized for its significant prominence, making it a notable feature in the region’s topography.
  • Pedda Kurva – 809 m Located in the Nallamala Hills, Pedda Kurva is among the higher elevations in the state.
  • Kodijutta Gutta – 801 m Found near the Godavari River, this peak is notable for its elevation and prominence.
  • Pothathoka Kurva – 799 m Recognized for its significant prominence in the region’s topography.
  • Mallatirtamma Gutta – 768 m Located near the Godavari River, Mallatirtamma Gutta is among the higher elevations in the state.
  • Posūn Gutta – 761 m Situated near the Godavari River, Posūn Gutta is notable for its elevation and prominence.
  • Yerra Dari – 757 m Recognized for its significant prominence, making it a notable feature in the region’s topography.
  • Vāni Konda – 751 m Located near the Godavari River, Vāni Konda is among the higher elevations in the state.

Notable Mountaineering Achievements from Telangana

  • Bharath Thammineni: A mountaineer from Hyderabad, Bharath became the first Indian to scale all nine of the world’s currently accessible 8,000-meter peaks. His summits include Mount Everest (2017), Kangchenjunga (2022), Lhotse (2019), Makalu (2023), Dhaulagiri (2025), Manaslu (2018), Annapurna I (2022), Shishapangma (2024), and Cho Oyu (2025).
  • Bhukya Yashwanth: A young mountaineer from Telangana, Yashwanth successfully scaled Phawngpui (Blue Mountain), the highest peak in Mizoram at 2,157 meters, as part of his national campaign “Har Shikhar Par Tiranga,” aiming to hoist the Indian flag atop high peaks across India.

Conclusion:

  • Bharath Thammineni’s historic accomplishment of conquering all nine accessible 8,000-metre peaks inspires a new generation of Indian adventurers and reinforces the values of perseverance, leadership, and sustainable practices in high-altitude mountaineering.
  • His journey underscores the convergence of personal excellence and social contribution in Indian adventure sports.

CARE MCQ

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Bharath Thammineni:

  1. He is the first Indian to summit all nine 8,000-metre peaks currently accessible to Indian climbers.
  2. He guided India’s first blind girl to successfully summit Mount Everest.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 2- C

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: Bharath Thammineni completed the summit of Cho Oyu in October 2025, thereby becoming the first Indian to conquer all nine accessible 8,000-metre peaks.
  • Statement 2 is correct: He also assisted the first blind Indian girl to summit Mount Everest in April 2025, showcasing his contribution to inclusive mountaineering.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

Road to Gender Equity in Courts

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS 2 Polity and Governance

Context: Gender Equity in Courts

Why in News?

The under-representation of women in India’s higher judiciary highlights the need for reforms to ensure gender equity and transparency in judicial appointments.

Introduction

  • Women’s under-representation in India’s higher judiciary continues to remain a matter of concern. Despite decades of progress in women’s education and public employment, the upper echelons of the judicial system — particularly the High Courts and the Supreme Court — continue to be dominated by men.
  • The India Justice Report 2025 highlights that women constitute only 14% of judges in High Courts and a mere 3.1% in the Supreme Court. Out of 34 judges in the apex court, only one is a woman, and among 25 High Courtsonly one woman serves as a Chief Justice.
  • While her likely elevation as the first woman Chief Justice of India is historic, the overall picture remains grim. If no further appointments of women are made before her tenure ends, the Supreme Court risks having no female representation at all — a troubling reflection of systemic exclusion.

Causes of Gender Imbalance: The Collegium Constraint

  • The Collegium system of judicial appointments — where a small group of senior judges recommend names for elevation — is the principal cause of this imbalance.
  • This system, while intended to preserve judicial independence, has created an “elitist network” that largely favors individuals with established professional connections or family backgrounds in the legal fraternity.
  • Women, along with candidates from marginalized or non-metropolitan backgrounds, find it particularly difficult to penetrate this close-knit circle. The process lacks transparencydiversity, and equal access, resulting in a judiciary that does not fully reflect the social fabric of the nation.

A Brighter Picture in the Lower Judiciary

  • Interestingly, the lower judiciary — subordinate and district courts — presents a more gender-inclusive picture. Judges at this level are recruited through open competitive examinations, ensuring merit-based and gender-neutral entry. Consequently, women comprise nearly 38% of the total strength of the lower judiciary.
  • This demonstrates that when recruitment is competitive, transparent, and nationwide, women perform as well as — and often better than — men. However, infrastructural barriers persist.
  • A report by the Centre for Research and Planning of the Supreme Court (2023) revealed that 20% of district court complexes lack separate toilets for women, pointing to the need for a gender-sensitive work environment to sustain women’s participation.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

The Case for an All-India Judicial Service (AIJS)

  • To correct the imbalance in the higher judiciary, experts and reformers have long advocated the establishment of an All-India Judicial Service (AIJS) — a national-level merit-based examination for judicial appointments.
  • This idea received strong backing from President Droupadi Murmu, who, during her Constitution Day address in 2023, emphasized the need for a system that is “merit-based, competitive, and transparent”.
  • She noted that such a process could open doors for under-represented groups — including women, Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and Other Backward Classes (OBCs) — ensuring diversity and inclusivity at every level of the judiciary.

Resistance from Within: The Judiciary and the Bar

  • Despite its merits, the proposal for an AIJS faces stiff opposition from both the judiciary and the Bar Council. The main concern is that an all-India service might lead to executive interference, thereby compromising judicial independence.
  • However, this argument appears weak. There has been no evidence of executive interference in the recruitment of the lower judiciary — where selection is already through competitive examinations conducted by State Public Service Commissions.
  • Thus, a national-level competitive system for higher judicial recruitment could ensure uniform standards, greater transparency, and a check on nepotism and patronage — without undermining autonomy.

Learning from the UPSC Model

  • The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) offers a strong precedent for what a fair and inclusive recruitment process can achieve. Through its annual Civil Services Examination, the UPSC recruits for the IAS, IPS, IFS, and other services on a purely merit-based and transparent basis.
  • Over the years, this system has produced a socially diverse and gender-inclusive bureaucracy.
  • In 2024, out of 1,009 selected candidates318 were from OBC160 from SC87 from ST, and 109 from EWS categories.
  • Women’s representation has seen remarkable progress — 11 of the top 25 ranks were secured by women, including Rank 1 and Rank 2.
  • The Indian Police Service (IPS) witnessed 54 women recruits in 2024, constituting 28% of the total strength.
  • Such diversity in the bureaucracy demonstrates that a competitive national examination can successfully broaden participation across gender and social groups — a model that could equally benefit the judiciary.

Constitutional Backing: Article 312

  • Article 312 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to create new All-India Services, including an All-India Judicial Service, for maintaining uniform standards of recruitment, training, and service across the country.
  • Under this provision, Parliament can legislate to establish the AIJS, with subsequent control and supervision vested in the Supreme Court to safeguard judicial independence.
  • The UPSC can be entrusted with the responsibility of conducting the examination, following eligibility and selection criteria framed by the Supreme Court in consultation with High Courts.

Implementation Framework: Towards a Transparent and Inclusive Judiciary

  • Once constituted, the AIJS can follow a tiered structure of recruitment and training:
  • Examination and Selection — Conducted by the UPSC on a pan-India basis.
  • Training — A comprehensive programme under the supervision of the National Judicial Academy and respective High Courts.
  • Posting and Promotion — Judges to serve under the control of the Supreme Court or respective High Courts, ensuring autonomy and uniformity in career progression.
  • Such a system would introduce meritocracytransparency, and regional balance into the judicial hierarchy — helping bridge the glaring gender gap in the higher judiciary.

Conclusion:

  • To quote former French Prime Minister Georges Clemenceau“War is too important a matter to be left to generals.”
  • Similarly, justice is too serious a matter to be left entirely to the judiciary.

CARE MCQ

Q1.  With reference to women’s representation in the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:

  • Women constitute about 14% of judges in the High Courts and around 3% in the Supreme Court.
  • The Collegium system of appointments is cited as a major reason for gender imbalance in the higher judiciary.
  • The lower judiciary shows better gender representation as judges are selected through open competitive examinations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 1- D

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: According to recent data, women constitute about 14% of High Court judges and 3.1% in the Supreme Court.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Collegium system has been criticized for functioning as a closed network, limiting diversity and women’s inclusion.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The lower judiciary, with recruitment through competitive exams, has nearly 38% women judges, reflecting better gender balance.
  • Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.  With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements: (2021)

  • Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India.
  • A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither I nor 2

Ans: (a)

India’s Refugee Policy: The Need for a Non-Discriminatory Framework

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance

Context: India’s Refugee Policy

Why in News?

India lacks a comprehensive refugee law, leading to inconsistent and religion-based treatment of refugee groups despite hosting over 2 lakh persons of concern.

Introduction

India has long been a destination for people seeking refuge from political persecution, ethnic violence, and natural disasters in neighbouring countries.
Yet, the absence of a formal refugee law has left the distinction between refugees and infiltrators blurred.
While the Union Home Minister’s emphasis on differentiating between the two categories is valid, the lack of objective parameters and a clear policy framework has led to arbitrary and inconsistent treatment of different refugee communities.
India’s Refugee Framework: Absence of a Dedicated Law

India is not a signatory to the 1951 UN Convention on the Status of Refugees or its 1967 Protocol, which define and protect refugees globally.
Consequently, India lacks a comprehensive national refugee law, leading to reliance on general legislations meant for foreign nationals. Until March 2025, the following Acts were applied to regulate the entry and stay of foreigners, including refugees:
Foreigners Act, 1946
Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939
Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920
From April 2025, these laws were replaced by the Immigration and Foreigners Act, which also subsumed the Immigration (Carriers’ Liability) Act, 2000. While this consolidated the legal framework for foreign nationals, it did not create specific provisions for refugees — persons fleeing persecution — distinct from illegal migrants.
Refugee vs Infiltrator: The Problem of Classification

The term refugee implies a person seeking safety from persecution or conflict, whereas infiltrator suggests unauthorized entry for illegal purposes.
However, in India, any undocumented or overstaying foreign national, regardless of humanitarian reasons, is deemed an illegal migrant under the Citizenship Act, 1955 and may even be labeled an infiltrator.
This lack of distinction often results in genuine refugees facing harassment or detention, as the legal framework does not recognize the nuances of displacement, persecution, or statelessness.
Inconsistent Treatment of Refugee Groups

India’s approach toward different refugee communities has been inconsistent and selective, often influenced by political, religious, and diplomatic considerations.
Tibetan Refugees
A rehabilitation policy was introduced in 2014 for around 63,000 Tibetan refugees, providing access to livelihood and education.
Sri Lankan Tamil Refugees
Nearly 90,000 Sri Lankan Tamil refugees reside in India, but no official rehabilitation policy exists for them.
In September 2025, the government granted exemptions from penal provisions under the Immigration and Foreigners Act to undocumented or overstaying Tamil refugees who arrived before January 9, 2015. While this offers temporary relief, it does not provide a long-term solution or citizenship pathway.
Rohingya, Afghan, and Other Refugees: Refugees from Myanmar, Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Africa, and West Asia—totaling over 2.11 lakh persons of concern as of June 2023—remain under ad hoc administrative arrangements, without clear legal protection.
(Image Source: Financial Times)

The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019: Religion-Based Exclusion

The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA) sought to fast-track citizenship for six religious minorities — Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians — from Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Bangladesh who entered India before December 31, 2014.
While the intent was humanitarian, it excluded Muslim minorities such as Ahmadis and Hazaras, and ignored other persecuted groups like Sri Lankan Tamils and the Rohingya.
This religion-based differentiation drew criticism for being discriminatory and inconsistent with India’s secular and humanitarian principles.
Recent Government Measures

In a positive move, the government recently granted exemptions to undocumented Tamil refugees who had registered with authorities before 2015, recognizing their long-standing presence in India.
Similar relief measures were extended to certain other refugee groups. However, the policy continues to rely on discretionary executive decisions rather than a codified, transparent framework applicable to all refugees on equal terms.
Need for a Comprehensive and Non-Discriminatory Refugee Policy

A robust refugee policy must rest on consistency, fairness, and humanity. India, as a regional power and a country with a rich tradition of asylum, requires:
A clear legal definition of ‘refugee’, distinct from ‘illegal migrant’.
Institutional mechanisms to assess and verify refugee claims based on humanitarian grounds.
Uniform rights and protections for all refugees, irrespective of religion, ethnicity, or country of origin.
Cooperation with the UNHCR (United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees) to ensure compliance with global norms.
Long-term rehabilitation and integration policies, ensuring access to basic services, livelihood, and education.
Conclusion

As India continues to host diverse displaced populations — from Tibet, Sri Lanka, Myanmar, and beyond — it is imperative to adopt a non-discriminatory, transparent, and humanitarian refugee policy that upholds both national security and India’s civilizational ethos of compassion and asylum.
CARE MCQ

Q2.   With reference to India’s refugee management framework, consider the following statements:

India is not a signatory to the 1951 UN Convention on the Status of Refugees and its 1967 Protocol.
The Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025, replaced three pre-Independence laws to streamline the legal framework for foreign nationals.
The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, provides citizenship to refugees of all religions from neighboring countries without discrimination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 2- A

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: India has not signed the 1951 Refugee Convention or the 1967 Protocol, leaving it without a dedicated legal framework for refugees.
Statement 2 is Correct: The Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025 replaced the Foreigners Act (1946), Registration of Foreigners Act (1939), and Passport (Entry into India) Act (1920) to unify immigration laws.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 grants citizenship only to six non-Muslim religious minorities from Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Bangladesh, thereby excluding certain groups such as Sri Lankan Tamils and Rohingya Muslims.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ

Q. With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021)

There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

 

20 Years of the Right to Information Act

Source: Down To Earth

UPSC Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance

Context: Right to Information (RTI) Act

Why in News?

October 12, 2025, marked 20 years since the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 came into full effect — a landmark law promoting transparency and accountability.

Introduction

  • The Right to Information (RTI) Act came into full effect across India, marking a watershed moment in the country’s democratic journey.
  • The law aimed to promote transparency, accountability, and citizen empowerment, enabling people to seek information from public authorities and thereby hold them accountable.
  • Two decades later, the RTI stands as both a symbol of democratic empowerment and a reminder of the continuing struggle between citizens’ right to know and the state’s instinct to control information.
  • As India marks 20 years of RTI, reflections by Wajahat Habibullah, the country’s first Chief Information Commissioner (2005–2010), provide deep insights into the evolution, challenges, and future trajectory of the Act.

Genesis and Objectives of the RTI Act

  • The RTI Act was the outcome of a long and persistent grassroots movement led by civil society groups such as the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) in Rajasthan, which demanded transparency in government functioning, especially in the disbursal of wages and public works.
  • Its enactment in 2005 was a recognition that information is power, and access to it is fundamental to participatory democracy. The Act sought to:
  • Ensure transparency and accountability in government functioning.
  • Empower citizens to scrutinize decisions and actions of public authorities.
  • Promote public participation in governance and curb corruption.

Achievements and Successes

  • According to Wajahat Habibullah, the RTI has indeed been successful in democratizing access to information across diverse social strata.
  • Inclusivity: The law has empowered not only educated citizens but also women, slum dwellers, forest communities, and marginalized groups. Through RTI, many have accessed vital welfare benefits such as widow pensionsration entitlements, and school admissions.
  • Administrative Transparency: Every government department now maintains a public website with policy details, contact information, and public schemes, fulfilling the proactive disclosure provisions under Section 4 of the Act.
  • Public Awareness: RTI has become a widely known citizen instrument, symbolizing participatory governance.
  • Thus, the RTI has made transparency a part of administrative discourse and public expectation — a major achievement for any law.

Decline in Efficacy and Emerging Challenges

  • Despite its early success, the efficacy of the RTI regime has declined over time. Habibullah points out several factors responsible for this downturn:

1. Institutional Weakness and Vacancies

  • A large number of posts in the Central Information Commission (CIC) and State Information Commissions (SICs) remain vacant. The Supreme Court, in its January 7, 2025 order, sharply criticized this failure, noting that “what is the use of this institution if you do not have persons to perform duties under the law?”
  • Vacancies have led to:
  • Huge pendency of appeals and complaints.
  • Delay in justice delivery, undermining citizens’ faith in the RTI mechanism.
  • Erosion of autonomy, as governments retain control over appointments.
  • Habibullah argues that this stems from a policy of weakening autonomous institutions, particularly those that ensure accountability.

2. The DPDP Act and Privacy Amendments

  • The Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023, has amended the RTI Act by introducing new privacy restrictions.
  • Earlier, the RTI Act (Section 8(1)(j)) already contained provisions to protect personal privacy, allowing denial of information if it had no relation to public interest.
  • The new amendment, however, overrides the RTI and makes privacy an absolute right, curtailing the scope of disclosure.
  • As Habibullah and other former commissioners like Shailesh Gandhi argue, this has effectively “killed the RTI”, since privacy is now often cited as a reason to deny information — even in matters of clear public interest.

3. Bureaucratic Resistance and Misuse of Discretion

  • Many authorities now refuse or mislead applicants seeking information. RTI applications are sometimes viewed as “acts of indiscipline” when filed by government employees.
  • This bureaucratic resistance has weakened the culture of transparency, turning the law from a tool of empowerment into a procedural formality.

4. Weak Enforcement and Lack of Support Mechanisms

The RTI Act is an information law, not an anti-corruption or grievance redressal mechanism. Its success depends on complementary institutions such as:

  • strong Whistleblower Protection Act, and
  • Effective grievance redressal systems.
  • Their absence has meant that even when RTI exposes corruption, there is no institutional follow-up or protection for whistleblowers.

Decline of Social Audits and Grassroots Oversight

  • One of the most powerful provisions of the RTI Act is the right to inspect works and take samples — crucial for social auditing of government schemes.
    However, Habibullah notes that such grassroots accountability mechanisms have declined in recent years, with fewer cases reported in the media.
  • While social audits continue under programs like MGNREGA, the overall culture of community inspection and verification under RTI has diminished due to administrative pushback and lack of awareness.

Reasons for Weakening of the RTI Framework

The weakening of the RTI can be attributed to a combination of institutional, political, and bureaucratic factors:

  • Delayed and inadequate appointments to commissions.
  • Legislative amendments (like DPDP Act) that curb disclosure.
  • Administrative apathy and reluctance to part with information.
  • Absence of complementary mechanisms for protection and redressal.
  • Political discomfort with transparency in governance.
  • Together, these have led to what many activists call a “systemic throttling” of the RTI.
Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005

 

The Right to Information Act, 2005, which came into full effect on October 12, 2005, empowers citizens to demand information from public authorities, thereby promoting transparency, accountability, and participatory governance in India.

Background and Objectives

  • Rooted in the grassroots movement for transparency led by the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) in Rajasthan.
  • Enacted by Parliament to operationalize the fundamental right to information implicit in Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution (freedom of speech and expression).
  • Aims to:
  • Promote transparency and accountability in public authorities.
  • Empower citizens to fight corruption.
  • Ensure informed participation in democracy.

Key Provisions

  • Section 3: Every citizen has the right to information.
  • Section 4: Public authorities must proactively disclose information (suo motu disclosure).
  • Sections 6 & 7: Procedure for seeking information and time limits for response (30 days generally).
  • Section 8: Exemptions from disclosure (e.g., national security, privacy, trade secrets).
  • Sections 12–17: Establish Central and State Information Commissions as appellate bodies.
  • Section 20: Penalty for refusal or delay in providing information.

Institutional Framework

  • Public Information Officers (PIOs): Appointed in every public authority to receive and process RTI applications.
  • First Appellate Authority (FAA): Senior officer within the same department for first appeal.
  • Central Information Commission (CIC) and State Information Commissions (SICs):
  • Hear second appeals and complaints.
  • Headed by the Chief Information Commissioner.
  • Decisions are binding on public authorities.

The Way Forward:

  • Habibullah emphasizes that the RTI must not be seen as a weapon against the State, but as an instrument for better governance. To rejuvenate the RTI regime, the following steps are crucial:
  • Timely appointment of Information Commissioners and adequate staffing.
  • Strengthening autonomy of information commissions and ensuring enforcement powers.
  • Revisiting the DPDP amendment to restore balance between privacy and transparency.
  • Integration with e-governance — ensuring all public data is proactively disclosed under Section 4.
  • Public awareness and civic education to encourage responsible use of RTI.
  • Protection for whistleblowers and linkages with anti-corruption frameworks.
  • renewed citizens’ movement — similar to the one that birthed the RTI — may be necessary to restore its original purpose.

Conclusion

  • The Right to Information Act, 2005, remains one of independent India’s most empowering pieces of legislation — a cornerstone of democratic accountability.

CARE MCQ

Q3.  With reference to the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, consider the following statements:

  • The RTI Act was enacted to promote transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority.
  • The Central Information Commission (CIC) and State Information Commissions (SICs) are the final appellate authorities under the RTI Act.
  • The 2023 amendment aligning the RTI Act with the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act strengthened the citizens’ access to personal information.
  • The RTI Act includes provisions for inspection of government works and taking of samples to facilitate social audits.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer 3: B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 – Correct: The RTI Act was enacted to promote transparency and accountability in governance.
  • Statement 2 – Correct: The CIC and SICs serve as the final appellate authorities under the Act.
  • Statement 3 – Incorrect: The DPDP amendment has, in fact, restricted access to personal information by making privacy an overriding right.
  • Statement 4 – Correct: The RTI Act empowers citizens to inspect works and take samples, enabling social audits, especially in rural schemes.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India? (2021)

  • Article 15
  • Article 19
  • Article 21
  • Article 29

Ans: (c)

Number of Births Declines; Deaths Rise Slightly: CRS Report 2023

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS2 Social Justice

Context: Births rate Decline

Why in News?

The Vital Statistics of India based on Civil Registration System (CRS) Report 2023 highlights a decline in births, a slight rise in deaths, and near-universal birth registration across India. Background

  • The “Vital Statistics of India based on Civil Registration System (CRS) Report 2023”, released by the Registrar General of India (RGI) on October 13, 2025, provides key insights into the demographic trends of the country.
  • The report reveals a decline in the number of births and a marginal rise in deaths compared to the previous year, highlighting India’s gradual demographic transition.

Birth Statistics: Decline in Total Births

  • Total Births in 2023: 2.52 crore
  • Decline from 2022: 2.32 lakh fewer births
  • This marks a small but significant decline in the birth rate, suggesting ongoing demographic changes such as urbanization, rising education levels, delayed marriages, and increased access to family planning.
  • Registration Coverage
  • Overall Birth Registration: 98.4% (nationwide)
  • Institutional Births: 74.7% of total registered births
  • Note: Data from Sikkim was not included in the report.
  • The near-universal coverage of birth registration reflects a substantial improvement in the functioning of the Civil Registration System (CRS) across the country.

2. Death Statistics: Marginal Increase

  • Total Deaths in 2023: 86.6 lakh
  • Deaths in 2022: 86.5 lakh
  • Deaths in 2021: 102.2 lakh (a spike during the pandemic’s second wave)
  • Deaths in 2020: 81.2 lakh
  • The slight increase in deaths from 2022 to 2023 contrasts sharply with the 21 lakh excess deaths recorded in 2021, a year severely affected by the second wave of COVID-19.
  • Despite over 5.33 lakh officially recorded COVID-19 deaths (as per the Ministry of Health dashboard till May 2025), the CRS data indicates that mortality levels have since stabilized, suggesting a return to pre-pandemic patterns.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Sex Ratio at Birth: Persistent Regional Imbalances

  • The sex ratio at birth (SRB) — the number of female births per 1,000 male births — continues to reflect deep-rooted gender disparities in several states.
  • Lowest SRB States (2023):
StateSex Ratio at Birth
Jharkhand899
Bihar900
Telangana906
Maharashtra909
Gujarat910
Haryana911
Mizoram911
  • Bihar has consistently recorded the lowest sex ratio since 2020, pointing to continued gender bias in prenatal and postnatal care.
  • Highest SRB States (2023):
State / UTSex Ratio at Birth
Arunachal Pradesh1,085
Nagaland1,007
Goa973
Ladakh972
Tripura972
Kerala967
  • The wide variation in SRB underscores regional socio-cultural differences and the need for targeted interventions to promote gender equity.

Timeliness and Quality of Registration

  • The CRS report also highlights significant improvements in the timeliness of registration within the legal window of 21 days.
  • States/UTs with Over 90% Timely Registration:
  • Gujarat, Puducherry, Chandigarh, Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu
  • Tamil Nadu, Lakshadweep, Andaman & Nicobar Islands
  • Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Goa, Punjab
  • States with 80–90% Timely Registration:
  • Odisha, Mizoram, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh
  • States with 50–80% Timely Registration:
  • Assam, Delhi, Madhya Pradesh, Tripura, Telangana, Kerala, Karnataka, Bihar, Rajasthan, J&K, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh
  • This classification shows that while overall registration is high, timely registration remains uneven, particularly in larger and less developed states such as Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Jharkhand.

Significance of the CRS and Policy Implications

  • The Civil Registration System (CRS) serves as the foundation for India’s demographic statistics, enabling accurate estimation of population trends and vital rates like birth rate, death rate, and infant mortality rate.

Policy Implications:

  • The decline in births points toward demographic stabilization, aligning with India’s projected trajectory toward population plateauing by the mid-21st century.
  • The improved registration rates highlight the strengthening of administrative systems and digital governance frameworks.
  • Persistent gender imbalances in SRB emphasize the need for social awareness campaigns and stricter enforcement of the Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act.

CARE MCQ

Q4.  With reference to the Vital Statistics of India based on Civil Registration System (CRS) Report 2023, consider the following statements:

  • The report shows that India registered a decline in the total number of births in 2023 as compared to 2022.
  • Jharkhand recorded the highest sex ratio at birth in 2023, while Bihar recorded the lowest.
  • The overall birth registration rate for 2023 stood at 98.4%.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 4- c

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is Correct: The Vital Statistics of India based on Civil Registration System (CRS) Report 2023 shows that India registered 2.52 crore births in 2023, which is around 2.32 lakh fewer than in 2022. This indicates a decline in the total number of births, reflecting demographic stabilization and socio-economic transitions such as rising education levels, urbanization, and access to family planning.
  • Statement 2 is Incorrect: The report clearly mentions that Jharkhand recorded the lowest sex ratio at birth (899), followed by Bihar (900). The highest sex ratio was reported by Arunachal Pradesh (1,085), not Jharkhand. Hence, this statement is factually wrong.
  • Statement 3 is Correct: The overall registration of births in 2023 stood at 98.4%, indicating near-universal coverage under the Civil Registration System (CRS). This reflects improvements in administrative efficiency and data reliability for demographic planning.

UPSC PYQ

Q. The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as: (2021)

  • the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.
  • the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.
  • the birth rate minus death rate.
  • the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

Answer: (d)

IUCN Lists Western Ghats, Manas and Sundarbans National Parks under ‘Significant Concern’ Category

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Environment and Ecology

Context: IUCN Lists Western Ghats

Why in News?

The IUCN World Heritage Outlook 2025 has downgraded the conservation status of India’s Western Ghats, Manas, and Sundarbans National Parks.

Introduction

  • The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) has placed India’s Western GhatsManas National Park (Assam), and Sundarbans National Park (West Bengal) under the category of “Significant Concern” in its latest World Heritage Outlook 4 report (2025).
  • This assessment highlights increasing environmental stress and management challenges faced by several of India’s natural UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

About the IUCN World Heritage Outlook

  • The IUCN World Heritage Outlook is a global assessment of the conservation status of all natural World Heritage sites.
  • It evaluates each site based on three key parameters:
  • Values – the natural significance of the site;
  • Threats – pressures impacting the site;
  • Management – effectiveness of protection and management efforts.
  • The fourth edition (2025) assessed 63 natural World Heritage sites across Asia (excluding Arab countries).

Conservation Outlook Categories

CategoryMeaningPercentage of Sites (Asia)
GoodSite values are well preserved and maintained.17%
Good with some concernsSite is generally well managed, but some threats exist.51%
Significant concernSite faces serious threats that could deteriorate its values.30%
CriticalSite values are severely threatened and may be irreversibly lost.2%
  • Notably, the Tropical Rainforest Heritage of Sumatra (Indonesia) is the only Asian site rated “Critical” in 2025.

Indian Sites under Each Category

1. ‘Good’

  • Khangchendzonga National Park (Sikkim) – Only Indian site rated “good”, and among 11 in Asia.
  • Recognized for strong conservation measures, limited human disturbance, and community participation in eco-tourism.

2. ‘Good with Some Concerns’

  • Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area (Himachal Pradesh)
  • Kaziranga National Park (Assam)
  • Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan)
  • Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks (Uttarakhand)

3. ‘Significant Concern’

  • Western Ghats
  • Manas National Park (Assam)
  • Sundarbans National Park (West Bengal)

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Reasons for “Significant Concern” Status

1. Western Ghats

  • Loss of Evergreen Forest Cover: Recent analyses show a 5% decline in evergreen forest area.
  • Threats: Encroachment, infrastructure development (roads, railways), mining, and hydropower projects.
  • Biodiversity Impact: Habitat fragmentation threatens endemic species like the lion-tailed macaque and Malabar civet.

2. Manas National Park (Assam)

  • Transboundary Ecosystem: Extends into Bhutan (Royal Manas National Park).
  • Challenges: Poaching, encroachment, invasive species, and developmental pressures in buffer zones.
  • Recovery: Although the park has shown signs of improvement after past disturbances, long-term sustainability remains uncertain.

3. Sundarbans National Park (West Bengal)

  • Transboundary Region: Shared with Bangladesh’s Sundarbans Reserve Forest.
  • Major Threats:
  • Rising sea levels and salinity due to climate change.
  • Mangrove degradation from human settlements and shrimp farming.
  • Cyclones and coastal erosion causing habitat loss for species like the Bengal tiger.

Major Findings of the 2025 Outlook

1. Increasing Threats

  • Climate change has replaced hunting as the most prevalent threat in 2025.
  • Tourism pressure remains the second biggest threat, while invasive alien species have emerged as the third, replacing other older concerns.
  • Infrastructure expansion (roads and railways) is now among the top five threats, reflecting urban and agricultural encroachment.

2. Drivers of Habitat Loss

  • Rapid land use change for agriculture and urban expansion.
  • Deforestationroadkillwaste dumpingillegal logging, and forest fires even within protected zones.
  • Tourism-linked pressures increasing in fragile ecosystems.

3. Declining Management Effectiveness

Management Effectiveness (Asia)20202025
Highly effective5%3%
Mostly effective48%46%
Some concern43%49%
Serious concern4%2%
  • While the number of sites under “serious concern” has slightly declined, those under “some concern” have increased by 6%, indicating growing challenges in site management.

Positive Practices Highlighted

The report cites examples of community engagement and youth involvement in conservation from:

  • Mount Wuyi (China) – education-based eco-awareness programmes.
  • Sinharaja Forest Reserve (Sri Lanka) – integrating local communities in forest protection.
  • Such models are recommended for replication in South Asian World Heritage sites.

India’s Broader Conservation Challenge

  • India, with seven natural World Heritage sites, faces mounting ecological pressures due to:
  • Population density near protected zones,
  • Developmental activities like mining, roads, and tourism, and
  • Climate-induced events (floods, cyclones, forest fires).
  • These highlight the urgent need for better inter-state coordinationcommunity-based conservation, and ecologically sensitive tourism policies.

Conclusion

  • The IUCN’s World Heritage Outlook 2025 serves as a critical environmental warning for India.
    While the country continues to perform well in protecting some natural sites such as Khangchendzonga, others like the Western Ghats, Manas, and Sundarbans demand urgent and targeted conservation interventions.

CARE MCQ

Q5.  Consider the following statements regarding the IUCN World Heritage Outlook 2025:

  • The report assesses the conservation status of all cultural and natural World Heritage sites across the globe.
  • In India, the Western Ghats, Manas National Park, and Sundarbans National Park have been placed under the “Significant Concern” category.
  • Climate change has been identified as the most prevalent threat to Asia’s natural World Heritage sites in 2025.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 5- B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is Incorrect: The IUCN World Heritage Outlook assesses only the natural World Heritage sites, not cultural ones. It evaluates their conservation status based on natural values, threats, and management effectiveness.
  • Statement 2 is Correct: In India, the Western GhatsManas National Park (Assam), and Sundarbans National Park (West Bengal) have been classified as being of “Significant Concern” in the 2025 Outlook report due to increasing ecological and management challenges.
  • Statement 3 is Correct: The 2025 Outlook identifies climate change as the most prevalent threat to Asia’s natural World Heritage sites, replacing hunting (which was the top threat in 2020).
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.  Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora? (2011)

(a) Biosphere Reserve

(b) Botanical Garden

(c) National Park

(d) Wildlife Sanctuary

Ans: (b)

DNA-based census of wild elephants in India Sundarbans Aquaculture Model Wins FAO Global Recognition

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Environment and Ecology

Context: Sundarbans

Why in News?

The Sustainable Aquaculture in Mangrove Ecosystems (SAIME) model developed by the Nature Environment and Wildlife Society (NEWS) in West Bengal’s Sundarbans received Global Technical Recognition from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).

Introduction

  • In a landmark recognition of India’s innovative approach to sustainable development, the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations has conferred Global Technical Recognition upon the Sustainable Aquaculture in Mangrove Ecosystems (SAIME) model developed by the Nature Environment and Wildlife Society (NEWS).
  • The award was presented on October 15, 2025, during the FAO’s 80th Anniversary Celebrations and World Food Forum in Rome, Italy.
  • This recognition highlights India’s commitment to climate-resilient livelihoodsmangrove conservation, and sustainable aquaculture—particularly in ecologically fragile regions like the Sundarbans.

About the SAIME Model

  • The Sustainable Aquaculture in Mangrove Ecosystems (SAIME) model was conceptualized and implemented by the Nature Environment and Wildlife Society (NEWS), a Kolkata-based non-governmental organisation (NGO), in the Sundarbans delta of West Bengal.
  • Core Concept:
  • SAIME integrates aquaculture (particularly shrimp farming) with mangrove restoration to create a win-win model for both ecology and economy. It seeks to:
  • Conserve mangroves,
  • Ensure sustainable fish/shrimp production, and
  • Strengthen coastal community livelihoods in the face of climate change-induced sea-level rise.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Key Features of the SAIME Model

Mangrove-Linked Aquaculture Design

  • Each aquaculture pond under the SAIME model maintains 5%–30% mangrove coverage.
  • Mangroves are planted around pond dykes and shallow zones.
  • Their roots stabilize soil, reduce erosion, and improve water quality.
  • The mangrove litter (leaves and organic matter) serves as natural fodder, reducing dependence on chemical feed.

Community-Based Implementation

  • The project covers 29.84 hectares of farm area involving 42 fish farmers across Chaital (North 24 Parganas) and Madhabpur (South 24 Parganas) districts.
  • The approach is participatory, involving local fishers and communities in decision-making and monitoring.
  • Training is provided on Good Aquaculture Practices (GAPs) and ecosystem-based management.

Economic and Ecological Outcomes

  • Farmers’ net profits increased by over 100%, largely due to reduced feed and chemical costs.
  • The model supports chemical-free shrimp farming, particularly of Black Tiger Shrimp (Penaeus monodon).
  • It enhances carbon sequestrationbiodiversity, and coastal resilience against cyclones and saline intrusion.

Significance of the Model

1. Climate Adaptation and Resilience

  • The Sundarbans, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, faces severe threats from rising sea levels, coastal erosion, and frequent cyclones. By integrating mangroves with aquaculture:
  • The SAIME model helps stabilize coastlines,
  • Acts as a natural barrier against storm surges, and
  • Mitigates the impacts of climate change.

2. Sustainable Livelihoods

  • Traditional shrimp monoculture is input-intensive and environmentally degrading. SAIME provides an eco-friendly alternative, reducing input costs and providing stable income to marginal farmers.

3. Biodiversity Conservation

  • Mangroves act as nurseries for fish, crabs, and shrimps, enhancing local biodiversity.
    They also store “blue carbon” — carbon captured by oceanic and coastal ecosystems — contributing to India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement.

4. Replicable and Scalable Model

  • Experts consider SAIME a replicable model for other tropical deltaic regions like Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and Southeast Asia, where aquaculture and mangroves coexist.

FAO’s Global Technical Recognition

The FAO’s recognition validates SAIME as a global best practice in:

  • Ecosystem-based aquaculture,
  • Community participation, and
  • Sustainable coastal management.
  • It aligns with FAO’s global agenda on:
  • Blue Transformation Initiative – promoting sustainable aquaculture,
  • Climate-Smart Agriculture, and
  • Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly:
  • SDG 13: Climate Action
  • SDG 14: Life Below Water
  • SDG 15: Life on Land
  • SDG 1 & 2: No Poverty and Zero Hunger

Policy Relevance for India

The success of SAIME holds important lessons for India’s Blue Economy Vision 2047 and National Fisheries Policy:

  • Encourages nature-based solutions (NbS) for livelihood security.
  • Strengthens India’s role in sustainable aquaculture and mangrove conservation.
  • Can be integrated into coastal zone management plansFisheries and Aquaculture Infrastructure Development Fund (FIDF), and MANGROVE Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) launched under the Union Budget 2023-24.

Challenges and the Way Forward

  • Despite its success, scaling up the model faces certain challenges:
  • Need for larger institutional support and financial incentives.
  • Monitoring and enforcement to prevent land-use changes due to unsustainable shrimp farming.
  • Strengthening community capacity building and ensuring market access for sustainably farmed shrimp.
  • Way Forward:
  • Integrate SAIME principles into national coastal development schemes.
  • Promote carbon credit mechanisms for mangrove-linked aquaculture.
  • Establish public-private partnerships (PPP) for large-scale replication.
  • Encourage research and innovation in climate-resilient aquaculture.

Conclusion

  • The FAO’s global recognition of the SAIME model reaffirms India’s capability to harmonize economic development with ecological conservation.

CARE MCQ

Q6. With reference to the Sustainable Aquaculture in Mangrove Ecosystems (SAIME) model recently recognized by the FAO, consider the following statements:

  • The SAIME model integrates mangrove conservation with shrimp aquaculture to promote sustainable and climate-adaptive livelihoods.
  • It ensures 5%–30% mangrove coverage in aquaculture ponds to enhance biodiversity and reduce production costs.
  • The model was developed by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) and implemented in Odisha’s coastal districts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 6-B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Sustainable Aquaculture in Mangrove Ecosystems (SAIME) model integrates mangrove conservation with shrimp aquaculture, providing a climate-adaptive and livelihood-oriented approach in the Sundarbans region of West Bengal. It aims to balance economic gains with ecosystem protection.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Under the SAIME model, aquaculture ponds maintain 5%–30% mangrove coverage. The mangrove litter serves as natural fodder, helping reduce input costs while enhancing biodiversity, soil stability, and carbon sequestration.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The model was developed by the Nature Environment and Wildlife Society (NEWS), a Kolkata-based NGO, not by ICAR. It is implemented in West Bengal’s Sundarbans—specifically in Chaital (North 24 Parganas) and Madhabpur (South 24 Parganas)—not in Odisha.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.  If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply? (2014)

(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.

(b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilometers from the edge of the wetland.

(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed.

(d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site.’

Ans: (a)

TGPSC CARE 17th October 2025 Current Affairs
TGPSC CARE 15th October 2025 Current Affairs
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