Statement 1 is correct:
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions to promote democratic decentralization.

Statement 2 is correct:
The system is structured as a three-tier system—

• Gram Panchayat (village)
• Panchayat Samiti (block/intermediate)
• Zila Parishad (district)

Statement 3 is correct:
The 73rd Amendment mandates a Gram Sabha, comprising all registered voters in a village, as the foundation of rural self-governance.

Statement 4 is incorrect:
PRIs do not receive funds directly from the Union Finance Commission. Funds are devolved through State Governments, based on recommendations of both Central and State Finance Commissions.

Article 40 of the Constitution directs the State to organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers to function as units of self-government.

Statement 1 is correct:
The 73rd Amendment (1992) provided constitutional status to PRIs.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
The three-tier system is not mandatory for states with a population below 20 lakhs, where a two-tier system may exist.

Statement 3 is correct:
The Gram Sabha includes all registered voters in the village and acts as the basic deliberative body.

Statement 4 is correct:
Reservation for SCs and STs in Panchayats is provided in proportion to their population in the area.

All the listed factors are well-recognized structural challenges affecting the effective functioning of PRIs:

• Limited financial autonomy
• Political interference (MPs/MLAs, local elites)
• Capacity gaps among representatives
• Incomplete devolution of the 3Fs (Functions, Funds, Functionaries)

Statement 1 is correct:
Panchayats are mandated to prepare plans for economic development and social justice under the 73rd Amendment.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Panchayats do play a role in infrastructure creation (health, education, sanitation, etc.), as per the Eleventh Schedule.

Statement 3 is correct:
They are empowered to levy and collect local taxes, subject to State laws.

Statement 4 is correct:
Sectors like agriculture, irrigation, and animal husbandry fall within Panchayat function

Statement 1 is correct:

The report “Women and Men in India” is an annual publication brought out by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). It compiles gender-disaggregated data across sectors such as education, health, employment, and decision-making.

Statement 2 is correct:

Recent editions of the report highlight that the female Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education has marginally exceeded that of males, reflecting improving gender parity in education.

Statement 3 is incorrect:

The report does not claim universal access to health screening services for all women. While access has improved, significant gaps remain, particularly across regions and socio-economic groups. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

The low Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR) in India is primarily driven by structural and socio-cultural factors, among which the unequal burden of unpaid care work is the most significant.

Women in India spend a disproportionately large amount of time on household chores, childcare, and elder care, which limits their ability to participate in paid employment.

Option (a) is incorrect:
While higher education may delay entry into the workforce, it generally enhances employability and cannot explain persistently low participation rates.

Option (b) is correct:
The unequal distribution of unpaid domestic responsibilities is widely recognized as the key constraint on women’s labour force participation.

Option (c) is incorrect:
There are no broad legal prohibitions preventing women from working in most sectors. Restrictions are limited to specific hazardous occupations.

Option (d) is incorrect:
Although structural shifts in agriculture affect employment, they impact both men and women. This is not the primary reason for low female participation.

Statement-I is incorrect:
Although labour force participation may decline during recessions due to discouraged workers, it is not always the case. Participation rates may remain stable or even increase depending on economic necessity and demographic factors.

Statement-II is incorrect:
Recessions do not always lead to deflation. In some cases, economies experience stagflation, where inflation coexists with economic stagnation. Hence, deflation is not inevitable.

Statement 1 is incorrect:
PLFS is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO), not NSSO (which has been merged into NSO). The wording must be precise; hence the statement is considered incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct:
PLFS provides labour force indicators such as unemployment rate and participation rate at both national and state levels.

Statement 3 is correct:
It uses a rotating panel design, especially in urban areas, allowing tracking of employment trends over time.

Statement 4 is correct:
PLFS replaced the earlier quinquennial Employment and Unemployment Surveys, enabling more frequent and timely labour market data.

Statement 1 is incorrect: El Nino was first recognized by Peruvian fishermen, not Spanish explorers.

Statement 2 is correct: The term El Nino, meaning “the little boy” in Spanish, was given by Spanish immigrants.

Statement 3 is incorrect: El Nino is not a regular cycle; it occurs irregularly at intervals of two to seven year

When DAP dissolves in water, it releases ammonium ions, which can lead to the formation of a slightly alkaline solution (pH > 7) initially. This is a key chemical property of DAP.

The Coriolis Force, resulting from the Earth’s rotation, causes moving air and water to turn to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. This deflection is to the right in the Northern Hemisphere, affecting the direction of the winds.

The Fertiliser Control Order (FCO) regulates the quality, pricing, and distribution of fertilizers. While its primary aim is to ensure the availability of quality fertilizers to farmers, one of its significant unintended consequences, especially when combined with government subsidy policies (which often disproportionately subsidize urea/nitrogenous fertilizers), has been the distorted pricing mechanism. This distortion leads farmers to apply excessive amounts of nitrogenous fertilizers (like urea) compared to phosphatic and potassic fertilizers, resulting in an imbalanced nutrient application. This imbalance negatively impacts soil health, reduces nutrient use efficiency, and can, in the long run, diminish agricultural productivity despite increased fertilizer use. It does not primarily aim to reduce overall chemical fertilizer consumption or promote organic farming directly. While it aims to curb black marketing and adulteration, it has not completely eliminated these issues. Its focus is on domestic regulation and supply, not primarily export promotion.

Statement 1 is correct: The Fertiliser Control Order (FCO), 1985, is issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955. Its primary objectives include regulating the quality, price, and distribution of fertilizers to ensure their availability to farmers at fair prices and of specified quality.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Urea is a single or ‘straight’ fertilizer, providing only nitrogen (N). Complex fertilizers, as defined under the FCO, contain two or more primary plant nutrients (N, P, K) chemically combined (e.g., Diammonium Phosphate (DAP), NPK complexes).

Statement 3 is correct: The FCO indeed specifies quality standards for a wide range of fertilizers. This includes primary nutrient fertilizers (like Urea, DAP, Muriate of Potash), secondary nutrients (like Calcium, Magnesium, Sulphur), and various micronutrient fertilizers (like Zinc, Boron, Iron, Manganese, Copper).

Statement 4 is incorrect: While the FCO regulates various chemical and fortified fertilizers, it does not directly subject ‘all types of organic manures’ like vermicompost and farmyard manure to its stringent quality control and pricing mechanisms in the same manner as chemical fertilizers. Organic manures are generally promoted through different schemes and standards, often falling under broader organic farming guidelines rather than the specific regulatory framework of the FCO that primarily targets chemical fertilizer quality and price control.

Diammonium Phosphate (DAP), with the chemical formula (NH₄)₂HPO₄, is a highly soluble salt. When dissolved in water, the phosphate ion (HPO₄²⁻) undergoes hydrolysis to produce hydroxide ions (OH⁻), while the ammonium ion (NH₄⁺) undergoes hydrolysis to produce hydrogen ions (H⁺). However, the basic hydrolysis of the phosphate ion is stronger than the acidic hydrolysis of the ammonium ion in this context, resulting in an overall slightly alkaline solution. The pH of a 1% DAP solution is typically in the range of 7.5 to 8.0. Furthermore, the nitrogen in DAP is in the ammoniacal (NH₄⁺) form, not nitrate (NO₃⁻) form, and its high solubility makes it a readily available nutrient source rather than a slow-release one.

Option (a) is incorrect because CBAM is not a general import tax but a carbon pricing mechanism. Option (b) is correct as CBAM aims to reduce emissions and prevent carbon leakage by ensuring imported goods face similar carbon costs as EU-produced goods. Option (c) is incorrect since CBAM does not provide subsidies. Option (d) is unrelated as VAT harmonisation is a separate fiscal matter.

Statement 1 is correct: Afforestation and reforestation help to sequester carbon by increasing the amount of carbon stored in trees and soil.

Statement 2 is correct: Ocean fertilization involves adding nutrients to the ocean to enhance the growth of phytoplankton, which absorb CO2 through photosynthesis and eventually sequester it in the ocean.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Urbanization and land development for industrial purposes generally increase carbon emissions rather than sequester carbon, as these activities involve deforestation and land use changes that release CO2.

Statement 4 is correct: Carbon capture and storage (CCS) is a method where CO2 is captured from industrial processes and stored in deep underground geological formations, preventing it from entering the atmosphere.

Option (b) is correct because CBAM targets carbon-intensive industries such as steel, aluminium, cement, fertilisers, electricity, and hydrogen, where emissions are high. These sectors are required to account for embedded carbon emissions. Other options are unrelated to CBAM’s scope.

The states sharing a border with Bangladesh are Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. West Bengal also shares a border but is not part of the Northeast. Nagaland, Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, and Sikkim do not border Bangladesh.

Statement 1 is correct: Carbon-neutral cement production reduces carbon emissions by using industrial by-products such as fly ash and slag, which help lower the amount of clinker required. Clinker is a major contributor to carbon emissions during cement production, so substituting it with these by-products is one way to reduce the carbon footprint.

Statement 2 is correct: Limestone Calcined Clay Cement (LC3) is indeed a widely recognized form of carbon-neutral cement. LC3 reduces the amount of clinker used in cement production by replacing a portion of it with calcined clay and limestone, leading to a substantial reduction in carbon emissions.

The Outer Space Treaty (OST) was a direct outcome of the Cold War Space Race between the United States and the Soviet Union. Following the launch of Sputnik 1 in 1957, there were growing international concerns about the potential militarization of outer space and the spread of nuclear weapons beyond Earth. Both superpowers, while competing, recognized the mutual benefit of preventing an arms race in space and ensuring its peaceful exploration. This led to negotiations within the United Nations Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space (COPUOS) and ultimately the treaty’s opening for signature in 1967. The other options describe developments or concerns that either emerged much later or were not the primary driving forces behind the original treaty.

Statement 1 is correct: The James Webb Space Telescope is an international collaboration between NASA, the European Space Agency (ESA), and the Canadian Space Agency (CSA). Statement 2 is correct: The NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) is a joint Earth-observing mission to study changes in Earth’s land and ice surfaces using advanced radar imaging.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Despite geopolitical tensions in 2022, the core operational partnership between NASA and Roscosmos on the International Space Station (ISS) was not suspended; it was maintained to ensure crew safety and continued station operations. Statement 4 is correct: The Artemis Accords are a set of non-binding principles to guide civil space exploration, open to any nation willing to adhere to them for peaceful and cooperative purposes.

Statement 1 is correct:  Article II of the Outer Space Treaty explicitly states that outer space, including the Moon and other celestial bodies, is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or occupation, or by any other means.

Statement 2 is correct: Article IV of the Treaty prohibits States Parties from placing in orbit around the Earth any objects carrying nuclear weapons or any other kinds of weapons of mass destruction, installing such weapons on celestial bodies, or stationing such weapons in outer space in any other manner.

Statement 3 is incorrect: While the Treaty promotes international cooperation in the exploration and use of outer space (Article I, Article IX), it does not establish a specific ‘binding framework for all States to share space technology and data with developing nations’ as a direct, explicit, legally binding provision within the treaty itself. Such detailed provisions are typically found in subsequent, more specific agreements or resolutions.

Statement 4 is correct: Article V of the Treaty designates astronauts as ‘envoys of mankind’ and requires States to render them all possible assistance in the event of accident, distress, or emergency landing on the territory of another State Party or on the high seas.

Statement 1 is correct: Bosentan is a non-selective endothelin receptor antagonist (ERA), meaning it blocks both ET-A and ET-B receptors. It was the first oral ERA approved for pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH).

Statement 2 is incorrect: Ambrisentan is an ET-A selective endothelin receptor antagonist. It specifically blocks the ET-A receptor, which is primarily responsible for vasoconstriction and cell proliferation, with potentially less impact on ET-B mediated effects like vasodilation and endothelin clearance.

Statement 3 is correct: Macitentan is a newer non-selective ERA. It has a distinct pharmacological profile characterized by more sustained receptor binding and a longer duration of action compared to bosentan, which contributes to its improved efficacy and safety profile, including reduced liver toxicity.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Endothelin-1 (ET-1) primarily exerts its potent vasoconstrictive effects by binding to ET-A receptors. ET-B receptors, while also binding ET-1, have more complex roles including mediating vasodilation (via nitric oxide and prostacyclin release) and facilitating the clearance of ET-1. Therefore, blocking ET-A receptors is crucial for reducing ET-1 mediated vasoconstriction.

Endothelin Receptor Antagonists (ERAs) are a class of drugs that work by blocking the action of endothelin, a potent vasoconstrictor peptide. Endothelin exerts its effects by binding to specific receptors, primarily Endothelin A (ETA) and Endothelin B (ETB) receptors, located on vascular smooth muscle cells and other cell types. By blocking these receptors, ERAs prevent endothelin-1 from inducing vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels) and cell proliferation (excessive growth of cells), which are key pathological processes in diseases like Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH). Some ERAs are selective for ETA receptors (e.g., Ambrisentan), while others are non-selective, blocking both ETA and ETB receptors (e.g., Bosentan, Macitentan)

Statement 1 is correct: Complex biopharmaceuticals like monoclonal antibodies require intricate post-translational modifications (PTMs), especially glycosylation, for proper folding, stability, and biological function.

Statement 2 is correct : It provides the direct explanation for Statement 1. Prokaryotic systems (like bacteria) are simpler and lack the cellular machinery to perform these complex eukaryotic PTMs. As a result, proteins produced in prokaryotic systems may be misfolded, aggregated, inactive, or highly immunogenic in humans, necessitating the use of more complex mammalian cell culture systems despite higher production costs and complexity.

Advanced biopharmaceuticals, such as gene and cell therapies, are derived from living systems or complex biological processes. This inherent complexity leads to significant challenges in ensuring consistent product quality, purity, potency, and manufacturing reproducibility from batch to batch. Regulators must establish robust frameworks to assess and monitor these aspects throughout the product lifecycle, which is fundamentally different and often more complex than regulating the chemical synthesis and consistency of small-molecule drugs.

Statement 1 is correct: The FRA provides title rights, allowing ownership of land actively cultivated by forest dwellers, subject to a maximum limit of 4 hectares.

Statement 2 is correct: The FRA grants use rights to collect Minor Forest Produce (MFP), which includes resources like bamboo, tendu leaves, honey, and medicinal plants. These are crucial for the livelihood of forest-dwelling communities.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The FRA does not allow forest dwellers to clear forest land for cultivation beyond the 4-hectare limit, even with Gram Sabha approval. The Act emphasizes conservation and sustainable use of forest resources.

The Gram Sabha consists of all the registered voters residing in the jurisdiction of a Gram Panchayat and serves as the decision-making body for local self-governance at the village level.

Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 243(b) of the Constitution, the Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of a Panchayat at the village level. It is the foundation of the Panchayati Raj System.

Statement 2 is correct: While the Constitution does not specify the number of meetings, most State Panchayati Raj Acts mandate that the Gram Sabha must meet at least twice a year. The statement reflects this common statutory requirement.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The powers of the Gram Sabha, including whether its decisions are binding on the Gram Panchayat, are determined by the respective State Legislatures as per Article 243A. Many State Acts have provisions that make the recommendations or decisions of the Gram Sabha in specific matters (like approval of plans and selection of beneficiaries) binding on the Gram Panchayat. Therefore, the absolute statement that its decisions are ‘not binding’ is incorrect.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court (ICC) does not currently recognize ecocide as an independent international crime. Discussions and campaigns are ongoing to include it alongside genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and aggression.

Statement 2 is correct: The term ecocide became widely associated with the large-scale environmental destruction caused during the Vietnam War, particularly due to the use of chemical defoliants such as Agent Orange.

Statement 3 is correct: The Environmental Modification Convention (ENMOD), 1977 prohibits the hostile use of environmental modification techniques having widespread, long-lasting, or severe effects.

Statement 1 is correct: Article 6 of the Rome Statute defines genocide by specifying ‘national, ethnical, racial or religious group’ as protected categories, consistent with the 1948 Genocide Convention. It does not include ‘political groups’, which has been a point of debate but is the established legal definition within the Statute.

Statement 2 is also correct: Article 8 bis of the Rome Statute, concerning the crime of aggression, specifies that it can only be committed by a person in a position effectively to exercise control over or to direct the political or military action of a State. This reflects the leadership nature of this crime. Both statements are factually correct details about different crimes defined by the Rome Statute.

However, Statement 2, which describes the specific perpetrator requirement for the crime of aggression, does not explain why ‘political groups’ are excluded from the definition of genocide in Statement 1. They are distinct, albeit related, legal provisions within the Rome Statute.

Statement 1 is correct: Article 124 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to regulate and increase the strength of judges in the Supreme Court through legislation.

Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956 was enacted under the provisions of Article 124 to determine the sanctioned strength of Supreme Court judges.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Although judges are formally appointed by the President, the appointment process involves judicial consultation through the Collegium System, and the President does not act independently in this matter.

The Rome Statute is based on the principle of complementarity, meaning the ICC acts as a court of last resort. It intervenes only when national judicial systems are unwilling or genuinely unable to investigate or prosecute serious international crimes.

Statement A is correct:  The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is not required to be a part of a Constitution Bench. The CJI is the Master of the Roster and has the sole discretion to decide which cases will be heard by a Constitution Bench. The Constitution Benches have decided many of India’s most important Supreme Court cases, including: Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala and A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras.

Statement B is incorrect: The largest Constitution Bench in the history of the Supreme Court of India was the 13-judge bench in the Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case(1973).

Statement C is correct: According to Article 71 of the Constitution, all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court.

Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution specifies the procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court judge, which also applies to High Court judges (Article 217). A judge can be removed by an order of the President only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. This address must be supported by a special majority in each House of Parliament, meaning a majority of the total membership of that House AND a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. The grounds for removal are ‘proved misbehaviour’ or ‘incapacity’. The Judges Inquiry Act, 1968, regulates the procedure for the investigation and presentation of an address for the removal of a judge.

Statement 1 is correct: The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is appointed for a term of six years or until he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. This is provided by the CAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971, which is enacted under Article 148(3) of the Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners (ECs) do hold office for a fixed term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier, the removal process is different for the CEC and ECs. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. However, other Election Commissioners cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. The statement incorrectly claims that “all can be removed only through a process similar to the removal of a Supreme Court Judge.”

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Attorney General of India (AG) holds office during the pleasure of the President, as stipulated in Article 76(4) of the Constitution. However, his remuneration is determined by the President, not by the Parliament. Article 76(4) states that the Attorney General shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine.

Statement 4 is incorrect: A Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President (Article 156(1)). There are no specific grounds mentioned in the Constitution for the removal of a Governor, nor is there an impeachment process by the State Legislature for their removal. The President can remove a Governor at any time without assigning any reason or following any specific procedure like impeachment.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court (ICC) does not currently recognize ecocide as an independent international crime. Discussions and campaigns are ongoing to include it alongside genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and aggression.

Statement 2 is correct: The term ecocide became widely associated with the large-scale environmental destruction caused during the Vietnam War, particularly due to the use of chemical defoliants such as Agent Orange.

Statement 3 is correct: The Environmental Modification Convention (ENMOD), 1977 prohibits the hostile use of environmental modification techniques having widespread, long-lasting, or severe effects.

Statement 1 is correct: Article 6 of the Rome Statute defines genocide by specifying ‘national, ethnical, racial or religious group’ as protected categories, consistent with the 1948 Genocide Convention. It does not include ‘political groups’, which has been a point of debate but is the established legal definition within the Statute.

Statement 2 is also correct: Article 8 bis of the Rome Statute, concerning the crime of aggression, specifies that it can only be committed by a person in a position effectively to exercise control over or to direct the political or military action of a State. This reflects the leadership nature of this crime. Both statements are factually correct details about different crimes defined by the Rome Statute.

However, Statement 2, which describes the specific perpetrator requirement for the crime of aggression, does not explain why ‘political groups’ are excluded from the definition of genocide in Statement 1. They are distinct, albeit related, legal provisions within the Rome Statute.

Statement 1 is correct: Article 124 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to regulate and increase the strength of judges in the Supreme Court through legislation.

Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956 was enacted under the provisions of Article 124 to determine the sanctioned strength of Supreme Court judges.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Although judges are formally appointed by the President, the appointment process involves judicial consultation through the Collegium System, and the President does not act independently in this matter.

The Rome Statute is based on the principle of complementarity, meaning the ICC acts as a court of last resort. It intervenes only when national judicial systems are unwilling or genuinely unable to investigate or prosecute serious international crimes.

Statement A is correct:  The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is not required to be a part of a Constitution Bench. The CJI is the Master of the Roster and has the sole discretion to decide which cases will be heard by a Constitution Bench. The Constitution Benches have decided many of India’s most important Supreme Court cases, including: Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala and A. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras.

Statement B is incorrect: The largest Constitution Bench in the history of the Supreme Court of India was the 13-judge bench in the Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case(1973).

Statement C is correct: According to Article 71 of the Constitution, all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court.

Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution specifies the procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court judge, which also applies to High Court judges (Article 217). A judge can be removed by an order of the President only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. This address must be supported by a special majority in each House of Parliament, meaning a majority of the total membership of that House AND a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. The grounds for removal are ‘proved misbehaviour’ or ‘incapacity’. The Judges Inquiry Act, 1968, regulates the procedure for the investigation and presentation of an address for the removal of a judge.

Statement 1 is correct: The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is appointed for a term of six years or until he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. This is provided by the CAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971, which is enacted under Article 148(3) of the Constitution.

Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners (ECs) do hold office for a fixed term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier, the removal process is different for the CEC and ECs. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. However, other Election Commissioners cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner. The statement incorrectly claims that “all can be removed only through a process similar to the removal of a Supreme Court Judge.”

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Attorney General of India (AG) holds office during the pleasure of the President, as stipulated in Article 76(4) of the Constitution. However, his remuneration is determined by the President, not by the Parliament. Article 76(4) states that the Attorney General shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine.

Statement 4 is incorrect: A Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President (Article 156(1)). There are no specific grounds mentioned in the Constitution for the removal of a Governor, nor is there an impeachment process by the State Legislature for their removal. The President can remove a Governor at any time without assigning any reason or following any specific procedure like impeachment.

• Statement 1 is correct: India officially follows the No First Use policy under its Nuclear Doctrine.

• Statement 2 is correct: Grey zone warfare refers to hostile actions below the threshold of open conventional conflict, including cyber operations and proxy warfare.

• Statement 3 is correct: Nuclear retaliation in India can only be authorized by the civilian political leadership through the Nuclear Command Authority.

Explanation:

The Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) is India’s decision-making body for nuclear weapons. It comprises a Political Council and an Executive Council.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Political Council, which is responsible for authorizing the use of nuclear weapons, is chaired by the Prime Minister of India, not the President.

Statement 2 is correct: The Executive Council provides inputs to the Political Council and is responsible for executing its directives. It is chaired by the National Security Advisor.

Statement 3 is incorrect: India’s ‘No First Use’ (NFU) policy is a core tenet of its nuclear doctrine, but it does not imply that the decision to use nuclear weapons rests solely with the Chiefs of Staff Committee. The ultimate authority for authorizing the use of nuclear weapons resides with the Political Council, chaired by the Prime Minister, ensuring civilian control over the nuclear arsenal.

India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) consists of a Political Council and an Executive Council. The Political Council, chaired by the Prime Minister, is the ultimate decision-making body that authorizes the use of nuclear weapons.

The Executive Council, chaired by the National Security Advisor, provides inputs for the Political Council and carries out its directives. The NCA was established by a Cabinet Committee on Security decision in 2003, not an Act of Parliament, and its mandate is related to nuclear weapons, not the civilian nuclear energy program.

The development and testing of nuclear warheads are primarily under the domain of scientific agencies like DRDO and DAE, though coordinated by the broader security establishment.

• Statement 1 is correct: The International Big Cat Alliance was launched by India in 2023.

• Statement 2 is incorrect: The alliance focuses on seven big cat species globally, including lions, leopards, snow leopards, cheetahs, jaguars, and pumas in addition to tigers.

• Statement 3 is correct: The Delhi Declaration is expected to focus on habitat connectivity and transboundary cooperation for conservation.

Cheetah – Vulnerable: Correct. The cheetah is listed as Vulnerable under the IUCN Red List and included in Appendix I of CITES.

Snow Leopard – Endangered: Incorrect. The snow leopard is listed as Vulnerable, not Endangered, under the IUCN Red List.

Jaguar – Near Threatened: Correct. The jaguar is listed as Near Threatened on the IUCN Red List and included in Appendix I of CITES.

Puma – Vulnerable: Incorrect. The puma is listed under Appendix II of CITES and categorized as Least Concern by the IUCN.

Statement 1 is Correct: The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species is a comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of biological species, serving as a critical indicator of the world’s biodiversity health.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is a multilateral treaty whose primary aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.

Statement 3 is Correct: The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) is a major international non-governmental organization founded in 1961, dedicated to wilderness preservation and reducing human impact on the environment.

Statement 4 is Incorrect: The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change, but it is not the first. The Kyoto Protocol, adopted in 1997, was the first legally binding global climate treaty that set emission reduction targets for developed countries.

• Statement 1 is correct: ENSO has three phases: El Niño, La Niña and Neutral.
• Statement 2 is correct: El Niño is associated with unusual warming of eastern Pacific surface waters.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: La Niña generally supports a stronger Indian southwest monsoon, though extreme rainfall may also cause floods.

Additional Information:
ENSO is one of the most important global climate phenomena affecting monsoon, rainfall and temperature patterns.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: In plains, a heat wave may be considered when maximum temperature reaches at least 40°C.
• Statement 2 is correct: A severe heat wave may be declared when actual maximum temperature reaches or exceeds 47°C.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Wet bulb temperature considers humidity and shows how effectively the body can cool itself through evaporation.

Additional Information:
High humidity increases heat stress because sweat does not evaporate easily, making the body feel hotter than the actual temperature.

• The Mission for Cotton Productivity aligns with the Government of India’s 5F Vision.
• The correct sequence of the 5F Vision is:

Farm → Fibre → Factory → Fashion → Foreign

• It represents the complete textile value chain:
  • Farm: Cotton cultivation by farmers
  • Fibre: Conversion of cotton into fibre
  • Factory: Textile manufacturing
  • Fashion: Garment and apparel production
  • Foreign: Export to global markets

Additional Information

The Mission for Cotton Productivity has an outlay of ₹5,659.22 crore for the period 2026–27 to 2030–31. It aims to improve cotton productivity, develop disease and pest-resistant HYV seeds, reduce contamination in cotton supply, and promote high-quality cotton exports.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The interim committee included the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition and Chief Justice of India.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Court described the Election Commission as a guardian of democracy.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Court held that casting a vote is part of freedom of expression under Article 19(1)(a).

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The 2023 Act provides for a Selection Committee with the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the PM.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Search Committee is headed by the Law Minister, not the Chief Justice of India.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Selection Committee can consider persons outside the shortlist.

Additional Information:
This provision gives wide discretion to the Selection Committee.

• Veer Hamirji Gohil is remembered in regional tradition for defending the Somnath Temple during the invasion of Zafar Khan in 1299 AD.

Additional Information:

• Somnath Temple is located in Gujarat
• It is regarded as the first Jyotirlinga of Lord Shiva
• Veer Hamirji Gohil is associated with the idea of Rajadharma

• Statement 1 is correct: PHS uses surplus power to pump water uphill.
• Statement 2 is correct: Stored water is released downhill to generate electricity.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Chemical storage refers to batteries, not pumped hydro.

Additional Information:

PHS is generally suitable for longer-duration energy storage.

• Statement 1 is correct: The 2026 Rules replaced the 2016 Rules.
• Statement 2 is correct: They came into effect from April 1, 2026.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Rural local bodies are also covered under the Rules.

Additional Information:
Rural implementation requires simpler and locally suitable waste-management models.

• Statement 1 is correct: Foreign travel accounts for a large share of LRS outflows.
• Statement 2 is correct: Outward remittances involve foreign exchange outflows.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: LRS deals with remittances abroad, not only domestic cash transactions.

Additional Information:

The Prime Minister urged citizens to avoid non-essential foreign travel for a year to conserve foreign exchange.

Explanation:

• During the launch of PMGSY-IV, road projects covering backward habitations were approved under the PM-JANMAN initiative.
• These projects aim to improve last-mile rural connectivity and inclusion.

Additional Information:

• PMGSY stands for Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
• PMGSY focuses on all-weather rural road connectivity
• PM-JANMAN targets development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) and backward habitations

• Statement 1 is correct: PM-SHRI was launched in 2022.
• Statement 2 is correct: It aims to upgrade more than 14,500 schools.
• Statement 3 is correct: These schools are expected to showcase NEP 2020 implementation

• Statement 1 is correct: The Bharat Forecast System is an indigenously developed high-resolution weather prediction model.
• Statement 2 is correct: It was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune.
• Statement 3 is correct: It works at a 6-km resolution, which helps provide more localised forecasts.

Additional Information:

The Bharat Forecast System supports short- and medium-range forecasts and improves local-level weather prediction.

1. Rabies – Correct. Rabies is a zoonotic disease transmitted between animals and humans.
2. Nipah – Correct. Nipah is also an example of a zoonotic disease.
3. Ebola – Correct. Ebola is included among zoonotic diseases.
4. Brucellosis – Correct. Brucellosis is another zoonotic disease mentioned in the content.

Additional Information:

Zoonotic diseases are infectious diseases transmitted between animals and humans. They can be caused by:

• bacteria
• viruses
• parasites
• fungi

The given content also notes that climate change and land-use changes increase human-animal interaction and raise the risk of zoonotic spillovers.

Explanation:

1. Biopharma Shakti: Supports biopharmaceutical innovation and research infrastructure.
2. PLI Scheme: Encourages domestic production of APIs and pharmaceutical components.
3. SUGAM Portal: Supports digital regulatory processes and faster approvals.
4. Jan Aushadhi Kendras: Improve access to affordable medicines.

Additional Information:

India’s pharma strategy combines global competitiveness with domestic affordability.

Explanation:

• 1 is correct: UAVs have become important in recent conflicts.
• 2 is correct: AI-enabled tools improve decision-making and battlefield awareness.
• 3 is correct: Counter-UAV systems are needed to protect military assets from drone attacks.
• 4 is correct: Quantum technologies are emerging as important areas in defence research.

Additional Information:

Future wars will depend on both traditional military power and advanced technologies.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The FDI cap was increased to 74% under the automatic route in 2020.
• Statement 2 is correct: FDI reforms can encourage joint ventures between Indian and foreign companies.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: FDI alone cannot ensure self-reliance. India also needs R&D, skilled talent, procurement reforms and real technology transfer.

Additional Information:
Foreign investment is useful only when it supports domestic capacity-building and technological learning.

Explanation:

• SMILE stands for Solar wind Magnetosphere Ionosphere Link Explorer.
• It is a joint space science mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS).
• The mission will study how the solar wind interacts with Earth’s magnetosphere.

Why other options are incorrect:

• A → NASA and ISRO are associated with missions like NISAR.
• C → JAXA and Roscosmos are not partners in SMILE.
• D → ISRO and CNES are not associated with this mission.

Additional Information:

• Launch Vehicle: Vega-C rocket
• Launch Site: Europe’s Spaceport, French Guiana
• Mission Life: About 3 years

Explanation:

• The recent Ebola outbreak in Uganda and the Democratic Republic of Congo is linked to the Bundibugyo strain of Ebola virus.
• This strain is considered dangerous because there is no specific approved vaccine available for it at present.

Additional Information:

• Ebola is caused by viruses of the Orthoebolavirus group.
• The disease spreads through direct contact with bodily fluids of infected persons.
• Common control measures include isolation, contact tracing, rapid testing and safe burials.

Statement 1 is correct:
China agreed to increase imports of U.S. agricultural products for three years: 2026, 2027 and 2028.

Statement 2 is correct:
The agreement includes products such as beef and poultry.

Statement 3 is incorrect:
The agreement is related to agricultural trade. It does not resolve the Taiwan issue.

Additional Information

U.S.–China relations include both cooperation and competition. Trade cooperation may improve, but strategic issues such as Taiwan remain sensitive.

• Statement 1 is correct:
  India and the Netherlands adopted the Roadmap of India-Netherlands Strategic Partnership for 2026–2030 during the Prime Minister’s official visit to the Netherlands.
• Statement 2 is correct:
  Water, Agriculture and Health (WAH) are important pillars of cooperation between India and the Netherlands. These include areas such as water management, agri-tech innovation, public health, One Health and anti-microbial resistance.
• Statement 3 is correct:
  The Netherlands is India’s largest merchandise export destination in Europe. India also enjoys a substantial trade surplus with the Netherlands.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.Top of FormBottom of Form

Explanation:

1. Pumped Hydro Storage – Correct. It stores energy by pumping water from a lower reservoir to a higher reservoir and releases it through turbines when demand rises.
2. Battery Energy Storage Systems – Correct. These systems store electricity chemically and discharge it when needed.
3. Compressed-air energy storage systems – Correct. These systems use excess electricity to compress air and store it for later power generation.
4. Flywheel energy storage systems – Correct. They store electricity as rotational energy by spinning a rotor at very high speed.

Additional Information:

Other storage systems mentioned in the content include:

• Concentrating solar-thermal storage systems
• Gravity energy storage systems

The content also notes that Pumped Hydro Storage (PHS) and Battery Energy Storage Systems (BESS) are currently the most widely used technologies.Top of FormBottom of Form

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The CIC held that the BCCI does not fall under the definition of public authority under Section 2(h) of the RTI Act.
• Statement 2 is correct: The BCCI is registered as a society under the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act, 1975.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The CIC noted that the BCCI does not receive substantial government grants. It earns mainly through media rights, sponsorships, broadcasting agreements and ticket sales.

Additional Information:

A body does not become a public authority merely because it performs important public functions. It must satisfy the conditions under Section 2(h) of the RTI Act.