APPSC current affairs 1 May 2026 – AP beach sand minerals, Panchayat Advancement Index 2.0 and Women and Men in India 2025 – KPIAS Academy

Relevance: Location-based mineral resources, Andhra Pradesh economy and geography

Important Keywords for Prelims and Mains

For Prelims:

  • Beach Sand Minerals, Ilmenite, Rutile, Monazite, Zircon, Garnet, Sillimanite, Thorium, Rare Earth Elements, Placer Deposits

For Mains:

  • Coastal processes, mineral economy, rare earth supply chains, nuclear energy resources, environmental governance

Why in News?

Andhra Pradesh is emerging as a leading State in the exploration and development of Beach Sand Minerals along its eastern coastline. The State holds nearly 25% of India’s total reserves, making it second only to Tamil Nadu, and is increasingly being positioned as a major mineral-based industrial hub.

Coastal Location and Formation of Deposits

  • The presence of beach sand minerals in Andhra Pradesh is closely associated with its location along the Bay of Bengal and the sediment transport systems of major rivers.
  • The most prominent deposits are located in the northern coastal districts such as Srikakulam and Visakhapatnam, particularly in areas like Gara, Etcherla, Ranasthalam, Bheemunipatnam and Nakkapalli, while coastal belts of West Godavari, Krishna and Konaseema districts also contain significant deposits.
  • These minerals are formed through long-term geological processes.
  • Rivers such as the Godavari River and the Krishna River transport mineral-rich sediments from the interior plateau towards the coast.
  • When these sediments reach the sea, wave action and tidal currents remove lighter particles and concentrate heavier minerals.
  • This results in the formation of placer deposits, where economically valuable minerals accumulate along beaches, dunes and coastal plains.

Distribution and Resource Profile in Andhra Pradesh

  • Andhra Pradesh has approximately 211 million tonnes of beach sand mineral reserves out of India’s total estimated 838 million tonnes.
  • The State has the largest reserves of rutile and monazite in India, while it has the second-largest reserves of ilmenite.
  • Several deposits are already under development, and ongoing exploration has revealed additional reserves, indicating strong future potential for expansion.

Mineral Composition and Uses

  • Beach sand minerals in Andhra Pradesh consist of a diverse group of heavy minerals with significant industrial applications.
  • Ilmenite is widely used for the extraction of titanium dioxide, which is essential in paints, plastics and paper industries, and also has applications in aerospace and engineering due to the strength and corrosion resistance of titanium.
  • Rutile, being a higher-grade titanium ore, is used in the production of titanium metal, which is critical for aircraft manufacturing, defence equipment and high-performance engineering components.
  • Monazite is particularly important as it contains rare earth elements along with thorium. Rare earth elements are used in advanced technologies, while thorium is relevant for nuclear energy production, making this mineral highly regulated.
  • Zircon is used extensively in ceramic industries due to its high thermal stability and resistance to corrosion, and also finds application in nuclear reactors.
  • Garnet serves as an industrial abrasive and is used in sandblasting and waterjet cutting processes, while sillimanite is used in refractory industries where materials must withstand very high temperatures, such as furnace linings and industrial kilns.

Role in Energy and Technology Systems

  • The importance of beach sand minerals extends into emerging sectors of energy and advanced technology.
  • Thorium obtained from monazite is an important resource for India’s long-term nuclear energy programme, which is based on a three-stage strategy aimed at sustainable energy production.
  • Rare earth elements present in these minerals are essential for modern technologies, including electric vehicles, renewable energy systems such as wind turbines, and electronics like semiconductors.
  • They also play a critical role in defence technologies, making these minerals integral to technological advancement.

Environmental Concerns

  • Beach sand mining occurs in ecologically sensitive coastal regions, where disturbances can lead to coastal erosion and habitat degradation.
  • Unregulated extraction may also affect groundwater quality and disrupt livelihoods dependent on fisheries and agriculture.
  • Therefore, mining activities are regulated under Coastal Regulation Zone norms and Environmental Impact Assessment processes to ensure sustainability.

CARE MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements regarding beach sand minerals:

  1. Monazite contains thorium and rare earth elements.
  2. Andhra Pradesh has the largest reserves of ilmenite in India.
  3. These minerals are formed due to coastal and riverine processes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Q. Which of the following geological regions is NOT primarily associated with Carboniferous coal deposits?

(a) Appalachian Basin, USA
(b) Donets Basin (Donbas), Ukraine
(c) South Wales Coalfield, UK
(d) Deccan Traps, India

Ans: (d)

The Deccan Traps are volcanic basalt formations formed during the Cretaceous–Eocene period, and are not associated with Carboniferous coal deposits.

Q. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the distribution of mineral resources in India?

(a) Iron ore is predominantly found in the state of Rajasthan
(b) Mica, a key mineral used in the electronics industry, is mainly found in Jharkhand and Bihar
(c) Kerala is the leading producer of bauxite in India
(d) Diamond mines are extensively located in the state of Punjab

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

India is one of the leading producers of mica, and its major deposits are concentrated in the Koderma–Gaya–Hazaribagh belt, covering parts of Jharkhand and Bihar. This region has historically been known for high-quality mica used in electrical and electronic industries.

Q.Consider the following statements regarding Cobalt:

  1. Cobalt is primarily used in the production of rechargeable batteries for electric vehicles and portable electronic devices.
  2. The Democratic Republic of Congo is the world’s leading producer of cobalt.
  3. Cobalt is a critical mineral due to its importance in various industrial applications and limited sources of supply.
  4. Cobalt is always found in its pure, metallic form in nature.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one

b) Only two

c) Only three

d) All four

 Ans: (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: A significant portion of global cobalt production is utilized in rechargeable batteries, which are essential for powering electric vehicles, laptops, smartphones, and various other portable electronic devices.

Statement 2 is correct: The Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) holds the position of the world’s leading cobalt producer, accounting for a substantial share of the global supply. Statement 3 is correct: Cobalt is classified as a critical mineral due to its widespread use in various industries and the concentrated nature of its supply sources, with limited geographical distribution.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Cobalt is typically not found in its pure, metallic form in nature. Instead, it is usually obtained as a byproduct of mining nickel and copper ores, where it occurs in chemically combined forms.

APPSC Mains Question

Q.Discuss the geographical processes responsible for the formation of beach sand mineral deposits in India and analyse the role of Andhra Pradesh in their development.

[250 WORDS]

FAQs

Q. Why are beach sand minerals mainly found along coastal regions?
Ans: They are found along coastal regions because rivers transport mineral-rich sediments from inland areas, and marine processes such as waves and tides concentrate heavier minerals along the shoreline over time.

Q. Why is monazite considered an important mineral?
Ans: Monazite is important because it contains thorium and rare earth elements, which are essential for nuclear energy production and advanced technological applications.

Q. Which rivers contribute to beach sand mineral deposits in Andhra Pradesh?
Ans: Major rivers such as the Godavari and Krishna play a crucial role in transporting mineral sediments from the interior plateau to the coastal regions where they accumulate.

Q. Why is Andhra Pradesh important in beach sand mineral exploration?
Ans: Andhra Pradesh is important because it has a long coastline, favourable geological conditions and a significant share of India’s total reserves, making it a major centre for exploration and development.

Q. What are placer deposits?
Ans: Placer deposits are formed when heavier minerals accumulate after lighter particles are removed by water action, especially along riverbeds and coastal areas.

Relevance: Local Bodies | Governance

Important Keywords for Prelims and Mains

For Prelims:

  • Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0, Localization of SDGs (LSDGs), Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP), Ministry of Panchayati Raj, Performance Categories

For Mains:

  • grassroots governance, decentralisation, data-driven governance, SDG localisation, rural development, performance-based evaluation, accountability, inclusive governance

Why in News?

  • The Ministry of Panchayati Raj has released the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 Report for the year 2023–24 on the occasion of National Panchayati Raj Day.
  •  The report evaluates the performance of more than 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats across India using a data-driven framework aligned with Sustainable Development Goals.

What is PAI 2.0?

  • The Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 is India’s first comprehensive, data-driven framework to assess the performance of Gram Panchayats and Traditional Local Bodies.
  •  It evaluates more than 2.5 lakh Panchayats across the country.
  • It acts as a localized report card to measure progress in achieving the Localization of Sustainable Development Goals (LSDGs).
  •  It uses 150 indicators and 230 data points across nine thematic areas such as poverty, health, water, infrastructure, environment, and governance.
  • The index promotes evidence-based planning, monitoring, and incentivisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions.
  • It is prepared by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.

Key Summary and Findings

  • National participation reached 97.30%, with 2,59,867 Panchayats participating across 33 States and Union Territories.
  • Participation increased significantly from 80.79% in PAI 1.0.
  •  Panchayats are classified into five performance categories:
    – Achiever (A+)
    – Front Runner (A)
    – Performer (B)
    – Aspirant (C)
    – Beginner (D)
  • The Performer category (Grade B) forms the largest group, with 1,18,824 Panchayats (about 45.72%).
  • Under the Poverty Free and Enhanced Livelihoods theme, 3,313 Panchayats achieved the highest grade (A+).
  •  Under the Healthy Panchayat theme, 1,015 Panchayats achieved the highest grade (A+).
  • The number of indicators was reduced from 516 in version 1.0 to 150 in version 2.0 for better focus.
  • West Bengal did not participate, while Delhi and Chandigarh were excluded as they do not have Gram Panchayats.

Key Ranking Highlights

  • Tripura emerged as the highest-performing state, with nearly 80% of its Panchayats achieving the Front Runner category.
  • No Gram Panchayat in the country achieved the Achiever (A+) category overall (score of 90 and above).
  • Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest participation, with all 57,678 Gram Panchayats submitting data.
  • A large number of Panchayats performed well in livelihood and health themes individually.

The Success Story: Leading Panchayats

  • High-performing Panchayats are using PAI scores for evidence-based planning and targeted development interventions.
  •  Top-performing Panchayats are being developed as learning hubs to promote peer-to-peer learning.
  • Mandatory Gram Sabha validation has improved transparency and citizen participation.
  •  Use of real-time dashboards and automatic data integration has improved data accuracy and reduced reporting burden.

Challenges Plaguing Panchayats

  • Regional Imbalance: States like Bihar have a large number of Panchayats in lower categories, while others perform better.
  • Technological Barriers: Many Panchayats in remote regions lack digital literacy and face difficulties in data reporting.
  • Infrastructure Deficits: Lack of funds for infrastructure development affects performance in several states.
  •  Social Justice Gaps: Progress in social justice and welfare indicators remains weaker than economic indicators.
  • Resource Dependency: Many Panchayats depend heavily on state funding and lack their own revenue sources.

Significance of PAI 2.0

  • Promotes data-driven governance and objective performance measurement.
  • Strengthens grassroots democracy and accountability.
  •  Facilitates localization of Sustainable Development Goals.
  • Acts as a policy tool for targeted interventions by governments.
  • Encourages competitive federalism and performance-based governance.

Panchayati Raj – Constitutional Basis

  • The Panchayati Raj system was given constitutional status by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which came into force on 24 April 1993.
  •  It inserted Part IX of the Constitution (Articles 243 to 243O) and added the Eleventh Schedule containing 29 subjects.
  • Article 40 of the Directive Principles of State Policy directs the state to organize village panchayats.
  • The system follows a three-tier structure: Gram Panchayat at village level, Panchayat Samiti at intermediate level, and Zila Parishad at district level.
  •  The Gram Sabha, consisting of all registered voters, is the foundation of the system.
  • Elections are conducted by the State Election Commission.
  •  Seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and at least one-third for women.
  •  Panchayats have a fixed tenure of five years.
  • Financial resources come from local taxes, grants, and government schemes.
  • The State Finance Commission reviews Panchayat finances every five years.

Way Forward

  • Use PAI scores to allocate targeted financial resources to low-performing Panchayats.
  •  Strengthen capacity building and training of Panchayat representatives.
  •  Expand digital governance tools and improve data systems.
  •  Link incentives and awards to PAI performance.
  •  Promote vernacular interfaces to improve accessibility of the system.
  •  Align central schemes with PAI indicators for better policy outcomes.

Conclusion

The Panchayat Advancement Index 2.0 represents a major step toward data-driven and accountable grassroots governance in India. By linking Panchayat performance with Sustainable Development Goals, it creates a structured pathway for inclusive rural development. However, addressing regional disparities, capacity gaps, and resource constraints remains essential to fully realize the vision of empowered local self-government.

CARE MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements about the Panchayati Raj system in India:

  1. The Panchayati Raj system was first recommended by the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957).
  2. It is generally organized as a three-tier system consisting of village, intermediate (block), and district levels.
  3. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 provides for the establishment of a Gram Sabha in every village.
  4. Panchayati Raj Institutions receive funds directly from the Union Finance Commission.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All of the above

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions to promote democratic decentralization.

Statement 2 is correct:
The system is structured as a three-tier system

  • Gram Panchayat (village)
  • Panchayat Samiti (block/intermediate)
  • Zila Parishad (district)

Statement 3 is correct:
The 73rd Amendment mandates a Gram Sabha, comprising all registered voters in a village, as the foundation of rural self-governance.

Statement 4 is incorrect:
PRIs do not receive funds directly from the Union Finance Commission. Funds are devolved through State Governments, based on recommendations of both Central and State Finance Commissions.

Q. Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) directs the State to organize village panchayats and endow them with powers of self-government?

(a) Article 40
(b) Article 42
(c) Article 43
(d) Article 44

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

Article 40 of the Constitution directs the State to organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers to function as units of self-government.

Q. Consider the following statements about Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs):

  1. PRIs were given constitutional status by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
  2. A three-tier system is mandatory for all states, irrespective of their population size.
  3. The Gram Sabha consists of all registered voters in a village.
  4. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in PRIs is in proportion to their population.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All of the above

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:
The 73rd Amendment (1992) provided constitutional status to PRIs.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
The three-tier system is not mandatory for states with a population below 20 lakhs, where a two-tier system may exist.

Statement 3 is correct:
The Gram Sabha includes all registered voters in the village and acts as the basic deliberative body.

Statement 4 is correct:
Reservation for SCs and STs in Panchayats is provided in proportion to their population in the area.

Q. Consider the following challenges faced by Panchayati Raj Institutions in India:

  1. Inadequate financial resources
  2. Political interference at the local level
  3. Lack of professional training among elected representatives
  4. Insufficient devolution of functions, funds, and functionaries

How many of the above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

All the listed factors are well-recognized structural challenges affecting the effective functioning of PRIs:

  • Limited financial autonomy
  • Political interference (MPs/MLAs, local elites)
  • Capacity gaps among representatives
  • Incomplete devolution of the 3Fs (Functions, Funds, Functionaries)

Q. Consider the following statements about the powers and functions of Panchayats:

  1. Panchayats are responsible for preparing plans for economic development and social justice.
  2. Infrastructure creation in areas like health and education is exclusively the responsibility of State Governments.
  3. Panchayats have the authority to levy and collect taxes, duties, tolls, and fees as assigned by the State.
  4. Implementation of schemes related to agriculture and animal husbandry falls within the domain of Panchayats.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All of the above

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:
Panchayats are mandated to prepare plans for economic development and social justice under the 73rd Amendment.

Statement 2 is incorrect:
Panchayats do play a role in infrastructure creation (health, education, sanitation, etc.), as per the Eleventh Schedule.

Statement 3 is correct:
They are empowered to levy and collect local taxes, subject to State laws.

Statement 4 is correct:
Sectors like agriculture, irrigation, and animal husbandry fall within Panchayat function

FAQs

Q1. What is PAI 2.0?
It is a national index that evaluates the performance of Gram Panchayats using SDG-based indicators.

Q2. Which ministry prepares PAI 2.0?
It is prepared by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.

Q3. What is the main objective of PAI 2.0?
To promote data-driven planning, accountability, and improved rural governance.

Q4. Why is PAI important?
It helps in measuring Panchayat performance and guiding policy decisions for rural development.

Q5. How is PAI linked to SDGs?
It aligns Panchayat-level indicators with Sustainable Development Goals through localization.

Relevance: Gender and Society

Important Keywords for Prelims and Mains

For Prelims:

  • Women and Men in India Report, MoSPI, Sex Ratio at Birth, Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER), Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR), Time Use Survey

For Mains:

  • gender equality, women empowerment, socio-economic indicators, labour participation, human development, gender parity, inclusive growth, health inequality, digital inclusion

Why in News?

  • The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) released the 27th edition of the “Women and Men in India 2025” report in Bhubaneswar.
  • The report provides a comprehensive statistical overview of gender-related socio-economic indicators in India.

What is the Report?

  • The “Women and Men in India” report is an annual statistical publication, institutionalized in 1995.
  • It serves as a comprehensive data compendium on the status of women and men across multiple sectors.
  •  It compiles data from various ministries, surveys, and administrative sources.
  • It covers domains such as population, health, education, economic participation, and safety.
  •  The report provides evidence-based insights to support gender-sensitive policymaking.

Key Data and Statistics

  • Sex Ratio at Birth improved from 904 (2017–19) to 917 (2021–23), indicating better survival of female children.
  •  Infant Mortality Rate declined steadily for both males and females between 2008 and 2023.
  • Gender parity has been achieved across all levels of school education from primary to higher secondary.
  • Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) for females increased from 28.5 to 30.2 between 2021–22 and 2022–23.
  •  Female GER (30.2) is now higher than male GER (28.9) in higher education.
  •  Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) increased for both genders, with strong gains among rural women.
  • Rural female LFPR rose from 37.5% to 45.9% between 2022 and 2025.
  • Women in managerial positions increased by 102.54% between 2017 and 2025.
  • Adolescent fertility rate (15–19 years) has been declining steadily since 2021.

Rise of Equality (Positive Trends)

  • Educational Parity has been achieved at all school levels, ensuring equal foundational opportunities for girls.
  • Higher Education Participation has improved, with women now surpassing men in enrolment ratios.
  • Economic Participation of women is rising, particularly in rural areas and professional sectors.
  • Leadership Representation has improved, as seen in the sharp rise in women in managerial roles.
  • Health Outcomes have improved significantly, with declines in maternal and infant mortality rates.
  • Marriage Age is increasing, with the mean age reaching 24.3 years in 2023, allowing greater educational and career opportunities.
  • Financial Autonomy is increasing due to higher labour force participation.

Persistent Inequalities

  • Health Screening Gap remains significant, with very low participation in cervical and breast cancer screening.
  • Only about 1.7% of women have undergone cervical cancer screening (NFHS-5 data).
  • Literacy Gap persists, with a 14.4 percentage point difference between male and female literacy rates.
  • Unpaid Care Work burden remains disproportionately high for women, limiting their economic participation.
  • Digital Divide exposes women to higher risks of cyber fraud and limits access to digital services.
  • Underreporting of crimes against women continues due to lack of awareness and access to reporting mechanisms.

Significance of the Report

  • Provides a comprehensive gender data framework for policymaking.
  • Helps track progress on gender equality and SDG Goal 5.
  • Highlights both achievements and gaps in women’s empowerment.
  •  Supports evidence-based planning for inclusive development.
  • Acts as a benchmark for measuring socio-economic transformation.

Way Forward

  • Strengthen awareness and access to health screening services, especially in rural areas.
  •  Promote targeted skill development programs to sustain female labour force participation.
  •  Expand adult literacy initiatives focusing on older women.
  • Improve digital literacy and cybersecurity awareness among women.
  • Encourage gender-sensitive budgeting and policy design.
  • Strengthen institutional mechanisms for reporting and addressing crimes against women.

Conclusion

The Women and Men in India 2025 report highlights significant progress in gender equality, especially in education, employment, and leadership. However, persistent challenges such as literacy gaps, health inequalities, and unpaid care burdens indicate that structural barriers still exist. Achieving true gender parity requires sustained policy efforts to convert statistical progress into real-life empowerment for women across all sections of society.

CARE MCQ

Q. With reference to the “Women and Men in India 2025” report, consider the following statements:

  1. It is published by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
  2. It shows that female Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education is higher than that of males.
  3. It reports that all women in India have access to health screening services.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

The report “Women and Men in India” is an annual publication brought out by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). It compiles gender-disaggregated data across sectors such as education, health, employment, and decision-making.

Statement 2 is correct:

Recent editions of the report highlight that the female Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education has marginally exceeded that of males, reflecting improving gender parity in education.

Statement 3 is incorrect:

The report does not claim universal access to health screening services for all women. While access has improved, significant gaps remain, particularly across regions and socio-economic groups. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Q. India’s Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR) remains relatively low. Which of the following is considered a primary structural driver of this phenomenon?

(a) Higher educational attainment among women leading to preference for non-market activities
(b) Disproportionate burden of unpaid care and domestic work on women
(c) Legal restrictions barring women from employment in most sectors
(d) Decline in employment opportunities in the agricultural sector

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

The low Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR) in India is primarily driven by structural and socio-cultural factors, among which the unequal burden of unpaid care work is the most significant.

Women in India spend a disproportionately large amount of time on household chores, childcare, and elder care, which limits their ability to participate in paid employment.

Option (a) is incorrect:
While higher education may delay entry into the workforce, it generally enhances employability and cannot explain persistently low participation rates.

Option (b) is correct:
The unequal distribution of unpaid domestic responsibilities is widely recognized as the key constraint on women’s labour force participation.

Option (c) is incorrect:
There are no broad legal prohibitions preventing women from working in most sectors. Restrictions are limited to specific hazardous occupations.

Option (d) is incorrect:
Although structural shifts in agriculture affect employment, they impact both men and women. This is not the primary reason for low female participation.

 

Q. Consider the following statements regarding recessionary trends in an economy:

Statement-I: During a recession, the labour force participation rate always declines as discouraged workers exit the labour market.

Statement-II: Recessions invariably lead to deflation, with a sustained fall in general price levels.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is incorrect

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

Statement-I is incorrect:
Although labour force participation may decline during recessions due to discouraged workers, it is not always the case. Participation rates may remain stable or even increase depending on economic necessity and demographic factors.

Statement-II is incorrect:
Recessions do not always lead to deflation. In some cases, economies experience stagflation, where inflation coexists with economic stagnation. Hence, deflation is not inevitable.

Q.Consider the following statements regarding the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):

  1. PLFS is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
  2. It provides estimates of unemployment and labour force participation at both national and state levels.
  3. The survey follows a rotating panel design, where households are revisited multiple times.
  4. It replaced the earlier quinquennial Employment and Unemployment Surveys (EUS).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:
PLFS is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO), not NSSO (which has been merged into NSO). The wording must be precise; hence the statement is considered incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct:
PLFS provides labour force indicators such as unemployment rate and participation rate at both national and state levels.

Statement 3 is correct:
It uses a rotating panel design, especially in urban areas, allowing tracking of employment trends over time.

Statement 4 is correct:
PLFS replaced the earlier quinquennial Employment and Unemployment Surveys, enabling more frequent and timely labour market data.

FAQs

Q. With reference to the “Women and Men in India 2025” report, consider the following statements:

  1. It is published by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
  2. It shows that female Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education is higher than that of males.
  3. It reports that all women in India have access to health screening services.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:

The report “Women and Men in India” is an annual publication brought out by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). It compiles gender-disaggregated data across sectors such as education, health, employment, and decision-making.

Statement 2 is correct:

Recent editions of the report highlight that the female Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education has marginally exceeded that of males, reflecting improving gender parity in education.

Statement 3 is incorrect:

The report does not claim universal access to health screening services for all women. While access has improved, significant gaps remain, particularly across regions and socio-economic groups. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Q. India’s Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR) remains relatively low. Which of the following is considered a primary structural driver of this phenomenon?

(a) Higher educational attainment among women leading to preference for non-market activities
(b) Disproportionate burden of unpaid care and domestic work on women
(c) Legal restrictions barring women from employment in most sectors
(d) Decline in employment opportunities in the agricultural sector

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

The low Female Labour Force Participation Rate (FLFPR) in India is primarily driven by structural and socio-cultural factors, among which the unequal burden of unpaid care work is the most significant.

Women in India spend a disproportionately large amount of time on household chores, childcare, and elder care, which limits their ability to participate in paid employment.

Option (a) is incorrect:
While higher education may delay entry into the workforce, it generally enhances employability and cannot explain persistently low participation rates.

Option (b) is correct:
The unequal distribution of unpaid domestic responsibilities is widely recognized as the key constraint on women’s labour force participation.

Option (c) is incorrect:
There are no broad legal prohibitions preventing women from working in most sectors. Restrictions are limited to specific hazardous occupations.

Option (d) is incorrect:
Although structural shifts in agriculture affect employment, they impact both men and women. This is not the primary reason for low female participation.

Q. Consider the following statements regarding recessionary trends in an economy:

Statement-I: During a recession, the labour force participation rate always declines as discouraged workers exit the labour market.

Statement-II: Recessions invariably lead to deflation, with a sustained fall in general price levels.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is incorrect

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

Statement-I is incorrect:
Although labour force participation may decline during recessions due to discouraged workers, it is not always the case. Participation rates may remain stable or even increase depending on economic necessity and demographic factors.

Statement-II is incorrect:
Recessions do not always lead to deflation. In some cases, economies experience stagflation, where inflation coexists with economic stagnation. Hence, deflation is not inevitable.

Q.Consider the following statements regarding the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):

  1. PLFS is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
  2. It provides estimates of unemployment and labour force participation at both national and state levels.
  3. The survey follows a rotating panel design, where households are revisited multiple times.
  4. It replaced the earlier quinquennial Employment and Unemployment Surveys (EUS).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:
PLFS is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO), not NSSO (which has been merged into NSO). The wording must be precise; hence the statement is considered incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct:
PLFS provides labour force indicators such as unemployment rate and participation rate at both national and state levels.

Statement 3 is correct:
It uses a rotating panel design, especially in urban areas, allowing tracking of employment trends over time.

Statement 4 is correct:
PLFS replaced the earlier quinquennial Employment and Unemployment Surveys, enabling more frequent and timely labour market data.

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