UPSC Current Affairs Reverse Engineering Prelims Practice

UPSC

2026 Preparation Guide

Category: UPSC CARE Prelims Practice September 2026

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 1st September 2026

1 / 2

1) Match the following institutions with their Technology Translation Research Park domains:

IIT Kanpur — Cybersecurity
IISc Bengaluru — Robotics and AI
IIT Indore — Digital healthcare
IIT (ISM) Dhanbad — Mining technologies

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation: Each of the four institutions specialises in the correctly matched CPS domain.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding NM-ICPS:

It is implemented by the Department of Science and Technology.
Technology Innovation Hubs under the Mission operate as Section 8 companies.
The Mission deals exclusively with cybersecurity.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Mission covers healthcare, agriculture, mining, communication, robotics, mobility and cybersecurity.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 2nd September 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding time-synchronisation technologies:

NTP generally provides millisecond-level accuracy.
PTP can provide microsecond-level accuracy within local networks.
NavIC is entirely dependent on GPS for its timing reference.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NTP commonly provides millisecond-level synchronisation through network servers.
Statement 2 is correct: PTP offers microsecond-level accuracy and works effectively within local area networks.
Statement 3 is incorrect: NavIC is India’s independent navigation system, with timing traceable to IST through CSIR-NPL and ISRO’s ground infrastructure.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Legal Metrology (Indian Standard Time) Rules, 2026:

They make IST the legal reference for official and commercial purposes.
They require every organisation to maintain its own atomic clock.
They provide a 180-day transition period.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Rules make IST compulsory for legal, administrative, commercial and other official purposes.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Organisations may synchronise through approved NTP, PTP, satellite or other timing services. They need not maintain their own atomic clocks.
Statement 3 is correct: A transition period of 180 days has been provided for necessary system changes.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 3rd September 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Nancy Grace Roman Space Telescope:

It is primarily a wide-field infrared space observatory.
It will operate near the Sun–Earth Lagrange Point 2.
Its principal objective is to transport astronauts beyond the Solar System.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement-wise Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Roman is an infrared telescope designed to conduct wide-field surveys of the universe.
Statement 2 is correct: It will operate near the Sun–Earth L2 region, which provides stable observing conditions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is an astronomical observatory, not a human-spaceflight mission.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding mangroves:

Pneumatophores enable respiration in waterlogged soil.
Vivipary means that seeds germinate while attached to the parent plant.
Mangrove carbon is stored exclusively in above-ground vegetation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement-wise Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Pneumatophores rise above waterlogged soil and facilitate gaseous exchange.
Statement 2 is correct: In vivipary, seeds begin germinating while attached to the parent plant.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Mangroves store carbon in both vegetation and soil. A major proportion is generally stored below ground in sediments.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 4th September 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following pairs:

Scheme	Principal Support
1. AIF	Financing and interest subvention for agricultural infrastructure
2. AMI	Capital subsidy for storage infrastructure
3. SMAM	Agricultural machinery and Custom Hiring Centres
4. PMFME	Formalisation of micro food-processing enterprises

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Statement-wise Explanation

Pair 1 is correctly matched: AIF supports the creation and upgrading of post-harvest infrastructure through financing and interest subvention.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: AMI provides back-ended capital subsidy for storage facilities.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: SMAM supports farm machinery and Custom Hiring Centres.
Pair 4 is correctly matched: PMFME promotes the formalisation and growth of micro food-processing enterprises.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Decentralised Grain Storage Plan:

The National Cooperative Development Corporation is its implementing agency.
It creates integrated agricultural infrastructure primarily at the PACS level.
It operates exclusively through a newly created central subsidy scheme.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement-wise Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The National Cooperative Development Corporation is responsible for implementing the plan.
Statement 2 is correct: Storage, procurement, processing and other facilities are created at the PACS level.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The plan works through the convergence of existing schemes such as AIF, AMI, SMAM and PMFME.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 7th September 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements about the implementation of the Vibrant Villages Programme:

Village Action Plans guide interventions according to local needs.
A High-Powered Committee chaired by the Cabinet Secretary may recommend relaxation of scheme guidelines.
Scheme saturation requires benefits to be provided without considering eligibility conditions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Statement-wise Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Village Action Plans provide for village-specific, State-specific and border-specific interventions.
Statement 2 is correct: The committee may recommend guideline relaxations to address the special challenges of border villages.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Saturation means extending applicable benefits to every eligible household under existing norms, not removing eligibility requirements.

2 / 2

2) With reference to the Vibrant Villages Programme, consider the following statements:

VVP-I is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, whereas VVP-II is a Central Sector Scheme.
A State or Union Territory covered under VVP-I is entirely excluded from VVP-II.
The Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for the programme.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Statement-wise Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: VVP-I is implemented with the States as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. VVP-II is fully funded by the Centre as a Central Sector Scheme.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Only the northern-border blocks already covered under VVP-I are excluded. A State or UT can have different areas covered under the two phases.
Statement 3 is correct: MHA coordinates implementation with governments, district administrations and border-guarding forces.

Your score is

Category: UPSC CARE Prelims Practice August 2026

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 3rd August 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding government school closures in India:

School closures are often justified on the ground of rationalisation.
The Right to Education Act recognises the importance of neighbourhood schools.
Closure of nearby schools can disproportionately affect girls and children from poor households.
Education is exclusively a State List subject.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. School closures are often done in the name of rationalisation, but they can weaken access to neighbourhood schools and disproportionately hurt poor children and girls.

Statement 4 is incorrect because education is in the Concurrent List, not exclusively in the State List.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding India’s solar energy initiatives:

PM Surya Sarovar Yojana aims to support floating solar projects with energy storage.
PM Surya Ghar promotes rooftop solar adoption among households.
PM-KUSUM promotes solar energy use in agriculture.
ALMM is related to quality assurance for solar PV modules and cells.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

1, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

All four statements are correct. PM Surya Sarovar focuses on floating solar with storage, PM Surya Ghar promotes rooftop solar, PM-KUSUM supports solar energy in agriculture, and ALMM ensures quality assurance for approved solar PV models and manufacturers.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 4th August 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding India’s strategy against Left-Wing Extremism:

The National Policy and Action Plan to address LWE was approved in 2015.
The strategy combined security operations with infrastructure development and welfare delivery.
CoBRA, DRG and Greyhounds have been part of the specialised security architecture against LWE.
The rehabilitation policy discourages surrendered cadres from joining the mainstream.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. India’s anti-LWE policy was based on a coordinated strategy involving security, development, welfare and specialised forces.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the rehabilitation policy encourages surrendered cadres to return to mainstream society.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill, 2026:

It increases the number of puisne judges from 33 to 37.
Including the Chief Justice of India, the sanctioned strength becomes 38.
The Bill amends the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Act, 1956.
The number of Supreme Court judges is permanently fixed by the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The Bill increases puisne judges from 33 to 37, making the total strength 38 including the CJI, and amends the 1956 Act.

Statement 4 is incorrect because Article 124(1) allows Parliament to prescribe the number of Supreme Court judges by law.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 5th August 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Environmental Performance Index 2026:

It evaluates countries on environmental performance using multiple sustainability indicators.
Estonia ranked first in the EPI 2026.
India ranked 176th out of 177 countries.
The index is released by Germanwatch.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. EPI ranks countries on environmental performance, Estonia topped the 2026 index, and India ranked 176th out of 177 countries.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the EPI is developed by Yale and Columbia-linked institutions, not Germanwatch. Germanwatch releases the Climate Risk Index and is also associated with the Climate Change Performance Index.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding Geographical Indication tags in India:

GI products in India are governed by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
Darjeeling Tea was the first Indian product to receive a GI tag.
The GI Registry is located in Chennai.
GI registration is valid permanently and does not require renewal.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. GI protection in India is governed by the GI Act, 1999, Darjeeling Tea was India’s first GI-tagged product, and the GI Registry is located in Chennai.

Statement 4 is incorrect because GI registration is valid for 10 years and can be renewed.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 6th August 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding India’s electric vehicle ecosystem:

The FAME India Scheme was launched under the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan framework.
The PM E-DRIVE Scheme supports EV adoption and charging infrastructure.
EVs attract a concessional GST rate of 5% in India.
Battery Electric Vehicles use only hydrogen fuel cells and do not require batteries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. FAME India was launched under the NEMMP framework, PM E-DRIVE supports EV adoption and charging infrastructure, and EVs attract 5% GST.

Statement 4 is incorrect because Battery Electric Vehicles are powered by batteries, not hydrogen fuel cells.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding critical minerals:

Critical minerals are essential for clean energy, semiconductors, defence and advanced manufacturing.
India has identified 30 critical minerals.
Critical minerals are important only for fossil fuel-based industries.
Rare earth elements are used in permanent magnets and wind turbines.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. Critical minerals are important for clean energy, defence, electronics and advanced manufacturing. India has identified 30 critical minerals, and rare earths are used in magnets and wind turbines. Statement 3 is incorrect because critical minerals are central to clean energy and advanced technologies, not only fossil fuel industries.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 7th August 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding climate-resilient agriculture and nature-based solutions in India:

Climate-resilient agriculture aims to reduce vulnerability to climate-induced shocks.
Biochar can improve soil fertility and help in carbon sequestration.
NICRA is implemented by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
Nature-based solutions are limited only to chemical fertiliser-based farming.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Climate-resilient agriculture reduces vulnerability to climate shocks, biochar improves soil fertility and supports carbon sequestration, and NICRA is implemented by ICAR.

Statement 4 is incorrect because nature-based solutions include practices such as agroforestry, conservation agriculture, zero tillage and biochar, not only chemical fertiliser-based farming.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding Ramsar sites and mining regulation in India:

Ramsar sites are wetlands of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.
Ramsar designation automatically creates a statutory 10-km mining buffer under Indian law.
The Supreme Court directed prior approval for mining within 10 km of the Asan Wetland Conservation Reserve.
Mining inside national parks and wildlife sanctuaries is prohibited under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 3 and 4 only

1 and 2 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Ramsar sites are wetlands of international importance, the Supreme Court required prior approval for mining within 10 km of the Asan Wetland Conservation Reserve, and mining inside national parks and wildlife sanctuaries is prohibited under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

Statement 2 is incorrect because Ramsar designation does not automatically create a statutory 10-km mining buffer under Indian law.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 11th August 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding the e-Courts Mission Mode Project:

The National Judicial Data Grid provides real-time information on pending and disposed cases.
NSTEP enables GPS-tracked electronic service of summons and notices.
e-Sewa Kendras assist citizens in accessing digital court services.
AI tools under the e-Courts Mission are meant to replace judges in decision-making.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. NJDG provides case-related data, NSTEP enables GPS-based summons tracking, and e-Sewa Kendras help citizens access digital court services.

Statement 4 is incorrect because AI tools are meant to assist judicial processes such as transcription, translation, research and filing scrutiny; they do not replace judges.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Makkah Joint Defence Agreement:

It was signed by Saudi Arabia, Türkiye and Pakistan.
It states that an armed attack on one member will be regarded as an attack on all three.
It is identical to NATO because its detailed operational obligations are fully public.
It may affect India’s strategic interests in West Asia and the western Indian Ocean.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct. The pact involves Saudi Arabia, Türkiye and Pakistan, contains a collective-defence clause and has implications for India’s strategic interests.

Statement 3 is incorrect because it should not be treated as identical to NATO; the detailed operational commitments of the pact are not publicly clear.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 12th August 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding PM MITRA Parks:

PM MITRA stands for PM Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel.
The scheme has approved seven textile parks across Greenfield and Brownfield sites.
PM MITRA is inspired by the 5F vision: Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign.
The scheme is limited only to software parks and has no link with the textile sector.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. PM MITRA relates to integrated textile parks and is based on the 5F textile value-chain vision.

Statement 4 is incorrect because PM MITRA is directly related to the textile and apparel sector, not software parks.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding creamy layer and SC/ST reservations:

The creamy layer concept was introduced for OBC reservations through the Indra Sawhney judgment.
The Centre has argued that SC/ST disadvantage cannot be equated with mere economic backwardness.
Articles 341 and 342 relate to the notification of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Creamy layer exclusion currently applies automatically to SC/ST reservations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Creamy layer emerged from Indra Sawhney for OBCs; the Centre argues that SC/ST disadvantage is not merely economic; and Articles 341 and 342 deal with SC/ST lists.

Statement 4 is incorrect because creamy layer exclusion does not currently apply automatically to SC/ST reservations.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 14th August 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following pairs regarding core practices under Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF):

Practice	Purpose
1. Jeevamrutha	Revives beneficial soil microbes
2. Bijamrutha	Protects seeds from fungal and soil-borne diseases
3. Acchadana	Covers topsoil to reduce irrigation requirement
4. Waaphasa	Maintains air-moisture balance in the root zone

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct: Jeevamrutha is a fermented microbial culture that improves beneficial soil microbes and helps nutrient availability.
Pair 2 is correct: Bijamrutha is used as a seed-treatment mixture to protect sprouting seeds from fungal and soil-borne diseases.
Pair 3 is correct: Acchadana means mulching, where straw, leaves or live intercrops cover the soil and reduce irrigation needs.
Pair 4 is correct: Waaphasa refers to maintaining the right balance of air and moisture in the root zone.

Therefore, all four pairs are correctly matche

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding India’s energy sector:

India’s total installed power capacity reached around 552 GW in July 2026.
India’s non-fossil capacity crossed 300 GW and accounted for more than half of total installed capacity.
PM Surya Ghar aims to promote rooftop solar among households.
GOBARdhan is designed only for imported crude oil refining.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. India’s installed capacity reached around 552 GW, non-fossil capacity crossed 300 GW, and PM Surya Ghar promotes rooftop solar.

Statement 4 is incorrect because GOBARdhan converts organic waste into bioenergy and supports a circular bioeconomy.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 13th August 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding India’s ship recycling sector:

India became the world’s leading ship recycling nation in 2025.
The Alang-Sosiya cluster accounts for about 98% of India’s ship recycling activity.
The Ship Recycling Act, 2019 designates the Directorate General of Shipping as the National Authority.
The Hong Kong Convention deals only with inland water transport and not ship recycling.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. India became the leading ship recycling nation in 2025; Alang-Sosiya dominates India’s ship recycling activity; and the Ship Recycling Act, 2019 designates the Directorate General of Shipping as the National Authority.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the Hong Kong Convention is the principal global framework for safe and environmentally sound ship recycling.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding GOBARdhan and Compressed Biogas:

GOBARdhan stands for Galvanising Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan.
Compressed Biogas is produced after purifying and compressing biogas.
CBG has properties similar to Compressed Natural Gas and can be used as a vehicle and industrial fuel.
GOBARdhan is based only on imported fossil fuel and does not use organic waste.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. GOBARdhan uses organic waste resources to produce CBG, which is similar to CNG in properties and can be used as a clean fuel.

Statement 4 is incorrect because GOBARdhan is designed to convert organic waste such as agricultural residue, cattle dung and municipal organic waste into energy.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 17th August 2026

1 / 2

1) With reference to India’s space sector reforms, consider the following statements:

IN-SPACe enables private space activities through a single-window mechanism.
NSIL is the commercial arm of ISRO.
The Indian Space Policy 2023 expanded private participation across the space value chain.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: IN-SPACe enables private space activities through a single-window mechanism.

Statement 2 is correct: NSIL is the commercial arm of ISRO and provides launch, satellite and space-based services.

Statement 3 is correct: Indian Space Policy 2023 expanded private participation across the space value chain.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

2 / 2

2) With reference to India’s cultural heritage initiatives, consider the following statements:

Adopt a Heritage 2.0 was launched to develop visitor-friendly amenities at Protected Monuments of National Importance.
Gyan Bharatam Mission focuses on preserving and digitising India’s manuscript heritage.
National Film Heritage Mission aims to preserve and restore India’s cinematic heritage.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Adopt a Heritage 2.0 was launched in September 2023 to develop and maintain visitor-friendly amenities at Protected Monuments of National Importance.

Statement 2 is correct: Gyan Bharatam Mission focuses on preserving, digitising and promoting access to India’s manuscript heritage.

Statement 3 is correct: National Film Heritage Mission was launched to preserve, digitise and restore India’s cinematic heritage.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 18th August 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Taxi:

Bharat Taxi is India’s first cooperative-led ride-hailing platform.
It was established under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002.
The platform follows a zero-commission and surge-free pricing model.
Sarathis are not allowed to participate in ownership or governance of the platform.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Bharat Taxi is a cooperative-led ride-hailing platform established under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 2002, and follows a zero-commission, surge-free model.

Statement 4 is incorrect because Sarathis can become member-owners and participate in the cooperative governance structure.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding forest fires in India:

Forest fires are broadly classified into ground, surface and crown fires.
Forest Survey of India issues satellite-based forest fire alerts.
Chir pine needles are highly inflammable and can increase fire risk in the Himalayas.
Crown fires are the most common type of forest fire in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Forest fires are classified into ground, surface and crown fires. The Forest Survey of India provides satellite-based alerts, and dry chir pine needles increase fire risk.

Statement 4 is incorrect because crown fires are comparatively rare in India.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 20th August 2026

1 / 2

1) With reference to Makhana, consider the following statements:

Makhana is scientifically known as Euryale ferox.
The edible part of the makhana plant is its seed.
In India, it is mainly cultivated in Bihar, West Bengal and Assam.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Makhana is scientifically known as Euryale ferox.
Statement 2 is correct: The edible part of the plant is its seed, which is roasted or processed and consumed as fox nut.
Statement 3 is correct: In India, makhana cultivation is mainly concentrated in Bihar, West Bengal and Assam, supported by suitable wetlands, ponds and shallow water bodies.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding solar irrigation in India:

Grid-connected solar irrigation can incentivise farmers to save water by allowing them to sell surplus electricity to the grid.
PM-KUSUM has helped make solar pumps affordable through subsidies.
Solar irrigation outcomes depend only on the source of energy and not on local hydrogeology or cropping patterns.
Standalone solar pumps may be suitable in areas with poor grid access and low groundwater risk.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 1 is correct:
In grid-connected solar irrigation, farmers can use solar power for pumping water and sell the unused electricity back to the grid. If a farmer pumps less water, more electricity remains available for sale. This creates an incentive to save water and earn income.

Statement 2 is correct:
PM-KUSUM supports solar pumps through subsidies. This has made solar irrigation more affordable for farmers, especially small and marginal farmers.

Statement 3 is incorrect:
Solar irrigation outcomes do not depend only on the source of energy. They also depend on local factors such as groundwater availability, water-table depth, soil type, cropping pattern, crop water demand and local irrigation practices. For example, solar pumps may have different effects in Punjab, Haryana and eastern India.

Statement 4 is correct:
Standalone solar pumps can be useful in areas where farmers do not have reliable electricity and where groundwater is not under serious stress. In such regions, solar pumps can improve irrigation access without immediately worsening groundwater depletion.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 21st August 2026

1 / 2

1) With reference to India’s defence procurement framework, consider the following statements:

The Defence Acquisition Council grants Acceptance of Necessity for major capital acquisitions.
The Defence Procurement Manual 2025 primarily deals with revenue procurement.
Positive Indigenisation Lists require every listed item to be procured exclusively from Defence Public Sector Undertakings.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: The DAC is the apex procurement body and grants Acceptance of Necessity for major defence acquisitions.
Statement 2 is correct: DPM 2025 streamlines revenue procurement required for the operation and maintenance of the armed forces.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Positive Indigenisation Lists require procurement from domestic sources. They do not restrict procurement only to Defence Public Sector Undertakings; eligible private Indian companies may also participate.

2 / 2

2) With reference to the Gaganyaan Crew Module, consider the following statements:

Its Thermal Protection System forms part of its unpressurised external structure.
Its Service Module is intended to accompany the Crew Module through atmospheric re-entry and splashdown.
Its ablative shield protects it partly through chemical decomposition and outgassing.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Crew Module has a pressurised inner structure and an unpressurised external structure carrying the TPS.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Service Module provides propulsion, power and other support in orbit but separates before the Crew Module completes atmospheric re-entry.
Statement 3 is correct: Ablative material absorbs heat, decomposes, forms char and releases gases that reduce heat transfer.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 24th August 2026

1 / 2

1) With reference to regenerative agriculture, consider the following statements:

It seeks to restore degraded soil and ecosystem functions.
It requires complete exclusion of livestock from farms.
Maintaining continuous soil cover is one of its principles.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Regenerative agriculture actively rebuilds soil health and ecological functions.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Livestock integration is an important principle of regenerative farming.
Statement 3 is correct: Continuous soil cover reduces erosion and supports soil health.

2 / 2

2) With reference to the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, consider the following statements:

Section 2 protects the National Flag and the Constitution against specified forms of public disrespect.
Section 3, as amended in 2026, covers both the National Anthem and the National Song.
Section 3A prescribes a minimum one-year imprisonment for every first conviction under Section 3.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Section 2 protects the Flag and Constitution from specified acts of insult.
Statement 2 is correct: The amendment extended Section 3 to Vande Mataram.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The minimum one-year imprisonment applies to second and subsequent convictions.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 25th August 2026

1 / 2

1) Which one of the following best explains UPI’s interoperability?

Transactions are permitted only within the same bank.

Every bank requires a separate mobile phone.

Users of different banks and applications can transact through common payment rails.

Payments can be made only through credit cards.

Explanation: Interoperability allows transactions across participating banks and payment applications.

2 / 2

2) Which one of the following best describes functional DNA screening?

Checking only whether DNA resembles a known pathogen

Assessing the biological activity a novel sequence may perform

Sequencing only naturally occurring genomes

Prohibiting all synthetic-biology research

Functional screening considers what a sequence may do, even if it does not resemble a known pathogen.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 26th August 2026

1 / 2

1) Which of the following statements about FSSAI’s recent action on food claims is correct?

FSSAI checks only the safety of ingredients, not food advertisements.

FSSAI can act against misleading food claims made on labels, advertisements and e-commerce listings.

Food companies can use terms like “100% pure” without any evidence.

E-commerce food listings are outside the control of FSSAI.

FSSAI is tightening rules because food companies often use claims like “100% pure,” “healthy,” “natural,” “energy” or “immunity-boosting” to influence consumers. These claims must be supported by proper evidence. FSSAI can examine not only physical product labels but also advertisements, online product pages and e-commerce listings.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Security Council:

The UNSC has five permanent members and ten non-permanent members.
Non-permanent members are elected by the UN General Assembly for two-year terms.
India is campaigning for a UNSC non-permanent seat for the 2028-29 term.
Non-permanent members of the UNSC have veto power.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The UNSC has 5 permanent members and 10 non-permanent members. Non-permanent members are elected by the UN General Assembly for two-year terms. India is campaigning for the 2028-29 non-permanent seat.

Statement 4 is incorrect because only the five permanent members have veto power. Non-permanent members do not have veto power.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 27th August 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements about the draft Small River Rejuvenation Framework:

It was unveiled under the National Mission for Clean Ganga.
It relies exclusively on large engineering structures.
It recognises different challenges for urban and rural rivers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: The framework was unveiled under the NMCG.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It prioritises cost-effective, nature-based ecological solutions.
Statement 3 is correct: It recognises that urban and rural rivers require different approaches.

2 / 2

2) With reference to the MMDR Amendment Act, 2026, consider the following statements:

It inserts Section 9D into the MMDR Act, 1957.
It completely prohibits States from imposing any mineral-related levy under all circumstances.
It does not require a refund of levies already collected before its commencement.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: Section 9D restricts State taxation of mineral rights and mineral-bearing land.
Statement 2 is incorrect: States may impose levies subject to conditions or restrictions prescribed by the Centre.
Statement 3 is correct: Amounts already recovered are not refundable.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 31st August 2026

1 / 2

1) With reference to the Aranmula Uthrattathi boat race, consider the following statements:

It is associated with the Pampa River in Kerala.
Palliyodams are traditional snake boats used in the event.
Aranmula Kannadi is a GI-tagged traditional metal mirror.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

The Aranmula boat race is held on the Pampa River. It features Palliyodams, the traditional snake boats of Kerala. Aranmula is also known for the GI-tagged Aranmula Kannadi, a traditional metal mirror.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following pairs:

Term	Description
Dustlik	India–Uzbekistan military exercise
UZQR	Uzbekistan’s national QR payment system
Fayaz Tepa	Ancient Buddhist site in Uzbekistan

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Dustlik is the bilateral military exercise, UZQR is Uzbekistan’s national QR system, and Fayaz Tepa is an ancient Buddhist site.

Your score is

Category: UPSC CARE Prelims Practice July 2026

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 1st July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax in India:

GST is levied on the supply of goods and services.
Article 246A gives concurrent GST law-making powers to Parliament and State Legislatures.
GST is an origin-based tax under which revenue accrues to the producing State.
IGST is imposed on inter-State supplies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: GST is imposed on the supply of goods and services.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 246A grants concurrent powers to Parliament and State Legislatures, subject to Parliament’s exclusive power over inter-State supplies.

Statement 3 is incorrect: GST is a destination-based tax, so revenue generally accrues to the place of consumption.

Statement 4 is correct: IGST applies to inter-State supplies and imports.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding Anaemia Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan:

It expands the earlier 6×6×6 strategy into a 7×7×7 framework.
Low Birth Weight babies aged 0–6 months have been added as a beneficiary group.
The T4 strategy stands for Test, Treat, Talk and Track.
The revised guidelines exclude intravenous iron therapy for severe anaemia.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 3rd July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Santal Hul of 1855:

It began at Bhognadih in the Damin-i-Koh region.
Sido and Kanhu Murmu were among its principal leaders.
The rebellion was directed only against British military officers and had no economic causes.
Exploitative moneylending, increasing rents and administrative injustice contributed to the uprising.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Hul was proclaimed at Bhognadih in the Damin-i-Koh region on June 30, 1855.

Statement 2 is correct: Sido and Kanhu Murmu played leading roles in mobilising the Santals.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The rebellion was directed against a wider exploitative structure involving moneylenders, landlords, revenue officials and colonial authorities. It had strong economic and social causes.

Statement 4 is correct: Rising rents, indebtedness, land insecurity and the failure of the administration to provide justice were major causes.

Therefore, Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme, 2026:

It replaces the Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme, 1952.
It requires members generally to maintain a minimum balance of 25% of aggregate contributions.
It makes the contractor solely responsible for provident-fund contributions of contract workers.
Employees may voluntarily contribute at a rate higher than the prescribed mandatory contribution rate.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The 2026 Scheme replaces the Employees’ Provident Funds Scheme, 1952.

Statement 2 is correct: Members must generally maintain a minimum balance of 25% of the aggregate fund balance while making partial withdrawals.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Even where the contractor deposits the contribution, the principal employer remains ultimately responsible for compliance.

Statement 4 is correct: Employees may voluntarily contribute above the wage ceiling or at a rate higher than the prescribed contribution rate.

Therefore, Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 6th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following cattle breeds:

Holstein Friesian
Red Dane
Guernsey
Gir
Sahiwal

How many of the above are exotic dairy breeds of cattle?

Only two

Only three

Only four

All five

Explanation

Holstein Friesian — Exotic: It originated in Northern Netherlands, especially Friesland.
Red Dane — Exotic: It originated in Denmark.
Guernsey — Exotic: It originated from Guernsey Island near France.
Gir — Indigenous: It is an Indian dairy breed from Gujarat.
Sahiwal — Indigenous: It is an indigenous dairy breed from the Montgomery region of undivided India.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding NITI Aayog’s roadmap for making Ayurveda global:

The roadmap is based on the pillars of Availability, Acceptability and Propagation.
It proposes a phased strategy extending up to 2047.
It focuses only on increasing exports of Ayurvedic products.
It links Ayurveda’s globalisation with research, education, regulation, medical value travel and international collaboration.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The roadmap uses the three pillars of Availability, Acceptability and Propagation.

Statement 2 is correct: It proposes a phased strategy aligned with the vision of 2047.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The roadmap is not limited to exports. It also covers practice, education, research, quality, regulation, insurance, branding and medical value travel.

Statement 4 is correct: The roadmap adopts a comprehensive approach involving research, education, regulatory alignment, medical value travel and global partnerships.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 7th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding the right of an accused to legal representation:

Article 22(1) protects the right of an arrested person to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.
The right to fair trial has been recognised as part of Article 21.
Article 39A deals with equal justice and free legal aid.
Article 14 permits denial of legal representation to unpopular accused persons.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 1 is correct: Article 22(1) protects the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner.

Statement 2 is correct: Fair trial is part of Article 21.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 39A deals with equal justice and free legal aid.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Article 14 ensures equality before law; it does not allow denial of representation.

2 / 2

2) With reference to ENSO, consider the following statements:

ENSO has three phases: El Niño, La Niña and Neutral.
El Niño is linked with unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern Pacific Ocean.
La Niña generally weakens the Indian southwest monsoon.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All the three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: ENSO has three phases: El Niño, La Niña and Neutral.
Statement 2 is correct: El Niño is associated with unusual warming of eastern Pacific surface waters.
Statement 3 is incorrect: La Niña generally supports a stronger Indian southwest monsoon, though extreme rainfall may also cause floods.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 8th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Sahakar Sahyogi is related to which of the following sectors?

Urban cooperative banking

Agricultural marketing

Dairy procurement

Grain storage

Explanation: Sahakar Sahyogi is a conversational AI-powered platform launched to improve customer services and banking operations in the urban cooperative banking sector.

2 / 2

2) With reference to the role of life insurance companies in India’s government debt market, consider the following statements:

Life insurers invest a significant share of premiums in government securities.
They collectively hold close to a quarter of India’s outstanding Central Government dated securities.
Their investment behaviour is generally short-term and speculative.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Life insurance premiums collected from households are reinvested in long-term securities, including government securities.
Statement 2 is correct: Life insurers collectively hold close to one-fourth of India’s outstanding Central Government dated securities.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Life insurers are generally long-term, buy-and-hold investors, not short-term speculative investors.

Therefore, 1 and 2 only are correct.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 9th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding India’s toy industry:

India’s overall toy exports increased from US$152.7 million in 2017–18 to US$384.7 million in 2025–26.
The Quality Control Order for Toys made BIS certification compulsory for both domestic and foreign manufacturers.
Toycathon was launched to promote toys inspired by Indian culture, heritage and value systems.
India recorded a trade deficit in toys in 2025–26 across key toy categories.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Toy exports increased from US$152.7 million in 2017–18 to US$384.7 million in 2025–26.

Statement 2 is correct: The Quality Control Order made BIS certification compulsory for domestic and foreign toy manufacturers.

Statement 3 is correct: Toycathon promotes toys and games inspired by Indian culture, heritage, folklore, heroes and value systems.

Statement 4 is incorrect: India recorded a trade surplus of US$152 million in 2025–26, not a deficit.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding India–Indonesia relations:

India and Indonesia elevated their relations to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in 2018.
Bintang Adipurna is Indonesia’s highest national honour.
Biju Patnaik helped Indonesian anti-colonial leader Sutan Sjahrir reach New Delhi in 1947.
Indonesia is one of the major global producers of nickel, copper, bauxite and tin.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India–Indonesia relations were elevated to a Comprehensive Strategic Partnership in 2018.

Statement 2 is correct: Bintang Adipurna is Indonesia’s highest national honour, conferred for exceptional service to the nation.

Statement 3 is correct: Biju Patnaik flew Indonesian leader Sutan Sjahrir to New Delhi in 1947, helping Indonesia’s freedom movement gain diplomatic support.

Statement 4 is correct: Indonesia has major reserves and production capacity in critical minerals such as nickel, copper, bauxite and tin.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 10th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding quantum computing:

A qubit can exist in multiple states simultaneously due to superposition.
Decoherence refers to the loss of a qubit’s quantum state due to interaction with the environment.
Quantum Error Correction uses several physical qubits to create a more reliable logical qubit.
India’s National Quantum Mission targets only quantum computing and does not include quantum communication.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: A qubit can exist in multiple states at once due to superposition.

Statement 2 is correct: Decoherence occurs when a qubit loses its quantum state because of environmental disturbance.

Statement 3 is correct: Quantum Error Correction combines many physical qubits into a more stable logical qubit.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The National Quantum Mission includes quantum computing, quantum communication, QKD networks, quantum sensing, metrology, materials and devices.

2 / 2

2) With reference to the 16th India–Japan Annual Summit 2026, consider the following statements:

The summit was held in New Delhi.
The two countries reached an agreement in principle on the remaining technical aspects of the UNICORN Project.
India and Japan launched the first India–Japan AI Strategic Dialogue.
Japan opposed India’s membership of the International Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The 16th India–Japan Annual Summit was held in New Delhi.
Statement 2 is correct: The summit achieved progress on the UNICORN Project, India and Japan’s first defence co-development programme.
Statement 3 is correct: India and Japan launched the first India–Japan AI Strategic Dialogue.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Japan reaffirmed support for India’s membership of the International Energy Agency.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 only are correct.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 13th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding India’s first hydrogen-powered train:

It will run on the Jind-Sonipat railway section in Haryana.
The train uses hydrogen fuel cells and lithium ferro phosphate batteries for power generation.
Hydrogen trains require overhead electric wires for propulsion.
The train has a total power output of 2,400 kW.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India’s first hydrogen train will operate on the Jind-Sonipat railway section in Haryana.

Statement 2 is correct: The train uses hydrogen fuel cells and lithium ferro phosphate batteries.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Hydrogen trains do not require overhead electric wires. They generate electricity onboard using hydrogen fuel cells.

Statement 4 is correct: The train has a total power output of 2,400 kW.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding helium:

Helium is a non-renewable resource formed through radioactive decay inside the Earth’s crust.
Helium is widely used in MRI machines, semiconductor manufacturing and quantum computing.
China is the world’s largest producer of helium.
Helium is difficult to transport because it requires specialised vacuum-jacketed stainless-steel vessels.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Helium is formed deep inside the Earth’s crust through radioactive decay of elements such as uranium and thorium.

Statement 2 is correct: Helium is used in MRI machines, semiconductor fabrication, quantum computers, leak detection, optical fibres and space missions.

Statement 3 is incorrect: China produces only around 1.6% of global helium and imports more than 80% of its helium needs.

Statement 4 is correct: Helium transport requires specialised vacuum-jacketed stainless-steel vessels, making the supply chain costly and complex.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 14th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding SMAM (Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization):

It was launched under RKVY.
It promotes Custom Hiring Centres.
It supports Kisan Drone demonstrations.
Its funding pattern is 50:50 for North-Eastern States.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SMAM was launched in 2014–15 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under RKVY.

Statement 2 is correct: It promotes Custom Hiring Centres to provide machinery on rent to farmers.

Statement 3 is correct: SMAM supports Kisan Drone demonstrations through ICAR, KVKs and State Agricultural Universities.

Statement 4 is incorrect: For North-Eastern and Himalayan States, the funding pattern is 90:10, not 50:50.

2 / 2

2) Q. Consider the following statements regarding Compressed Biogas:

It is produced from anaerobic digestion.
It can be used as a substitute for CNG.
SATAT targeted 5,000 CBG plants.
CBG blending begins at 5% in FY26.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Biogas is produced through anaerobic digestion of organic matter.

Statement 2 is correct: After processing and compression, CBG can be used like CNG.

Statement 3 is correct: The SATAT initiative targeted 5,000 CBG plants.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Mandatory CBG blending begins at 1% in FY26 and rises to 5% by FY29.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 15th July 2026

1 / 2

1) With reference to trial in absentia under BNSS, consider the following statements:

It is provided under Section 356 of BNSS.
It applies only to a proclaimed offender.
The court must record reasons before proceeding with such trial.
It can be used for every minor offence.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Trial in absentia is provided under Section 356 of BNSS.
Statement 2 is correct: It applies only to a proclaimed offender, not every accused person.
Statement 3 is correct: The court must record its reasons in writing before proceeding.
Statement 4 is incorrect: It is available only in serious cases involving offences punishable with 10 years or more, life imprisonment or death.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 only are correct.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding the India–New Zealand Roadmap to 2030:

It aims to double bilateral trade to NZ$7 billion.
It provides for an annual Maritime Security Dialogue.
It creates legally binding financial commitments.
It supports cooperation under India’s IPOI.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Roadmap sets an aspirational target of doubling bilateral trade to NZ$7 billion by 2030.

Statement 2 is correct: It provides for the establishment of an annual Maritime Security Dialogue.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Roadmap is non-binding and creates no financial commitments or legally binding obligations.

Statement 4 is correct: The Roadmap supports cooperation under the Maritime Security pillar of the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 16th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Strait of Hormuz transit-fee controversy:

The International Maritime Organization opposed mandatory tolls merely for passage through an international strait.
The United States and Iran are both parties to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea.
Around 90% of India’s LPG imports from West Asia pass through the Strait of Hormuz.
A rise of USD 1 per barrel in crude oil prices can increase India’s annual oil import bill by up to USD 2 billion.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The IMO stated that there was no legal basis for imposing mandatory tolls merely for transiting a strait used for international navigation.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Neither the United States nor Iran has ratified UNCLOS, although many of its provisions are widely accepted as customary international law.

Statement 3 is correct: Around 90% of India’s LPG imports from West Asia are transported through the Strait of Hormuz.

Statement 4 is correct: As India imports about 1.8–2 billion barrels annually, every USD 1 increase per barrel can add up to USD 2 billion to its yearly import bill.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding India’s tourism and hospitality sector:

Tourism contributes to employment through both direct and indirect economic activities.
FAITH has recommended granting uniform industry status to tourism across all States.
Tourism infrastructure development is confined mainly to accommodation facilities.
A liberal e-Visa regime can support the growth of inbound tourism.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 1 is correct: Tourism supports direct employment in hotels and travel services and indirect employment in transport, food supply, handicrafts, construction and retail.

Statement 2 is correct: FAITH has called for tourism and hospitality to receive uniform industry status across all States to improve access to finance and reduce operating costs.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Tourism infrastructure includes airports, highways, local transport, sanitation, digital connectivity, convention centres, visitor facilities and accommodation.

Statement 4 is correct: Expanded e-Visa access and simplified entry procedures can attract more international visitors and improve India’s competitiveness.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 17th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding One Nation, One Election:

The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill proposes insertion of Article 82A.
The Bill proposes amendments to Articles 83 and 172.
The present Bill directly includes panchayat and municipal elections within its text.
The proposal may raise concerns related to federalism and parliamentary democracy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Bill proposes insertion of a new Article 82A for simultaneous elections.

Statement 2 is correct: It proposes amendments to Articles 83 and 172, dealing with the duration of Parliament and State Legislatures.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The current Bill excludes municipal and panchayat elections from its specific text.

Statement 4 is correct: The proposal may affect federalism, parliamentary accountability, State autonomy and regional representation.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding India’s rural credit system:

Priority Sector Lending requires banks to earmark at least 18% of eligible credit for agriculture.
The Modified Interest Subvention Scheme provides short-term credit to farmers through KCC.
PM Dhan Dhanya Krishi Yojana focuses on 100 low-performing agricultural districts.
Jan Samarth Portal was launched to replace all cooperative banks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Under PSL, banks must earmark at least 18% of Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent of Off-Balance Sheet Exposures for agriculture.

Statement 2 is correct: MISS provides short-term credit to farmers at subsidised rates through the Kisan Credit Card.

Statement 3 is correct: PM-DDKY aims to catalyse growth in 100 low-performing agricultural districts.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Jan Samarth Portal is a digital platform linking government-sponsored loan and subsidy schemes; it does not replace cooperative banks.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 20th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding Vikram-1:

Vikram-1 was developed by Skyroot Aerospace.
It was launched from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
It is a sub-orbital test rocket like Vikram-S.
It can place payloads into Low Earth Orbit.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Vikram-1 was developed by Skyroot Aerospace.

Statement 2 is correct: It was launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Vikram-S was a sub-orbital test rocket. Vikram-1 is an orbital launch vehicle.

Statement 4 is correct: Vikram-1 is designed to place small satellites into Low Earth Orbit.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Investment Friendliness Index 2026:

It was released by NITI Aayog to assess investment readiness of States and Union Territories.
It evaluates all 28 States and 8 Union Territories across eight pillars.
It uses both secondary data and investor perception-based inputs.
It classifies Top Performers as those scoring below 40.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Index was released by NITI Aayog to benchmark investment friendliness across States and UTs.

Statement 2 is correct: It covers all 28 States and 8 Union Territories.

Statement 3 is correct: The framework uses 84 indicators, including secondary data and investor perception survey inputs.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Top Performers are those scoring above 50. States scoring below 40 are classified as Aspiring States.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 21st July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following pairs regarding the 72nd National Film Awards, 2024:

Award Category	Winner
1. Best Feature Film	Article 370
2. Best Non-Feature Film	Bhangaar
3. Best Documentary	Ram-Nami
4. Best Telugu Film	Kalki 2898 AD

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Pair 1 is correct: Article 370 won the Best Feature Film award.

Pair 2 is correct: Bhangaar won the Best Non-Feature Film award.

Pair 3 is correct: Ram-Nami won the Best Documentary award.

Pair 4 is incorrect: Committee Kurrollu won Best Telugu Film, while Kalki 2898 AD won Best Popular Film Providing Wholesome Entertainment.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding inflation in India:

The Wholesale Price Index includes primary articles, fuel and power, and manufactured products.
The Consumer Price Index is used by the Monetary Policy Committee for inflation targeting.
Manufactured goods inflation is always caused only by excess demand.
Poor monsoon conditions can contribute to food inflation through supply shocks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: WPI consists of primary articles, fuel and power, and manufactured products.

Statement 2 is correct: The MPC uses CPI inflation data for inflation targeting.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Manufactured goods inflation may arise from higher input costs such as fuel, power and raw materials; it is not always demand-driven.

Statement 4 is correct: Poor monsoon or drought can reduce agricultural supply and raise food prices.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 22nd July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding India’s cotton sector:

India is the only country cultivating all four recognised cotton species.
India ranks first globally in cotton cultivation area.
Bt cotton was commercially introduced in India in 2002.
Kasturi Cotton Bharat uses QR-based certification and blockchain technology for traceability.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India cultivates all four recognised cotton species.

Statement 2 is correct: India ranks first globally in cotton acreage.

Statement 3 is correct: Bt cotton was commercially introduced in India in 2002.

Statement 4 is correct: Kasturi Cotton Bharat uses QR-based certification and blockchain technology for traceability.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding recent terrorism trends and India’s counter-terrorism approach:

The Global Terrorism Index 2026 reported a decline in terrorism-related deaths and incidents in 2025.
Nearly 70% of global terrorism-related deaths are concentrated in five countries, including Pakistan, Burkina Faso, Nigeria, Niger and the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
More than 60% of terrorist attacks occur within 100 km of international borders.
India’s counter-terrorism approach rejects intelligence-led prevention and relies only on post-attack response.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 1 is correct: GTI 2026 reported that terrorism-related deaths fell by 28% and incidents declined by 22% in 2025.

Statement 2 is correct: Nearly 70% of deaths are concentrated in Pakistan, Burkina Faso, Nigeria, Niger and DRC.

Statement 3 is correct: More than 60% of attacks occur within 100 km of international borders.

Statement 4 is incorrect: India has shifted towards zero-tolerance, intelligence-led and pre-emptive counter-terrorism, not only post-attack response.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 23rd July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding UDAN and Modified UDAN:

UDAN stands for Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik.
UDAN was launched under the National Civil Aviation Policy, 2016.
Modified UDAN focuses on airport infrastructure, operational support and airline viability.
Modified UDAN supports helicopters, helipads and specialised aircraft for remote regions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: UDAN stands for Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik.

Statement 2 is correct: UDAN was launched under the National Civil Aviation Policy, 2016.

Statement 3 is correct: Modified UDAN focuses on infrastructure, operational support and commercial viability.

Statement 4 is correct: It supports helicopters, helipads and specialised aircraft for remote and difficult regions.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act:

FCRA regulates the acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution received from a foreign source.
FCRA imposes a complete ban on NGOs and civil society organisations receiving foreign donations.
All foreign contributions must first be received in a designated FCRA account at SBI New Delhi Main Branch.
The 2026 Rules require enhanced reporting with project-wise, activity-wise and ultimate-donor disclosure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 3 and 4 only

1 and 2 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: FCRA governs acceptance and utilisation of foreign contribution from foreign sources.

Statement 2 is incorrect: FCRA does not impose a general ban on foreign donations; it permits eligible associations through registration or prior permission.

Statement 3 is correct: Foreign contributions must first arrive in the designated FCRA account at SBI New Delhi Main Branch.

Statement 4 is correct: The 2026 changes strengthen donor transparency through project-wise, activity-wise and ultimate-donor disclosure.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 24th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding geothermal energy and the Puga Valley project:

Geothermal energy uses heat from the interior of the Earth to generate electricity.
Puga Valley in Ladakh is linked to India’s first demonstration-scale geothermal power project.
Geothermal energy is completely dependent on sunlight and wind speed.
Enhanced Geothermal Systems can create artificial permeability in hot dry rocks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Geothermal energy is produced by using heat from inside the Earth.

Statement 2 is correct: The Puga Valley wells are linked to India’s first demonstration-scale geothermal power project.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Geothermal energy is not dependent on sunlight or wind speed; it can provide round-the-clock power.

Statement 4 is correct: Enhanced Geothermal Systems use advanced drilling and fluid injection to create permeability in hot dry rocks.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding glacial lakes and GLOFs:

Glacial lakes may form when glacier-eroded depressions are filled with meltwater.
Moraine-dammed lakes are relatively stable because they are formed by consolidated rock structures.
Elevation-dependent warming can accelerate glacier retreat and glacial lake expansion.
GLOFs can be triggered by avalanches, rockfalls, earthquakes or heavy precipitation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 3 and 4 only

1 and 2 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Statement 1 is correct: Glacial lakes form when depressions created by glacial activity fill with meltwater.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Moraine-dammed lakes are often unstable because moraines are made of loose, unconsolidated debris.

Statement 3 is correct: Higher mountain areas warming faster can increase glacier retreat and lake growth.

Statement 4 is correct: GLOFs may be triggered by avalanches, rockfalls, seismic activity, meltwater increase or heavy rainfall.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 27th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Start-up Village Entrepreneurship Programme:

SVEP is a sub-scheme of DAY-NRLM.
It supports rural non-farm enterprises through training, finance and mentoring.
The programme is implemented only through private companies without community institutions.
CRP-EPs provide mentoring, training and credit facilitation support to rural entrepreneurs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: SVEP is a sub-scheme of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana–National Rural Livelihoods Mission.

Statement 2 is correct: It supports non-farm rural enterprises through finance, training, mentoring and institutional support.

Statement 3 is incorrect: SVEP works through community institutions, SHGs, SRLMs, BRC-EPs and CRP-EPs.

Statement 4 is correct: CRP-EPs support entrepreneurs through mentoring, training and credit facilitation.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding Sarnath:

Sarnath is associated with Buddha’s first sermon after enlightenment.
The event at Sarnath is known as Dharmachakra Pravartan.
Sarnath became India’s 45th UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2026.
The site is associated only with modern Buddhist tourism and has no archaeological remains.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Sarnath is the place where Buddha delivered his first sermon after enlightenment.

Statement 2 is correct: This event is known as Dharmachakra Pravartan, or the turning of the wheel of Dharma.

Statement 3 is correct: Sarnath was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2026, taking India’s tally to 45 World Heritage Sites.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Sarnath has major archaeological remains, including stupas, temples and monastic structures.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 28th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Khelo India Programme and India’s sporting ecosystem:

Khelo India was launched in 2017 by merging earlier sports development programmes.
Khelo India aims to strengthen sports infrastructure, training centres, competitions, sports science and capacity building.
KIRTI is focused on identifying sporting talent among children between 9 and 18 years of age.
TOPS is meant only for recreational sports participation at village level.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Khelo India was launched in 2017 by merging earlier sports schemes into a unified framework.

Statement 2 is correct: The programme focuses on training centres, capacity building, sports science, competitions and infrastructure.

Statement 3 is correct: KIRTI identifies and nurtures sporting talent among children aged 9–18 years.

Statement 4 is incorrect: TOPS supports athletes preparing for Olympic and Paralympic excellence, not merely village-level recreational sports.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding hepatitis and India’s National Viral Hepatitis Control Program:

Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver and may be caused by viruses, toxic substances or autoimmune diseases.
Hepatitis B and C can lead to chronic disease, including cirrhosis and liver cancer.
The National Viral Hepatitis Control Program provides free diagnostics and drugs for all people in need.
Hepatitis C is vaccine-preventable under the Universal Immunisation Programme.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Hepatitis is inflammation of the liver and can be caused by hepatitis viruses, toxic substances such as alcohol and drugs, or autoimmune diseases.

Statement 2 is correct: Hepatitis B and C are common causes of chronic disease and may lead to cirrhosis and liver cancer.

Statement 3 is correct: The NVHCP provides free diagnostics and drugs to people in need.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Hepatitis B is vaccine-preventable under the Universal Immunisation Programme. There is no vaccine to prevent Hepatitis C infection.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 29th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding tiger conservation in India:

The tiger is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Project Tiger is India’s flagship programme for conserving tigers and their habitats.
M-STrIPES is used for technology-driven tiger monitoring.
Tigers are called umbrella species because conserving tiger habitats also protects many other species.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The tiger is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

Statement 2 is correct: Project Tiger is India’s flagship tiger conservation programme.

Statement 3 is correct: M-STrIPES uses digital tools for tiger monitoring.

Statement 4 is correct: Tigers are umbrella species because protecting their habitats also protects wider biodiversity.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding the white-bellied heron:

It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
It depends on fast-flowing rivers and mature riparian forests.
It is commonly found across all major Indian river systems.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The white-bellied heron is listed as Critically Endangered.

Statement 2 is correct: It receives the highest legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

Statement 3 is correct: It depends on fast-flowing Himalayan rivers, shallow waters and mature riparian forests.

Statement 4 is incorrect: It is now restricted to limited pockets and is not commonly found across India.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 30th July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Western Ghats:

The Western Ghats are also known as the Sahyadri Hills.
The Western Ghats are recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
The Palakkad Gap connects Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu with Palakkad in Kerala.
The Western Ghats give rise only to west-flowing rivers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Western Ghats are also called the Sahyadri Hills.

Statement 2 is correct: They are recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Statement 3 is correct: The Palakkad Gap connects Coimbatore with Palakkad.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Western Ghats give rise to both west-flowing and east-flowing rivers.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding PM Vidyalaxmi Scheme:

It provides collateral-free and guarantor-free education loans to eligible students.
It is linked with designated Quality Higher Educational Institutions.
It provides 3% interest subvention for eligible students with family income up to ₹8 lakh.
Students admitted through management quota are eligible for the scheme.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The scheme provides collateral-free and guarantor-free education loans.

Statement 2 is correct: It applies to designated Quality Higher Educational Institutions.

Statement 3 is correct: Eligible students with family income up to ₹8 lakh receive 3% interest subvention.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Management quota and NRI quota admissions are not eligible.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 31st July 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding data centres in India:

Data centres store, process and manage large volumes of digital data.
Growth of AI, cloud computing and data localisation is increasing demand for data centres in India.
Mega data centres may create pressure on water and electricity resources.
Data centres are completely free from environmental concerns because they are digital facilities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Data centres are specialised facilities for storing and processing data.

Statement 2 is correct: AI, cloud computing, digital payments and data localisation are major growth drivers.

Statement 3 is correct: Data centres require large electricity supply and cooling infrastructure.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Though digital in function, data centres have physical environmental impacts.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding flash floods and cloudbursts:

A flash flood develops within a short time after intense rainfall or sudden water release.
As per IMD, a cloudburst means more than 100 mm rainfall in one hour over a small area.
Flash floods can be caused only by cloudbursts.
Steep slopes and saturated soil can increase flash flood risk.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Flash floods occur suddenly, often within a few hours.

Statement 2 is correct: IMD defines cloudburst as rainfall exceeding 100 mm in one hour over a small area.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Flash floods may occur due to heavy rainfall, dam release, glacial lake overflow, poor drainage or saturated soil, not only cloudbursts.

Statement 4 is correct: Steep slopes and saturated soil increase runoff and flood intensity.

Your score is

Category: UPSC CARE Prelims Practice June 2026

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 1st June 2026

1 / 2

1) With reference to Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls, consider the following statements:

It is a detailed verification process conducted by the Election Commission of India.
It can be used to update, correct and delete entries in electoral rolls.
It automatically declares deleted voters as non-citizens.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct: SIR is a detailed voter verification process conducted by the Election Commission.
Statement 2 is Correct: It is used to update, correct and delete wrong or ineligible entries.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: Deletion from electoral roll does not automatically mean that the person is a non-citizen.

Additional Information: The final decision on citizenship must be taken by the competent authority under the Citizenship Act, 1955.

2 / 2

2) With reference to water budgeting, consider the following statements:

It involves assessment of water availability and water demand within a defined geographical unit.
It helps identify water surplus and water deficit areas.
It is useful only for urban water management.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All the three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Water budgeting compares water availability and water demand in a village, watershed, block or district.
Statement 2 is correct: It helps identify whether an area has water surplus or water deficit.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Water budgeting is highly useful in rural areas, especially for agriculture, livestock and groundwater management.

Additional Information:
Water budgeting supports evidence-based and participatory water governance.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 2nd June 2026

1 / 2

1) With reference to National Family Health Survey-6, consider the following statements:

NFHS-6 was conducted during 2023–24.
International Institute for Population Sciences, Mumbai was the nodal agency.
NFHS-6 covered nearly 6.79 lakh households across 715 districts.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct: NFHS-6 was conducted during 2023–24.
Statement 2 is Correct: IIPS Mumbai acted as the nodal agency.
Statement 3 is Correct: The survey covered nearly 6.79 lakh households across 715 districts.

Additional Information: NFHS provides important data on health, nutrition, population and family welfare indicators.

2 / 2

2) With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

It is produced through electrolysis using renewable energy.
It produces almost no greenhouse gas emissions during production.
It is produced mainly from coal gasification.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Green hydrogen is produced through electrolysis using renewable energy.
Statement 2 is correct: It has almost zero emissions during production.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Coal gasification produces brown hydrogen.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 3rd June 2026

1 / 2

1) With reference to the India–Oman Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement, consider the following statements:

The agreement entered into force on 1 June 2026.
It provides duty-free access for 99.38% of India’s exports to Oman by value.
Oman is India’s largest trading partner in the Gulf region.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All the three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is Correct: The India–Oman CEPA entered into force on 1 June 2026.
Statement 2 is Correct: It provides duty-free access for 99.38% of India’s exports to Oman by value.
Statement 3 is Incorrect: Oman is India’s second-largest trading partner in the Gulf region, not the largest.

Additional Information: The agreement is significant because it gives Indian exporters better access to Oman and creates opportunities in the wider GCC and East African markets.

2 / 2

2) With reference to Prison Statistics India Report 2024, consider the following statements:

India’s prison occupancy rate was 112.7% in 2024.
Undertrials formed nearly 73% of the total prison population.
Convicts formed the majority of India’s prison population.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The national prison occupancy rate was 112.7% in 2024.
Statement 2 is correct: Undertrials formed around 73% of inmates.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Undertrials, not convicts, formed the majority.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 4th June 2026

1 / 2

1) With reference to the right to be forgotten, consider the following statements:

It allows individuals to seek removal or restricted access to outdated or irrelevant personal information.
It is absolute and cannot be restricted in public interest.
It is linked with the right to privacy.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The right allows individuals to seek removal or de-indexing of personal data in certain cases.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is not absolute and must be balanced with public interest and open justice.
Statement 3 is correct: It is linked with informational privacy under Article 21.

2 / 2

2) Which of the following is a major cause of ground-level ozone formation during summer?

Direct release of ozone from vehicles

Reaction of NOx and VOCs in strong sunlight

Freezing of pollutants near the ground

Absorption of ozone by urban wetlands

Ground-level ozone is a secondary pollutant. It is not directly released from vehicles or industries. It forms when nitrogen oxides (NOx) from vehicles and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) from industries, paints, solvents and fuel emissions react in the presence of strong sunlight.

Additional Information

During summer, high temperature and intense sunlight speed up this chemical reaction. This is why ozone pollution often increases during hot afternoons, especially in urban areas.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 5th June 2026

1 / 3

1) Consider the following statements regarding India–Myanmar relations:

India is Myanmar’s fourth largest trading partner.
India has implemented humanitarian assistance operations such as Operation Sadbhav and Operation Brahma for Myanmar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: India has emerged as Myanmar’s fourth largest trading partner, with bilateral trade valued at around USD 2.1 billion in FY25.
Statement 2 is correct: India has provided humanitarian and disaster relief assistance to Myanmar through Operation Sadbhav (2024) and Operation Brahma (2025).

Additional Information

India exports pharmaceuticals, machinery, vehicles, cotton, cereals, and electrical equipment to Myanmar.
Key connectivity projects include the Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project, Sittwe Port, and the India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway.
Myanmar banks have established Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVA) to facilitate trade in Indian Rupees.
India supports development projects through the Border Area Development Programme (BADP) and the Rakhine State Development Programme (RSDP).

2 / 3

2) Consider the following statements regarding India–Myanmar relations:

India is Myanmar’s fourth largest trading partner.
India has implemented humanitarian assistance operations such as Operation Sadbhav and Operation Brahma for Myanmar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: India has emerged as Myanmar’s fourth largest trading partner, with bilateral trade valued at around USD 2.1 billion in FY25.
Statement 2 is correct: India has provided humanitarian and disaster relief assistance to Myanmar through Operation Sadbhav (2024) and Operation Brahma (2025).

Additional Information

India exports pharmaceuticals, machinery, vehicles, cotton, cereals, and electrical equipment to Myanmar.
Key connectivity projects include the Kaladan Multimodal Transit Transport Project, Sittwe Port, and the India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway.
Myanmar banks have established Special Rupee Vostro Accounts (SRVA) to facilitate trade in Indian Rupees.
India supports development projects through the Border Area Development Programme (BADP) and the Rakhine State Development Programme (RSDP).

3 / 3

3) Which tribal community is most directly associated with concerns regarding the Great Nicobar Project?

Jarawa

Shompen

Toda

Bhil

Explanation:
The Shompen are a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group living in Great Nicobar. Their habitat and way of life may be affected by large-scale development.

Additional Information:
The Nicobarese community is also important in discussions on the island’s social and cultural landscape.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 8th June 2026

1 / 2

1) Which of the following cases is associated with the issue of repeated re-promulgation of Ordinances?

Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar

Minerva Mills v. Union of India

Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

Explanation:

D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar is associated with the Supreme Court’s ruling against repeated re-promulgation of Ordinances.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following countries in the context of the number of Ramsar Sites:

India
Mexico
United Kingdom

What is the correct order of these countries from the highest to the lowest number of Ramsar Sites?

3 – 2 – 1

2 – 3 – 1

3 – 1 – 2

1 – 2 – 3

Explanation:

According to the given information:

United Kingdom has the highest number of Ramsar Sites with 176 sites.
It is followed by Mexico.
India comes next and has reached 100 Ramsar Sites.

So, the correct order is:

United Kingdom → Mexico → India

That is:

3 → 2 → 1

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 9th June 2026

1 / 2

1) With reference to decentralised solar power, consider the following statements:

It involves generating electricity close to the place of use.
Rooftop solar and solar pumps are examples of decentralised solar power.
It always requires large solar parks.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Decentralised solar power is generated near the point of use.
Statement 2 is correct: Rooftop solar panels and solar pumps are examples.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Large solar parks are centralised solar projects, not decentralised systems.

2 / 2

2) With reference to BHAVYA industrial parks, consider the following facilities:

Assured water and power supply
Digital single-window clearances
Worker housing and social infrastructure
Modern testing facilities

Which of the above may be provided under the scheme

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

BHAVYA parks are expected to provide water, power, connectivity, digital clearances, worker-support facilities and testing infrastructure.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 10th June 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following pairs:

Project / Scheme	Sector
UDAN	Regional air connectivity
Sagarmala	Port-led development
Kavach	Railway safety
PM-WANI	Public Wi-Fi access

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

UDAN is related to regional air connectivity.
Sagarmala promotes port-led development.
Kavach is India’s indigenous automatic train protection system.
PM-WANI expands public Wi-Fi access.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following countries in terms of cotton lint productivity:

Australia
China
Brazil
India

Which of the following correctly represents a broad comparison of productivity levels?

India has higher productivity than Australia and China

Brazil has lower productivity than India

India’s productivity is far below Australia, China and Brazil

India has the highest cotton productivity in the world

Explanation:

India has the largest cotton-growing area, but its lint productivity is only around 441 kg/ha.
This is far below Australia, China and Brazil.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 11th June 2026

1 / 2

1) With reference to SIPRI Yearbook 2026, consider the following statements:

India’s nuclear arsenal was estimated at around 190 warheads by early 2026.
India was the world’s fifth-largest military spender in 2025.
India was the world’s second-largest importer of major arms during 2021–25.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: SIPRI estimated India’s nuclear stockpile at around 190 warheads.
Statement 2 is correct: India was the fifth-largest military spender.
Statement 3 is correct: India was the second-largest arms importer during 2021–25.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following pairs:

Term	Meaning
CRR	Cash kept by banks with RBI
SLR	Liquid assets maintained by banks
FBIL	Publishes benchmark rates and forex reference rates

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

CRR refers to the cash reserve banks keep with the RBI.
SLR refers to liquid assets such as cash, gold or government securities.
FBIL publishes benchmark interest rates and foreign exchange reference rates.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 12th June 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following countries in the context of places where UPI is accepted:

Singapore
United Arab Emirates
Nepal
Sri Lanka
Cambodia

Which of the above are among the countries where UPI is accepted?

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4 only

2, 3, 4 and 5 only

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation:

Singapore – Correct. Singapore is one of the countries where UPI is accepted.
United Arab Emirates – Correct. UAE is also included among the countries accepting UPI.
Nepal – Correct. Nepal is one of the countries where UPI is accepted.
Sri Lanka – Correct. Sri Lanka is also listed among the countries where UPI is accepted.
Cambodia – Correct. Cambodia is included in the list of countries where UPI is accepted.

Additional Information:

UPI is accepted in nine countries:

Singapore
United Arab Emirates
France
Mauritius
Nepal
Bhutan
Qatar
Sri Lanka
Cambodia

2 / 2

2) With reference to the draft election rules for Nicobarese tribal councils, consider the following statements:

The draft rules propose formal elections for Village Councils and Tribal Councils.
The rules include preparation of electoral rolls and delimitation of constituencies.
The rules seek to abolish all tribal councils permanently.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Statement 1 is correct: The draft rules propose formal elections for Village and Tribal Councils.
Statement 2 is correct: They include electoral rolls and constituencies.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The rules do not abolish tribal councils; they seek to formalise elections to them.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 15th June 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding memory chips:

DRAM is commonly used in smartphones and computers.
HBM is mainly associated with AI processors and data centres.
HBM generally provides slower data transfer than conventional DRAM.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: DRAM is commonly used as working memory in consumer electronics.
Statement 2 is correct: HBM is essential for advanced AI processors and data centres.
Statement 3 is incorrect: HBM provides much faster data transfer than conventional DRAM.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding PM-JANMAN:

It is targeted at Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups.
It covers 75 PVTG communities across 18 States and one Union Territory.
It includes interventions related to housing, connectivity, health and skilling.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct:
PM-JANMAN, or Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan, is specifically designed for the comprehensive development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs).
Statement 2 is correct:
The mission covers 75 PVTG communities living across 18 States and one Union Territory.
Statement 3 is correct:
PM-JANMAN follows a multi-sector approach and includes interventions such as:
- Pucca housing , Road connectivity , Piped drinking water ,Electrification , Mobile medical units , Anganwadi centres , Hostels , Mobile towers ,,Van Dhan Vikas Kendras, Vocational skilling

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 16th June 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following in the context of the benefits of E85 fuel:

Lower price than conventional petrol
Reduction in lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions
Superior knock resistance due to higher octane number
Cleaner combustion with near-zero particulate matter emissions

Which of the above are benefits of E85 fuel?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Lower price than conventional petrol – Correct. E85 is priced nearly ₹20 per litre lower than conventional petrol.
Reduction in lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions – Correct. Flex-fuel vehicles using E85 can reduce lifecycle greenhouse gas emissions by around 61 per cent.
Superior knock resistance due to higher octane number – Correct. Ethanol has a Research Octane Number of about 108, which gives better knock resistance.
Cleaner combustion with near-zero particulate matter emissions – Correct. Higher ethanol blends promote cleaner and more complete combustion.

Additional Information:

The content also highlights that wider use of E85 can help in:

reducing crude oil imports
saving foreign exchange
increasing income flow to farmers
improving urban air quality
reducing CO₂ emissions

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding the National Beekeeping and Honey Mission (NBHM):

It was launched in 2020 to promote scientific beekeeping and rural livelihoods.
Honey production in India increased from 0.081 million tonnes to 0.152 million tonnes.
India’s honey exports increased by about 240%.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: NBHM was launched in 2020 to promote scientific beekeeping, rural employment and additional income for farmers.
Statement 2 is correct: Honey production increased from 0.081 million tonnes to 0.152 million tonnes.
Statement 3 is correct: Honey exports grew by about 240%, strengthening India’s position in the global honey market.

Additional Information

Beekeeping supports:

Crop pollination
Farm productivity
Rural livelihoods
Value addition through honey and other bee products

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 17th June 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyaan:

It provides free antenatal care at designated government health facilities on the 9th of every month.
It primarily covers women in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy.
It is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: PMSMA services are provided on the 9th of every month.
Statement 2 is correct: It focuses particularly on pregnant women in their second and third trimesters.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

2 / 2

2) With reference to flagship household welfare schemes, consider the following pairs:

Scheme	Year of Launch
I. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)	2016
II. Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (SAUBHAGYA)	2017
III. PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana	2023

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

I and II only

II and III only

I and III only

I, II and III

Pair I: Correct. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was launched in May 2016 to provide clean LPG connections.

Pair II: Correct. Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (SAUBHAGYA) was launched in 2017 to provide last-mile electricity connections.

Pair III: Not correct. PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana was launched in February 2024, not 2023.

Hence, pairs I and II are correctly matched.

Additional Information

PMUY: Launched in 2016
SAUBHAGYA: Launched in 2017
PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana: Launched in 2024

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 18th June 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding sustainable agriculture:

Permaculture and agroforestry integrate trees and shrubs into agricultural landscapes.
Reduced tillage helps maintain soil structure and enhances carbon storage.
Drip irrigation delivers water directly to the root zone and reduces wastage.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Permaculture and agroforestry support pollinators, carbon sequestration and water-runoff management.
Statement 2 is correct: Reduced tillage minimises soil disturbance, preserves soil structure and helps store carbon.
Statement 3 is correct: Drip irrigation supplies water directly to plant roots, improving water-use efficiency.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following diseases in the context of zoonotic diseases:

Rabies
Nipah
Ebola
Brucellosis

Which of the above are examples of zoonotic diseases?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Rabies – Correct. Rabies is a zoonotic disease transmitted between animals and humans.
Nipah – Correct. Nipah is also an example of a zoonotic disease.
Ebola – Correct. Ebola is included among zoonotic diseases.
Brucellosis – Correct. Brucellosis is another zoonotic disease Additional Information:

Zoonotic diseases are infectious diseases transmitted between animals and humans. They can be caused by:

bacteria
viruses
parasites
fungi

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 19th June 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following diseases in the context of zoonotic diseases:

Rabies
Nipah
Ebola
Brucellosis

Which of the above are examples of zoonotic diseases?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Rabies – Correct. Rabies is a zoonotic disease transmitted between animals and humans.
Nipah – Correct. Nipah is also an example of a zoonotic disease.
Ebola – Correct. Ebola is included among zoonotic diseases.
Brucellosis – Correct. Brucellosis is another zoonotic disease Additional Information:

Zoonotic diseases are infectious diseases transmitted between animals and humans. They can be caused by:

bacteria
viruses
parasites
fungi

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding sustainable agriculture:

Permaculture and agroforestry integrate trees and shrubs into agricultural landscapes.
Reduced tillage helps maintain soil structure and enhances carbon storage.
Drip irrigation delivers water directly to the root zone and reduces wastage.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Permaculture and agroforestry support pollinators, carbon sequestration and water-runoff management.
Statement 2 is correct: Reduced tillage minimises soil disturbance, preserves soil structure and helps store carbon.
Statement 3 is correct: Drip irrigation supplies water directly to plant roots, improving water-use efficiency.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 22nd June 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding emerging global AI-governance institutions:

The Independent International Scientific Panel on AI will periodically assess scientific developments in artificial intelligence.
The Global Dialogue on AI is intended to include all countries.
The Trusted AI Commons will provide openly accessible tools and resources for responsible AI development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Panel will periodically assess the state of AI science.
Statement 2 is correct: Every country has been invited to participate in the Global Dialogue.
Statement 3 is correct: The Trusted AI Commons will contain shared tools, datasets, benchmarks and protocols for responsible AI.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following countries in the context of the coverage area of South Asia Satellite (GSAT-9):

Afghanistan
Bangladesh
Nepal
Sri Lanka

Which of the above are covered by the South Asia Satellite?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Afghanistan – Correct. South Asia Satellite provides coverage over Afghanistan.
Bangladesh – Correct. Bangladesh is one of the countries covered by the satellite.
Nepal – Correct. Nepal is also included in its coverage area.
Sri Lanka – Correct. Sri Lanka is one of the countries covered by GSAT-9.

Additional Information:

South Asia Satellite (GSAT-9) also provides coverage over:

Bhutan
Maldives

It was launched on 5 May 2017 and was built by ISRO as a regional communication satellite.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 23rd June 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements regarding the Western Ghats ESA proposal:

The Kasturirangan Committee distinguished between cultural and natural landscapes.
The latest draft proposes approximately 56,825.7 sq. km as an Ecologically Sensitive Area.
The proposal seeks to regulate high-impact activities such as mining, quarrying and thermal power plants.
Karnataka has fully accepted the Kasturirangan Committee recommendations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Kasturirangan Committee classified the region into cultural and natural landscapes.
Statement 2 is correct: The draft notification identifies 56,825.7 sq. km as ESA.
Statement 3 is correct: Mining, quarrying, polluting industries, thermal power plants and large constructions are proposed to be restricted.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Karnataka has consistently opposed the recommendations.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding biochar:

It is produced through pyrolysis under oxygen-depleted conditions.
Syngas and bio-oil are by-products of its production.
It may improve soil water-holding capacity and crop productivity.
It breaks down rapidly after being applied to soil.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Biochar is produced through pyrolysis at high temperatures under oxygen-depleted conditions.
Statement 2 is correct: Pyrolysis also produces syngas and bio-oil.
Statement 3 is correct: Biochar improves soil moisture retention, microbial activity and crop output.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Biochar decomposes very slowly and stores carbon for long periods.

Your score is

UPSC CARE Prelims Practice - 24th June 2026

1 / 2

1) Consider the following statements:

The Summit brought together delegations from more than 100 countries.
The India AI Impact Summit Declaration was adopted by 92 countries and organisations.
The Summit generated AI-related investment commitments exceeding USD 200 billion.
The Summit focused only on commercial AI applications and excluded digital public goods.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Correct: Delegations from over 100 countries participated in the Summit.
Correct: The Summit Declaration was adopted by 92 countries and organisations.
Correct: It catalysed more than USD 200 billion in AI-related investment commitments.
Incorrect: The Summit also highlighted responsible AI, sovereign AI infrastructure, research and digital public goods.

2 / 2

2) Consider the following statements regarding the development of India’s North-East:

PM-DevINE is a fully centrally funded scheme.
The Act East Policy places the North-East at the centre of India’s engagement with Southeast Asia.
The Kaladan project combines port and inland-waterway connectivity.
MOVCD-NER promotes organic farming and value-chain development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

SYLLABUS

PYQ'S

OPTIONAL

GROUP I

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STUDY MATERIAL

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GROUP II

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STUDY MATERIAL

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GROUP I

SYLLABUS

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GROUP II

UPSC

TGPSC

APPSC

UPSC

APPSC G1 and G2

TGPSC G1 and G2

UPSC

TGPSC

APPSC

PYQ's

SYLLABUS

PYQ'S

OPTIONAL

GROUP I

SYLLABUS

STUDY MATERIAL

PYQ'S

GROUP II

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STUDY MATERIAL

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GROUP I

SYLLABUS

STUDY MATERIAL

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GROUP II

UPSC

TGPSC

APPSC

UPSC

APPSC G1 and G2

TGPSC G1 and G2

UPSC

TGPSC

APPSC

PYQ's

2026 Preparation Guide

Category: UPSC CARE Prelims Practice September 2026

Category: UPSC CARE Prelims Practice August 2026

Category: UPSC CARE Prelims Practice July 2026

Category: UPSC CARE Prelims Practice June 2026

2) With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements: