News at a Glance
- Telangana: Supreme Court dismisses Telangana’s plea against HC order
- Bathymetric survey to measure the depth of lakes as part of HMDA Master Plan
- Polity and Governance: Kerala Hijab Controversy – Institutional Discipline vs. Religious Freedom
- Geography: Northeast Monsoon– Timely Onset Brings Relief and Agricultural Promise for Southern India
- Culture: Strengthening Public-Private Partnerships for Sustainable Heritage Conservation in India
- Environment and Ecology: Alarming Surge in CO₂ and Greenhouse Gases Highlights Deepening Climate Crisis
- International Relations: China’s K Visa as an Emerging Alternative to the U.S. H1B for Global STEM Talent
- Science and Technology: The Internet and Social Cohesion – Rethinking Governance and Platform Economics for Balanced Discourse
Supreme Court dismisses Telangana’s plea against HC order
Source: The Hindu
TGPSC Relevance: Polity and Governance
Context: OBC reservation in local body elections
Why in News?
The Supreme Court of India dismissed Telangana’s appeal challenging the High Court order that stayed the State’s decision to enhance OBC reservation to 42% in local body elections.
Introduction
- The Supreme Court of India (SC) recently dismissed the Telangana government’s appeal challenging a State High Court order that had stayed the enhancement of the Other Backward Classes (OBC) reservation in municipalities and panchayats to 42%.
- This issue revolves around the constitutional ceiling on reservations and its application to local self-government institutions.
Background:
- Telangana had issued Government Orders (GOs) to increase OBC reservation in local bodies from the existing level to 42%, alongside 15% for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and 10% for Scheduled Tribes (STs).
- The move was intended to empower marginalized communities and ensure greater representation in local governance.
- The State High Court, however, stayed these GOs, observing that the total reservation would rise to 67%, exceeding the 50% ceiling established by the Supreme Court in prior rulings.
- Importantly, the High Court did not stay the elections themselves, and the State Election Commission was directed to conduct polls while capping reservations at 50%.
Supreme Court Observations:
- A Bench of Justices Vikram Nath and Sandeep Mehta declined to interfere with the High Court’s interim order.
- The SC emphasized adherence to Constitution Bench rulings fixing a 50% ceiling on reservations, stating that it cannot take a view inconsistent with established law.
- The Court allowed local body elections to proceed without the proposed hike in OBC quotas.
- The SC questioned the timing of the government’s decision, noting that the reservation hike was introduced after the election notification and that formal assent for the Bill was pending.
Arguments by Telangana Government:
- The State argued that the reservation enhancement was a policy decision aimed at empowering marginalized sections.
- Senior counsel cited the 1992 Indra Sawhney v. Union of India judgment to contend that the 50% ceiling could be breached in exceptional circumstances.
- The government also referred to the concept of “deemed assent” from the Tamil Nadu Governor case, arguing that delay in Governor’s approval should not impede the policy.
- Emphasized that extraordinary local situations might require flexibility in applying the 50% ceiling due to India’s diversity and unique regional conditions.
(Image Source: The Hindu)
Arguments by Opposing Party:
- Senior counsel Gopal Sankaranarayanan highlighted that the High Court’s interim stay followed well-established constitutional principles, citing Vikas Kishanrao Gawali (2021), which reaffirmed the 50% limit.
- The State’s GOs had lapsed on August 30, making subsequent orders legally untenable.
Key Legal Principles Involved:
- 50% Reservation Ceiling:
- Established by the Constitution Bench and reinforced in multiple judgments to prevent excessive fragmentation of merit-based public representation.
- Triple Test (K. Krishna Murthy v. Union of India, 2010):
- Identification of backwardness
- Determination of inadequate representation
- Ensuring administrative efficiency
- Must be followed before extending reservation in local bodies.
- Exceptional Circumstances Clause:
- While 50% is a general rule, courts have recognized that certain extraordinary situations might justify exceeding the ceiling, but such exceptions require robust justification.
Implications:
- This ruling reinforces the Supreme Court’s commitment to the 50% ceiling on reservations in local bodies.
- States must ensure that reservation policies comply with the legal framework and follow the triple test before implementation.
- While aiming for social justice through increased representation, states must balance it with constitutional limits and administrative feasibility.
- The judgment also signals judicial caution against retrospective or belated policy changes that may conflict with election timelines.
Current Status:
- Telangana local body elections are scheduled for October 23 and 27, 2025, to proceed with reservations capped at 50%.
- The larger question of whether the 50% ceiling can be flexibly interpreted remains pending, and the State may approach the judiciary in the future for clarity.
CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Telangana OBC quota issue in local body elections:
- The Supreme Court upheld the 50% ceiling on total reservations in local body elections, disallowing the proposed 42% OBC quota increase.
- The High Court stayed the increase in OBC reservation but allowed elections to proceed with total reservations capped at 50%.
- The “triple test” for extending reservations includes identification of backwardness, determination of inadequate representation, and ensuring administrative efficiency.
- The Supreme Court allowed the State government to exceed the 50% reservation ceiling in exceptional circumstances without justification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer 1- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court emphasized the 50% reservation ceiling, disallowing Telangana’s proposed increase.
- Statement 2 is correct: The High Court had stayed the GOs on enhanced OBC reservation but allowed elections to proceed with total reservations capped at 50%.
- Statement 3 is correct: The “triple test” from K. Krishna Murthy v. Union of India (2010) must be followed before extending reservations.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: The Supreme Court did not allow the State to exceed the 50% ceiling without proper justification.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Bathymetric survey to measure the depth of lakes as part of HMDA Master Plan
Source: The Hindu
TGPSC Relevance: Sports
Context: Bathymetric Survey- HMDA
Why in News?
HMDA plans a bathymetric survey of lakes and water bodies to create an accurate base map for urban planning and water management in Telangana.
Introduction
- The Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA) is set to undertake a bathymetric survey of lakes and water bodies as part of its Master Plan exercise.
- The survey will scientifically measure the depth and underwater terrain of water bodies to improve the accuracy of urban planning, water management, and land-use decisions.
Key Features of the Initiative:
- Bathymetric Survey Methodology:
- A bathymetric survey involves measuring the depth and underwater terrain of lakes using echo-sounding (sonar) devices.
- This helps distinguish actual water bodies from stagnant water, ensuring precise mapping of tanks, lakes, and surplus channels.
Objectives of the Survey:
- Accurate Water Body Identification: Determine the full tank levels of each water body at multiple locations.
- Urban Planning Aid: Assist planning officials to differentiate between permanent water bodies and temporary or stagnant water, avoiding errors in previous master plans.
- Support Base Map Preparation: Create a scientifically accurate base map for HMDA’s extended area of 11,500 square kilometres, including the Future City Development Authority (FCDA – 762 sq km) and the Yadadri Temple Development Authority (YTDA – 98 sq km).
- Technological Integration:
- For the 2,053 sq km Telangana Core Urban Region (TCUR), a three-dimensional map will be prepared using Digital Elevation Model (DEM).
- For the remaining areas, a two-dimensional map will be created using Digital Surface Model (DSM) via LiDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) technology.
- This time, lat-long coordinates will form the primary basis for mapping, moving away from traditional survey numbers, though they may be superimposed.
Significance for Planning and Development:
- Prevent Planning Errors: Earlier master plans mistakenly recorded stagnant water as permanent water bodies, leading to complications. The survey will reduce such discrepancies.
- Water Resource Management: Helps in better management of lakes, surplus channels, and stormwater infrastructure.
- Facilitates Development Authorities: FCDA and YTDA can prepare their own master plans based on the accurate base map provided by HMDA.
- Scientific Urban Governance: Ensures evidence-based decision-making and reduces environmental and administrative controversies.
- Timeline and Implementation:
- The Request for Proposal (RFP) for the bathymetric survey will be issued soon.
- LiDAR surveys for the TCUR region are expected between December 2025 and June 2026.
(Image Source: The Hindu)
Significance and Implications:
- Enhanced Accuracy in Urban Planning: Accurate identification of water bodies ensures proper zoning, land use, and flood management in Hyderabad and surrounding areas.
- Environmental Management: Identifying true water bodies helps in conservation, pollution control, and ecological planning, maintaining the hydrological balance.
- Integration of Advanced Technology: Use of DEM, DSM, LiDAR, and lat-long coordinates demonstrates the shift towards technology-driven urban governance in Indian cities.
- Supporting Future Development: Provides a reliable base for FCDA and YTDA master plans, enabling well-informed infrastructure and cultural development projects, including urban expansion and temple town planning.
Conclusion:
- The bathymetric survey by HMDA represents a scientific and technology-driven approach to urban planning, ensuring accurate water body mapping, better environmental management, and improved infrastructure development.
CARE MCQ
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the HMDA bathymetric survey:
- It will use sonar-based bathymetric techniques to measure water body depths.
- The survey aims to distinguish between permanent water bodies and stagnant water.
- The base map for HMDA will use lat-long coordinates instead of traditional survey numbers.
- Only two-dimensional mapping will be done for all areas under HMDA jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) All of the above
Answer 2- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: The survey will use sonar (echo-sounding) devices to measure depths of lakes and water bodies.
- Statement 2 is correct: One of the main objectives is to differentiate between true water bodies and stagnant water to avoid planning errors.
- Statement 3 is correct: The base map will be primarily based on lat-long coordinates, with survey numbers only superimposed.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: A three-dimensional map will be prepared for the Telangana Core Urban Region, while only remaining areas will have two-dimensional mapping.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Kerala Hijab Controversy – Institutional Discipline vs. Religious Freedom
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS 2 Polity and Governance
Context: Kerala Hijab Controversy
Why in News?
Kerala’s St. Rita’s Public School faced a controversy in October 2025 when a student was denied permission to attend classes wearing a hijab.
Introduction
- The Kerala hijab row unfolded at St. Rita’s Public School, a church-run institution affiliated with the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) in Palluruthy, Kochi, Ernakulam district.
- The controversy began when a Class 8 student appeared on campus wearing a hijab (headscarf), which the school management alleged violated the prescribed uniform policy.
- The issue quickly escalated along religious and political lines, drawing attention from the Kerala High Court, state government officials, political parties, and media, highlighting the sensitive interplay between religious freedom, education rights, and institutional autonomy.
Legal and Administrative Perspectives
School Management’s Stand:
- The uniform policy had been in place for nearly three decades without previous violations.
- The school cited a 2018 Kerala High Court ruling, which upheld that private educational institutions have the right to frame rules for uniforms and manage administration autonomously, including decisions on dress code.
- The management maintained that the student was never barred from attending classes.
Parents’ and Education Department’s View:
- The parents claimed that the school violated the student’s fundamental right to freedom of religion.
- The district education authorities alleged that the school denied the student her right to education, as she was reportedly made to stand outside the classroom.
(Image Source: The Hindu)
Constitutional Mandate Relevant to the Kerala Hijab Row
- Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Constitution):
- Article 25 – Freedom of Religion:
- Guarantees freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality, and health.
- The student’s right to wear a hijab could be argued under “practice of religion”, but it is not absolute and must be balanced against institutional rules and public order.
- Article 14 – Right to Equality:
- Ensures equality before law and equal protection of laws.
- Any rule applied by the school, such as a uniform policy, must be non-discriminatory and applied equally to all students, irrespective of religion, caste, or gender.
- Article 19(1)(g) – Right to Practice Profession/Occupation:
- Recognized in the educational context as the right to access educational institutions.
- Denial of entry to a student based on religious attire could be interpreted as interference with this right, though private institutions also have autonomy in administration.
- Article 21 – Right to Life and Personal Liberty:
- Right to education (read with Article 21A) is considered part of life and personal liberty.
- Schools must not deny education arbitrarily, and the student must have access to learning without discrimination.
- Article 25 – Freedom of Religion:
- Autonomy of Educational Institutions:
- Recognized by courts (e.g., Kerala High Court, 2018 ruling):
- Private educational institutions have the fundamental right to manage and administer their institution.
- Includes framing rules on uniforms, discipline, and administration.
- Autonomy must be balanced with constitutional rights of students, especially freedom of religion and right to education.
- Recognized by courts (e.g., Kerala High Court, 2018 ruling):
- Balancing Test:
- The issue represents a classic case of balancing competing constitutional rights:
- Individual religious freedom (Article 25) vs. institutional autonomy (Article 19(1)(g) + administrative rights).
- Courts often apply a proportionality test: whether the restriction is reasonable, non-discriminatory, and serves a legitimate aim (such as uniformity and discipline).
- The issue represents a classic case of balancing competing constitutional rights:
Key Takeaways
- Balance Between Rights and Rules: The case underscores the delicate balance between individual rights and institutional autonomy in Indian schools.
- Role of Mediation: Intervention by elected representatives and constructive dialogue helped de-escalate tensions, demonstrating the importance of negotiation and consensus in sensitive socio-religious issues.
- Legal Precedent: Upholds private institutions’ autonomy in framing uniform policies, subject to legal compliance and fundamental rights.
- Sociopolitical Implications: Highlights how religion, politics, and education intersect, often influencing public perception and policy debates.
Conclusion
- The Kerala hijab controversy was a manifestation of clashes between individual religious expression and institutional regulations.
CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Kerala hijab row and constitutional provisions:
- Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate religion, subject to public order, morality, and health.
- Private educational institutions have the autonomy to frame and enforce rules, including uniform policies, as recognized by the judiciary.
- Denying a student admission for violating the uniform code cannot be challenged under Articles 14, 19(1)(g), or 21, as these rights apply only to government institutions.
- The issue involves balancing individual religious rights with institutional autonomy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only
Answer 1- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Article 25 guarantees the freedom of religion, allowing individuals to practice their religion, subject to public order, morality, and health.
- Statement 2 is correct: Courts, including the Kerala High Court (2018), have recognized the autonomy of private educational institutions to frame and enforce rules, including uniform policies.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Fundamental rights under Articles 14, 19(1)(g), and 21 can be invoked against private institutions in matters like right to education and non-discrimination, so it is not restricted only to government institutions.
- Statement 4 is correct: The controversy reflects the need to balance individual religious rights with institutional autonomy in education.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (2021)
- (a) Article 15
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 29
Ans: (c)
Northeast Monsoon– Timely Onset Brings Relief and Agricultural Promise for Southern India
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS1 Geography
Context: Northeast Monsoon
Why in News?
The timely arrival of the 2025 northeast monsoon benefits agriculture in southern India, especially Tamil Nadu and coastal Andhra Pradesh.
Introduction
- The northeast monsoon, also known as the retreating monsoon, is a critical weather system for the southern peninsula of India. It primarily affects Tamil Nadu, coastal Andhra Pradesh, and the Rayalaseema region.
- Unlike the southwest monsoon, which dominates from June to September, the northeast monsoon typically sets in around October 20 (±7 days).
- However, in 2025, it arrived on October 16, providing early relief to farmers and authorities.
Significance of the Northeast Monsoon
Agricultural Importance:
- The northeast monsoon contributes 48% of Tamil Nadu’s annual rainfall and over 30% of Andhra Pradesh’s, making it a vital source of water for crops, especially paddy, sugarcane, and pulses.
- Its timely arrival ensures adequate soil moisture, mitigates drought conditions, and supports the rabi cropping season.
- The early onset of monsoon in 2025 is particularly beneficial amidst concerns like fertilizer shortages, especially urea, which has affected multiple southern states. Tamil Nadu’s Chief Minister M.K. Stalin had raised this issue with the Union Ministry of Agriculture, prompting an increase in urea allocation to 36.65 lakh tonnes in October 2025.
Disaster Management Perspective:
- The northeast monsoon is accompanied by cyclonic disturbances in the Bay of Bengal—at least three per season on average—along with cloudbursts and heavy rainfall events, particularly in urban areas.
- Chennai and other coastal cities are prone to urban flooding, largely due to inadequate stormwater drains, poor watercourse maintenance, and encroachment on water bodies.
- Lessons from the past decade indicate that effective coordination among agencies has reduced the loss of lives, although infrastructural and community-level challenges remain.
(Image Source: Siam Divers.com)
Government and Administrative Measures
- Real-Time Flood Forecasting:
- The Tamil Nadu government is establishing a real-time flood forecasting system for Chennai to manage reservoir discharges effectively and prevent urban inundation.
- Other southern states are similarly preparing their official machinery for disaster response, highlighting a proactive approach to monsoon management.
- Community Participation and Urban Governance:
- Authorities emphasize the role of local residents in maintaining water bodies and preventing dumping of waste, as community ownership is currently minimal.
- Sustainable urban water management requires joint responsibility between state governments and citizens to mitigate urban flooding.
- Agricultural Supply Chain Preparedness:
- Ensuring adequate availability of fertilizers, particularly urea, is essential to capitalize on timely monsoon rains.
- The government’s intervention in increasing fertilizer allocation illustrates the link between monsoon forecasting and agricultural planning.
Macro Implications and Challenges
- Intense Rainfall:
- The India Meteorological Department (IMD) forecasts “above normal” rainfall—over 112% of the long-period average—raising the need for heightened vigilance at all administrative levels.
- While abundant rainfall benefits agriculture, it can exacerbate flood risks in urban and coastal areas, requiring synchronized disaster preparedness.
- Disaster Risk Reduction:
- Modern challenges like cloudbursts, cyclonic activity, and urbanization demand integrated approaches, combining meteorological forecasts, infrastructure planning, and community engagement.
- Policy and Planning Linkages:
- The northeast monsoon demonstrates the interconnectedness of weather, agriculture, and governance.
- Timely arrival and proper management of monsoon rains not only support farmers and food security but also reduce socio-economic losses from floods and related hazards.
Conclusion
- The early onset of the northeast monsoon in 2025 is a positive development for southern India, particularly for agriculture and disaster management.
CARE MCQ
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the northeast monsoon in India:
- The northeast monsoon contributes nearly 48% of Tamil Nadu’s annual rainfall and over 30% for Andhra Pradesh.
- Cyclonic disturbances over the Bay of Bengal are a regular feature of the northeast monsoon season.
- Urban flooding during the monsoon is solely due to inadequate state government infrastructure.
- Timely arrival of the northeast monsoon aids agricultural planning and crop production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only
Answer 2- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Historical data (1971–2020) shows the northeast monsoon contributes significantly to annual rainfall in Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
- Statement 2 is correct: The monsoon regularly brings three or more cyclonic disturbances over the Bay of Bengal.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Urban flooding is caused by a combination of inadequate infrastructure and poor community management, not solely state responsibility.
- Statement 4 is correct: Timely monsoon rains ensure soil moisture and water availability, aiding agricultural planning.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2017)
- 1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
- 2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Strengthening Public-Private Partnerships for Sustainable Heritage Conservation in India
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS1 Culture and Heritage
Context: India’s heritage conservation
Why in News?
- India’s heritage conservation requires a synergized approach involving the Archaeological Survey of India, private sector participation, and community engagement for sustainable preservation.
Introduction
- India’s rich cultural and architectural heritage—ranging from ancient monuments to historic urban landscapes—is a testament to centuries of artistic, religious, and civic development.
- Preservation of these sites is crucial not only for cultural identity and education but also for tourism and local economic development.
- Institutions like the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) and organizations such as INTACH have historically played a central role in heritage management.
Challenges in Heritage Conservation
- Declining Institutional Capacity:
- The ASI, empowered by Lord Curzon in the early 20th century, commanded respect and effectively protected monuments across India.
- In recent decades, its relevance has been challenged by shifting government priorities, particularly the emphasis on culture and tourism over conservation.
- Bureaucratic delays, inadequate funding, and insufficient technical expertise have further limited its effectiveness.
- Lack of Skilled Manpower and Leadership:
- Heritage conservation requires specialized skills in architecture, archaeology, and community management, which are often in short supply.
- The need for visionary leadership at both institutional and project levels has been a persistent challenge.
- Urbanization and Vested Interests:
- Rapid urban growth and encroachment pose significant threats to heritage sites.
- Local vested interests sometimes obstruct conservation efforts, complicating restoration projects and community engagement.
(Image Source: Indian Express)
Role of the Private Sector
Public-Private Partnerships (PPP):
- The central government’s initiative to invite corporate sponsorship through PPPs provides a model for effective conservation, combining expertise, finance, and management skills.
- Successful examples include the Elephanta Caves and Dr Bhau Daji Lad Museum in Mumbai, where PPP interventions revitalized sites while uplifting local communities.
Expertise and Technology:
- Corporate participation can attract skilled professionals in architecture, conservation science, and ecological management.
- They can also introduce modern project management techniques, digital documentation, and sustainable development plans.
Community Upliftment:
- PPP projects often incorporate programs for training and skill development of local communities, ensuring livelihood opportunities while preserving cultural sites.
- This approach addresses both heritage conservation and socio-economic development, making preservation inclusive and sustainable.
| Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
|
Empowering ASI and Heritage Professionals
- Harmonized Approach:
- Experts argue that the ASI and conservation architects must work in harmony, following the model of historical guilds where expertise was shared and preserved across generations.
- Effective collaboration between government bodies, professionals, and private stakeholders can ensure scientific restoration while respecting historical authenticity.
- Defining ‘Monument’ and Conservation Priorities:
- Clear legal and administrative definitions of monuments are essential to prioritize conservation efforts.
- Decision-makers need to combine historical knowledge with imaginative foresight to identify sites of national significance and allocate resources effectively.
Way Forward
- The preservation of India’s heritage requires a multi-pronged approach:
- Strengthening institutional capacity: Empowering the ASI with funding, autonomy, and professional expertise.
- Leveraging private sector participation: Through PPPs, corporations can bring technical know-how, financial resources, and community engagement.
- Inclusive conservation: Projects should simultaneously preserve heritage and uplift local communities, ensuring sustainability.
- Long-term vision: Heritage conservation must go beyond tourism and politics, emphasizing cultural identity, education, and historical continuity.
Conclusion
- By integrating government efforts, private expertise, and community participation, India can ensure that its monuments and heritage sites not only survive but thrive, becoming enduring symbols of its rich past and sources of inspiration for future generations.
CARE MCQ
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding heritage conservation in India:
- The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) is primarily responsible for protecting and preserving monuments of national importance.
- Public-Private Partnerships (PPP) can bring in technical expertise, funding, and community development initiatives to heritage conservation projects.
- Heritage conservation in India only concerns monuments and does not include community engagement or local livelihoods.
- Empowering conservation architects and harmonizing their work with ASI can improve restoration outcomes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only
Answer 3: B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: ASI is constitutionally mandated to protect monuments of national importance.
- Statement 2 is correct: PPPs help in funding, technical expertise, and community upliftment, making conservation sustainable.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Heritage conservation also involves community engagement and livelihood support, not just monuments.
- Statement 4 is correct: Collaboration between ASI and conservation architects ensures scientific restoration and effective preservation.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. With reference to the art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest? (2015)
(a) Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar
(b) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
(c) Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram
(d) Varaha Image at Udayagiri
Ans: (b)
Alarming Surge in CO₂ and Greenhouse Gases Highlights Deepening Climate Crisis
Source: Down To Earth
UPSC Relevance: GS3 Environment and Ecology
Context: Rise in Greenhouse Gases
Why in News?
The WMO 2024 report highlights record increases in CO2, methane, and nitrous oxide levels, driven by human activities, wildfires, and reduced carbon sink efficiency.
Background
- World Meteorological Organization (WMO) released its Greenhouse Gas Bulletin on October 16, 2025, revealing that carbon dioxide (CO2) and other warming gases reached record levels in 2024.
- This signals an accelerating climate crisis, driven by human activities, wildfires, and reduced efficiency of natural carbon sinks. The report comes just ahead of the 30th Conference of Parties (COP30) to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in Belem, Brazil, highlighting the urgent need for policy action at the global level.
(Image Source: Down To Earth)
Carbon Dioxide (CO₂) and Climate Change
- Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is a naturally occurring greenhouse gas in the Earth’s atmosphere that plays a critical role in regulating the planet’s temperature by trapping heat—a phenomenon known as the greenhouse effect.
- While natural processes maintain a balance, human activities have dramatically increased CO₂ concentrations, leading to global warming and climate change.
- Sources of CO₂
a) Natural Sources:
- Respiration of plants and animals
- Volcanic eruptions
- Decomposition of organic matter
- Ocean-atmosphere exchange
b) Anthropogenic Sources:
- Fossil fuel combustion (coal, oil, natural gas) for electricity, transport, and industry
- Deforestation, which reduces CO₂ absorption by forests
- Industrial processes (cement, steel production)
- Biomass burning
- CO₂ and Global Warming
- CO₂ traps infrared radiation emitted from Earth’s surface, preventing it from escaping into space.
- Increased CO₂ levels intensify the greenhouse effect, leading to a rise in global average temperatures.
- According to the WMO 2024 Greenhouse Gas Bulletin, CO₂ concentrations reached 423.9 ppm, a record high, signaling accelerated warming.
Key Findings of the WMO Report
CO2 Levels Surged:
- Global CO2 concentration reached 423.9 ppm in 2024, up from 377.1 ppm in 2004, marking a 12.5% rise in 20 years.
- The annual increase from 2023 to 2024 was 3.5 ppm, the largest jump since modern measurements began in 1957.
- Since the 1960s, the CO2 growth rate has tripled, from 0.8 ppm/year to 2.4 ppm/year during 2011–2020.
Causes of Record Increase:
- Human emissions: Fossil fuel combustion, industrial activity, and deforestation continue to contribute significantly to atmospheric CO2.
- Wildfires: Large-scale fires in Amazon and southern Africa in 2024 released substantial amounts of CO2.
- Reduced carbon sink efficiency: Land and ocean carbon sinks absorbed less CO2 due to droughts, dry vegetation, and warming temperatures, exacerbated by El Niño, which makes vegetation less effective at sequestering carbon.
Other Greenhouse Gases Rising:
- Methane (CH4): Accounts for ~16% of the warming effect. About 60% of methane emissions are anthropogenic, including cattle, rice farming, fossil fuel use, landfills, and biomass burning; 40% is from natural sources like wetlands.
- Nitrous oxide (N2O): The global average reached 338 ppb in 2024, a 25% increase over pre-industrial levels. Nitrous oxide has a long atmospheric lifetime and contributes significantly to the greenhouse effect.
Impact of El Niño on Greenhouse Gas Emissions
- El Niño events reduce the efficiency of terrestrial carbon sinks, leading to higher CO2 concentrations.
- The 2024 El Niño contributed to exceptional warming, drought, and wildfires, further elevating greenhouse gas levels.
- These phenomena create a “vicious climate cycle”, where higher greenhouse gases intensify warming, triggering more extreme weather events such as heatwaves, floods, and cyclones.
Implications for Climate Change and Policy
Global Warming:
- Rising greenhouse gas concentrations trap heat in the atmosphere, causing temperature rise, altered precipitation patterns, and extreme weather events.
- Long-term climate impacts include sea-level rise, glacial retreat, biodiversity loss, and threats to agriculture and water security.
Economic and Social Consequences:
- Extreme weather events can disrupt agriculture, infrastructure, and livelihoods, posing risks to food security and economic stability.
- Climate change disproportionately affects vulnerable communities, requiring both mitigation and adaptation strategies.
Urgent Need for Action:
- The WMO report emphasizes the critical need to reduce greenhouse gas emissions globally, particularly from industrialized nations.
- Strengthening greenhouse gas monitoring, expanding renewable energy adoption, and improving land-use and forestry practices are essential measures.
Role of International Conferences:
- The report provides authoritative scientific evidence ahead of COP30, guiding policymakers toward actionable climate strategies.
- Effective policies must address both emissions reduction and enhancement of carbon sinks, including oceans and forests.
Conclusion
- The WMO report underscores that the world is on an accelerated path of climate warming due to unprecedented rises in CO2 and other greenhouse gases.
CARE MCQ
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the 2024 WMO Greenhouse Gas Bulletin:
- The global CO2 concentration reached 423.9 ppm in 2024, the highest since measurements began.
- El Niño events can reduce the efficiency of land carbon sinks, contributing to higher CO2 levels.
- Methane and nitrous oxide levels have decreased due to stricter global regulations on emissions.
- Wildfires in regions like the Amazon and southern Africa contributed significantly to greenhouse gas emissions in 2024.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only
Answer 4- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: CO2 levels reached 423.9 ppm in 2024, marking a record high.
- Statement 2 is correct: El Niño reduces carbon uptake by vegetation, leading to higher CO2 accumulation.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Methane and nitrous oxide levels rose, not decreased, reaching record levels in 2024.
- Statement 4 is correct: Wildfires in the Amazon and southern Africa released large amounts of greenhouse gases, contributing to the record rise.
UPSC PYQ
Q. Consider the following: (2019)
- Carbon monoxide
- Methane
- Ozone
- Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
China’s K Visa as an Emerging Alternative to the U.S. H1B for Global STEM Talent
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations
Context: New Visa type of China and implications on India
Why in News?
China has launched the K Visa to attract young global STEM talent, offering an alternative to the U.S. H1B visa amid growing protectionism and visa restrictions in the U.S.
Introduction
- China’s newly introduced K Visa represents a major shift in its immigration and talent recruitment policy.
- Unlike previous visas that required employer sponsorship, the K visa aims to attract independent researchers, innovators, and entrepreneurs in science, technology, engineering, and mathematics (STEM) fields.
- This move is seen as a strategic response to global talent wars, particularly the tightening of the U.S. H1B visa regime, which has historically drawn large numbers of Indian professionals.
What is the K Visa?
- The K Visa is China’s latest work-and-research visa category designed to invite young foreign STEM graduates and professionals to live and work in China.
- It removes the requirement of employer sponsorship, previously a major entry barrier for foreign professionals.
- The visa allows independent innovators to pursue research or start-ups in China’s growing high-tech ecosystem.
- Key Difference from Previous Chinese Visas
| Visa Type | Target Group | Requirement | Purpose |
| R Visa | High-level foreign experts and specialists urgently needed by the State | Employer sponsorship mandatory | To “import talent” for government-backed projects |
| K Visa | Young STEM researchers, innovators, and entrepreneurs | No employer sponsorship required | To promote independent innovation and attract global STEM talent |
Strategic Objectives Behind the K Visa
a) Economic Transformation
- Aligned with President Xi Jinping’s slogan of “New Quality Productive Forces”, the K visa supports China’s transition from a labour-intensive economy to a knowledge-driven, innovation-based one.
- It seeks to boost productivity through domestic research and development (R&D).
b) Technological Self-Reliance
- The visa supports China’s ambition to lead in advanced technologies — including AI, quantum computing, semiconductor design, green energy, and biotechnology.
- It complements initiatives like the Thousand Talents Programme, aimed at attracting global experts and overseas Chinese researchers.
c) Geopolitical Timing
- The K Visa was announced weeks before the U.S. increased H1B visa fees by $100,000, predominantly impacting Indian STEM workers.
- This timing reflects a strategic move to position China as an alternative destination for global talent, especially from India.
d) Responding to Global Technological Decoupling
- Amid the U.S.-China trade wars and tech decoupling, the visa reinforces China’s goal of scientific and technological independence while maintaining a “Chinese character” in innovation.
Opportunities and Incentives for Indian STEM Graduates
a) Major Attractions
- No employer sponsorship – allows flexibility for entrepreneurs and independent researchers.
- Lower cost of living compared to the U.S. and strong research infrastructure.
- Safety (no gun violence) and rapidly expanding innovation clusters in cities like Beijing, Shanghai, and Shenzhen.
b) Growing Indian STEM Migration
- Despite geopolitical tensions, many Indian professionals and students view China as a viable and pragmatic destination.
- China currently employs around 4–6% of global STEM talent but aims to significantly increase this share.
- China needs 700,000 engineers for its semiconductor industry by 2026, but currently has only about 450,000, indicating a large talent gap.
(Image Source: HR News)
Challenges and Limitations
a) Screening and Regulation: Without institutional sponsorship, the entire verification process falls on the government, raising concerns about transparency and fairness.
b) Language and Cultural Barriers: Mandarin proficiency remains a major hurdle for most foreign applicants.
Limited understanding of Chinese workplace culture may deter some professionals.
c) Immigration Strictness: China’s tight border control and security regulations mean entry barriers are still significant despite relaxed sponsorship rules.
d) Lack of Research Freedom: Experts highlight uncertainty around academic freedom, data access, and long-term residency—factors that influence foreign researchers’ willingness to relocate.
Domestic Backlash and Controversy
The K Visa has sparked strong debate within China, primarily over its timing amid youth unemployment and rising nationalism.
a) Public Concerns
- Many young Chinese citizens fear foreign professionals might replace domestic talent, especially when youth unemployment (ages 16–40) is estimated to be 16–40%, despite an official figure of 5%.
- Online criticism includes xenophobic and nationalist tones, particularly towards Indian STEM workers.
b) Government Response
- Chinese state media clarified that “Chineseness will not be erased from innovation” and that the visa is meant to fill genuine talent gaps, not displace locals.
- Visa approvals remain stringent, ensuring only credible innovators are selected.
Broader Implications for India and Global Talent Flows
a) For India
- The K visa may divert a segment of Indian STEM talent from the U.S. to China, especially those seeking research autonomy.
- However, concerns about academic freedom and political control may limit large-scale migration.
b) For Global Competition
- The move intensifies Asia’s intra-regional competition for skilled migrants — with Japan, South Korea, and Singapore already reforming visa policies.
- It underscores the emergence of China as a challenger in the global race for innovation leadership.
Conclusion
- China’s K Visa represents both an economic necessity and a geopolitical strategy.
It aims to attract foreign STEM professionals, reduce dependence on Western innovation ecosystems, and boost China’s domestic research capabilities.
CARE MCQ
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding China’s newly introduced K Visa:
- The K Visa is designed to attract foreign STEM graduates and innovators without the need for employer sponsorship.
- It aligns with China’s “New Quality Productive Forces” strategy aimed at promoting an innovation-driven economy.
- The K Visa replaces the R Visa, which was earlier issued to high-level foreign experts urgently needed by the Chinese State.
- The K Visa guarantees permanent residency to applicants who contribute to China’s technological development.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer 5- A
Explanation
- Statement 1 – Correct: The K Visa indeed targets young foreign STEM professionals and removes the need for employer sponsorship, encouraging independent research and innovation.
- Statement 2 – Correct: It aligns with Xi Jinping’s slogan of “New Quality Productive Forces”, promoting a shift from a labour-driven to an innovation-based economy.
- Statement 3 – Incorrect: The K Visa does not replace the R Visa; it functions alongside it but targets a younger and more independent talent pool.
- Statement 4 – Incorrect: The visa does not guarantee permanent residency; it offers work and research opportunities, subject to government assessment.
- Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. “Belt and Road Initiative” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of : (2016)
(a) African Union
(b) Brazil
(c) European Union
(d) China
Ans: D
Internet and Social Cohesion – Rethinking Governance and Platform Economics for Balanced Discourse Sundarbans Aquaculture Model Wins FAO Global Recognition
Source: Down To Earth
UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Science and Technology
Context: Internet and Social Cohesion
Why in News?
The World Wide Web, once envisaged as a force for global connection and democratic exchange, is increasingly implicated in social fragmentation and affective polarisation
Introduction
- When Tim Berners-Lee created the World Wide Web, the goal was universal access to information and easier global communication. Over three decades, the web and social media platforms have transformed communication, commerce, and politics.
- Yet empirical studies and public discourse now indicate that rather than only uniting people, online ecosystems can deepen social divides — producing echo chambers, amplifying misinformation, and incentivising polarising content.
How the Web Amplifies Division: Mechanisms and Evidence
ngagement-driven algorithms:
- Most major platforms optimise for engagement (clicks, time on site, reactions). Emotionally charged content — outrage, fear, moral indignation — elicits strong reactions and shares, so algorithms preferentially surface such content.
- Simulation and observational studies show that anger and high-arousal emotions spread faster and wider, creating feedback loops that reward polarising posts.
Partisan sorting and affective polarisation:
- Repeated exposure to political messaging from in-group influencers and adversarial coverage of out-groups leads not only to policy disagreement but to affective distancing — liking those who think like us and disliking others.
- This “affective polarisation” is associated with reduced social trust and increased hostility in public life.
Information cascades and confirmation bias:
- Users searching for more information after seeing a sensational post often encounter content that reuses the same framing and keywords, reinforcing the original (sometimes false) impression.
- Cognitive states such as high emotion reduce critical evaluation and increase susceptibility to misinformation.
Platform economies and incentives:
- Platforms monetise attention via advertising; therefore, content that maximises attention (often polarising content) is financially rewarded. Internal metrics — including emphasis on reaction types like anger — have historically amplified divisive signals.
(Image Source: Down TO Earth)
Societal Costs
- Democratic erosion: Polarised publics find compromise harder; civic discourse degrades; trust in institutions falls.
- Public health and safety: Misinformation (e.g., health myths) can endanger lives; online hate and coordinated harassment can lead to offline violence.
- Economic and governance burden: Counter-misinformation campaigns, policing of online harms, and mental-health costs place burdens on public resources.
- Social capital decline: Community ties and cross-cutting networks weaken, affecting cooperation at local and national levels.
Why Individual Behaviour Alone Is Insufficient
- Research suggests people do encounter opposing views and sometimes seek them out. However, when the platform economy monetises outrage, individual restraint becomes costly to the attention marketplace. While better digital behaviour (not sharing “rage bait”, seeking diverse sources) helps, it cannot correct structural incentives that favour polarisation at scale.
Policy and Structural Responses: A Multi-Pronged Approach
- Algorithmic transparency and oversight:
- Require disclosure of ranking criteria, amplification metrics, and impact assessments for political content.
- Establish independent audits (public or regulator-appointed) to evaluate whether algorithms disproportionately amplify polarising content.
- Platform accountability & regulation:
- Update intermediary liability frameworks to balance free expression with responsibilities to curtail demonstrable harms (hate speech, coordinated disinformation).
- Regulatory sandboxes can allow testing of de-amplification interventions with oversight.
- Economic levers — tax and regulation:
- Consider targeted levies on platform advertising revenue to fund public interest journalism, digital literacy, and moderation capacity.
- Tie certain tax or regulatory benefits to demonstrable reductions in harmful amplification (e.g., quarterly harm-reduction audits).
- Competition and data portability:
- Promote interoperability and data portability so users can migrate across platforms, lowering network-effect lock-in and enabling new entrants with healthier incentive models.
- Antitrust interventions where platform market power distorts public discourse.
- Promote alternative platform economics:
- Encourage non-advertising models (subscriptions, public funding, cooperative ownership) for social platforms to reduce dependency on outrage-maximising metrics.
- Support public or mission-driven platforms for civic discourse and local governance.
- Strengthen content governance & moderation capacity:
- Invest in transparent, rights-respecting content moderation systems with appeal and redress mechanisms.
- Combine automated tools with human moderators, especially for nuanced political and cultural content.
- Boost public interest infrastructure:
- Fund high-quality public-interest media and fact-checking networks that can compete for attention with polarising narratives.
- Support civic platforms that facilitate deliberative engagement (e.g., moderated townhalls, deliberative polling tech).
- Digital literacy and civic education:
- Scale up programs that teach source evaluation, emotional regulation online, and the mechanics of platform amplification.
- Embed media literacy in school curricula and public campaigns.
- International cooperation:
- Online harms and platform markets are transnational; regulatory coordination (standards, cross-border data access for law enforcement and audits) is essential.
Practical Trade-offs and Safeguards
- Free speech considerations: Any intervention must be careful not to stifle legitimate dissent; rulemaking should be transparent, narrowly tailored, and subject to judicial review.
- Regulatory capture risk: Ensure oversight bodies are independent, with multi-stakeholder governance (civil society, academia, industry).
- Innovation vs safety balance: Avoid measures that inadvertently entrench incumbents; promote open standards that enable innovation in healthier platform design.
Role of Citizens and Civil Society
- Personal conduct: Individuals reducing engagement with polarising posts, avoiding sharing unverified claims, and promoting cross-cutting dialogue can blunt incentives at the margin.
- Collective action: Civil society can advocate for regulatory reforms, audit platforms, and build alternative public-interest communication tools.
- Research & evidence: Independent research into platform impacts, replication studies, and public disclosure of harms will guide better policy.
Conclusion
- The fragmentation of discourse online is less a technology failure than an economic and governance problem. Fixing it requires structural change: reframing platform incentives, regulatory oversight, investment in public interest alternatives, and broad civic engagement.
CARE MCQ
Q6. With reference to the increasing polarisation caused by social media and the structural changes suggested to address it, consider the following statements:
- Affective polarisation refers to emotional division where people tend to like those with similar beliefs and dislike those with opposing views.
- Online engagement algorithms amplify divisive content because it generates more user interaction and advertising revenue.
- The article suggests that reducing polarisation will primarily require voluntary behavioural change by users, without any need for government intervention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer 6-B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Affective polarisation refers to emotional hostility between ideological groups, where individuals favour those with similar beliefs and resent those with different ones.
- Statement 2 is correct: Social media algorithms are designed to promote emotionally charged and divisive posts to maximise engagement and advertising profits.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The article emphasizes that structural change—including government regulation and reform of platform economics—is essential to counter polarisation, not just voluntary user action.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: (2022)
- Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
- In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks.
- Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation
Which of the following given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)







