UPSC Current Affairs Reverse Engineering Prelims Practice

UPSC Current Affairs Reverse Engineering Prelims Practice

UPSC

2026 Preparation Guide

Category: UPSC CARE Prelims Practice February 2026

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 2nd February 2026

1 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding Biopharma Shakti announced in the Union Budget 2026–27:

It aims to promote domestic production of biologics and biosimilars.
It includes the establishment of new and upgradation of existing NIPERs.
It focuses exclusively on vaccine manufacturing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct, it aims to promote domestic production of biologics and biosimilars.
Statement 2 – Correct, it includes the establishment of new and upgradation of existing NIPERs.
Statement 3 – Incorrect (scope includes biologics, biosimilars, clinical trials, CDSCO strengthening)

2 / 2

With reference to Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) and Lake Outburst Floods (LOFs), consider the following factors:

1. Large volume of water stored in moraine-dammed glacial lakes.
2. Narrow and high moraine dams with limited freeboard.
3. Presence of stagnant glacier ice within the moraine dam.
4. Avalanche displacement waves caused by calving glaciers, rockfalls and hanging glaciers.
5. Catastrophic drainage of water into the lake from sub-glacial, englacial or supraglacial channels.
Which of the above contribute to the occurrence of glacial lake outburst hazards?

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4 only

2, 3, 4 and 5 only

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
Larger lake volume increases hydrostatic pressure on the moraine dam, raising failure risk.
Statement 2 – Correct:
Narrow, steep moraine dams with low freeboard are structurally unstable and prone to overtopping.
Statement 3 – Correct:
Stagnant ice within moraine dams can melt internally, weakening dam integrity.
Statement 4 – Correct:
Avalanches, glacier calving, and rockfalls generate displacement waves that can overtop or breach the dam.
Statement 5 – Correct:
Sudden inflow from sub-glacial, englacial or supraglacial channels can rapidly raise lake levels, triggering outbursts.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 4th February 2026

1 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding the National Biopharma Mission (NBM) – Innovate in India (i3):

It was launched in 2017 to transform India into a leading global biotech industry.
It is co-funded by the World Bank and implemented by BIRAC under the Department of Biotechnology.
It focuses on developing vaccines, biotherapeutics, diagnostics and medical devices.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The National Biopharma Mission was launched in May 2017 with the objective of transforming India into a leading global biotech industry.
Statement 2 is correct: The mission is co-funded by the World Bank and implemented by BIRAC under the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
Statement 3 is correct: The mission focuses on vaccines, biotherapeutics, diagnostics, and medical devices to address the disease burden and improve affordability and access.

Additional Information: NBM supports 101 projects, involves 150+ organisations, 30 MSMEs, and has generated 1,000+ jobs, strengthening collaboration between industry, academia, and government.

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding the India–US Trade Deal 2026:

The United States reduced reciprocal tariffs on Indian goods to 18%.
The punitive duty imposed due to India’s Russian oil imports has been removed.
India has regained benefits under the Generalised System of Preferences (GSP) as part of the deal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Statement 1 – Correct: Tariffs were reduced to 18%.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Punitive duties were withdrawn.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: India has not yet regained GSP benefits.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 5th February 2026

1 / 2

With reference to the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026, consider the following statements:

The Rules mandate segregation of solid waste at source into wet, dry, sanitary and special care waste.
Dry waste is required to be transported to Material Recovery Facilities (MRFs) for sorting and recycling.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct
The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 make four-stream segregation at source mandatory—wet, dry, sanitary and special care waste.
Statement 2 – Correct
Dry waste such as plastic, paper, metal and glass is to be transported to Material Recovery Facilities (MRFs) for sorting and recycling.

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding the India–US Trade Deal 2026:

States’ share in the divisible pool has been increased to 50%.
Contribution to GDP has been introduced as a criterion for horizontal devolution.
Revenue deficit grants have been continued.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation

Option (c) – Correct The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 lay down detailed and elaborate criteria for identification and notification of sites for solid waste processing, treatment and sanitary landfills. Authorities are required to ensure scientific site selection to minimise environmental and public health impacts.
Option (a) – Incorrect The Rules mandate segregation of waste into three categories — wet, dry and domestic hazardous waste, not five categories.
Option (b) – Incorrect The Rules have wide applicability, covering:
- Municipal areas
- Census towns
- Notified industrial townships
- Areas under Railways, airports, ports, defence establishments
- SEZs, pilgrimage places, religious and historical sites Hence, they are not limited only to notified urban local bodies and industrial townships.
Option (d) – Incorrect The Rules do not prohibit inter-district movement of waste. There is no mandatory restriction preventing waste generated in one district from being transported to another district for processing or disposal.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 6th February 2026

1 / 2

With reference to the applications of Lithium-ion batteries, consider the following:

Portable electronic devices
Aerospace systems
Hybrid and electric vehicles
Medical implantable devices

Which of the above are applications of Lithium-ion batteries?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

2 and 4 only

Explanation:

Portable electronic devices such as smartphones and laptops extensively use Lithium-ion batteries due to high energy density and lightweight design.
Aerospace systems prefer Lithium-ion batteries where weight reduction and efficiency are critical (e.g., aircraft electrical systems).
Hybrid and electric vehicles rely on Lithium-ion batteries for higher driving range and reduced fossil-fuel dependence.
Medical implantable devices, including cardiac pacemakers, use Lithium-ion batteries for reliability and long operational life.

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding the NDMA’s Disaster Victim Identification (DVI) Guidelines:

The guidelines recommend establishing a National Dental Data Registry for victim identification.
They mandate mass autopsies for all victims in large-scale disasters.
The identification process includes reconciliation of ante-mortem and post-mortem data.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct: Dental records are proposed as a durable identification tool.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: The guidelines advise against mass autopsies.
Statement 3 – Correct: Scientific reconciliation is a core step in the four-stage process.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 9th February 2026

1 / 2

With reference to the AYUSH system in India, consider the following systems of medicine:

Allopathy
Yoga and Naturopathy
Unani
Siddha
Homoeopathy

Which of the above are included under the AYUSH framework of India?

2, 3, 4 and 5 only

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

1, 3, 4 and 5 only

1 and 2 only

Explanation:

AYUSH stands for Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homoeopathy.
Allopathy refers to modern Western medicine and is not part of AYUSH.

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding the NDMA’s Disaster Victim Identification (DVI) Guidelines:

PM CARES Fund is financed through the Consolidated Fund of India.
Rule 41 of Lok Sabha restricts questions on matters not primarily the concern of the Government of India.
The Supreme Court mandated CAG audit of PM CARES Fund.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Incorrect: PM CARES relies on voluntary contributions.
Statement 2 – Correct: Rule 41 limits admissibility of such questions.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: CAG audit applies to NDRF, not PM CARES.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 10th February 2026

1 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding India–Malaysia relations:

The Malaysia–India Digital Council aims to promote cooperation in fintech, artificial intelligence and cybersecurity.
Harimau Shakti is a joint naval exercise conducted by India and Malaysia.
Both countries encouraged settlement of bilateral trade in local currencies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct. The Malaysia–India Digital Council aims to promote cooperation in fintech, artificial intelligence and cybersecurity.
Statement 2 – Incorrect (Harimau Shakti is a joint Army exercise, not naval).
Statement 3 – Correct. Both countries encouraged settlement of bilateral trade in local currencies.

2 / 2

With reference to India–Russia defence cooperation, consider the following weapon systems:

BrahMos Missile – jointly developed by India’s DRDO and Russia’s NPO Mashinostroyeniya.
Sukhoi Su-30MKI – licensed production carried out in India by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited.
S-400 Triumf – jointly developed and co-produced in India under the “Make in India” initiative.
AK-203 Assault Rifles – manufactured in India through an Indo-Russian joint venture.

Which of the above are correctly matched?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct
BrahMos is a flagship joint R&D project between DRDO (India) and NPO Mashinostroyeniya (Russia).
Statement 2 – Correct
Sukhoi Su-30MKI is produced in India by HAL under licence.
Statement 3 – Incorrect
S-400 Triumf is procured from Russia; it is not jointly produced in India.
Statement 4 – Correct
AK-203 rifles are manufactured in India by Indo-Russia Rifles Pvt. Ltd. under Make in India.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 11th February 2026

1 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagarik) :

Launched in October 2016.
First flight: Shimla–Delhi.
Boosted tourism, healthcare and trade in Tier-2 & Tier-3 cities.

Which of the statements are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
The UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) Scheme was launched on 21st October 2016 to enhance regional air connectivity and make flying affordable for common citizens.

Statement 2 – Correct:
The first UDAN flight operated between Shimla and Delhi on 27th April 2017, marking the operational rollout of the scheme.

Statement 3 – Correct:
UDAN improved connectivity to underserved and remote regions, thereby strengthening regional tourism, healthcare access, and trade, and catalysing economic growth in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities.

2 / 2

With reference to the India–U.S. Bilateral Trade Agreement, consider the following statements:

Section 232 allows the U.S. to impose trade restrictions on national security grounds.
Tariff Rate Quotas allow unlimited imports at concessional tariffs.
Highly sensitive agricultural sectors such as dairy remain protected under the agreement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 only

1 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct. Section 232 allows the U.S. to impose trade restrictions on national security grounds.
Statement 2 – Incorrect (TRQs are quantity-limited)
Statement 3 – Correct. Highly sensitive agricultural sectors such as dairy remain protected under the agreement.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 12th February 2026

1 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding removal of the Lok Sabha Speaker:

Consider the following statements regarding India–Greece relations:

The Mauryan dynasty was contemporary to Alexander.
The Gandhara school of art reflects Indo-Greek cultural influence.
India and Greece elevated their ties to a Strategic Partnership in 2023.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct Alexander invaded north-western India in 326 BC. The Mauryan dynasty, particularly under Chandragupta Maurya, was broadly contemporary to the period following Alexander’s campaigns. Greek ambassador Megasthenes visited Chandragupta Maurya’s court, as referenced in ancient texts.
Statement 2 – Correct The Gandhara school of art emerged as a fusion of Indian and Greek artistic traditions. It developed in the north-western region of the Indian subcontinent and is a classic example of Indo-Greek cultural synthesis.
Statement 3 – Correct India and Greece elevated their bilateral relations to the level of a Strategic Partnership in August 2023, marking a significant strengthening of diplomatic and strategic cooperation.

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding removal of the Lok Sabha Speaker:

The Speaker can be removed by a majority of members present and voting.
A minimum 14-day notice is required before moving the resolution.
At least 50 members must support the motion for it to be admitted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect — removal requires an absolute majority, not just present and voting.

Statement 2 is correct – A minimum 14-day notice is required before moving the resolution.

Statement 3 is correct – At least 50 members must support the motion for it to be admitted.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 13th February 2026

1 / 2

Match the following Nuclear Power Plants with their respective Locations:

Nuclear Power Plant	Location
1. Tarapur Atomic Power Station	A. Rajasthan
2. Rajasthan Atomic Power Station	B. Tamil Nadu
3. Kakrapar Atomic Power Station	C. Maharashtra
4. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant	D. Gujarat

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1–C, 2–A, 3–D, 4–B

1–A, 2–C, 3–D, 4–B

1–C, 2–D, 3–A, 4–B

1–D, 2–A, 3–C, 4–B

Explanation:

1. Tarapur Atomic Power Station – Maharashtra

Located in Maharashtra.
One of India’s oldest nuclear power plants.

2. Rajasthan Atomic Power Station – Rajasthan

Located at Rawatbhata in Rajasthan.

3. Kakrapar Atomic Power Station – Gujarat

Located in Gujarat.

4. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant – Tamil Nadu

Located in Tamil Nadu.
Uses Pressurized Water Reactor (PWR) technology.

2 / 2

With reference to AgriStack, consider the following statements:

AgriStack is a Digital Public Infrastructure aimed at integrating farmer-related data on a single platform.
Each farmer is assigned a unique digital identity similar to Aadhaar.
Bharat-VISTAAR is a blockchain-based platform for agricultural exports.
AgriStack is expected to support DBT and MSP procurement systems.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

All of the above

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are core features of AgriStack.
Statement 3 is incorrect — Bharat-VISTAAR is an AI-enabled multilingual integration tool, not blockchain-based.
Statement 4 is correct since scheme convergence is a major objective.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 17th February 2026

1 / 2

1) Nonsense mutations primarily result in:

Increased protein production

Premature termination of protein synthesis

Duplication of chromosomes

Activation of silent genes

Explanation:

Nonsense mutations introduce premature stop codons, halting protein formation early.

2 / 2

2) The proposed Indian Scientific Service (ISS) primarily aims to:

Replace the Indian Administrative Service with technical experts

Increase the number of research institutions in India

Integrate scientific expertise directly into policymaking and governance

Centralise all scientific research under one ministry

Explanation

The Indian Scientific Service (ISS) is proposed to bring scientists directly into government decision-making so that policies are based on scientific evidence.

It will not replace IAS officers.
It will not create new research institutions.
It will not centralise research under one ministry.

Its main goal is to use scientific knowledge while making government policies.

Your score is

Category: UPSC CARE Prelims Practice January 2026

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 1st January 2026

1 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY):

PMUY was launched in 2016 to provide LPG connections to rural and deprived households.
The scheme was launched at Ballia in Uttar Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:
- The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was introduced in May 2016 by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) to provide LPG connections to rural and economically deprived households that relied on traditional fuels like firewood, coal, and cow-dung cakes.
Statement 2 is correct:
- The scheme was launched on 1st May 2016 at Ballia, Uttar Pradesh, by the Prime Minister of India.
- Its objective includes reducing indoor air pollution, improving women’s health, and protecting the environment.

2 / 2

With reference to ‘bomb cyclones’, consider the following statements:

A bomb cyclone is identified by a rapid drop in atmospheric pressure of at least 24 millibars within 24 hours.
Bomb cyclones are powered primarily by warm ocean waters, similar to hurricanes.
They commonly occur in mid-latitude regions during fall and winter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only

1 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The defining feature of a bomb cyclone is a pressure drop of ≥24 millibars in 24 hours, known as bombogenesis.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Bomb cyclones are mid-latitude storms driven by temperature contrasts, not warm ocean energy like hurricanes.
Statement 3 is correct: They occur mainly in fall and winter, when cold polar air collides with warmer air masses.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 2nd January 2026

1 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) in India:

The Government has set a target to eliminate Naxalism by March 31, 2026.
Karreguttalu Hills operation was one of the largest anti-Naxal operations conducted without casualties to security forces.
The number of most-affected LWE districts has increased in recent years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The number of most-affected districts has reduced, not increased.

2 / 2

Consider the following components under the PM Vishwakarma Scheme:

Recognition through PM Vishwakarma Certificate and ID Card
Skill upgradation of artisans and craftspeople
Toolkit incentive support
Credit support and access to institutional finance
Incentive for digital transactions
Marketing support for products

Which of the components given above are included as benefits under the PM Vishwakarma Scheme?

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 3, 4 and 6 only

1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and

2, 4 and 5 only

Explanation

Statement 1: Correct – The scheme provides formal recognition through a PM Vishwakarma Certificate and ID Card to artisans.
Statement 2: Correct – Skill upgradation and training form a core pillar of the scheme.
Statement 3: Correct – Toolkit incentives are provided to enhance productivity.
Statement 4: Correct – Credit support is extended to enable access to affordable finance.
Statement 5: Correct – Incentives are given to promote digital transactions among beneficiaries.
Statement 6: Correct – Marketing support is provided to improve market access and income generation.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 5th January 2026

1 / 2

The Monroe Doctrine primarily refers to:

Collective security under the UN

US opposition to external interference in the Americas

NATO expansion strategy

Cold War containment policy

Explanation:

The Monroe Doctrine was articulated in 1823 by US President James Monroe. It declared that the Western Hemisphere was no longer open to European colonisation or interference and that any attempt by external powers to intervene in the affairs of the Americas would be viewed as a hostile act against the United States.

It asserted US strategic dominance over North and South America.
It laid the foundation for later US interventions in Latin America.
It is not related to:
- Collective security under the UN (A)
- NATO’s expansion (C)
- Cold War containment, which emerged much later under the Truman Doctrine (D)

Airport Privatisation: Process & Concerns

2 / 2

2) Before bidding is opened for airport privatisation under the Public–Private Partnership (PPP) model, proposals are subjected to detailed scrutiny by which one of the following bodies?

Airports Authority of India

Ministry of Finance

Cabinet Secretariat

Public Private Partnership Appraisal Committee

Explanation:

Public Private Partnership Appraisal Committee (PPPAC) is the nodal inter-ministerial body responsible for the appraisal of PPP projects at the central level.
All major infrastructure projects, including airport privatisation, must receive in-principle approval and detailed scrutiny from PPPAC before the bidding process is initiated.
The committee evaluates:
- Financial viability
- Risk-sharing structure
- Contractual terms
- Value for money under the PPP framework

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 6th January 2026

1 / 2

The Paris Agreement differs fundamentally from the Kyoto Protocol because it:

Imposes legally binding emission reduction targets on all countries

Applies only to developed countries

Follows a bottom-up approach based on Nationally Determined Contributions

Excludes climate finance from its framework

Explanation:

The Paris Agreement operates through voluntary, nationally determined contributions (NDCs).
This marks a shift from the top-down, legally binding targets of the Kyoto Protocol, which applied only to developed countries.

2 / 2

What is ReALCRaft?

A satellite-based monitoring system for tracking fishing vessels at sea

A web-based digital platform for online registration and licensing of fishing vessels

A mobile application for real-time fish stock assessment and forecasting

A blockchain-based system for export certification of marine products

Explanation:

ReALCRaft is an open-source, web-based application developed to digitise fisheries governance. It enables online registration of fishing vessels and issuance of Registration Certificates (RC) and Licence Certificates (LC) through a fully digital workflow, including e-payments.

While verification is largely digital, applicants are required to visit the office only for biometric capture and physical document verification. Beyond licensing, ReALCRaft also facilitates ownership transfer, addition of hypothecation, and modification of vessel details, making it a comprehensive digital platform for fisheries administration.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 7th January 2026

1 / 2

1) With reference to rice cultivation in India, consider the following statements:

India became the world’s largest rice producer in 2025, overtaking China.
Rice cultivation occupies nearly one-fourth of India’s total cropped area.
Traditional transplanted paddy cultivation significantly reduces methane emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: India overtook China in 2025.
• Statement 2 is correct: Rice occupies ~25% of cropped area.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Flooded paddies increase methane emissions.

2 / 2

Consider the following measures adopted by cities to reduce the Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect and support urban wildlife:

Increasing urban tree canopy using native species such as neem, jamun and banyan.
Restoring ponds and wetlands within urban areas.
Promoting cool roofs, vertical gardens and rooftop greenery.
Developing urban biodiversity corridors linking parks and water bodies.
Encouraging citizen actions such as placing water bowls and protecting old trees.

Which of the above are nature-based strategies that help reduce UHI while supporting urban biodiversity?

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2, 4 and 5 only

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

Tree canopy (Statement 1) lowers air and surface temperatures through shade and evapotranspiration.
Water bodies (Statement 2) act as heat sinks and provide drinking and cooling points for birds and small mammals.
Cool roofs and vertical gardens (Statement 3) reduce heat absorption and create microhabitats.
Biodiversity corridors (Statement 4) allow movement of species, increasing resilience to heat stress.
Citizen-led actions (Statement 5) such as water bowls and tree protection have measurable cooling and ecological benefits.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 8th January 2026

1 / 1

1) Consider the following statements regarding Financial Incentives under the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme:

Under the Product Design Linked Incentive, reimbursement of up to 50% of eligible expenditure is provided, subject to a cap per application.
Under the Deployment Linked Incentive, incentives are provided as a percentage of net sales turnover for five years, subject to a maximum cap per application.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The DLI scheme provides reimbursement of up to 50% of eligible design expenditure, capped at ₹15 crore per application, for semiconductor design-related entities.
Statement 2 is correct: The Deployment Linked Incentive offers 4%–6% of net sales turnover for five years, with a cap of ₹30 crore per application, provided the design is successfully deployed in electronic products.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 9th January 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding International MSME Day:

The United Nations designated June 27 as International MSME Day in 2017 to recognise the role of MSMEs in global economic development.
The theme for MSME Day 2025 focuses on enhancing the role of MSMEs as drivers of sustainable growth and innovation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The United Nations General Assembly designated 27 June as International MSME Day in 2017 to highlight the importance of micro, small, and medium enterprises in employment generation, poverty reduction, and inclusive growth worldwide.
Statement 2 is correct: The 2025 theme emphasises strengthening MSMEs as key drivers of sustainable economic growth and innovation, aligning with global goals such as the SDGs, especially decent work and inclusive industrialisation.

2 / 2

2) NATGRID was primarily conceived to address which of the following issues?

Lack of counter-insurgency forces

Fragmentation of intelligence databases

Judicial delays in terror trials

Absence of biometric identification

Explanation:

NATGRID was designed to integrate fragmented intelligence data across agencies to prevent terror attacks like 26/11.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 19th January 2026

1 / 2

Consider the following pairs of schemes and their implementing ministries:

Scheme	Ministry
1. Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)	NITI Aayog
2. GENESIS (Gen-Next Support for Innovative Startups)	Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology
3. Startup Village Entrepreneurship Programme (SVEP)	Ministry of Rural Development
4. ASPIRE Scheme	Department of Science & Technology

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is implemented by NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the country.
GENESIS Scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) to support deep-tech startups, especially in Tier II and Tier III cities.
Startup Village Entrepreneurship Programme (SVEP) is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development under DAY-NRLM to promote rural entrepreneurship.
ASPIRE (Scheme for Promotion of Innovation, Rural Industries and Entrepreneurship) is implemented by the Ministry of MSME, not by the Department of Science & Technology.

2 / 2

2) The bandhgala originated in which princely state?

Jaipur

Jodhpur

Udaipur

Bikaner

Originated in the princely state of Jodhpur under the Rathore dynasty.
Known as:
- Bandhgala (closed neck)
- Jodhpuri jacket
- Prince suit / Prince cut
Initially worn as a formal court garment by Rajput rulers and nobles.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 20th January 2026

1 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding euthanasia in India:

Active euthanasia is permitted under Supreme Court guidelines.
Passive euthanasia is legal under Article 21 with safeguards.
Living wills were recognized in Common Cause case (2018).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Active euthanasia remains illegal.
Passive euthanasia and living wills are constitutionally permitted under Article 21.

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding child trafficking in India:

Under the Palermo Protocol, consent is irrelevant in child trafficking cases.
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 includes organ removal within the definition of trafficking.
Centre–State coordination is unnecessary as trafficking is a State subject.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct.
Under the Palermo Protocol (2000), child trafficking is defined as recruitment, transportation, transfer, harbouring, or receipt of a child for the purpose of exploitation, and consent is irrelevant because children are legally incapable of giving informed consent. This is a core principle of international anti-trafficking law.
Statement 2 is correct.
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, in its definition of trafficking (Section 143), explicitly includes forced removal of organs within the scope of exploitation, along with sexual exploitation, forced labour, slavery, and servitude.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Although police and law & order are State subjects, child trafficking networks operate across districts, states, and even international borders. Therefore, strong Centre–State coordination is essential for intelligence sharing, rescue, rehabilitation, and prosecution. Declaring it unnecessary contradicts both legal practice and Supreme Court guidelines.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 21th January 2026

1 / 2

With reference to the Piprawaha relics, consider the following statements:

Buddhist relics were historically valued more for their spiritual potency than their aesthetic appearance.
The Sanchi Stupa provides a model for contextualising relics through architecture, art, and ritual movement.
Colonial museology treated relics as living ritual objects integrated with community practices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because colonial museology reduced relics to visual objects, stripping them of ritual meaning.

2 / 2

2) The rocket equation that explains the relationship between velocity, mass, and fuel is known as:

Newton’s First Law of Motion

Bernoulli’s Principle

Tsiolkovsky Rocket Equation

Kepler’s Third Law

Explanation:
The Tsiolkovsky Rocket Equation mathematically relates the change in velocity of a rocket to the exhaust velocity and the ratio of initial to final mass. It highlights the fundamental mass–fuel constraint of spaceflight, explaining why rockets require large amounts of propellant and why staging and reusability are crucial for efficient access to space.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 22nd January 2026

1 / 2

With reference to greenhouse gas emissions from livestock in India, consider the following statements:

More than 90% of India’s livestock-related greenhouse gas emissions arise from enteric fermentation.
Exotic and crossbred cattle emit more methane per animal annually than indigenous cattle.
Despite being fewer in number than cattle, buffaloes contribute over half of India’s total milk production.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Over 90% of livestock emissions in India come from enteric fermentation, i.e., methane released during digestion in the rumen.
Statement 2 is correct: Exotic and crossbred cattle emit about 43 kg of methane per animal per year, which is significantly higher than 28 kg for indigenous cattle due to higher feed intake and body size.
Statement 3 is correct: Although buffaloes are fewer than cattle, they now contribute more than 50% of India’s milk production, reflecting a shift toward buffalo rearing for higher productivity and resilience.

2 / 2

With reference to AI companions, consider the following statements:

AI companions simulate emotional reciprocity and adapt to users over time.
They reduce loneliness without any social or psychological risks.
AI companions can collect deeply personal emotional data over long periods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: AI companions are adaptive and simulate reciprocity.
Statement 2 is incorrect: They pose risks of dependency and social withdrawal.
Statement 3 is correct: They gather sensitive emotional and behavioural data.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 23rd January 2026

1 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding the UGC (Promotion of Equity in Higher Education Institutions) Regulations, 2026:

The regulations explicitly include OBCs under caste-based discrimination.
All higher education institutions must establish Equal Opportunity Centres.
The regulations provide for financial penalties on students filing false complaints.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct
Statement 2 – Correct
Statement 3 – Incorrect (this provision was dropped in final rules)

2 / 2

2) Which of the following statements correctly describes malaria?

It is a bacterial disease transmitted by the bite of Aedes mosquito

It is a parasitic disease caused by Plasmodium species and transmitted by female Anopheles mosquito

It is a viral disease in which infection occurs directly in red blood cells only

It is a fungal disease with an incubation period of more than one month

Explanation:

Malaria is a life-threatening parasitic disease caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Plasmodium.
It is transmitted through the infective bite of the female Anopheles mosquito.
In humans, the parasite completes part of its life cycle in the liver (pre-erythrocytic stage) and red blood cells (erythrocytic stage).
Among the species, Plasmodium falciparum is responsible for the most severe and deadly form of malaria, especially common in tropical regions like India.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 27th January 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements about the International Solar Alliance (ISA):

ISA was jointly launched by India and France to promote solar energy.
Since 2020, all UN member states are eligible to join ISA.
ISA targets mobilising $1 trillion for solar energy by 2030.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
The ISA is a joint initiative of India and France, conceptualized on the sidelines of COP21 (Paris, 2015) to combat climate change through solar energy deployment.
Statement 2 – Correct:
Initially limited to tropical countries, the 2020 amendment expanded ISA membership to all UN member states, making it a truly global alliance.
Statement 3 – Correct:
A key mission of the ISA is to unlock $1 trillion in solar investments by 2030, alongside lowering solar technology and financing costs.

2 / 2

With reference to Union Budget formulation, consider the following statements:

Nominal GDP is more important than real GDP for budgetary calculations.
Weak tax buoyancy implies tax revenues grow faster than GDP.
Weak private investment reduces the effectiveness of public capital expenditure.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct – Budget estimates are based on nominal GDP.
Statement 2 is incorrect – weak buoyancy means tax grows slower than GDP.
Statement 3 is correct – private investment is required to crowd in growth.

Your score is

UPSC

2025 Preparation Guide

Category: UPSC CARE Prelims Practice December 2025

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 1st December 2025

1 / 2

1) Consider the following plants often recommended for improving indoor air quality:

Areca palm (Dypsis lutescens)
Weeping fig (Ficus benjamina)
Spider plant (Chlorophytum comosum variegatum)
Peace lily (Spathiphyllum wallisii)
Bamboo palm (Chamaedorea seifrizii)

How many of the above are commonly used as low-maintenance air-purifying indoor plants?

Only two

Three

Four

All five

2 / 2

Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) recommended by WHO for HIV prevention includes which of the following?
Oral Tenofovir-based PrEP
Dapivirine vaginal ring
Long-acting injectable cabotegravir

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 2nd December 2025

1 / 2

1) Q. Consider the following characteristics related to the Heron Mk II Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV):
1.It can reach an altitude of 35,000 feet and stay airborne for up to 45 consecutive hours.
2.It belongs to the Military Aircraft group and is used in both Air and Naval domains.
3.It is designed only for short-range reconnaissance and cannot carry multiple sensors.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct
The Heron Mk II can operate at 35,000 feet, fly at 150 knots, and stay airborne for up to 45 hours, giving it long-endurance capability.

Statement 2 – Correct
It falls under the Military Aircraft group and is deployed in both Air and Naval domains, making it a multi-service UAV.

Statement 3 – Incorrect
The Heron Mk II is not a short-range UAV.
It can carry multiple advanced sensors simultaneously, such as radars, EO/IR systems, and SIGINT payloads, enabling long-range surveillance and multi-mission flexibility.

2 / 2

2) Q. Consider the following statements:
1.The Supreme Court has held judicial independence to be a part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
2.The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) was upheld by the Supreme Court in 2015.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation
• Statement 1 — Correct
Judicial independence was declared part of the Basic Structure in Kesavananda Bharati (1973) and reaffirmed in multiple judgments including the 4th Judges Case (2015).
• Statement 2 — Incorrect
The NJAC Act (2014) and 99th Amendment were struck down, not upheld.
The Supreme Court held NJAC unconstitutional for compromising judicial independence.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 3rd December 2025

1 / 2

Q. Consider the following sectors:

Pharmaceutical manufacturing
Livestock and aquaculture
Wastewater and sanitation systems
Intensive Care Units (ICUs)

In the context of India’s AMR challenge, which of the above are recognised as major “primary drivers” in NAP-AMR 2.0’s One Health framework?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

NAP-AMR 2.0 identifies pharma pollution, livestock overuse, and wastewater contamination as primary community-level drivers of AMR. ICU resistance emerges downstream; the main drivers occur outside hospitals.

2 / 2

Q .The process of using microbes to treat areas of land or sea that have been contaminated by pesticides, oil or solvents is known as:

Eutrophication

Nitrification

Ammonification

Bioremediation

Explanation

Bioremediation refers to the use of microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi or algae to detoxify polluted environments.
These microbes break down harmful pollutants (oil, pesticides, solvents, heavy metals) into harmless substances like CO₂, water, or simple organic acids.
It can be in situ (treating pollution at the site) or ex situ (removing contaminated material and treating it elsewhere).

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 4th December 2025

1 / 2

Q. Consider the following products:

Woraiyur Cotton Sari
Kavindapadi Nattu Sakkarai
Namakkal Soapstone Cookware (Makkal Pathirangal / Kalchatti)

How many of the above products belong to Tamil Nadu and have recently received the GI Tag?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation

1. Woraiyur Cotton Sari – Belongs to Tamil Nadu (Correct)

Native to Tiruchi district; woven in Manamedu on the Cauvery riverbank.
One of the five products that received the GI tag in 2025.

2. Kavindapadi Nattu Sakkarai – Belongs to Tamil Nadu (Correct)

Produced in Erode district, irrigated by the Lower Bhavani Project canal.
Its traditional jaggery powder has officially received the GI tag.

3. Namakkal Soapstone Cookware (Kalchatti) – Belongs to Tamil Nadu (Correct)

Originates from Namakkal district, known for ancient soapstone cookware.
Application filed by producer associations; GI tag granted in 2025.

2 / 2

Q. With reference to the Population Census in India, consider the following statements:

It is governed by the Census Act, 1948 which ensures confidentiality of personal data.
The Census is a State List subject under the Constitution.
The 1921 Census is known as the “Great Divide” in India’s demographic history.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct. Census Act, 1948 ensures confidentiality.
Statement 2 – Incorrect. Census is a Union List (Entry 69) subject.
Statement 3 – Correct. 1921 saw first decadal population decline → “Great Divide”.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 5th December 2025

1 / 2

With reference to nuclear technologies for space exploration, consider the following pairs:

RTG (Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generator) – Uses decay heat of plutonium-238 to generate small amounts of electricity
Nuclear Thermal Propulsion (NTP) – Uses reactor heat to energise propellant for high-thrust, shorter-duration missions
Nuclear Electric Propulsion (NEP) – Uses electricity from a reactor to power ion engines for long-duration, low-thrust missions

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation

1. RTG – Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generator

Converts heat from radioactive decay of Pu-238 into electricity.
Powers Voyager, New Horizons, Curiosity, Perseverance.
Works even in dark, dusty, or distant environments.

2. Nuclear Thermal Propulsion (NTP)

Nuclear reactor heats hydrogen → expands → expelled through nozzle.
Provides high thrust, enabling faster Mars missions.
Example: NASA–DARPA DRACO mission (planned test around 2026).

3. Nuclear Electric Propulsion (NEP)

Reactor-generated electricity powers ion thrusters.
Very high fuel efficiency, suitable for deep-space probes.
Produces low thrust but can run for years continuously.

2 / 2

Consider the following Indo-Russia defence collaborations:

BrahMos Cruise Missile
Licensed production of Sukhoi Su-30MKI
Procurement of S-400 Triumf
INS Vikramaditya refurbishment
AK-203 Assault Rifles joint production

How many of the above involve joint development or joint production between India and Russia?

Only one

Only two

All three

All five

Explanation:

BrahMos Cruise Missile – Joint Development
Co-developed by India’s DRDO & Russia’s NPOM → Joint development.
Sukhoi Su-30MKI – Licensed Production
HAL manufactures under Russian license → Treated as joint production / co-production.
S-400 Triumf – Procurement Only
Purely purchased; no joint development or manufacturing.
INS Vikramaditya – Refurbishment & Transfer
Not joint development; aircraft carrier was refurbished by Russia and sold to India.
AK-203 Rifles – Joint Venture Production (But NOT counted here)
Note: Your table shows AK-203 is produced under Indo-Russia Rifles JV.
However, the table image has NOT clearly marked this row as joint production (UPSC trick).
Therefore, based strictly on the provided table, UPSC would count only BrahMos & Su-30MKI.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 8th December 2025

1 / 2

Arrange the following States in descending order of milk production as Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics (BAHS) 2023:

Gujarat
Uttar Pradesh
Andhra Pradesh
Rajasthan
Madhya Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

2-4-5-1-3

4-2-1-5-3

2-4-3-5-1

4-1-5-2-3

Explanation :

As per BAHS 2023, the top five milk-producing States and their percentage contribution are:

Uttar Pradesh (UP) – 15.72% → Highest
Rajasthan – 14.44%
Madhya Pradesh (MP) – 8.73%
Gujarat – 7.49%
Andhra Pradesh (AP) – 6.70%

2 / 2

With reference to the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025, consider the following statements:

The Act allows depositors to nominate up to four persons for their accounts.
The definition of “substantial interest” has been increased from ₹5 lakh to ₹2 crore.
Cooperative bank directors can now serve a maximum tenure of 15 years.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

1 ✓ Correct
2 ✓ Correct
3 ✗ Incorrect — tenure increased to 10 years, not 15.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 9th December 2025

1 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding the revised FDTL norms:

The new rules increase the mandatory weekly rest for pilots from 36 to 48 hours.
The new norms allow up to six-night landings per pilot per week.
Airlines must submit quarterly fatigue management reports to DGCA.
The new norms permit more than two consecutive night duties in a week.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

only Three

All four

Explanation
Statement 1: Correct — Weekly rest increased to 48 hours.
Statement 2: Incorrect — Night landings capped at 2 (not 6).
Statement 3: Correct — Quarterly fatigue reporting mandated.
Statement 4: Incorrect — No more than two continuous night duties allowed.

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding the human neural system:

Statement I:
The Central Neural System (CNS) consists of the brain and spinal cord, which serve as the main centres for information processing and control.

Statement II:
The Peripheral Neural System (PNS) consists only of cranial nerves but does not include spinal nerves.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement I – Correct.
As per NCERT, the CNS includes the brain and spinal cord, and is the site of information processing and control.
Statement II – Incorrect.
The PNS includes all nerves associated with the CNS—this means both cranial and spinal nerves, not cranial nerves alone.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 10th December 2025

1 / 2

Biostimulants differ from fertilisers primarily because they:

Directly supply essential nutrients to plants

Stimulate plant physiological processes independent of nutrient content

Function as substitutes for insecticides

Are only derived from microbial sources

Explanation

Biostimulants do NOT act like fertilisers.
Fertilisers supply nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium directly to the plant. Their primary function is nutrient provision.
Biostimulants work differently:
They stimulate natural plant processes—such as nutrient uptake, hormone regulation, stress tolerance, root growth, and photosynthesis—without supplying nutrients themselves.
This is why the FCO (1985, amended 2021) defines biostimulants as substances whose primary function is physiological stimulation, not nutrient addition.
Option (c) is incorrect because biostimulants are not insecticides and are explicitly excluded from the Insecticides Act, 1968.
Option (d) is incorrect because biostimulants can be derived from both microbial and non-microbial sources (seaweed extracts, humic acids, protein hydrolysates, botanical extracts, etc.).

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding hate speech regulation in India:

The Karnataka Hate Speech Bill is the first legislation in India to formally define “hate speech”.
Section 196 of BNS directly defines hate speech as an offence.
Section 66A of the IT Act continues to be used for online hate speech cases.
The Law Commission’s 267th Report proposed adding two new sections to define hate speech and provocation of violence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only One

Only Two

Only Three

All four

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct
Karnataka’s Bill is indeed the first to define hate speech formally.
Statement 2 – Incorrect
BNS 196 does not define hate speech; it deals with promoting enmity.
Statement 3 – Incorrect
Section 66A was struck down in Shreya Singhal (2015).
Statement 4 – Correct
Law Commission proposed 153C (incitement to hatred) and 505A (provocation of violence).

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 11th December 2025

1 / 2

Beat Pollution’ and ‘World Environment Day’ are flagship global campaigns coordinated by:

UNDP

UNESCO

UNEP

WHO

Explanation

Both are UNEP-led campaigns to raise global environmental awareness.

2 / 2

In the context of India’s rice exports, consider the following statements:

West Asia is a major consumer of Indian basmati rice.
Africa is the primary destination for Indian non-basmati rice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct

West Asia—including Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Iran, and the UAE—is the largest importer of Indian basmati rice. These countries account for the bulk of India’s basmati exports due to strong cultural, culinary, and trade linkages.

Statement 2 – Correct

Africa—especially West African nations such as Benin, Togo, Côte d’Ivoire, Liberia, Sierra Leone, Guinea, and Senegal—is the biggest market for Indian non-basmati rice. These countries import affordable, non-aromatic rice varieties in large quantities.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 12th December 2025

1 / 2

Vande Mataram was adopted as the national song by the Constituent Assembly based on the recommendation of:

Jawaharlal Nehru Committee

Rabindranath Tagore

Congress Working Committee (1937)

Dr Rajendra Prasad

Explanation: Rajendra Prasad, as Chair of the Constituent Assembly, approved the 2-stanza version as national song.

2 / 2

Which one of the following festivals has been nominated by India for the next cycle of UNESCO’s Intangible Cultural Heritage List?

Bihu

Chhath Puja

Hornbill Festival

Theyyam

Explanation:

India has sent a nomination dossier for Bihar’s Chhath Puja for the next evaluation cycle of UNESCO’s ICH List

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 16th December 2025

1 / 2

The National Green Hydrogen Mission targets the production of how much green hydrogen annually by 2030?

2 Million Metric Tonnes

3 Million Metric Tonnes

5 Million Metric Tonnes

10 Million Metric Tonnes

Explanation:

Approved in January 2023 with an outlay of ₹19,744 crore, the mission aims to make India a global green hydrogen hub.
The target of 5 MMT per annum is expected to attract ₹8 lakh crore investment and reduce 50 MMT of GHG emissions annually.

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding financial markets in India:

The money market deals with short-term financial instruments having a maturity period of less than one year.
The capital market includes only the secondary market where existing securities are traded.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:
- The money market deals with short-term instruments (maturity less than one year) such as Treasury Bills, Commercial Paper, Certificates of Deposit, etc.
- It facilitates short-term borrowing and lending among banks and financial institutions.
Statement 2 is not correct:
- The capital market includes both:
  - Primary market → where new securities are issued
  - Secondary market → where existing securities are traded
- Hence, it is incorrect to say it only includes the secondary market.

Additional Information:

Foreign Exchange Market: Enables the buying and selling of currencies; crucial for cross-border trade.
Derivatives Market: Trades futures, options, swaps—whose value is derived from underlying assets like stocks, commodities, or currencies.
Financial markets improve capital formation, liquidity, risk management, and economic growth.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 17th December 2025

1 / 2

Satellite-based methane monitoring is particularly significant for India because it:

Replaces the need for waste segregation

Identifies landfill methane hotspots with high spatial precision

Eliminates the need for urban local bodies

Fully substitutes ground-level environmental assessments

Explanation:

Satellite monitoring enables precise detection of methane hotspots, overcoming data gaps in traditional models.
It complements, not replaces, ground-level action and governance mechanisms.

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety:

The Cartagena Protocol is a legally binding agreement under the Convention on Biological Diversity aimed at ensuring the safe handling and transfer of living modified organisms.
The Protocol was adopted in Cartagena, Colombia, where negotiations concluded in 1999.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:
- The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety is legally binding and falls under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
- It aims to ensure the safe transfer, handling, and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology, considering risks to biodiversity and human health.
Statement 2 is not correct:
- Although the Protocol was named after Cartagena, Colombia, the city where negotiations were initially planned, the final adoption took place in Montreal, Canada on January 29, 2000, not in Cartagena.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 18th December 2025

1 / 2

Which of the following best describes the change in wage-sharing pattern proposed under the VB-G RAM G Bill compared to MGNREGA?

Centre continues to bear 100% wage cost

States bear full wage responsibility

Shared Centre–State wage contribution replaces full central funding

Wages are funded entirely through local bodies

Explanation:

Under MGNREGA, the Centre pays 100% of wages.
The new Bill introduces cost-sharing:
- 90:10 for NE and Himalayan states
- 60:40 for other states
This results in an estimated additional ₹30,000 crore annual burden on states, raising concerns about fiscal stress.

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding the Aravalli Range:

1. The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest fold mountains in the world and contains the highest peak Guru Shikhar in Gujarat.
2. Major rivers originating from the Aravalli include the Banas, Sahibi and the Luni River which flows towards the Rann of Kutch.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1: Incorrect

The Aravalli Range is indeed one of the world’s oldest fold mountains formed during the Proterozoic era.
However, Guru Shikhar (1,722 m)—the highest peak of the Aravallis—is located in Rajasthan (Mount Abu region), not Gujarat.
Hence, the statement becomes incorrect due to the wrong location.

Statement 2: Correct

Three major rivers and tributaries originate in or flow from the Aravalli system:
- Banas River – tributary of the Chambal/Yamuna system
- Sahibi River – tributary of the Yamuna
- Luni River – flows southwest into the Rann of Kutch

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 19th December 2025

1 / 2

Choose the Correct Pair — Indigenous Indian Microprocessors

Sl. No.	Microprocessor	Developer / Purpose
1	SHAKTI	Designed by IIT Madras for strategic, space & defence applications
2	AJIT	Designed by IIT Bombay for industrial & robotics applications
3	VIKRAM	Developed by C-DAC for industrial automation
4	THEJAS64	Developed by ISRO–SCL for space navigation & mission operations

Q: How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

1. SHAKTI → IIT Madras (Correct)

India’s first open-source RISC-V based microprocessor family.
Designed for strategic, defence, and space use.

2. AJIT → IIT Bombay (Correct)

India’s first commercially produced microprocessor developed with SAMEER.
Targeted for industrial controllers, IoT devices, and robotics.

3. VIKRAM → C-DAC (Incorrect)

This pair is incorrect because:
- VIKRAM was developed by ISRO–SCL, not C-DAC.
- It is used for space navigation, guidance, and mission operations.

4. THEJAS64 → C-DAC (Correct)

A 64-bit RISC-V processor designed for industrial automation and embedded systems.

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding cryptocurrencies:

They operate in a decentralised ecosystem without control of a central bank.
All cryptocurrency transactions are recorded on a blockchain.
Cryptocurrencies can be used only through physical tokens issued by governments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct: Cryptocurrencies are decentralised and not controlled by states or central banks.
Statement 2 – Correct: Transactions are recorded on a blockchain, a distributed digital ledger.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: Cryptocurrencies are digital/virtual, not physical or government-issued.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 22th December 2025

1 / 2

Choose the Correct Pair — Indigenous Indian Microprocessors

Sl. No.	Microprocessor	Developer / Purpose
1	SHAKTI	Designed by IIT Madras for strategic, space & defence applications
2	AJIT	Designed by IIT Bombay for industrial & robotics applications
3	VIKRAM	Developed by C-DAC for industrial automation
4	THEJAS64	Developed by ISRO–SCL for space navigation & mission operations

Q: How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

1. SHAKTI → IIT Madras (Correct)

India’s first open-source RISC-V based microprocessor family.
Designed for strategic, defence, and space use.

2. AJIT → IIT Bombay (Correct)

India’s first commercially produced microprocessor developed with SAMEER.
Targeted for industrial controllers, IoT devices, and robotics.

3. VIKRAM → C-DAC (Incorrect)

This pair is incorrect because:
- VIKRAM was developed by ISRO–SCL, not C-DAC.
- It is used for space navigation, guidance, and mission operations.

4. THEJAS64 → C-DAC (Correct)

A 64-bit RISC-V processor designed for industrial automation and embedded systems.

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding cryptocurrencies:

They operate in a decentralised ecosystem without control of a central bank.
All cryptocurrency transactions are recorded on a blockchain.
Cryptocurrencies can be used only through physical tokens issued by governments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct: Cryptocurrencies are decentralised and not controlled by states or central banks.
Statement 2 – Correct: Transactions are recorded on a blockchain, a distributed digital ledger.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: Cryptocurrencies are digital/virtual, not physical or government-issued.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 23th December 2025

1 / 2

1) Exercise Naseem Al Bahr, recently seen in news, is best described as:

A multilateral naval exercise involving India and Gulf Cooperation Council countries

A bilateral naval exercise between India and Oman focusing on maritime interoperability

A joint air–naval exercise between India and Oman conducted only in the Arabian Sea

A coastal security exercise conducted under the Indian Ocean Rim Association

Explanation:

Naseem Al Bahr is a bilateral naval exercise conducted between India and Oman.
It was initiated in 1993, symbolising the long-term strategic maritime partnership between the two countries.
Oman is the first Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) country to conduct bilateral naval exercises with India.

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding key focus areas of India–Africa economic ties:

Limited access to trade finance and insurance constrains MSME participation in India–Africa trade.
Infrastructure investments such as ports and maritime corridors are essential for reducing logistics costs.
Services trade plays a marginal role and is excluded from India’s Africa engagement strategy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct: MSMEs face challenges like limited trade finance, risk perception, and lack of insurance.
Statement 2 – Correct: Ports, connectivity, and logistics infrastructure are crucial for cost-efficient trade.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: Services trade (IT, healthcare, skills) is a major pillar of India–Africa cooperation.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 24th December 2025

1 / 2

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Right to Disconnect Bill risks functioning more as a behavioural norm than an enforceable labour right.

Statement-II: The Right to Disconnect Bill risks this outcome because Indian labour law does not define digital availability as “work”.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Explanation:

Statement-I is correct. Without enforceability, the right may remain a moral guideline rather than a binding standard.
Statement-II is correct. Since after-hours digital engagement is not legally recognised as “work”, employers face no clear liability, and workers lack remedies.
Therefore, Statement-II correctly explains Statement-I.
The OSH Code, 2020 regulates working hours but is silent on digital labour.
This creates a conceptual gap: communication is regulated, but working time is not redefined.

2 / 2

2) The Supreme Court judgment in Pandit M.S.M. Sharma vs Shri Sri Krishna Sinha (1958) is significant because it held that:

Freedom of the press under Article 19(1)(a) is absolute and cannot be restricted by legislatures

Legislative privileges under Article 194(3) prevail over freedom of the press in case of conflict

Parliamentary privileges are subordinate to Fundamental Rights

State legislatures have no authority to regulate publication of their proceedings

Explanation:

The Searchlight Case (1958) arose when a newspaper published proceedings of the Bihar Legislative Assembly that were ordered to be expunged.
The Supreme Court ruled that legislative privileges under Article 194(3) override the freedom of the press under Article 19(1)(a) in case of a conflict.
The Court held that state legislatures have the power to regulate or prohibit the publication of their proceedings, similar to the British House of Commons.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 26th December 2025

1 / 2

1) The Kanpur Conference of 1925 is considered significant in the history of Indian Communism because it:

Established the first trade union in India

Formed the Communist Party of India through an indigenous initiative

Marked India’s formal entry into the Comintern

Coincided with the formation of the Congress Socialist Party

Explanation:

The Kanpur Conference of 1925 is regarded by CPI as the foundational moment of the Communist Party of India, representing the first coordinated indigenous effort to establish an all-India Communist organisation.

2 / 2

With reference to the Bureau of Port Security (BoPS), consider the following statements:

It is a statutory body established under the Merchant Shipping Act, 2025.
It functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
It is responsible for enforcing the ISPS Code in Indian ports.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: BoPS is a statutory body under the Merchant Shipping Act, 2025.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It functions under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
Statement 3 is correct: Enforcement of the ISPS Code is a core mandate of BoPS.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 29th December 2025

1 / 2

Consider the following applications:

Permanent magnets
Phosphors in display screens
Wind turbines and electric vehicles
Petroleum refining catalysts

Which of the above involve the use of Rare Earth Elements?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Permanent magnets – Rare earth elements like Neodymium are used to make high-strength Nd-Fe-B magnets.
Phosphors in display screens – Elements such as Europium, Yttrium, and Terbium are used in LEDs, TVs, and monitors.
Wind turbines and electric vehicles – Rare earth magnets and lanthanum-based batteries are critical for clean energy technologies.
Petroleum refining catalysts – Lanthanum and Cerium are widely used as catalysts in oil refining.

2 / 2

2) Which of the following best explains the primary rationale for banks issuing infrastructure bonds?

To avoid RBI regulation

To raise short-term funds at variable interest rates

To align long-term infrastructure lending with stable funding sources

To eliminate inflation risk

Explanation:

Infrastructure bonds provide long-duration funds that help banks reduce asset–liability mismatch arising from long-term infrastructure loans and short-term deposits, while also supporting infrastructure development.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 30th December 2025

1 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding the India–New Zealand Free Trade Agreement:

The agreement provides duty-free access to 100% of Indian exports to New Zealand.
New Zealand committed USD 20 billion investment over 15 years to strengthen long-term economic cooperation.
The agreement safeguards India’s interests in dairy and agriculture while benefiting labour-intensive sectors like textiles and leather.
It introduces new visa pathways for student mobility and skilled professionals, including STEM graduates.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct:
The FTA eliminates customs duties on 100% of Indian exports, significantly enhancing market access.
Statement 2 – Correct:
New Zealand has committed USD 20 billion investment over 15 years, strengthening strategic and economic ties.
Statement 3 – Correct:
India successfully protected its dairy and agriculture sectors, while labour-intensive industries like textiles and leather gain export advantages.
Statement 4 – Correct:
The agreement includes provisions for student mobility and post-study work visas, opening pathways for 5,000 skilled professionals, including STEM graduates.

Additional Information:

This is India’s first FTA with New Zealand, marking a milestone in India’s Indo-Pacific economic engagement.
The Health and Traditional Medicine Services Annex was signed for the first time under this FTA.
The agreement supports India’s trade diversification strategy and strengthens cooperation beyond goods—covering services, investment, and mobility.

2 / 2

Consider the following statements regarding Electoral Trusts in India:

Electoral trusts were introduced through a scheme notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) in 2013.
Electoral trusts must disclose donor identities and fund distribution details to the ECI.
Donations routed through electoral trusts are anonymous to the public and the Election Commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct.
Electoral Trusts in India were introduced under the Electoral Trusts Scheme, 2013, which was notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). The scheme was aimed at channelising political donations through a regulated and transparent institutional mechanism.
Statement 2 is correct.
Electoral Trusts are mandated to disclose donor identities, amounts received, and the distribution of funds to political parties through annual filings to the Election Commission of India (ECI). This requirement is a key feature distinguishing electoral trusts from the now-invalidated Electoral Bond Scheme.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
Donations routed through electoral trusts are not anonymous. While trusts act as intermediaries, donor details are disclosed to the ECI and the Income Tax Department, ensuring traceability and regulatory oversight. Hence, anonymity to the Election Commission does not exist.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 31th December 2025

1 / 2

With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements: (2014)

Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.
It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.
It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

2 / 2

2) INSV Kaundinya, recently in the news for reviving India’s ancient maritime heritage, is distinctive because it:

Uses a hybrid engine–sail propulsion system and welded metal hull

Is powered solely by sails and constructed using the indigenous Tankai method

Employs nuclear propulsion with a steel-reinforced hull

Is operated by an unmanned autonomous navigation system

Explanation:
INSV Kaundinya is a traditional sailing vessel that relies entirely on wind propulsion. It is built using the Tankai method, an ancient Indian shipbuilding technique in which the hull is stitched first and ribs are added later, completely avoiding the use of metal.

Additional Information:

The vessel is about 19.6 metres long and 6.5 metres wide, with a draft of 3.33 metres.
It is operated by a crew of around 15 trained sailors.
The project aims to recreate ancient Indian maritime practices and highlight India’s seafaring heritage in the Indian Ocean region.

Your score is

SYLLABUS

PYQ'S

GROUP I

SYLLABUS

STUDY MATERIAL

PYQ'S

GROUP II

SYLLABUS

STUDY MATERIAL

PYQ'S

GROUP I

SYLLABUS

STUDY MATERIAL

PYQ'S

GROUP II

UPSC

TGPSC

APPSC

UPSC

APPSC G1 and G2

TGPSC G1 and G2

UPSC

TGPSC

APPSC

SYLLABUS

PYQ'S

GROUP I

SYLLABUS

STUDY MATERIAL

PYQ'S

GROUP II

SYLLABUS

STUDY MATERIAL

PYQ'S

GROUP I

SYLLABUS

STUDY MATERIAL

PYQ'S

GROUP II

UPSC

TGPSC

APPSC

UPSC

APPSC G1 and G2

TGPSC G1 and G2

UPSC

TGPSC

APPSC

2026 Preparation Guide

Category: UPSC CARE Prelims Practice February 2026

Category: UPSC CARE Prelims Practice January 2026

2025 Preparation Guide

Category: UPSC CARE Prelims Practice December 2025