TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice

UPSC

2026 Preparation Guide

Category: TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice September 2026

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 1st September 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding MPLADS:

It is a Central Sector Scheme administered by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
Members of Parliament directly receive and spend the funds allocated under the scheme.
It supports the creation of durable community assets based on locally felt needs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

2 / 3

2) Match the following institutions with their Technology Translation Research Park domains:

IIT Kanpur — Cybersecurity
IISc Bengaluru — Robotics and AI
IIT Indore — Digital healthcare
IIT (ISM) Dhanbad — Mining technologies

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation: Each of the four institutions specialises in the correctly matched CPS domain.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding NM-ICPS:

It is implemented by the Department of Science and Technology.
Technology Innovation Hubs under the Mission operate as Section 8 companies.
The Mission deals exclusively with cybersecurity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Mission covers healthcare, agriculture, mining, communication, robotics, mobility and cybersecurity.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 2nd September 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding Gollalagudi:

It is located at Palampet in Mulugu district.
It is a Trikutalaya containing three sanctums.
It is situated southwest of the Ramappa Temple.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Gollalagudi is located at Palampet village in Mulugu district, Telangana.
Statement 2 is correct: The temple is a Trikutalaya, meaning a temple with three garbhagrihas or sanctums. These sanctums surround an east-facing mandapa.
Statement 3 is correct: Gollalagudi is situated to the southwest of the Kakatiya Rudreshwara Temple, popularly known as the Ramappa Temple, at Palampet.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding time-synchronisation technologies:

NTP generally provides millisecond-level accuracy.
PTP can provide microsecond-level accuracy within local networks.
NavIC is entirely dependent on GPS for its timing reference.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NTP commonly provides millisecond-level synchronisation through network servers.
Statement 2 is correct: PTP offers microsecond-level accuracy and works effectively within local area networks.
Statement 3 is incorrect: NavIC is India’s independent navigation system, with timing traceable to IST through CSIR-NPL and ISRO’s ground infrastructure.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding the Legal Metrology (Indian Standard Time) Rules, 2026:

They make IST the legal reference for official and commercial purposes.
They require every organisation to maintain its own atomic clock.
They provide a 180-day transition period.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Rules make IST compulsory for legal, administrative, commercial and other official purposes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Organisations may synchronise through approved NTP, PTP, satellite or other timing services. They need not maintain their own atomic clocks.
Statement 3 is correct: A transition period of 180 days has been provided for necessary system changes.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 3rd September 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding Telangana’s proposed critical-minerals partnership:

It involves Monash University, IIT Hyderabad and SCCL.
It will focus only on mineral exploration.
It includes the recovery of critical minerals from waste.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement-wise Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The proposed collaboration brings together Monash University, IIT Hyderabad and Singareni Collieries Company Limited.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Its scope extends beyond exploration to extraction, processing, refining, recycling and technology commercialisation.
Statement 3 is correct: Recovery of critical minerals from waste is one of the proposed areas of cooperation. Top of Form

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Nancy Grace Roman Space Telescope:

It is primarily a wide-field infrared space observatory.
It will operate near the Sun–Earth Lagrange Point 2.
Its principal objective is to transport astronauts beyond the Solar System.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement-wise Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Roman is an infrared telescope designed to conduct wide-field surveys of the universe.
Statement 2 is correct: It will operate near the Sun–Earth L2 region, which provides stable observing conditions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is an astronomical observatory, not a human-spaceflight mission.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding mangroves:

Pneumatophores enable respiration in waterlogged soil.
Vivipary means that seeds germinate while attached to the parent plant.
Mangrove carbon is stored exclusively in above-ground vegetation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement-wise Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Pneumatophores rise above waterlogged soil and facilitate gaseous exchange.
Statement 2 is correct: In vivipary, seeds begin germinating while attached to the parent plant.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Mangroves store carbon in both vegetation and soil. A major proportion is generally stored below ground in sediments.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 4th September 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding South Central Railway:

It was established in 1966.
Its headquarters is located in Secunderabad.
It presently consists of six divisions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement-wise Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SCR was established on October 2, 1966.
Statement 2 is correct: Its headquarters is in Secunderabad.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It presently has three divisions—Secunderabad, Hyderabad and Nanded.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following pairs:

Scheme	Principal Support
1. AIF	Financing and interest subvention for agricultural infrastructure
2. AMI	Capital subsidy for storage infrastructure
3. SMAM	Agricultural machinery and Custom Hiring Centres
4. PMFME	Formalisation of micro food-processing enterprises

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Statement-wise Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched: AIF supports the creation and upgrading of post-harvest infrastructure through financing and interest subvention.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: AMI provides back-ended capital subsidy for storage facilities.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: SMAM supports farm machinery and Custom Hiring Centres.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: PMFME promotes the formalisation and growth of micro food-processing enterprises.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding the Decentralised Grain Storage Plan:

The National Cooperative Development Corporation is its implementing agency.
It creates integrated agricultural infrastructure primarily at the PACS level.
It operates exclusively through a newly created central subsidy scheme.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement-wise Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The National Cooperative Development Corporation is responsible for implementing the plan.
Statement 2 is correct: Storage, procurement, processing and other facilities are created at the PACS level.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The plan works through the convergence of existing schemes such as AIF, AMI, SMAM and PMFME.

Your score is

Category: TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice August 2026

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 3rd August 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding Telangana’s defence MSME ecosystem:

Telangana’s defence and aerospace MSME base has grown significantly since 2016.
Hyderabad’s defence ecosystem is supported by DRDO laboratories, defence PSUs and global manufacturers.
MSMEs have no role in India’s defence export growth.
Testing and certification infrastructure is important for defence MSMEs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Telangana’s MSME base has grown from around 400 to nearly 1,500–2,000.
Statement 2 is correct: Hyderabad has DRDO labs, defence PSUs and global aerospace companies.
Statement 3 is incorrect: MSMEs are crucial for defence manufacturing and exports.
Statement 4 is correct: Defence products need specialised testing and certification.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding government school closures in India:

School closures are often justified on the ground of rationalisation.
The Right to Education Act recognises the importance of neighbourhood schools.
Closure of nearby schools can disproportionately affect girls and children from poor households.
Education is exclusively a State List subject.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. School closures are often done in the name of rationalisation, but they can weaken access to neighbourhood schools and disproportionately hurt poor children and girls.

Statement 4 is incorrect because education is in the Concurrent List, not exclusively in the State List.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding India’s solar energy initiatives:

PM Surya Sarovar Yojana aims to support floating solar projects with energy storage.
PM Surya Ghar promotes rooftop solar adoption among households.
PM-KUSUM promotes solar energy use in agriculture.
ALMM is related to quality assurance for solar PV modules and cells.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

1, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

All four statements are correct. PM Surya Sarovar focuses on floating solar with storage, PM Surya Ghar promotes rooftop solar, PM-KUSUM supports solar energy in agriculture, and ALMM ensures quality assurance for approved solar PV models and manufacturers.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 4th August 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding Telangana and India’s floating solar push:

Telangana is currently outside the list of beneficiary States under the Centre’s Solar Parks Scheme.
PM Surya Sarovar Yojana aims to develop 5,000 MW of floating solar projects.
Floating solar projects can reduce pressure on land availability.
Telangana has no major reservoirs suitable for floating solar consideration.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Telangana is not among Solar Parks Scheme beneficiaries mentioned in the report, PM-SSY aims at 5,000 MW floating solar, and floating solar reduces land pressure.

Statement 4 is incorrect because Telangana has major reservoirs such as Sriramsagar and Nagarjunasagar, which can be explored for floating solar.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026:

It increases the number of puisne judges from 33 to 37.
Including the Chief Justice of India, the sanctioned strength becomes 38.
The Bill amends the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956.
The number of Supreme Court judges is permanently fixed by the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Bill increases puisne judges from 33 to 37, making the total strength 38 including the CJI, and amends the 1956 Act.

Statement 4 is incorrect because Article 124(1) allows Parliament to prescribe the number of Supreme Court judges by law.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding India’s strategy against Left-Wing Extremism:

The National Policy and Action Plan to address LWE was approved in 2015.
The strategy combined security operations with infrastructure development and welfare delivery.
CoBRA, DRG and Greyhounds have been part of the specialised security architecture against LWE.
The rehabilitation policy discourages surrendered cadres from joining the mainstream.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. India’s anti-LWE policy was based on a coordinated strategy involving security, development, welfare and specialised forces.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the rehabilitation policy encourages surrendered cadres to return to mainstream society.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 5th August 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding sickle cell disease:

It is an inherited haemoglobin disorder.
It causes red blood cells to become sickle or crescent shaped.
It can lead to anaemia, painful episodes and organ damage.
It is caused by bacterial infection and spreads through contaminated water.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Sickle cell disease is an inherited haemoglobin disorder in which red blood cells become sickle-shaped, causing anaemia, pain crises and organ-related complications.

Statement 4 is incorrect because sickle cell disease is genetic, not a bacterial or water-borne disease.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Environmental Performance Index 2026:

It evaluates countries on environmental performance using multiple sustainability indicators.
Estonia ranked first in the EPI 2026.
India ranked 176th out of 177 countries.
The index is released by Germanwatch.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. EPI ranks countries on environmental performance, Estonia topped the 2026 index, and India ranked 176th out of 177 countries.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the EPI is developed by Yale and Columbia-linked institutions, not Germanwatch. Germanwatch releases the Climate Risk Index and is also associated with the Climate Change Performance Index.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding Geographical Indication tags in India:

GI products in India are governed by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
Darjeeling Tea was the first Indian product to receive a GI tag.
The GI Registry is located in Chennai.
GI registration is valid permanently and does not require renewal.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. GI protection in India is governed by the GI Act, 1999, Darjeeling Tea was India’s first GI-tagged product, and the GI Registry is located in Chennai.

Statement 4 is incorrect because GI registration is valid for 10 years and can be renewed.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 6th August 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding BharatSHRI Portal:

It has been launched by the Archaeological Survey of India.
It provides digital access to epigraphical records.
It includes metadata records, transcripts and digitised estampages.
It is a paid portal meant only for ASI officials.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. BharatSHRI is an ASI portal that provides access to epigraphical records, including metadata, transcripts and digitised estampages.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the portal provides free access and is meant for researchers, scholars and the general public.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding India’s electric vehicle ecosystem:

The FAME India Scheme was launched under the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan framework.
The PM E-DRIVE Scheme supports EV adoption and charging infrastructure.
EVs attract a concessional GST rate of 5% in India.
Battery Electric Vehicles use only hydrogen fuel cells and do not require batteries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. FAME India was launched under the NEMMP framework, PM E-DRIVE supports EV adoption and charging infrastructure, and EVs attract 5% GST.

Statement 4 is incorrect because Battery Electric Vehicles are powered by batteries, not hydrogen fuel cells.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding critical minerals:

Critical minerals are essential for clean energy, semiconductors, defence and advanced manufacturing.
India has identified 30 critical minerals.
Critical minerals are important only for fossil fuel-based industries.
Rare earth elements are used in permanent magnets and wind turbines.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Critical minerals are important for clean energy, defence, electronics and advanced manufacturing. India has identified 30 critical minerals, and rare earths are used in magnets and wind turbines. Statement 3 is incorrect because critical minerals are central to clean energy and advanced technologies, not only fossil fuel industries.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 11th August 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding Telangana’s cybercrime response system:

Telangana ranked first nationally in a PRAGATI review on cybercrime response.
The assessment considered platforms developed by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre.
The Money Restoration Module helps victims seek restoration of eligible frozen cyber-fraud funds.
The Sahyog Portal is used only for irrigation project monitoring.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Telangana ranked first in the national review, the assessment covered I4C platforms, and the Money Restoration Module supports restoration of eligible frozen cyber-fraud money.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the Sahyog Portal is related to removal or disabling of unlawful online content, not irrigation monitoring.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding the e-Courts Mission Mode Project:

The National Judicial Data Grid provides real-time information on pending and disposed cases.
NSTEP enables GPS-tracked electronic service of summons and notices.
e-Sewa Kendras assist citizens in accessing digital court services.
AI tools under the e-Courts Mission are meant to replace judges in decision-making.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. NJDG provides case-related data, NSTEP enables GPS-based summons tracking, and e-Sewa Kendras help citizens access digital court services.

Statement 4 is incorrect because AI tools are meant to assist judicial processes such as transcription, translation, research and filing scrutiny; they do not replace judges.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding the Makkah Joint Defence Agreement:

It was signed by Saudi Arabia, Türkiye and Pakistan.
It states that an armed attack on one member will be regarded as an attack on all three.
It is identical to NATO because its detailed operational obligations are fully public.
It may affect India’s strategic interests in West Asia and the western Indian Ocean.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The pact involves Saudi Arabia, Türkiye and Pakistan, contains a collective-defence clause and has implications for India’s strategic interests.

Statement 3 is incorrect because it should not be treated as identical to NATO; the detailed operational commitments of the pact are not publicly clear.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 12th August 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Hariti sculpture:

It is a fourth-century limestone sculpture preserved in the Telangana State Museum.
In Buddhist tradition, Hariti is associated with protection of children.
It was displayed at the exhibition “One Mother, Many Mother Tongues”.
Hariti is mainly associated with Harappan civilisation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The sculpture is a fourth-century limestone artefact, preserved in the Telangana State Museum, and Hariti is linked with Buddhist ideas of child protection and motherhood.

Statement 4 is incorrect because Hariti belongs to Buddhist tradition, not Harappan civilisation.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding creamy layer and SC/ST reservations:

The creamy layer concept was introduced for OBC reservations through the Indra Sawhney judgment.
The Centre has argued that SC/ST disadvantage cannot be equated with mere economic backwardness.
Articles 341 and 342 relate to the notification of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Creamy layer exclusion currently applies automatically to SC/ST reservations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Creamy layer emerged from Indra Sawhney for OBCs; the Centre argues that SC/ST disadvantage is not merely economic; and Articles 341 and 342 deal with SC/ST lists.

Statement 4 is incorrect because creamy layer exclusion does not currently apply automatically to SC/ST reservations.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding PM MITRA Parks:

PM MITRA stands for PM Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel.
The scheme has approved seven textile parks across Greenfield and Brownfield sites.
PM MITRA is inspired by the 5F vision: Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign.
The scheme is limited only to software parks and has no link with the textile sector.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. PM MITRA relates to integrated textile parks and is based on the 5F textile value-chain vision.

Statement 4 is incorrect because PM MITRA is directly related to the textile and apparel sector, not software parks.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 14th August 2026

1 / 3

1) The recently discovered inscription at Mulkanoor in Hanamkonda district belongs to which historical period?

Satavahana period

Kakatiya period

Kalyani Chalukya period

Vijayanagara period

Explanation

A 10th-century inscription was discovered at Mulkanoor in Bheemadevarapalli mandal of Hanamkonda district.

It records a land donation and belongs to the Kalyani Chalukya-era. The inscription is written in Telugu-Kannada script and Kannada language.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following pairs regarding core practices under Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF):

Practice	Purpose
1. Jeevamrutha	Revives beneficial soil microbes
2. Bijamrutha	Protects seeds from fungal and soil-borne diseases
3. Acchadana	Covers topsoil to reduce irrigation requirement
4. Waaphasa	Maintains air-moisture balance in the root zone

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct: Jeevamrutha is a fermented microbial culture that improves beneficial soil microbes and helps nutrient availability.
Pair 2 is correct: Bijamrutha is used as a seed-treatment mixture to protect sprouting seeds from fungal and soil-borne diseases.
Pair 3 is correct: Acchadana means mulching, where straw, leaves or live intercrops cover the soil and reduce irrigation needs.
Pair 4 is correct: Waaphasa refers to maintaining the right balance of air and moisture in the root zone.

Therefore, all four pairs are correctly matche

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding India’s energy sector:

India’s total installed power capacity reached around 552 GW in July 2026.
India’s non-fossil capacity crossed 300 GW and accounted for more than half of total installed capacity.
PM Surya Ghar aims to promote rooftop solar among households.
GOBARdhan is designed only for imported crude oil refining.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. India’s installed capacity reached around 552 GW, non-fossil capacity crossed 300 GW, and PM Surya Ghar promotes rooftop solar.

Statement 4 is incorrect because GOBARdhan converts organic waste into bioenergy and supports a circular bioeconomy.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 13th August 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding PM POSHAN:

PM POSHAN was formerly known as the Mid-Day Meal Scheme.
It is implemented by the Ministry of Education.
It provides one hot cooked meal to eligible children in Balvatika and Classes I to VIII in government and government-aided schools.
The scheme is implemented only for university students.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. PM POSHAN was earlier known as the Mid-Day Meal Scheme, is implemented by the Ministry of Education, and covers eligible children in Balvatika and Classes I to VIII.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the scheme is for school children, not university students.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding India’s ship recycling sector:

India became the world’s leading ship recycling nation in 2025.
The Alang-Sosiya cluster accounts for about 98% of India’s ship recycling activity.
The Ship Recycling Act, 2019 designates the Directorate General of Shipping as the National Authority.
The Hong Kong Convention deals only with inland water transport and not ship recycling.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. India became the leading ship recycling nation in 2025; Alang-Sosiya dominates India’s ship recycling activity; and the Ship Recycling Act, 2019 designates the Directorate General of Shipping as the National Authority.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the Hong Kong Convention is the principal global framework for safe and environmentally sound ship recycling.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding GOBARdhan and Compressed Biogas:

GOBARdhan stands for Galvanising Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan.
Compressed Biogas is produced after purifying and compressing biogas.
CBG has properties similar to Compressed Natural Gas and can be used as a vehicle and industrial fuel.
GOBARdhan is based only on imported fossil fuel and does not use organic waste.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. GOBARdhan uses organic waste resources to produce CBG, which is similar to CNG in properties and can be used as a clean fuel.

Statement 4 is incorrect because GOBARdhan is designed to convert organic waste such as agricultural residue, cattle dung and municipal organic waste into energy.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 17th August 2026

1 / 3

1) With reference to historic forts in erstwhile Karimnagar, consider the following statements:

Elgandal Hill Fort overlooks the Manair River.
Molangur Fort was built as a transit halt between Warangal Fort and Elgandal Fort.
Ramagiri Khilla is located in Peddapalli district.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Elgandal Hill Fort is located near Elgandal village and is perched on hillocks overlooking the Manair River.

Statement 2 is correct: Molangur Fort was constructed during the Kakatiya period by Voragiri Moggaraju, an officer of Kakatiya ruler Pratapa Rudra. It served as a transit halt between Warangal Fort and Elgandal Fort.

Statement 3 is correct: Ramagiri Khilla is located near Begampet in Peddapalli district and is one of the ancient forts of the erstwhile Karimnagar region

2 / 3

2) With reference to India’s space sector reforms, consider the following statements:

IN-SPACe enables private space activities through a single-window mechanism.
NSIL is the commercial arm of ISRO.
The Indian Space Policy 2023 expanded private participation across the space value chain.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: IN-SPACe enables private space activities through a single-window mechanism.

Statement 2 is correct: NSIL is the commercial arm of ISRO and provides launch, satellite and space-based services.

Statement 3 is correct: Indian Space Policy 2023 expanded private participation across the space value chain.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

3 / 3

3) With reference to India’s cultural heritage initiatives, consider the following statements:

Adopt a Heritage 2.0 was launched to develop visitor-friendly amenities at Protected Monuments of National Importance.
Gyan Bharatam Mission focuses on preserving and digitising India’s manuscript heritage.
National Film Heritage Mission aims to preserve and restore India’s cinematic heritage.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Adopt a Heritage 2.0 was launched in September 2023 to develop and maintain visitor-friendly amenities at Protected Monuments of National Importance.

Statement 2 is correct: Gyan Bharatam Mission focuses on preserving, digitising and promoting access to India’s manuscript heritage.

Statement 3 is correct: National Film Heritage Mission was launched to preserve, digitise and restore India’s cinematic heritage.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 18th August 2026

1 / 3

1) With reference to historic forts in erstwhile Karimnagar, consider the following statements:

Elgandal Hill Fort overlooks the Manair River.
Molangur Fort was built as a transit halt between Warangal Fort and Elgandal Fort.
Ramagiri Khilla is located in Peddapalli district.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Elgandal Hill Fort is located near Elgandal village and is perched on hillocks overlooking the Manair River.

Statement 3 is correct: Ramagiri Khilla is located near Begampet in Peddapalli district and is one of the ancient forts of the erstwhile Karimnagar region

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Taxi:

Bharat Taxi is India’s first cooperative-led ride-hailing platform.
It was established under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002.
The platform follows a zero-commission and surge-free pricing model.
Sarathis are not allowed to participate in ownership or governance of the platform.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Bharat Taxi is a cooperative-led ride-hailing platform established under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002, and follows a zero-commission, surge-free model.

Statement 4 is incorrect because Sarathis can become member-owners and participate in the cooperative governance structure.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding forest fires in India:

Forest fires are broadly classified into ground, surface and crown fires.
Forest Survey of India issues satellite-based forest fire alerts.
Chir pine needles are highly inflammable and can increase fire risk in the Himalayas.
Crown fires are the most common type of forest fire in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Forest fires are classified into ground, surface and crown fires. The Forest Survey of India provides satellite-based alerts, and dry chir pine needles increase fire risk.

Statement 4 is incorrect because crown fires are comparatively rare in India.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 19th August 2026

1 / 3

1) Which Mughal emperor bestowed a ceremonial robe on Sarvai Papanna?

Aurangzeb

Jahangir

Bahadur Shah

Shah Jahan

Sarvai Papanna, also known as Papadu, was a prominent local warrior and folk hero of Telangana in the early 18th century. He challenged Mughal authority by organising a large armed force and carrying out attacks on wealthy groups, caravans and fortified towns.

However, at one stage, he gained formal recognition from the Mughal emperor Bahadur Shah. According to the passage, Bahadur Shah bestowed a ceremonial robe on Sarvai Papanna after he provided ₹14,00,000 and provisions for the imperial army.

2 / 3

2) With reference to NASA’s Moon Base Programme, consider the following statements:

It aims to create a permanent research station on the Moon.
It is expected to support astronauts and robots for prolonged lunar missions.
It is designed only for short-term symbolic Moon landings.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Moon Base Programme aims to establish a permanent research station on the Moon.
Statement 2 is correct: It is planned for long-duration stay and work by astronauts and robots.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is not merely a short-term landing mission like Apollo; it is a long-term lunar settlement and research initiative.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding India’s coconut sector:

India ranks first in global coconut production.
Tamil Nadu has the largest area under coconut cultivation in India.
Andhra Pradesh records the highest coconut productivity in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation: India ranks first globally in coconut production. Kerala, not Tamil Nadu, has the largest area under cultivation. Tamil Nadu leads in total production, while Andhra Pradesh records the highest productivity.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 20th August 2026

1 / 3

1) With reference to Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, consider the following statements:

It is conducted by the Election Commission of India for large-scale revision of electoral rolls.
Its legal basis includes Article 324 of the Constitution and Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
It aims to include eligible voters and remove duplicate, deceased and ineligible entries.
It is only a routine summary revision without house-to-house verification.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SIR is a large-scale revision of electoral rolls carried out by the Election Commission of India.
Statement 2 is correct: It is based on the ECI’s powers under Article 324 and Section 21(3) of the RPA, 1950.
Statement 3 is correct: Its objective is to include all eligible citizens aged 18+ and remove duplicates, deceased persons and ineligible entries.
Statement 4 is incorrect: SIR is not merely a routine summary revision. It involves intensive steps such as fresh enumeration, house-to-house verification by BLOs and document verification.

2 / 3

2) With reference to Makhana, consider the following statements:

Makhana is scientifically known as Euryale ferox.
The edible part of the makhana plant is its seed.
In India, it is mainly cultivated in Bihar, West Bengal and Assam.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Makhana is scientifically known as Euryale ferox.
Statement 2 is correct: The edible part of the plant is its seed, which is roasted or processed and consumed as fox nut.
Statement 3 is correct: In India, makhana cultivation is mainly concentrated in Bihar, West Bengal and Assam, supported by suitable wetlands, ponds and shallow water bodies.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding solar irrigation in India:

Grid-connected solar irrigation can incentivise farmers to save water by allowing them to sell surplus electricity to the grid.
PM-KUSUM has helped make solar pumps affordable through subsidies.
Solar irrigation outcomes depend only on the source of energy and not on local hydrogeology or cropping patterns.
Standalone solar pumps may be suitable in areas with poor grid access and low groundwater risk.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 1 is correct:
In grid-connected solar irrigation, farmers can use solar power for pumping water and sell the unused electricity back to the grid. If a farmer pumps less water, more electricity remains available for sale. This creates an incentive to save water and earn income.

Statement 2 is correct:
PM-KUSUM supports solar pumps through subsidies. This has made solar irrigation more affordable for farmers, especially small and marginal farmers.

Statement 3 is incorrect:
Solar irrigation outcomes do not depend only on the source of energy. They also depend on local factors such as groundwater availability, water-table depth, soil type, cropping pattern, crop water demand and local irrigation practices. For example, solar pumps may have different effects in Punjab, Haryana and eastern India.

Statement 4 is correct:
Standalone solar pumps can be useful in areas where farmers do not have reliable electricity and where groundwater is not under serious stress. In such regions, solar pumps can improve irrigation access without immediately worsening groundwater depletion.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 21st August 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Dundigal inscription:

It is composed in Kannada using the Telugu–Kannada script.
It belongs to the reign of Vikramaditya VI.
It records a donation connected with a Jain religious establishment.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

The 41-line Kannada inscription uses Telugu–Kannada script and records a land donation associated with a Jain basadi during Vikramaditya VI’s reign.

2 / 3

2) With reference to India’s defence procurement framework, consider the following statements:

The Defence Acquisition Council grants Acceptance of Necessity for major capital acquisitions.
The Defence Procurement Manual 2025 primarily deals with revenue procurement.
Positive Indigenisation Lists require every listed item to be procured exclusively from Defence Public Sector Undertakings.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: The DAC is the apex procurement body and grants Acceptance of Necessity for major defence acquisitions.
Statement 2 is correct: DPM 2025 streamlines revenue procurement required for the operation and maintenance of the armed forces.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Positive Indigenisation Lists require procurement from domestic sources. They do not restrict procurement only to Defence Public Sector Undertakings; eligible private Indian companies may also participate.

3 / 3

3) With reference to the Gaganyaan Crew Module, consider the following statements:

Its Thermal Protection System forms part of its unpressurised external structure.
Its Service Module is intended to accompany the Crew Module through atmospheric re-entry and splashdown.
Its ablative shield protects it partly through chemical decomposition and outgassing.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Crew Module has a pressurised inner structure and an unpressurised external structure carrying the TPS.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Service Module provides propulsion, power and other support in orbit but separates before the Crew Module completes atmospheric re-entry.
Statement 3 is correct: Ablative material absorbs heat, decomposes, forms char and releases gases that reduce heat transfer.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 24th August 2026

1 / 3

1) With reference to Telangana’s new telecom framework, consider the following statements:

All RoW applications must be processed through the DoT Telecom e-Services Portal.
Telecom networks installed below a property may be included in its property-tax assessment.
BharatNet has been notified as a special project.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Exclusive portal-based processing has been made mandatory.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Telecom networks installed on, over or under property must be excluded from property-tax assessment.
Statement 3 is correct: BharatNet has received special-project status.

2 / 3

2) With reference to regenerative agriculture, consider the following statements:

It seeks to restore degraded soil and ecosystem functions.
It requires complete exclusion of livestock from farms.
Maintaining continuous soil cover is one of its principles.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Regenerative agriculture actively rebuilds soil health and ecological functions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Livestock integration is an important principle of regenerative farming.
Statement 3 is correct: Continuous soil cover reduces erosion and supports soil health.

3 / 3

3) With reference to the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, consider the following statements:

Section 2 protects the National Flag and the Constitution against specified forms of public disrespect.
Section 3, as amended in 2026, covers both the National Anthem and the National Song.
Section 3A prescribes a minimum one-year imprisonment for every first conviction under Section 3.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Section 2 protects the Flag and Constitution from specified acts of insult.
Statement 2 is correct: The amendment extended Section 3 to Vande Mataram.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The minimum one-year imprisonment applies to second and subsequent convictions.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 25th August 2026

1 / 3

1) With reference to the 2026 Environmental Performance Index, consider the following statements:

India ranked 176th among 177 countries.
India performed better in ecosystem vitality than in climate change.
Estonia secured the highest overall position.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: India ranked 176th, placing it second from the bottom.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India ranked 171st in ecosystem vitality but comparatively better at 130th in climate change.
Statement 3 is correct: Estonia topped the index.

2 / 3

2) Which one of the following best explains UPI’s interoperability?

Transactions are permitted only within the same bank.

Every bank requires a separate mobile phone.

Users of different banks and applications can transact through common payment rails.

Payments can be made only through credit cards.

Explanation: Interoperability allows transactions across participating banks and payment applications.

3 / 3

3) Which one of the following best describes functional DNA screening?

Checking only whether DNA resembles a known pathogen

Assessing the biological activity a novel sequence may perform

Sequencing only naturally occurring genomes

Prohibiting all synthetic-biology research

Functional screening considers what a sequence may do, even if it does not resemble a known pathogen.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 26th August 2026

1 / 3

1) With reference to Telangana’s proposed fort-development initiative, consider the following statements:

It covers 11 historic forts in its initial list.
The entire fort areas will be transferred permanently to private investors.
Developed tourism facilities will return to the government after a defined period.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Eleven forts have initially been identified.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The proposal does not envisage permanently handing over the forts. Most areas would remain public heritage spaces.
Statement 3 is correct: The developed facilities would be transferred back to the government after the agreed period.

2 / 3

2) Which of the following statements about FSSAI’s recent action on food claims is correct?

FSSAI checks only the safety of ingredients, not food advertisements.

FSSAI can act against misleading food claims made on labels, advertisements and e-commerce listings.

Food companies can use terms like “100% pure” without any evidence.

E-commerce food listings are outside the control of FSSAI.

FSSAI is tightening rules because food companies often use claims like “100% pure,” “healthy,” “natural,” “energy” or “immunity-boosting” to influence consumers. These claims must be supported by proper evidence. FSSAI can examine not only physical product labels but also advertisements, online product pages and e-commerce listings.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Security Council:

The UNSC has five permanent members and ten non-permanent members.
Non-permanent members are elected by the UN General Assembly for two-year terms.
India is campaigning for a UNSC non-permanent seat for the 2028-29 term.
Non-permanent members of the UNSC have veto power.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The UNSC has 5 permanent members and 10 non-permanent members. Non-permanent members are elected by the UN General Assembly for two-year terms. India is campaigning for the 2028-29 non-permanent seat.

Statement 4 is incorrect because only the five permanent members have veto power. Non-permanent members do not have veto power.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 27th August 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements about Telangana’s partnership with Korea National Sport University:

It involves the Young India Physical Education and Sports University.
It focuses on athlete training and sports science.
KNSU-trained athletes contributed half of South Korea’s medals at the Paris Olympics.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Young India Sports University signed the MoU.
Statement 2 is correct: Athlete training, sports science and high-performance education are its focus areas.
Statement 3 is correct: KNSU-trained athletes won 16 of South Korea’s 32 Paris Olympics medals.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements about the draft Small River Rejuvenation Framework:

It was unveiled under the National Mission for Clean Ganga.
It relies exclusively on large engineering structures.
It recognises different challenges for urban and rural rivers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: The framework was unveiled under the NMCG.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It prioritises cost-effective, nature-based ecological solutions.
Statement 3 is correct: It recognises that urban and rural rivers require different approaches.

3 / 3

3) With reference to the MMDR Amendment Act, 2026, consider the following statements:

It inserts Section 9D into the MMDR Act, 1957.
It completely prohibits States from imposing any mineral-related levy under all circumstances.
It does not require a refund of levies already collected before its commencement.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Section 9D restricts State taxation of mineral rights and mineral-bearing land.
Statement 2 is incorrect: States may impose levies subject to conditions or restrictions prescribed by the Centre.
Statement 3 is correct: Amounts already recovered are not refundable.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 31st August 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements about the Nandivanaparti Siddeshwara Temple Inscription:

It was written in Telugu-Kannada script.
Its language is Kannada.
It contains a prasasti of Vikramaditya VI.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: The inscription uses 11th-century Telugu-Kannada script.
Statement 2 is correct: Its language is Kannada.
Statement 3 is correct: Its first side contains a prasasti of Tribhuvanamalla Vikramaditya VI. Top of Form

2 / 3

2) With reference to the Aranmula Uthrattathi boat race, consider the following statements:

It is associated with the Pampa River in Kerala.
Palliyodams are traditional snake boats used in the event.
Aranmula Kannadi is a GI-tagged traditional metal mirror.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

The Aranmula boat race is held on the Pampa River. It features Palliyodams, the traditional snake boats of Kerala. Aranmula is also known for the GI-tagged Aranmula Kannadi, a traditional metal mirror.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following pairs:

Term	Description
Dustlik	India–Uzbekistan military exercise
UZQR	Uzbekistan’s national QR payment system
Fayaz Tepa	Ancient Buddhist site in Uzbekistan

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Dustlik is the bilateral military exercise, UZQR is Uzbekistan’s national QR system, and Fayaz Tepa is an ancient Buddhist site.

Your score is

Category: TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice July 2026

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 1st July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following objectives of the Swachh Bharat Mission–Urban:

Elimination of open defecation
Scientific management of municipal solid waste
Achievement of Garbage Free Cities
Promotion of cleanliness-related behavioural change

How many of the above are associated with SBM-U and SBM-U 2.0?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation

Elimination of open defecation — Correct:
The first phase of SBM-U, launched in 2014, aimed to make urban India free from open defecation by improving access to toilets and urban sanitation facilities.
Scientific management of municipal solid waste — Correct:
SBM-U sought to ensure proper collection, segregation, transportation, processing and disposal of municipal solid waste instead of unscientific dumping.
Achievement of Garbage Free Cities — Correct:
SBM-U 2.0, launched in 2021, aims to make all cities “Garbage Free” by promoting effective waste processing, remediation of dumpsites and sustainable waste management.
Promotion of cleanliness-related behavioural change — Correct:
SBM-U 2.0 seeks to institutionalise “Swachh” behaviour among citizens. It promotes practices such as waste segregation, proper disposal of waste and responsible use of sanitation facilities.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax in India:

GST is levied on the supply of goods and services.
Article 246A gives concurrent GST law-making powers to Parliament and State Legislatures.
GST is an origin-based tax under which revenue accrues to the producing State.
IGST is imposed on inter-State supplies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: GST is imposed on the supply of goods and services.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 246A grants concurrent powers to Parliament and State Legislatures, subject to Parliament’s exclusive power over inter-State supplies.

Statement 3 is incorrect: GST is a destination-based tax, so revenue generally accrues to the place of consumption.

Statement 4 is correct: IGST applies to inter-State supplies and imports.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding Anaemia Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan:

It expands the earlier 6×6×6 strategy into a 7×7×7 framework.
Low Birth Weight babies aged 0–6 months have been added as a beneficiary group.
The T4 strategy stands for Test, Treat, Talk and Track.
The revised guidelines exclude intravenous iron therapy for severe anaemia.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 3rd July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Musi River:

The Musi River is a major tributary of the Krishna River and flows through Telangana.
It originates from the Anantagiri Hills near Vikarabad district.
Himayat Sagar and Osman Sagar dams are constructed on the Musi River.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
The Musi River, also known as the Muchukunda or Musunuru River, is a major tributary of the Krishna River and flows through Telangana.

Statement 2 – Correct:
The river originates from the Anantagiri Hills near Vikarabad district.

Statement 3 – Correct:
Himayat Sagar and Osman Sagar are the two major dams/reservoirs constructed on the Musi River for water supply and flood moderation.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Santal Hul of 1855:

It began at Bhognadih in the Damin-i-Koh region.
Sido and Kanhu Murmu were among its principal leaders.
The rebellion was directed only against British military officers and had no economic causes.
Exploitative moneylending, increasing rents and administrative injustice contributed to the uprising.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Hul was proclaimed at Bhognadih in the Damin-i-Koh region on June 30, 1855.

Statement 2 is correct: Sido and Kanhu Murmu played leading roles in mobilising the Santals.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The rebellion was directed against a wider exploitative structure involving moneylenders, landlords, revenue officials and colonial authorities. It had strong economic and social causes.

Statement 4 is correct: Rising rents, indebtedness, land insecurity and the failure of the administration to provide justice were major causes.

Therefore, Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding the Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme, 2026:

It replaces the Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme, 1952.
It requires members generally to maintain a minimum balance of 25% of aggregate contributions.
It makes the contractor solely responsible for provident-fund contributions of contract workers.
Employees may voluntarily contribute at a rate higher than the prescribed mandatory contribution rate.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The 2026 Scheme replaces the Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme, 1952.

Statement 2 is correct: Members must generally maintain a minimum balance of 25% of the aggregate fund balance while making partial withdrawals.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Even where the contractor deposits the contribution, the principal employer remains ultimately responsible for compliance.

Statement 4 is correct: Employees may voluntarily contribute above the wage ceiling or at a rate higher than the prescribed contribution rate.

Therefore, Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 6th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding Doddi Komarayya:

He was born in Kadavendi village, now in Telangana.
He belonged to the Kuruma/Golla/Yadava community.
His elder brother Doddi Mallayya was associated with the Communist Party and the Andhra Mahasabha.
The influence of the Visunuru family was confined only to Kadavendi village.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Doddi Komarayya was born in Kadavendi village, which was earlier under Nalgonda district and is now part of Jangaon district, Telangana.
Statement 2 is correct: He belonged to the Kuruma/Golla/Yadava community, a backward caste community traditionally associated with pastoral occupations.
Statement 3 is correct: His elder brother Doddi Mallayya was a village leader associated with the Communist Party and the Andhra Mahasabha. His activism influenced Komarayya’s entry into the peasant movement.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The influence of the Visunuru family was not confined only to Kadavendi. Ramachandra Reddy of Visunuru controlled about 60 villages and nearly 40,000 acres of land. Kadavendi was one of the important villages under this feudal control.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following cattle breeds:

Holstein Friesian
Red Dane
Guernsey
Gir
Sahiwal

How many of the above are exotic dairy breeds of cattle?

Only two

Only three

Only four

All five

Explanation

Holstein Friesian — Exotic: It originated in Northern Netherlands, especially Friesland.
Red Dane — Exotic: It originated in Denmark.
Guernsey — Exotic: It originated from Guernsey Island near France.
Gir — Indigenous: It is an Indian dairy breed from Gujarat.
Sahiwal — Indigenous: It is an indigenous dairy breed from the Montgomery region of undivided India.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding NITI Aayog’s roadmap for making Ayurveda global:

The roadmap is based on the pillars of Availability, Acceptability and Propagation.
It proposes a phased strategy extending up to 2047.
It focuses only on increasing exports of Ayurvedic products.
It links Ayurveda’s globalisation with research, education, regulation, medical value travel and international collaboration.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The roadmap uses the three pillars of Availability, Acceptability and Propagation.

Statement 2 is correct: It proposes a phased strategy aligned with the vision of 2047.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The roadmap is not limited to exports. It also covers practice, education, research, quality, regulation, insurance, branding and medical value travel.

Statement 4 is correct: The roadmap adopts a comprehensive approach involving research, education, regulatory alignment, medical value travel and global partnerships.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 7th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Recently in news, Microart payload aboard Vikram-1 carries micro-sculptures of which of the following Indian personalities?

Sir C.V. Raman
Dr Vikram Sarabhai
Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
Homi J. Bhabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The Microart payload aboard Vikram-1 carries micro-sculptures of three renowned Indian scientists:

Sir C.V. Raman
Dr Vikram Sarabhai
Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

Homi J. Bhabha is not mentioned as part of this Microart payload.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 only are correct.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding the right of an accused to legal representation:

Article 22(1) protects the right of an arrested person to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.
The right to fair trial has been recognised as part of Article 21.
Article 39A deals with equal justice and free legal aid.
Article 14 permits denial of legal representation to unpopular accused persons.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 1 is correct: Article 22(1) protects the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.

Statement 2 is correct: Fair trial is part of Article 21.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 39A deals with equal justice and free legal aid.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Article 14 ensures equality before law; it does not allow denial of representation.

3 / 3

3) With reference to ENSO, consider the following statements:

ENSO has three phases: El Niño, La Niña and Neutral.
El Niño is linked with unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern Pacific Ocean.
La Niña generally weakens the Indian southwest monsoon.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All the three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: ENSO has three phases: El Niño, La Niña and Neutral.
Statement 2 is correct: El Niño is associated with unusual warming of eastern Pacific surface waters.
Statement 3 is incorrect: La Niña generally supports a stronger Indian southwest monsoon, though extreme rainfall may also cause floods.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 8th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding Telangana’s performance in the UDISE+ 2025-26 report:

Telangana’s school enrolment increased even though the number of schools declined.
Girls recorded higher Gross Enrolment Ratio than boys at every level measured.
Telangana’s secondary-level dropout rate was higher than the national average.
The pupil-teacher ratio was highest at the higher secondary level among the listed stages.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Enrolment rose from 74,57,851 to 76,76,413, while the number of schools declined.

Statement 2 is correct: Girls had higher Gross Enrolment Ratio than boys at primary, upper primary, secondary and higher secondary levels.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Telangana’s secondary dropout rate was 5.8%, lower than the national average of 9.5%.

Statement 4 is correct: The pupil-teacher ratio was 26 at higher secondary level, higher than primary, upper primary and secondary levels.

2 / 3

2) Sahakar Sahyogi is related to which of the following sectors?

Urban cooperative banking

Agricultural marketing

Dairy procurement

Grain storage

Explanation: Sahakar Sahyogi is a conversational AI-powered platform launched to improve customer services and banking operations in the urban cooperative banking sector.

3 / 3

3) With reference to the role of life insurance companies in India’s government debt market, consider the following statements:

Life insurers invest a significant share of premiums in government securities.
They collectively hold close to a quarter of India’s outstanding Central Government dated securities.
Their investment behaviour is generally short-term and speculative.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Life insurance premiums collected from households are reinvested in long-term securities, including government securities.
Statement 2 is correct: Life insurers collectively hold close to one-fourth of India’s outstanding Central Government dated securities.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Life insurers are generally long-term, buy-and-hold investors, not short-term speculative investors.

Therefore, 1 and 2 only are correct.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 9th July 2026

1 / 3

1) With reference to the recent Telangana–Canada investment discussions, consider the following statements:

Chris Cooter met Telangana Chief Minister A. Revanth Reddy.
Talks covered Musi River Project, Metro expansion and Future City.
Canada was invited to Telangana’s Global Investors Summit in December.
Canada withdrew its investment from CtrlS Datacenters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Canada’s High Commissioner Chris Cooter met Telangana Chief Minister A. Revanth Reddy.
Statement 2 is correct: The discussions covered major Telangana projects like the Musi River Development Project, Hyderabad Metro Rail expansion and the proposed Future City.
Statement 3 is correct: Canadian companies, investors and institutions were invited to participate in the second edition of Telangana’s Global Investors Summit, scheduled for December.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Canada did not withdraw investment. The article mentions CPP Investments’ partnership with Hyderabad-based CtrlS Datacenters, with a commitment of up to 1 billion Canadian dollars.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding India’s toy industry:

India’s overall toy exports increased from US$152.7 million in 2017–18 to US$384.7 million in 2025–26.
The Quality Control Order for Toys made BIS certification compulsory for both domestic and foreign manufacturers.
Toycathon was launched to promote toys inspired by Indian culture, heritage and value systems.
India recorded a trade deficit in toys in 2025–26 across key toy categories.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Toy exports increased from US$152.7 million in 2017–18 to US$384.7 million in 2025–26.

Statement 2 is correct: The Quality Control Order made BIS certification compulsory for domestic and foreign toy manufacturers.

Statement 3 is correct: Toycathon promotes toys and games inspired by Indian culture, heritage, folklore, heroes and value systems.

Statement 4 is incorrect: India recorded a trade surplus of US$152 million in 2025–26, not a deficit.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding India–Indonesia relations:

India and Indonesia elevated their relations to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in 2018.
Bintang Adipurna is Indonesia’s highest national honour.
Biju Patnaik helped Indonesian anti-colonial leader Sutan Sjahrir reach New Delhi in 1947.
Indonesia is one of the major global producers of nickel, copper, bauxite and tin.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India–Indonesia relations were elevated to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in 2018.

Statement 2 is correct: Bintang Adipurna is Indonesia’s highest national honour, conferred for exceptional service to the nation.

Statement 3 is correct: Biju Patnaik flew Indonesian leader Sutan Sjahrir to New Delhi in 1947, helping Indonesia’s freedom movement gain diplomatic support.

Statement 4 is correct: Indonesia has major reserves and production capacity in critical minerals such as nickel, copper, bauxite and tin.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 10th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Performance Grading Index 2.0:

It is released by the Union Ministry of Education to assess school education performance of States and Union Territories.
The PGI-S framework has a total weightage of 1000 points across 70 indicators.
Telangana was placed in the Prachesta-3 band in PGI 2025–26.
PGI-D assesses districts only on infrastructure facilities and does not include learning outcomes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Performance Grading Index is released by the Union Ministry of Education to evaluate school education performance.

Statement 2 is correct: The PGI-S framework has 1000 points across 70 indicators.

Statement 3 is correct: Telangana scored 599.7 and was placed in the Prachesta-3 band in 2025–26.

Statement 4 is incorrect: PGI-D includes several domains such as learning outcomes, access, teacher availability, digital learning, school safety, governance and infrastructure.

2 / 3

2) With reference to the 16th India–Japan Annual Summit 2026, consider the following statements:

The summit was held in New Delhi.
The two countries reached an agreement in principle on the remaining technical aspects of the UNICORN Project.
India and Japan launched the first India–Japan AI Strategic Dialogue.
Japan opposed India’s membership of the International Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The 16th India–Japan Annual Summit was held in New Delhi.
Statement 2 is correct: The summit achieved progress on the UNICORN Project, India and Japan’s first defence co-development programme.
Statement 3 is correct: India and Japan launched the first India–Japan AI Strategic Dialogue.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Japan reaffirmed support for India’s membership of the International Energy Agency.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 only are correct.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding quantum computing:

A qubit can exist in multiple states simultaneously due to superposition.
Decoherence refers to the loss of a qubit’s quantum state due to interaction with the environment.
Quantum Error Correction uses several physical qubits to create a more reliable logical qubit.
India’s National Quantum Mission targets only quantum computing and does not include quantum communication.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: A qubit can exist in multiple states at once due to superposition.

Statement 2 is correct: Decoherence occurs when a qubit loses its quantum state because of environmental disturbance.

Statement 3 is correct: Quantum Error Correction combines many physical qubits into a more stable logical qubit.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The National Quantum Mission includes quantum computing, quantum communication, QKD networks, quantum sensing, metrology, materials and devices.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 13th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding Telangana’s State finances in 2024–25:

Telangana spent 12.74% of its expenditure on interest payments.
Telangana was among the States that spent more than 10% of expenditure on interest payments.
Ways and Means Advances are temporary advances provided by the RBI to manage short-term mismatches between receipts and payments.
Telangana reported a revenue surplus in 2024–25 as receipts exceeded revenue expenditure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Telangana spent 12.74% of its expenditure on interest payments in 2024–25.

Statement 2 is correct: Telangana was among 11 States that spent more than 10% of expenditure on interest payments.

Statement 3 is correct: Ways and Means Advances are temporary advances given by the RBI to States to manage short-term receipt-expenditure mismatches.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Telangana reported a revenue deficit, as receipts constituted only about 90% of revenue expenditure.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding India’s first hydrogen-powered train:

It will run on the Jind-Sonipat railway section in Haryana.
The train uses hydrogen fuel cells and lithium ferro phosphate batteries for power generation.
Hydrogen trains require overhead electric wires for propulsion.
The train has a total power output of 2,400 kW.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India’s first hydrogen train will operate on the Jind-Sonipat railway section in Haryana.

Statement 2 is correct: The train uses hydrogen fuel cells and lithium ferro phosphate batteries.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Hydrogen trains do not require overhead electric wires. They generate electricity onboard using hydrogen fuel cells.

Statement 4 is correct: The train has a total power output of 2,400 kW.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding helium:

Helium is a non-renewable resource formed through radioactive decay inside the Earth’s crust.
Helium is widely used in MRI machines, semiconductor manufacturing and quantum computing.
China is the world’s largest producer of helium.
Helium is difficult to transport because it requires specialised vacuum-jacketed stainless-steel vessels.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Helium is formed deep inside the Earth’s crust through radioactive decay of elements such as uranium and thorium.

Statement 2 is correct: Helium is used in MRI machines, semiconductor fabrication, quantum computers, leak detection, optical fibres and space missions.

Statement 3 is incorrect: China produces only around 1.6% of global helium and imports more than 80% of its helium needs.

Statement 4 is correct: Helium transport requires specialised vacuum-jacketed stainless-steel vessels, making the supply chain costly and complex.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 14th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding NdFeB permanent magnets:

They are used in EV traction motors.
They are used in direct-drive wind turbines.
They require rare earth inputs.
India is already self-sufficient in NdFeB magnets.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 1 is correct: NdFeB magnets are used in electric vehicle traction motors.

Statement 2 is correct: They are used in permanent magnet synchronous generators, especially in wind turbines.

Statement 3 is correct: NdFeB magnets require rare earth inputs such as neodymium.

Statement 4 is incorrect: India is not yet self-sufficient in high-performance NdFeB magnets. The Nexon Geochem–Giredmet partnership aims to reduce import dependence by building a domestic oxide-to-magnet manufacturing platform.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding SMAM (Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization):

It was launched under RKVY.
It promotes Custom Hiring Centres.
It supports Kisan Drone demonstrations.
Its funding pattern is 50:50 for North-Eastern States.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SMAM was launched in 2014–15 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under RKVY.

Statement 2 is correct: It promotes Custom Hiring Centres to provide machinery on rent to farmers.

Statement 3 is correct: SMAM supports Kisan Drone demonstrations through ICAR, KVKs and State Agricultural Universities.

Statement 4 is incorrect: For North-Eastern and Himalayan States, the funding pattern is 90:10, not 50:50.

3 / 3

3) Q. Consider the following statements regarding Compressed Biogas:

It is produced from anaerobic digestion.
It can be used as a substitute for CNG.
SATAT targeted 5,000 CBG plants.
CBG blending begins at 5% in FY26.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Biogas is produced through anaerobic digestion of organic matter.

Statement 2 is correct: After processing and compression, CBG can be used like CNG.

Statement 3 is correct: The SATAT initiative targeted 5,000 CBG plants.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Mandatory CBG blending begins at 1% in FY26 and rises to 5% by FY29.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 15th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding oil palm cultivation:

Oil palm is a perennial crop.
Palm oil is obtained from the fruit mesocarp.
NMEO-OP was approved in 2021.
Palm kernel oil is obtained from the fruit mesocarp.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 1 is correct: Oil palm is a perennial oil-yielding crop.

Statement 2 is correct: Palm oil is obtained from the fleshy mesocarp of the fruit.

Statement 3 is correct: The National Mission on Edible Oils–Oil Palm was approved in 2021.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Palm kernel oil is obtained from the kernel of the stony seed, not from the fruit mesocarp.

2 / 3

2) With reference to trial in absentia under BNSS, consider the following statements:

It is provided under Section 356 of BNSS.
It applies only to a proclaimed offender.
The court must record reasons before proceeding with such trial.
It can be used for every minor offence.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Trial in absentia is provided under Section 356 of BNSS.
Statement 2 is correct: It applies only to a proclaimed offender, not every accused person.
Statement 3 is correct: The court must record its reasons in writing before proceeding.
Statement 4 is incorrect: It is available only in serious cases involving offences punishable with 10 years or more, life imprisonment or death.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 only are correct.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding the India–New Zealand Roadmap to 2030:

It aims to double bilateral trade to NZ$7 billion.
It provides for an annual Maritime Security Dialogue.
It creates legally binding financial commitments.
It supports cooperation under India’s IPOI.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Roadmap sets an aspirational target of doubling bilateral trade to NZ$7 billion by 2030.

Statement 2 is correct: It provides for the establishment of an annual Maritime Security Dialogue.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Roadmap is non-binding and creates no financial commitments or legally binding obligations.

Statement 4 is correct: The Roadmap supports cooperation under the Maritime Security pillar of the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 16th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding Amazon Web Services’ data centre project in Telangana:

The data centre is being developed at Bharat Future City.
The project follows a framework agreement signed during the Telangana Rising Global Summit 2025.
Telangana is planning a dedicated data centre park at Aloor.
Telangana aims to become a US $3 trillion economy by 2034.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 1 is correct: The AWS data centre is being developed at Bharat Future City.

Statement 2 is correct: It follows a framework agreement signed during the Telangana Rising Global Summit 2025.

Statement 3 is correct: Telangana is planning a dedicated data centre park at Aloor.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Telangana aims to become a US $1 trillion economy by 2034 and a US $3 trillion economy by 2047.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz transit-fee controversy:

The International Maritime Organization opposed mandatory tolls merely for passage through an international strait.
The United States and Iran are both parties to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea.
Around 90% of India’s LPG imports from West Asia pass through the Strait of Hormuz.
A rise of USD 1 per barrel in crude oil prices can increase India’s annual oil import bill by up to USD 2 billion.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The IMO stated that there was no legal basis for imposing mandatory tolls merely for transiting a strait used for international navigation.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Neither the United States nor Iran has ratified UNCLOS, although many of its provisions are widely accepted as customary international law.

Statement 3 is correct: Around 90% of India’s LPG imports from West Asia are transported through the Strait of Hormuz.

Statement 4 is correct: As India imports about 1.8–2 billion barrels annually, every USD 1 increase per barrel can add up to USD 2 billion to its yearly import bill.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding India’s tourism and hospitality sector:

Tourism contributes to employment through both direct and indirect economic activities.
FAITH has recommended granting uniform industry status to tourism across all States.
Tourism infrastructure development is confined mainly to accommodation facilities.
A liberal e-Visa regime can support the growth of inbound tourism.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 1 is correct: Tourism supports direct employment in hotels and travel services and indirect employment in transport, food supply, handicrafts, construction and retail.

Statement 2 is correct: FAITH has called for tourism and hospitality to receive uniform industry status across all States to improve access to finance and reduce operating costs.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Tourism infrastructure includes airports, highways, local transport, sanitation, digital connectivity, convention centres, visitor facilities and accommodation.

Statement 4 is correct: Expanded e-Visa access and simplified entry procedures can attract more international visitors and improve India’s competitiveness.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 17th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding Project K-100:

It was launched in Narayanpet district.
It promotes 100 farmers adopting 100 innovative activities.
It focuses only on paddy cultivation.
It encourages climate-resilient farming practices.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Project K-100 was launched in Narayanpet district.
Statement 2 is correct: It is based on the model of 100 Farmers – 100 Innovative Activities.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It covers agriculture, horticulture, floriculture, livestock, fisheries and natural farming.
Statement 4 is correct: The project promotes crop diversification and climate-resilient farming.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding One Nation, One Election:

The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill proposes insertion of Article 82A.
The Bill proposes amendments to Articles 83 and 172.
The present Bill directly includes panchayat and municipal elections within its text.
The proposal may raise concerns related to federalism and parliamentary democracy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Bill proposes insertion of a new Article 82A for simultaneous elections.

Statement 2 is correct: It proposes amendments to Articles 83 and 172, dealing with the duration of Parliament and State Legislatures.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The current Bill excludes municipal and panchayat elections from its specific text.

Statement 4 is correct: The proposal may affect federalism, parliamentary accountability, State autonomy and regional representation.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding India’s rural credit system:

Priority Sector Lending requires banks to earmark at least 18% of eligible credit for agriculture.
The Modified Interest Subvention Scheme provides short-term credit to farmers through KCC.
PM Dhan Dhanya Krishi Yojana focuses on 100 low-performing agricultural districts.
Jan Samarth Portal was launched to replace all cooperative banks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Under PSL, banks must earmark at least 18% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent of Off-Balance Sheet Exposures for agriculture.

Statement 2 is correct: MISS provides short-term credit to farmers at subsidised rates through the Kisan Credit Card.

Statement 3 is correct: PM-DDKY aims to catalyse growth in 100 low-performing agricultural districts.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Jan Samarth Portal is a digital platform linking government-sponsored loan and subsidy schemes; it does not replace cooperative banks.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 20th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding the ILCA Open International Sailing Championship 2026:

It was held at Hussain Sagar in Hyderabad.
It was conducted alongside the 40th Hyderabad Sailing Week 2026.
The championship was hosted by the EME Sailing Association.
It was limited only to civilian sailing clubs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The championship was held at Hussain Sagar in Hyderabad.

Statement 2 is correct: It was held alongside the YAI 40th Hyderabad Sailing Week 2026.

Statement 3 is correct: The event was hosted by the EME Sailing Association.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Participants came from Army, Navy and civilian sailing establishments, along with overseas participants.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding Vikram-1:

Vikram-1 was developed by Skyroot Aerospace.
It was launched from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
It is a sub-orbital test rocket like Vikram-S.
It can place payloads into Low Earth Orbit.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Vikram-1 was developed by Skyroot Aerospace.

Statement 2 is correct: It was launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Vikram-S was a sub-orbital test rocket. Vikram-1 is an orbital launch vehicle.

Statement 4 is correct: Vikram-1 is designed to place small satellites into Low Earth Orbit.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding the Investment Friendliness Index 2026:

It was released by NITI Aayog to assess investment readiness of States and Union Territories.
It evaluates all 28 States and 8 Union Territories across eight pillars.
It uses both secondary data and investor perception-based inputs.
It classifies Top Performers as those scoring below 40.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Index was released by NITI Aayog to benchmark investment friendliness across States and UTs.

Statement 2 is correct: It covers all 28 States and 8 Union Territories.

Statement 3 is correct: The framework uses 84 indicators, including secondary data and investor perception survey inputs.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Top Performers are those scoring above 50. States scoring below 40 are classified as Aspiring States.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 21st July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Indiramma Housing Scheme launched in Hyderabad CURE area:

Applications will be accepted from 21 July to 10 August 2026.
The proposed flat will have a 400 sft carpet area and 528 sft built-up area.
The Telangana government will provide a subsidy of ₹5 lakh.
The applicant’s annual household income should exceed ₹10 lakh.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Applications are open from 21 July to 10 August 2026.

Statement 2 is correct: The flat has 400 sft carpet area and 528 sft built-up area.

Statement 3 is correct: The government subsidy is ₹5 lakh.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The annual household income limit is up to ₹6 lakh, not above ₹10 lakh.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following pairs regarding the 72nd National Film Awards, 2024:

Award Category	Winner
1. Best Feature Film	Article 370
2. Best Non-Feature Film	Bhangaar
3. Best Documentary	Ram-Nami
4. Best Telugu Film	Kalki 2898 AD

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct: Article 370 won the Best Feature Film award.

Pair 2 is correct: Bhangaar won the Best Non-Feature Film award.

Pair 3 is correct: Ram-Nami won the Best Documentary award.

Pair 4 is incorrect: Committee Kurrollu won Best Telugu Film, while Kalki 2898 AD won Best Popular Film Providing Wholesome Entertainment.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding inflation in India:

The Wholesale Price Index includes primary articles, fuel and power, and manufactured products.
The Consumer Price Index is used by the Monetary Policy Committee for inflation targeting.
Manufactured goods inflation is always caused only by excess demand.
Poor monsoon conditions can contribute to food inflation through supply shocks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: WPI consists of primary articles, fuel and power, and manufactured products.

Statement 2 is correct: The MPC uses CPI inflation data for inflation targeting.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Manufactured goods inflation may arise from higher input costs such as fuel, power and raw materials; it is not always demand-driven.

Statement 4 is correct: Poor monsoon or drought can reduce agricultural supply and raise food prices.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 22nd July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding the IICT–ISRO collaboration on eco-friendly blowing agents:

The collaboration is between CSIR-IICT, Hyderabad and VSSC, ISRO.
The project aims to develop indigenous technology for next-generation environmentally sustainable blowing agents.
HFO-based blowing agents have zero Ozone Depletion Potential and ultra-low Global Warming Potential.
The collaboration aims to increase India’s dependence on imported specialty fluorochemicals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The collaboration is between CSIR-IICT and VSSC, ISRO.

Statement 2 is correct: The aim is to develop indigenous eco-friendly blowing agent technology.

Statement 3 is correct: HFOs have zero ODP and ultra-low GWP.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The collaboration seeks to reduce, not increase, India’s dependence on imported specialty fluorochemicals.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding India’s cotton sector:

India is the only country cultivating all four recognised cotton species.
India ranks first globally in cotton cultivation area.
Bt cotton was commercially introduced in India in 2002.
Kasturi Cotton Bharat uses QR-based certification and blockchain technology for traceability.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India cultivates all four recognised cotton species.

Statement 2 is correct: India ranks first globally in cotton acreage.

Statement 3 is correct: Bt cotton was commercially introduced in India in 2002.

Statement 4 is correct: Kasturi Cotton Bharat uses QR-based certification and blockchain technology for traceability.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding recent terrorism trends and India’s counter-terrorism approach:

The Global Terrorism Index 2026 reported a decline in terrorism-related deaths and incidents in 2025.
Nearly 70% of global terrorism-related deaths are concentrated in five countries, including Pakistan, Burkina Faso, Nigeria, Niger and the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
More than 60% of terrorist attacks occur within 100 km of international borders.
India’s counter-terrorism approach rejects intelligence-led prevention and relies only on post-attack response.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 1 is correct: GTI 2026 reported that terrorism-related deaths fell by 28% and incidents declined by 22% in 2025.

Statement 2 is correct: Nearly 70% of deaths are concentrated in Pakistan, Burkina Faso, Nigeria, Niger and DRC.

Statement 3 is correct: More than 60% of attacks occur within 100 km of international borders.

Statement 4 is incorrect: India has shifted towards zero-tolerance, intelligence-led and pre-emptive counter-terrorism, not only post-attack response.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 23rd July 2026

1 / 3

1) In 2026, which company established its first Global Capability Centre in India and first Beauty Tech Hub in Hyderabad?

Novartis

T-Mobile

L’Oréal

Astera Labs

Explanation

In the first half of 2026, L’Oréal established:

its first GCC in India, and
its first Beauty Tech Hub in Hyderabad.

Therefore, option (c) L’Oréal is correct.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding UDAN and Modified UDAN:

UDAN stands for Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik.
UDAN was launched under the National Civil Aviation Policy, 2016.
Modified UDAN focuses on airport infrastructure, operational support and airline viability.
Modified UDAN supports helicopters, helipads and specialised aircraft for remote regions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: UDAN stands for Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik.

Statement 2 is correct: UDAN was launched under the National Civil Aviation Policy, 2016.

Statement 3 is correct: Modified UDAN focuses on infrastructure, operational support and commercial viability.

Statement 4 is correct: It supports helicopters, helipads and specialised aircraft for remote and difficult regions.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act:

FCRA regulates the acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution received from a foreign source.
FCRA imposes a complete ban on NGOs and civil society organisations receiving foreign donations.
All foreign contributions must first be received in a designated FCRA account at SBI New Delhi Main Branch.
The 2026 Rules require enhanced reporting with project-wise, activity-wise and ultimate-donor disclosure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 3 and 4 only

1 and 2 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: FCRA governs acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution from foreign sources.

Statement 2 is incorrect: FCRA does not impose a general ban on foreign donations; it permits eligible associations through registration or prior permission.

Statement 3 is correct: Foreign contributions must first arrive in the designated FCRA account at SBI New Delhi Main Branch.

Statement 4 is correct: The 2026 changes strengthen donor transparency through project-wise, activity-wise and ultimate-donor disclosure.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 24th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding E20 petrol and Telangana’s biofuel opportunity:

E20 petrol refers to petrol blended with 20% ethanol.
Telangana has ethanol production activity in districts such as Medak, Sangareddy, Nizamabad and Peddapalli.
The Centre has announced an immediate plan to raise ethanol blending beyond 20%.
E20 can support farmers by creating demand for feedstock such as maize and damaged grain.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: E20 means petrol blended with 20% ethanol.

Statement 2 is correct: Ethanol production activity is visible in parts of Medak, Sangareddy, Nizamabad and Peddapalli.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The government has stated that there is no proposal at present to raise ethanol blending beyond 20%.

Statement 4 is correct: Ethanol demand can create a stronger market for maize, damaged grain and other feedstock.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding geothermal energy and the Puga Valley project:

Geothermal energy uses heat from the interior of the Earth to generate electricity.
Puga Valley in Ladakh is linked to India’s first demonstration-scale geothermal power project.
Geothermal energy is completely dependent on sunlight and wind speed.
Enhanced Geothermal Systems can create artificial permeability in hot dry rocks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Geothermal energy is produced by using heat from inside the Earth.

Statement 2 is correct: The Puga Valley wells are linked to India’s first demonstration-scale geothermal power project.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Geothermal energy is not dependent on sunlight or wind speed; it can provide round-the-clock power.

Statement 4 is correct: Enhanced Geothermal Systems use advanced drilling and fluid injection to create permeability in hot dry rocks.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding glacial lakes and GLOFs:

Glacial lakes may form when glacier-eroded depressions are filled with meltwater.
Moraine-dammed lakes are relatively stable because they are formed by consolidated rock structures.
Elevation-dependent warming can accelerate glacier retreat and glacial lake expansion.
GLOFs can be triggered by avalanches, rockfalls, earthquakes or heavy precipitation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 3 and 4 only

1 and 2 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 1 is correct: Glacial lakes form when depressions created by glacial activity fill with meltwater.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Moraine-dammed lakes are often unstable because moraines are made of loose, unconsolidated debris.

Statement 3 is correct: Higher mountain areas warming faster can increase glacier retreat and lake growth.

Statement 4 is correct: GLOFs may be triggered by avalanches, rockfalls, seismic activity, meltwater increase or heavy rainfall.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 27th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Tughluq coin minted at Warangal:

It was a copper Adil / ½ Paika coin of Ghiyath al-Din Tughluq.
The inscription “bi-Sultanpur” confirms the name given to Warangal after its conquest by the Delhi Sultanate.
The coin is linked to the fall of the Kakatiya kingdom and the establishment of Tughluq rule in Telangana.
Warangal was renamed Sultanpur after Tughluq forces were driven out in 1336 CE.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The source refers to a rare copper Adil / ½ Paika coin of Ghiyath al-Din Tughluq.

Statement 2 is correct: The inscription “bi-Sultanpur” confirms Warangal’s name as Sultanpur during Tughluq rule.

Statement 3 is correct: The coin marks the fall of the Kakatiya kingdom and the establishment of Tughluq authority in Telangana.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Warangal was renamed Sultanpur after the Delhi Sultanate conquest. The name Warangal was restored after local leaders drove out Tughluq forces in 1336 CE.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Start-up Village Entrepreneurship Programme:

SVEP is a sub-scheme of DAY-NRLM.
It supports rural non-farm enterprises through training, finance and mentoring.
The programme is implemented only through private companies without community institutions.
CRP-EPs provide mentoring, training and credit facilitation support to rural entrepreneurs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SVEP is a sub-scheme of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana–National Rural Livelihoods Mission.

Statement 2 is correct: It supports non-farm rural enterprises through finance, training, mentoring and institutional support.

Statement 3 is incorrect: SVEP works through community institutions, SHGs, SRLMs, BRC-EPs and CRP-EPs.

Statement 4 is correct: CRP-EPs support entrepreneurs through mentoring, training and credit facilitation.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding Sarnath:

Sarnath is associated with Buddha’s first sermon after enlightenment.
The event at Sarnath is known as Dharmachakra Pravartan.
Sarnath became India’s 45th UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2026.
The site is associated only with modern Buddhist tourism and has no archaeological remains.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Sarnath is the place where Buddha delivered his first sermon after enlightenment.

Statement 2 is correct: This event is known as Dharmachakra Pravartan, or the turning of the wheel of Dharma.

Statement 3 is correct: Sarnath was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2026, taking India’s tally to 45 World Heritage Sites.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Sarnath has major archaeological remains, including stupas, temples and monastic structures.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 28th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding the World Applied Anthropology Congress 2026:

It was held at ICRISAT, Hyderabad.
Its theme focused on climate change and migration.
The Hyderabad Declaration calls for people-centred, inclusive and evidence-based approaches.
The congress focused only on archaeological anthropology and avoided contemporary policy issues.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 1 is correct: The congress concluded at ICRISAT, Hyderabad.

Statement 2 is correct: The theme was linked to global and local challenges of climate change and migration.

Statement 3 is correct: The Hyderabad Declaration calls for people-centred, inclusive and evidence-based approaches.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The congress dealt with contemporary issues such as climate change, migration, sustainable development and human resilience.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Khelo India Programme and India’s sporting ecosystem:

Khelo India was launched in 2017 by merging earlier sports development programmes.
Khelo India aims to strengthen sports infrastructure, training centres, competitions, sports science and capacity building.
KIRTI is focused on identifying sporting talent among children between 9 and 18 years of age.
TOPS is meant only for recreational sports participation at village level.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Khelo India was launched in 2017 by merging earlier sports schemes into a unified framework.

Statement 2 is correct: The programme focuses on training centres, capacity building, sports science, competitions and infrastructure.

Statement 3 is correct: KIRTI identifies and nurtures sporting talent among children aged 9–18 years.

Statement 4 is incorrect: TOPS supports athletes preparing for Olympic and Paralympic excellence, not merely village-level recreational sports.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding hepatitis and India’s National Viral Hepatitis Control Program:

Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver and may be caused by viruses, toxic substances or autoimmune diseases.
Hepatitis B and C can lead to chronic disease, including cirrhosis and liver cancer.
The National Viral Hepatitis Control Program provides free diagnostics and drugs for all people in need.
Hepatitis C is vaccine-preventable under the Universal Immunisation Programme.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver and can be caused by hepatitis viruses, toxic substances such as alcohol and drugs, or autoimmune diseases.

Statement 2 is correct: Hepatitis B and C are common causes of chronic disease and may lead to cirrhosis and liver cancer.

Statement 3 is correct: The NVHCP provides free diagnostics and drugs to people in need.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Hepatitis B is vaccine-preventable under the Universal Immunisation Programme. There is no vaccine to prevent Hepatitis C infection.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 29th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding tiger conservation in India:

The tiger is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Project Tiger is India’s flagship programme for conserving tigers and their habitats.
M-STrIPES is used for technology-driven tiger monitoring.
Tigers are called umbrella species because conserving tiger habitats also protects many other species.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The tiger is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

Statement 2 is correct: Project Tiger is India’s flagship tiger conservation programme.

Statement 3 is correct: M-STrIPES uses digital tools for tiger monitoring.

Statement 4 is correct: Tigers are umbrella species because protecting their habitats also protects wider biodiversity.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding the white-bellied heron:

It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
It depends on fast-flowing rivers and mature riparian forests.
It is commonly found across all major Indian river systems.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The white-bellied heron is listed as Critically Endangered.

Statement 2 is correct: It receives the highest legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

Statement 3 is correct: It depends on fast-flowing Himalayan rivers, shallow waters and mature riparian forests.

Statement 4 is incorrect: It is now restricted to limited pockets and is not commonly found across India.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding tiger conservation and eco-tourism in Telangana:

Amrabad Tiger Reserve is located in the Nallamala forest range and has emerged as a successful conservation model.
Kawal Tiger Reserve is part of the Deccan ecosystem and acts as a corridor for tigers migrating from Maharashtra.
Eco-tourism can support tiger conservation by creating livelihood opportunities for local communities.
The Chenchu community has no role in the conservation efforts of Amrabad Tiger Reserve.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Amrabad Tiger Reserve is part of the Nallamala forest range and has shown strong conservation success.

Statement 2 is correct: Kawal Tiger Reserve forms part of the Deccan ecosystem and serves as a tiger corridor from Maharashtra.

Statement 3 is correct: Eco-tourism can create income and make communities stakeholders in tiger conservation.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Chenchu community plays an important role in Amrabad through wildlife watching, fire prevention, habitat protection and monitoring.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 30th July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding Hyderabad’s start-up ecosystem:

Hyderabad is home to more than 10,000 start-ups.
Infrastructure and connectivity were identified as a major competitive advantage of the city.
Access to growth capital and market access were identified as areas requiring attention.
Hyderabad has no significant presence of Global Capability Centres.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Hyderabad has more than 10,000 start-ups.

Statement 2 is correct: Infrastructure and connectivity are among the city’s strongest advantages.

Statement 3 is correct: Growth capital and market access are key areas needing attention.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Hyderabad hosts more than 355 GCCs, accounting for nearly 20% of India’s GCC base.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Western Ghats:

The Western Ghats are also known as the Sahyadri Hills.
The Western Ghats are recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
The Palakkad Gap connects Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu with Palakkad in Kerala.
The Western Ghats give rise only to west-flowing rivers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Western Ghats are also called the Sahyadri Hills.

Statement 2 is correct: They are recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Statement 3 is correct: The Palakkad Gap connects Coimbatore with Palakkad.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Western Ghats give rise to both west-flowing and east-flowing rivers.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme:

It provides collateral-free and guarantor-free education loans to eligible students.
It is linked with designated Quality Higher Educational Institutions.
It provides 3% interest subvention for eligible students with family income up to ₹8 lakh.
Students admitted through management quota are eligible for the scheme.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The scheme provides collateral-free and guarantor-free education loans.

Statement 2 is correct: It applies to designated Quality Higher Educational Institutions.

Statement 3 is correct: Eligible students with family income up to ₹8 lakh receive 3% interest subvention.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Management quota and NRI quota admissions are not eligible.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 31st July 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding TG-iPASS 2.0:

It proposes to use Artificial Intelligence in Telangana’s industrial clearance process.
It includes an intent-to-invest module for early engagement with investors.
It proposes digital inspection reports with photographs, videos and digital signatures.
TG-iPASS is related to agricultural crop insurance approvals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: TG-iPASS 2.0 proposes AI-enabled workflows.
Statement 2 is correct: It includes an intent-to-invest module.
Statement 3 is correct: Digital inspection reporting is proposed.
Statement 4 is incorrect: TG-iPASS is an industrial clearance system, not an agricultural scheme.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding data centres in India:

Data centres store, process and manage large volumes of digital data.
Growth of AI, cloud computing and data localisation is increasing demand for data centres in India.
Mega data centres may create pressure on water and electricity resources.
Data centres are completely free from environmental concerns because they are digital facilities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Data centres are specialised facilities for storing and processing data.

Statement 2 is correct: AI, cloud computing, digital payments and data localisation are major growth drivers.

Statement 3 is correct: Data centres require large electricity supply and cooling infrastructure.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Though digital in function, data centres have physical environmental impacts.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding flash floods and cloudbursts:

A flash flood develops within a short time after intense rainfall or sudden water release.
As per IMD, a cloudburst means more than 100 mm rainfall in one hour over a small area.
Flash floods can be caused only by cloudbursts.
Steep slopes and saturated soil can increase flash flood risk.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Flash floods occur suddenly, often within a few hours.

Statement 2 is correct: IMD defines cloudburst as rainfall exceeding 100 mm in one hour over a small area.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Flash floods may occur due to heavy rainfall, dam release, glacial lake overflow, poor drainage or saturated soil, not only cloudbursts.

Statement 4 is correct: Steep slopes and saturated soil increase runoff and flood intensity.

Your score is

Category: TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice June 2026

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 1st June 2026

1 / 3

1) With reference to semiconductor design, consider the following statements:

It involves preparing the blueprint of a chip before manufacturing.
It includes areas such as VLSI design and chip verification.
It has no role in artificial intelligence and telecom sectors.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Semiconductor design prepares the functional blueprint of a chip.
Statement 2 is correct: VLSI design, SoC design and chip verification are part of semiconductor design.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Semiconductor design is very important for AI, telecom, defence, EVs and digital technologies.

2 / 3

2) With reference to water budgeting, consider the following statements:

It involves assessment of water availability and water demand within a defined geographical unit.
It helps identify water surplus and water deficit areas.
It is useful only for urban water management.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All the three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Water budgeting compares water availability and water demand in a village, watershed, block or district.
Statement 2 is correct: It helps identify whether an area has water surplus or water deficit.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Water budgeting is highly useful in rural areas, especially for agriculture, livestock and groundwater management.

Additional Information:
Water budgeting supports evidence-based and participatory water governance.

3 / 3

3) With reference to Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls, consider the following statements:

It is a detailed verification process conducted by the Election Commission of India.
It can be used to update, correct and delete entries in electoral rolls.
It automatically declares deleted voters as non-citizens.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct: SIR is a detailed voter verification process conducted by the Election Commission.
Statement 2 is Correct: It is used to update, correct and delete wrong or ineligible entries.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: Deletion from electoral roll does not automatically mean that the person is a non-citizen.

Additional Information: The final decision on citizenship must be taken by the competent authority under the Citizenship Act, 1955.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 2nd June 2026

1 / 3

1) With reference to Telangana State Formation Day, consider the following statements:

Telangana State Formation Day is celebrated on 2 June.
Telangana became a separate State in 2014.
Telangana was created through the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Telangana Formation Day is celebrated on 2 June.
Statement 2 is correct: Telangana became a separate State in 2014.
Statement 3 is correct: It was created through the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014.

2 / 3

2) With reference to National Family Health Survey-6, consider the following statements:

NFHS-6 was conducted during 2023–24.
International Institute for Population Sciences, Mumbai was the nodal agency.
NFHS-6 covered nearly 6.79 lakh households across 715 districts.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct: NFHS-6 was conducted during 2023–24.
Statement 2 is Correct: IIPS Mumbai acted as the nodal agency.
Statement 3 is Correct: The survey covered nearly 6.79 lakh households across 715 districts.

Additional Information: NFHS provides important data on health, nutrition, population and family welfare indicators.

3 / 3

3) With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

It is produced through electrolysis using renewable energy.
It produces almost no greenhouse gas emissions during production.
It is produced mainly from coal gasification.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Green hydrogen is produced through electrolysis using renewable energy.
Statement 2 is correct: It has almost zero emissions during production.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Coal gasification produces brown hydrogen.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 3rd June 2026

1 / 3

1) With reference to El Niño, consider the following statements:

It is linked with abnormal warming of surface waters in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean.
It may weaken the Indian southwest monsoon.
It is the same as La Niña.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: El Niño is caused by abnormal warming of Pacific Ocean surface waters.
Statement 2 is correct: El Niño often weakens the Indian southwest monsoon.
Statement 3 is incorrect: La Niña is the opposite phase, marked by cooling of Pacific waters.

2 / 3

2) With reference to the India–Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement, consider the following statements:

The agreement entered into force on 1 June 2026.
It provides duty-free access for 99.38% of India’s exports to Oman by value.
Oman is India’s largest trading partner in the Gulf region.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All the three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct: The India–Oman CEPA entered into force on 1 June 2026.
Statement 2 is Correct: It provides duty-free access for 99.38% of India’s exports to Oman by value.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: Oman is India’s second-largest trading partner in the Gulf region, not the largest.

Additional Information: The agreement is significant because it gives Indian exporters better access to Oman and creates opportunities in the wider GCC and East African markets.

3 / 3

3) With reference to Prison Statistics India Report 2024, consider the following statements:

India’s prison occupancy rate was 112.7% in 2024.
Undertrials formed nearly 73% of the total prison population.
Convicts formed the majority of India’s prison population.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The national prison occupancy rate was 112.7% in 2024.
Statement 2 is correct: Undertrials formed around 73% of inmates.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Undertrials, not convicts, formed the majority.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 4th June 2026

1 / 3

1) With reference to Telangana Rising Global Summit 2026, consider the following statements:

South African industrialists were invited to participate in the summit.
The summit is scheduled to be held at Bharat Future City.
The summit is linked only with agriculture cooperation.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: South African businesses were invited to participate in the Telangana Rising Global Summit 2026.
Statement 2 is correct: The summit is scheduled at Bharat Future City.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The discussions covered education, skills, medical tourism, investments, technology, startups and life sciences.
access to African markets through the African Continental Free Trade Area.

2 / 3

2) Which of the following is a major cause of ground-level ozone formation during summer?

Direct release of ozone from vehicles

Reaction of NOx and VOCs in strong sunlight

Freezing of pollutants near the ground

Absorption of ozone by urban wetlands

Ground-level ozone is a secondary pollutant. It is not directly released from vehicles or industries. It forms when nitrogen oxides (NOx) from vehicles and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) from industries, paints, solvents and fuel emissions react in the presence of strong sunlight.

Additional Information

During summer, high temperature and intense sunlight speed up this chemical reaction. This is why ozone pollution often increases during hot afternoons, especially in urban areas.

3 / 3

3) With reference to the right to be forgotten, consider the following statements:

It allows individuals to seek removal or restricted access to outdated or irrelevant personal information.
It is absolute and cannot be restricted in public interest.
It is linked with the right to privacy.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The right allows individuals to seek removal or de-indexing of personal data in certain cases.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is not absolute and must be balanced with public interest and open justice.
Statement 3 is correct: It is linked with informational privacy under Article 21.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 5th June 2026

1 / 4

1) Which of the following best explains the term “hyperscaler”?

A small storage device used by individuals

A company providing large-scale cloud computing and data infrastructure services

A traditional postal communication system

A cooling device used only in agriculture

A hyperscaler is a large technology company that provides cloud computing, data storage and digital infrastructure services at a massive scale. These companies operate large data centres to support services such as artificial intelligence, cloud platforms, digital payments, e-commerce and online applications.

Examples include AWS, Microsoft Azure, Google Cloud and Oracle Cloud.

2 / 4

2) Consider the following statements regarding India–Myanmar relations:

India is Myanmar’s fourth largest trading partner.
India has implemented humanitarian assistance operations such as Operation Sadbhav and Operation Brahma for Myanmar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: India has emerged as Myanmar’s fourth largest trading partner, with bilateral trade valued at around USD 2.1 billion in FY25.
Statement 2 is correct: India has provided humanitarian and disaster relief assistance to Myanmar through Operation Sadbhav (2024) and Operation Brahma (2025).

Additional Information

India exports pharmaceuticals, machinery, vehicles, cotton, cereals, and electrical equipment to Myanmar.
Key connectivity projects include the Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project, Sittwe Port, and the India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway.
Myanmar banks have established Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVA) to facilitate trade in Indian Rupees.
India supports development projects through the Border Area Development Programme (BADP) and the Rakhine State Development Programme (RSDP).

3 / 4

3) Consider the following statements regarding India–Myanmar relations:

India is Myanmar’s fourth largest trading partner.
India has implemented humanitarian assistance operations such as Operation Sadbhav and Operation Brahma for Myanmar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: India has emerged as Myanmar’s fourth largest trading partner, with bilateral trade valued at around USD 2.1 billion in FY25.
Statement 2 is correct: India has provided humanitarian and disaster relief assistance to Myanmar through Operation Sadbhav (2024) and Operation Brahma (2025).

Additional Information

India exports pharmaceuticals, machinery, vehicles, cotton, cereals, and electrical equipment to Myanmar.
Key connectivity projects include the Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project, Sittwe Port, and the India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway.
Myanmar banks have established Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVA) to facilitate trade in Indian Rupees.
India supports development projects through the Border Area Development Programme (BADP) and the Rakhine State Development Programme (RSDP).

4 / 4

4) Which tribal community is most directly associated with concerns regarding the Great Nicobar Project?

Jarawa

Shompen

Toda

Bhil

Explanation:
The Shompen are a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group living in Great Nicobar. Their habitat and way of life may be affected by large-scale development.

Additional Information:
The Nicobarese community is also important in discussions on the island’s social and cultural landscape.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 8th June 2026

1 / 3

1) With reference to Pochampally Ikat, consider the following statements:

It is associated with Telangana.
It uses the tie-and-dye weaving technique.
It received Geographical Indication status in 2005.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Pochampally Ikat is a famous handloom tradition of Telangana.
Statement 2 is correct: It uses the Ikat or tie-and-dye technique.
Statement 3 is correct: Pochampally Ikat received GI status in 2005.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following countries in the context of the number of Ramsar Sites:

India
Mexico
United Kingdom

What is the correct order of these countries from the highest to the lowest number of Ramsar Sites?

3 – 2 – 1

2 – 3 – 1

3 – 1 – 2

1 – 2 – 3

Explanation:

According to the given information:

United Kingdom has the highest number of Ramsar Sites with 176 sites.
It is followed by Mexico.
India comes next and has reached 100 Ramsar Sites.

So, the correct order is:

United Kingdom → Mexico → India

That is:

3 → 2 → 1

3 / 3

3) Which of the following cases is associated with the issue of repeated re-promulgation of Ordinances?

Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar

Minerva Mills v. Union of India

Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

Explanation:

D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar is associated with the Supreme Court’s ruling against repeated re-promulgation of Ordinances.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 9th June 2026

1 / 3

1) With reference to Heritage Special Tourism Areas in Telangana, consider the following pairs:

S. No.	Special Tourism Area	Tentative Destination
I	Warangal	Warangal Fort & Temples, Pakhal Lake
II	Palakurthy	Cheriyal, Valmidi, Jafargad
III	Karimnagar	Elgandal Fort, Silver Filigree, Ramagiri Fort

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

All the three

None

Explanation

Pair I is correctly matched. Warangal includes Warangal Fort & Temples, Pakhal Lake and Guduru Wildlife Sanctuary.
Pair II is correctly matched. Palakurthy includes Palakurthy, Bommera, Pembarti, Cheriyal, Valmidi and Jafargad.
Pair III is correctly matched. Karimnagar includes Elgandal Fort, Silver Filigree, Manthani Temples and Ramagiri Fort.

2 / 3

2) With reference to decentralised solar power, consider the following statements:

It involves generating electricity close to the place of use.
Rooftop solar and solar pumps are examples of decentralised solar power.
It always requires large solar parks.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Decentralised solar power is generated near the point of use.
Statement 2 is correct: Rooftop solar panels and solar pumps are examples.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Large solar parks are centralised solar projects, not decentralised systems.

3 / 3

3) With reference to BHAVYA industrial parks, consider the following facilities:

Assured water and power supply
Digital single-window clearances
Worker housing and social infrastructure
Modern testing facilities

Which of the above may be provided under the scheme

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

BHAVYA parks are expected to provide water, power, connectivity, digital clearances, worker-support facilities and testing infrastructure.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 10th June 2026

1 / 4

1) With reference to NIRMAL Sagar, consider the following statements:

It is a marine litter tracking programme for the Indian Ocean Region.
It was launched by INCOIS.
It uses tools such as satellite remote sensing, AI and machine learning.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: NIRMAL Sagar aims to track marine litter in the Indian Ocean Region.
Statement 2 is correct: It was launched by INCOIS.
Statement 3 is correct: It uses ocean modelling, satellite remote sensing, AI and machine learning.

2 / 4

2) World Oceans Day is observed every year on:

5 June

8 June

11 July

16 September

Explanation:

World Oceans Day is observed annually on June 8 under the United Nations framework.

3 / 4

3) Consider the following pairs:

Project / Scheme	Sector
UDAN	Regional air connectivity
Sagarmala	Port-led development
Kavach	Railway safety
PM-WANI	Public Wi-Fi access

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

UDAN is related to regional air connectivity.
Sagarmala promotes port-led development.
Kavach is India’s indigenous automatic train protection system.
PM-WANI expands public Wi-Fi access.

4 / 4

4) Consider the following countries in terms of cotton lint productivity:

Australia
China
Brazil
India

Which of the following correctly represents a broad comparison of productivity levels?

India has higher productivity than Australia and China

Brazil has lower productivity than India

India’s productivity is far below Australia, China and Brazil

India has the highest cotton productivity in the world

Explanation:

India has the largest cotton-growing area, but its lint productivity is only around 441 kg/ha.
This is far below Australia, China and Brazil.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 11th June 2026

1 / 3

1) With reference to Arudra purugu, consider the following statements:

It is commonly known as red velvet mite or rain bug.
It is considered a traditional indicator of monsoon arrival .
It is a major crop pest that damages paddy fields.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Arudra purugu is commonly known as red velvet mite or rain bug.
Statement 2 is correct: Farmers in Telangana associate its appearance with monsoon rains.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is not a major crop pest. It is considered beneficial for soil health and natural pest control.

2 / 3

2) With reference to SIPRI Yearbook 2026, consider the following statements:

India’s nuclear arsenal was estimated at around 190 warheads by early 2026.
India was the world’s fifth-largest military spender in 2025.
India was the world’s second-largest importer of major arms during 2021–25.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: SIPRI estimated India’s nuclear stockpile at around 190 warheads.
Statement 2 is correct: India was the fifth-largest military spender.
Statement 3 is correct: India was the second-largest arms importer during 2021–25.

3 / 3

3) Consider the following pairs:

Term	Meaning
CRR	Cash kept by banks with RBI
SLR	Liquid assets maintained by banks
FBIL	Publishes benchmark rates and forex reference rates

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

CRR refers to the cash reserve banks keep with the RBI.
SLR refers to liquid assets such as cash, gold or government securities.
FBIL publishes benchmark interest rates and foreign exchange reference rates.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 12th June 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements about VB-G RAM G:

It is a rural employment guarantee scheme.
It replaces MGNREGA.
It increases guaranteed workdays from 100 days to 125 days.
It introduces a 60-day pause during peak agricultural sowing and harvesting seasons.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: VB-G RAM G is a new rural employment guarantee scheme.
Statement 2 is correct: It replaces MGNREGA.
Statement 3 is correct: It increases guaranteed workdays from 100 days to 125 days.
Statement 4 is correct: It introduces a 60-day pause during peak agricultural sowing and harvesting seasons to protect labour availability for agriculture.

Additional Information:
VB-G RAM G aims to provide wage employment to rural households while balancing the labour needs of agriculture during important farming seasons.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following countries in the context of places where UPI is accepted:

Singapore
United Arab Emirates
Nepal
Sri Lanka
Cambodia

Which of the above are among the countries where UPI is accepted?

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4 only

2, 3, 4 and 5 only

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation:

Singapore – Correct. Singapore is one of the countries where UPI is accepted.
United Arab Emirates – Correct. UAE is also included among the countries accepting UPI.
Nepal – Correct. Nepal is one of the countries where UPI is accepted.
Sri Lanka – Correct. Sri Lanka is also listed among the countries where UPI is accepted.
Cambodia – Correct. Cambodia is included in the list of countries where UPI is accepted.

Additional Information:

UPI is accepted in nine countries:

Singapore
United Arab Emirates
France
Mauritius
Nepal
Bhutan
Qatar
Sri Lanka
Cambodia

3 / 3

3) With reference to the draft election rules for Nicobarese tribal councils, consider the following statements:

The draft rules propose formal elections for Village Councils and Tribal Councils.
The rules include preparation of electoral rolls and delimitation of constituencies.
The rules seek to abolish all tribal councils permanently.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: The draft rules propose formal elections for Village and Tribal Councils.
Statement 2 is correct: They include electoral rolls and constituencies.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The rules do not abolish tribal councils; they seek to formalise elections to them.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 15th June 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding PM-JANMAN:

It is targeted at Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
It covers 75 PVTG communities across 18 States and one Union Territory.
It includes interventions related to housing, connectivity, health and skilling.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct:
PM-JANMAN, or Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan, is specifically designed for the comprehensive development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
Statement 2 is correct:
The mission covers 75 PVTG communities living across 18 States and one Union Territory.
Statement 3 is correct:
PM-JANMAN follows a multi-sector approach and includes interventions such as:
- Pucca housing , Road connectivity , Piped drinking water ,Electrification , Mobile medical units , Anganwadi centres , Hostels , Mobile towers ,,Van Dhan Vikas Kendras, Vocational skilling

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding memory chips:

DRAM is commonly used in smartphones and computers.
HBM is mainly associated with AI processors and data centres.
HBM generally provides slower data transfer than conventional DRAM.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: DRAM is commonly used as working memory in consumer electronics.
Statement 2 is correct: HBM is essential for advanced AI processors and data centres.
Statement 3 is incorrect: HBM provides much faster data transfer than conventional DRAM.

3 / 3

3) With reference to the Telangana Rising Global Summit, consider the following statements:

It is proposed to be organised annually at Bharat Future City.
It aims to attract global investment and Fortune 500 companies.
Its first edition was held in December 2025.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The government plans to institutionalise it as an annual event at Bharat Future City.
Statement 2 is correct: It seeks to attract global investors and leading corporate executives.
Statement 3 is correct: The first summit was held on December 8–9, 2025.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 16th June 2026

1 / 3

1) Which of the following organisations are involved in the first phase of Telangana’s Breakfast Scheme?

Hare Krishna Movement Charitable Trust
Manna Trust
Food and Agriculture Organization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Hare Krishna Movement Charitable Trust and Manna Trust will implement the first phase. The Food and Agriculture Organization is not mentioned as an implementing partner.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following in the context of the benefits of E85 fuel:

Lower price than conventional petrol
Reduction in lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions
Superior knock resistance due to higher octane number
Cleaner combustion with near-zero particulate matter emissions

Which of the above are benefits of E85 fuel?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Lower price than conventional petrol – Correct. E85 is priced nearly ₹20 per litre lower than conventional petrol.
Reduction in lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions – Correct. Flex-fuel vehicles using E85 can reduce lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions by around 61 per cent.
Superior knock resistance due to higher octane number – Correct. Ethanol has a Research Octane Number of about 108, which gives better knock resistance.
Cleaner combustion with near-zero particulate matter emissions – Correct. Higher ethanol blends promote cleaner and more complete combustion.

Additional Information:

The content also highlights that wider use of E85 can help in:

reducing crude oil imports
saving foreign exchange
increasing income flow to farmers
improving urban air quality
reducing CO₂ emissions

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding the National Beekeeping and Honey Mission (NBHM):

It was launched in 2020 to promote scientific beekeeping and rural livelihoods.
Honey production in India increased from 0.081 million tonnes to 0.152 million tonnes.
India’s honey exports increased by about 240%.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NBHM was launched in 2020 to promote scientific beekeeping, rural employment and additional income for farmers.
Statement 2 is correct: Honey production increased from 0.081 million tonnes to 0.152 million tonnes.
Statement 3 is correct: Honey exports grew by about 240%, strengthening India’s position in the global honey market.

Additional Information

Beekeeping supports:

Crop pollination
Farm productivity
Rural livelihoods
Value addition through honey and other bee products

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 17th June 2026

1 / 4

1) Which one of the following was the theme of the Global Wind Day Conference 2026?

Harnessing Wind for a Sustainable Future

Wind Energy: From Ambition to Acceleration

Accelerating the Global Green Transition

Wind Power for Climate Resilience

The theme of the Global Wind Day Conference 2026 was “Wind Energy: From Ambition to Acceleration.” The conference was held in Goa on 15 June 2026.

2 / 4

2) Global Wind Day is observed every year on which one of the following dates?

5 June

8 June

15 June

21 June

Global Wind Day is observed annually on 15 June to promote awareness about wind energy and its role in clean energy transition and climate change mitigation.

3 / 4

3) With reference to flagship household welfare schemes, consider the following pairs:

Scheme	Year of Launch
I. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)	2016
II. Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (SAUBHAGYA)	2017
III. PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana	2023

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

I and II only

II and III only

I and III only

I, II and III

Pair I: Correct. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was launched in May 2016 to provide clean LPG connections.

Pair II: Correct. Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (SAUBHAGYA) was launched in 2017 to provide last-mile electricity connections.

Pair III: Not correct. PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana was launched in February 2024, not 2023.

Hence, pairs I and II are correctly matched.

Additional Information

PMUY: Launched in 2016
SAUBHAGYA: Launched in 2017
PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana: Launched in 2024

4 / 4

4) Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyaan:

It provides free antenatal care at designated government health facilities on the 9th of every month.
It primarily covers women in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy.
It is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: PMSMA services are provided on the 9th of every month.
Statement 2 is correct: It focuses particularly on pregnant women in their second and third trimesters.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Your score is

TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 18th June 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding Telangana Public Schools:

They provide facilities comparable to corporate educational institutions.
They focus on academics, sports and personality development.
They are intended exclusively for students belonging to a particular community.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The schools have facilities comparable to corporate institutions.
Statement 2 is correct: They include academics, sports, cultural activities and personality development.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The schools seek to bring students from all communities together.

2 / 3

2) Consider the following diseases in the context of zoonotic diseases:

Rabies
Nipah
Ebola
Brucellosis

Which of the above are examples of zoonotic diseases?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Rabies – Correct. Rabies is a zoonotic disease transmitted between animals and humans.
Nipah – Correct. Nipah is also an example of a zoonotic disease.
Ebola – Correct. Ebola is included among zoonotic diseases.
Brucellosis – Correct. Brucellosis is another zoonotic disease Additional Information:

Zoonotic diseases are infectious diseases transmitted between animals and humans. They can be caused by:

bacteria
viruses
parasites
fungi

3 / 3

3) Consider the following statements regarding sustainable agriculture:

Permaculture and agroforestry integrate trees and shrubs into agricultural landscapes.
Reduced tillage helps maintain soil structure and enhances carbon storage.
Drip irrigation delivers water directly to the root zone and reduces wastage.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Permaculture and agroforestry support pollinators, carbon sequestration and water-runoff management.
Statement 2 is correct: Reduced tillage minimises soil disturbance, preserves soil structure and helps store carbon.
Statement 3 is correct: Drip irrigation supplies water directly to plant roots, improving water-use efficiency.

Your score is

SYLLABUS

PYQ'S

OPTIONAL

GROUP I

SYLLABUS

STUDY MATERIAL

PYQ'S

GROUP II

SYLLABUS

STUDY MATERIAL

PYQ'S

GROUP I

SYLLABUS

STUDY MATERIAL

PYQ'S

GROUP II

UPSC

TGPSC

APPSC

UPSC

APPSC G1 and G2

TGPSC G1 and G2

UPSC

TGPSC

APPSC

PYQ's

SYLLABUS

PYQ'S

OPTIONAL

GROUP I

SYLLABUS

STUDY MATERIAL

PYQ'S

GROUP II

SYLLABUS

STUDY MATERIAL

PYQ'S

GROUP I

SYLLABUS

STUDY MATERIAL

PYQ'S

GROUP II

UPSC

TGPSC

APPSC

UPSC

APPSC G1 and G2

TGPSC G1 and G2

UPSC

TGPSC

APPSC

PYQ's

TGPSC Current Affairs Reverse Engineering Prelims Practice

2026 Preparation Guide

Category: TGPSC CARE Prelims Practice September 2026

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3) With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements: