Explanation:

• Land allotted to big feudal landlords – Jagirdari System
• Land allotted to revenue farmers or rent collectors – Zamindari System
• Land allotted to each peasant with the right to sublet, mortgage, gift or sell – Ryotwari system
• Revenue settlements made at village – Mahalwari System

Explanation:

• After the green revolution there has been multifield increase in the production of foodgrains in the country. The production of foodgrains increased from 50.8 million tonnes in 1950-51 to 211.9 million tonnes in 2001-02. Thus, in this period production of foodgrains increased more than four times and near self-sufficiency has been achieved in India. Indian import of foodgrains was only 4.5% of the total import value in 2001-02. So, the Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. In the crop year 2021-22 (July-June) (2nd A.E.), India’s foodgrain production is estimated to rise to a new record level of 316.06 million tonnes which was at 310.74 and 297.50 million tonnes in the 2020-21 and 2019-20 crop year respectively.

Explanation:

• As of now, the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends MSP for 22 crops and Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane. These 22 crops comprise 7 cereals (Paddy, Wheat, Maize, Sorghum, Bajra – Pearl Millet, Barley and Ragi-Finger Millet), 5 pulses (Gram, Tur, Moong, Urad, Lentil), 7 oilseeds (Groundnut, RapeseedMustard, Soyabean, Sesamum, Sunflower, Safflower, Niger seed) and 3 commercial crops (Copra, Cotton and Raw Jute). In addition, MSP for Toria and De-husked Coconut is fixed by the Department of Food and Public Distribution on the basis of Rapeseed-Mustard and Copra respectively. Besides these crops, the Government also announces Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for Sugarcane. National Food Security Mission (NFSM) was launched in 2007-08 as a centrally sponsored scheme under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare to increase the production of foodgrain.

Explanation:

• The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was introduced in 1998. The prime objective of this credit scheme is to enable farmers in having quick and timely access to affordable credit. The model of KCC scheme was prepared by NABARD on the recommendations of R.V. Gupta Committee.

Objectives:

(1) To meet the short-term credit requirements for cultivation of crops.

(2) Post harvest expenses. Hence, statement (4) is correct.

(3) Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture etc. Hence, statement (1) is correct.

(4) Consumption requirements of farm households. Hence, statement (3) is also correct.

(5) Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities like pump sets, sprayers and dairy animals etc.

• Statement (2) and (5) are not the objectives of the KCC. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Explanation:

• Establishment of NABARD – 1982
• Self Help Group Bank Linkage Programme – 1992-93
• Kisan Credit Card Plan – 1998
• Establishment of Regional Rural Bank – 1975
• Therefore, the correct chronological order is given in option (a).

Explanation:

• The Code of Wages, 2019 is an Act of the Parliament of India that consolidates the provisions of four labour laws concerning wage and bonus payments and makes universal the provisions for minimum wages and timely payment of wages for all workers in India. The Code repeals and replaces the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976. The Contract Labour Act, 1970 is not subsumed in it.

Explanation:

• Disinvestment of CPSEs is an integral part of liberalization of economy in India, which focused on the efforts required to be taken to curtail the fiscal burden of the State by reducing public sector borrowings and bring in fiscal austerity. Its proceeds are being used according to the stated policy of the Government. Government had constituted the National Investment Fund (NIF) in November, 2005 into which the proceeds from disinvestment of CPSEs were to be channelized. The disinvestment policy has a clear objective of improving the quality of assets and skills of public sector companies. At present the Department of Disinvestment has been renamed as Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM). DIPAM deals with all matters relating to management of Central Government investments in equity including disinvestment of equity in Central Public Sector Undertakings. The Four major areas of its work relate to Strategic Disinvestment, Minority Stake Sales, Asset Monetisation and Capital Restructuring. It also deals with all matters relating to sale of Central Government equity through offer for sale or private placement or any other mode in the erstwhile Central Public Sector Undertakings. DIPAM is working as one of the Departments under the Ministry of Finance.

Explanation:

• Minimum Support Price promotes food security as well as ensures minimum fixed price for the farmers’ produce. It encourages farmers to increase agricultural production. The farmers will sell their produce to the government only if market price is below the MSP. Therefore, the purpose of MSP is to provide minimum fixed value of the produce to the farmer and not to increase the profit. MSP helps in food security because MSP is the basis of determining procurement prices for the PDS which helps in the food security.

Explanation:

• As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules 2018, a fixed-term employment workman is a workman who has been engaged on the basis of a written contract of employment for a fixed period. It also states that no workman employed on fixed-term employment basis as a result of non-renewal of contract or employment or on its expiry shall be entitled to any notice or pay in lieu thereof, if his services are terminated. Hence, fixed-term employment for all sectors will make it easier for firms/ companies to hire-and-fire workers along with reducing the role of middlemen. According to the aforesaid Rules, no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman whether monthly rated, weekly rated or piece rated and probationers or badly workmen. Therefore, both of the given statements are correct.

Explanation:

• The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to improve working conditions of labour in British India. The Act prohibited the employment of children under the age of seven, limited the number of working hours for children below the age of twelve and required the proper fencing of dangerous machinery. It had not provisions of fixing the wages or formation of trade unions. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct as Narayan Meghaj Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India. He is considered as father of trade union movement in India. He is remembered not only for ameliorating the working conditions of textile mill-hands in the 19th century but also for his courageous initiatives on caste and communal issues.

Explanation:

• Option D is correct: The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), also known as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MNREGS) is Indian legislation enacted on August 25, 2005. The MGNREGA provides a legal guarantee for one hundred days of employment in every financial year to adult members of any rural household willing to do public work-related unskilled manual work at the statutory minimum wage. The Ministry of Rural Development (MRD), Govt of India is monitoring the entire implementation of this scheme in association with state governments. This act was introduced with an aim of improving the purchasing power of the rural people, primarily semi or un-skilled work to people living below poverty line in rural India. It attempts to bridge the gap between the rich and poor in the country. Roughly one-third of the stipulated work force must be women.
• Adult members of rural households submit their name, age and address with photo to the Gram Panchayat. The Gram Panchayat registers households after making enquiry and issues a job card.
• The job card contains the details of adult member enrolled and his /her photo. Registered person can submit an application for work in writing (for at least fourteen days of continuous work) either to Panchayat or to Programme Office The Panchayat/Programme officer will accept the valid application and issue dated receipt of application, letter providing work will be sent to the applicant and also displayed at Panchayat office. The employment will be provided within a radius of 5 km: if it is above 5 km extra wage will be paid. Eligibility Criteria
• Must be Citizen of India to seek MGNREGA benefits.
• Job seeker has completed 18 years of age at the time of application.
• The applicant must be part of a local household (i.e. application must be made with local Gram Panchayat).
• Applicant must volunteer for unskilled labour. Key facts
• MGNREGA guarantees hundred days of wage employment in a financial year, to a rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. Individual beneficiary-oriented works can be taken up on the cards of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, small or marginal farmers or beneficiaries of land reforms or beneficiaries under the Indira Awaas Yojana of the Government of India. Within 15 days of submitting the application or from the day work is demanded, wage employment will be provided to the applicant. Right to get unemployment allowance in case employment is not provided within fifteen days of submitting the application or from the date when work is sought.
• Receipt of wages within fifteen days of work done.
• Variety of permissible works which can be taken up by the Gram Panchayaths.
• MGNREGA focuses on the economic and social empowerment of women.
• MGNREGA provides “Green” and “Decent” work.
• Social Audit of MGNREGA works is mandatory, which lends to accountability and transparency.
• MGNREGA works address the climate change vulnerability and protect the farmers from such risks and conserve natural resources.
• The Gram Sabha is the principal forum for wage seekers to raise their voices and make demands.
• It is the Gram Sabha and the Gram Panchayat which approves the shelf of works under MGNREGA and fix their priority.

Explanation:

• To join the Electronic National Agriculture Market (E-NAM) portal, states are required to carry out specific reforms in their Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act. Those are three reforms include the implementation of a single trading license that is valid across the state, a single point levy of market fee across the state, and the provision for e-auction/e-trading as a mode of price discovery. These conditions are designed to facilitate a more integrated and efficient national market for agricultural commodities, leveraging the physical infrastructure of mandis through an online trading platform to enhance transparency and competitiveness in agricultural marketing.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the CACP does not ignore international market trends; in fact, one of the critical factors it considers in recommending MSPs includes price trends in both domestic and international markets. This comprehensive approach helps ensure that the recommended MSPs are competitive and fair, considering the broader context of global agricultural markets.
• Statement 2 is correct. The likely impact of MSP on consumers is indeed an important consideration for the CACP. This is because MSPs, while aimed at ensuring fair prices to farmers, can have broader economic implications, including on general price levels and inflation. By considering the potential implications on consumers, the CACP aims to balance the needs of farmers with those of the wider economy, ensuring that the MSPs do not lead to disproportionately high food prices for consumers.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect because the APMC Acts do not directly facilitate transactions between farmers and end-consumers. Instead, they regulate the sale of agricultural produce by requiring that the first sale of commodities produced in the region occur within APMC-regulated market areas (mandis), through commission agents licensed by the APMCs. This can sometimes result in the involvement of middlemen, contrary to the aim of improving farmers’ income by bypassing them.
• Statement 2 is correct and highlights a salient feature of the APMC Act that mandates traders to acquire a license to operate within a Mandi. This licensing requirement, including the necessity of owning a shop or warehouse in the Mandi, aims to regulate the trading practices within these market areas, ensuring that transactions are traceable and that the infrastructure supports trade activities.
• Statement 3 is correct as describes the regulatory framework of the APMC Acts, which stipulates that the first sale of a broad range of agricultural commodities must be conducted within the confines of APMC mandis. The act covers a wide array of products, and the price discovery through auctioning within these mandis is designed to potentially provide farmers with competitive prices for their produce.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect because e-NAM is not intended to replace the physical mandi system but rather to augment it by providing an online trading platform that links existing APMC mandis. This digital integration aims to expand the market for farmers’ produce beyond local buyers, without eliminating the infrastructure and functionality of physical mandis.
• Statement 2 is correct, highlighting one of e-NAM’s key features: facilitating inter-state trade by allowing traders from across the country to bid online. The highest bidder wins the right to purchase the produce, with the stipulation that the payment is directly made to the farmer’s account. This ensures transparency and timely payment to the farmer before the physical commodity is handed over to the trader
• Statement 3 is correct as It states the current process for farmers wishing to sell their produce via e-NAM. Farmers are required to bring their produce to designated locations such as APMC mandis, FPO collection centers, or WDRA registered warehouses, which are integrated with the e-NAM platform. This ensures that the physical verification of the produce can occur, even as the sale and bidding process is handled online.

Explanation:

Ratooning:

• Ratooning is an intensive cropping method where the stubbles of the original crop are allowed to regrow after harvesting, producing another crop.
• Commonly used for sugarcane, rice, and certain other crops.

Benefits:

• Maximizing Yield: Ratooning allows farmers to obtain additional harvests from the same crop without replanting.
• Reduced Labor and Costs: Since the crop is already established, less labor and resources are needed for replanting.
• Sustainable Land Use: Ratooning optimizes land use by utilizing existing plant material.

Crop Rotation:

• Crop rotation involves changing the type of crops grown in a field each season or each year. For instance, planting maize one year and beans the next.

Benefits:

• Pest and Disease Control: Different crops attract different pests and diseases. By rotating crops, farmers can reduce the buildup of specific pests and pathogens.
• Nutrient Management: Different crops have varying nutrient requirements. Crop rotation helps maintain soil fertility by preventing nutrient depletion.
• Weed Suppression: Rotating crops disrupts weed cycles, reducing weed pressure.
• Improved Soil Structure: Different crops have different root structures, which can enhance soil health.
• Sustainability: Crop rotation promotes sustainable agriculture by maintaining soil health and reducing reliance on synthetic inputs.

Mixed Farming:

• Mixed farming integrates various agricultural activities on a single farm to meet multiple needs.
• Components may include crop production, livestock rearing, poultry, fisheries, beekeeping, etc.

Objectives:

• Subsistence: Meeting the farmer’s family needs (food, fodder, etc.) through diverse activities.
• Profitability: Generating income from various sources (selling crops, milk, eggs, etc.).
• Ecological Balance: Ensuring that farming practices do not harm the environment.
• Monocropping or monoculture refers to a farming system where only one type of crop is grown on a piece of land year after year.
• Examples: Common examples include growing wheat or corn in areas where irrigation facilities are limited.

Advantages:

• Simplicity: Monocropping simplifies farm management since only one crop is involved.
• Specialization: Farmers can specialize in growing a specific crop.
• Efficient Equipment Use: Equipment can be optimized for a single crop.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect as it describes the initiative’s launch aimed at revitalizing India’s manufacturing sector, setting the foundational goal. The Make in India focuses on Service sectors also along with Manufacturing.
• Statement 2 is correct as the primary objectives, including significant growth in manufacturing output, increased share in GDP, and substantial job creation, reflecting the ambitious targets of the initiative.
• Statement 3 is correct as it identifies key hurdles such as labor productivity issues and outdated labor laws that challenge the initiative’s success.
• Statement 4 is correct as it addresses concerns over the source of foreign investments and the limitations faced by small industrial units in scaling and modernization.
• Statement 5 is correct as the Increase in the share of manufacturing in country’s GDP from 15% to 25% by 2025

Related Information:

• India ranks 63rd in the World Bank’s Doing Business Report (DBR), 2020 published in October, 2019 before its discontinuation by the World Bank. India’s rank in the DBR improved from 142^nd in 2014 to 63^rdin 2019, registering a jump of 79 ranks in a span of 5 years.Top of Form

Make in India

• Govt. of India launched the “Make in India” campaign in Sept. 2014 which is the first of its kind for the manufacturing sector as it addresses areas of regulation, infrastructure, skill development, technology, availability of finance, exit mechanism and other pertinent factors
• It contains a vast number of proposals including easier norms and rules designed to get foreign companies to set up shop and make the country a manufacturing powerhouse
• Since its launch, ‘Make in India’ initiative has made significant achievements and presently focuses on 27 sectors under Make in India 2.0. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade is coordinating action plans for manufacturing sectors (15), while Department of Commerce is coordinating service sectors (12).

The main targets under the scheme are:

• Increase in manufacturing sector growth to 12-14% per annum
• Increase in the share of manufacturing in country’s GDP from 15% to 25% by 2025
• Create 100 million additional jobs by 2022 in manufacturing sector
• Increase in domestic value addition and technological depth in manufacturing

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct as Industry 4.0 is defined by its focus on the digitization and integration of vertical and horizontal value chains, creating smart factories.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect, The Third Industrial Revolution was characterized by the use of electronics and information technology to automate production, not specifically digitizing the manufacturing sector.

Related Information:

First Industrial Revolution (1765):

• Initiated in Britain with the mechanization of the textile industry.
• Introduction of factories replacing laborious handwork.
• Mechanization led to the mass extraction of coal and invention of the steam engine.

Second Industrial Revolution (1870):

• Introduction of electricity, gas, and oil as new energy sources.
• Development of the combustion engine, telegraph, and telephone.
• Advancements in transportation with automobiles and airplanes.

Third Industrial Revolution (1969):

• Introduction of electronics and information technology.
• High-level automation in production with automatons and robots.

Fourth Industrial Revolution (Industry 4.0): Present:

• Focused on digitalization and the integration of physical and digital worlds.
• Emphasizes end-to-end digitization and integration into digital ecosystems.
• Utilizes big data, computing power, artificial intelligence, and analytics.
• Aims to digitize the manufacturing sector with advanced robotics and cyber-physical systems.
• Creates “smart factories” with digitally connected machines that make autonomous decisions.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct because the primary objective of the PLI Scheme is indeed to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in domestic production, aiming to make Indian manufacturers globally competitive.
• Statement 2 is also Correct as the scheme incentivizes companies based on the incremental sales of products that are manufactured within India, encouraging both domestic and international companies to produce more in India.
• Statement 3 is also correct as it outlines the incentive mechanism of the scheme, offering a 4% to 7% incentive on incremental sales over a specified base year for a duration of five years, encouraging companies to increase their production output and sales.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct as the PM MITRA scheme specifically aims to bolster the textile industry by establishing parks that facilitate the entire textiles value chain, from spinning and weaving to garment manufacturing, in one location.
• Statement 2 is correct as it describes the governance structure for these parks, with a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) owned jointly by the central and respective state governments responsible for overseeing the scheme’s implementation, ensuring effective coordination and management.
• Statement 3 is correct as it is implied in the scheme’s objectives, as one of the key benefits of creating an integrated textile value chain at a single location is the significant reduction in logistics costs, making the industry more competitive both domestically and globally.

Explanation:

• The MSME SAMADHAAN portal is specifically designed to address the issue of delayed payments to Micro and Small Enterprises (MSEs). By monitoring these delays and facilitating the resolution of disputes through the Micro and Small Enterprise Facilitation Council (MSEFC), the portal aims to ensure timely payments to MSEs, thereby improving their liquidity and operational efficiency. This initiative underlines the government’s commitment to protecting the interests of MSEs and supporting their growth by ensuring fair business practices.

Explanation:

• The TReDS platform is an innovative electronic platform designed to improve the cash flow of MSMEs by facilitating the financing or discounting of their trade receivables. By allowing MSME sellers to discount invoices raised against major corporations, including Government Departments and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), the platform addresses the critical issue of working capital management for MSMEs, enabling them to receive payments quicker and thus sustain their operations more effectively.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is Incorrect, the new standing order requirement under the Code on Industrial Relations 2020 applies to industrial establishments with 300 or more employees, not 50.
• Statement 2 is Correct, A significant provision of this code includes new specifications for carrying out a legal strike, requiring workers to follow specific timelines for arbitration and conciliation processes before engaging in a valid strike.

Explanation:

• The Open-Ended Procurement Policy, which mandates the Food Corporation of India (FCI) to purchase wheat and paddy offered by farmers at the Minimum Support Price (MSP) without any limit, poses a significant challenge due to the financial implications of unlimited procurement. This policy leads to higher procurement of rice and wheat, resulting in an elevated economic cost of these food grains and consequently, a higher food subsidy bill. This challenge is critical as it impacts the fiscal sustainability of food security efforts and can affect the allocation of resources to other essential agricultural or social programs.

Explanation:

• The main objectives of the New Industrial Policy, 1991, are LPG – Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization, increasing the FDI ceiling to 51% in selected sectors.

Explanation:

• Priority Sector means those sectors which the Government of India and Reserve Bank of India consider as important for the development of the basic needs of the country and are to be given priority over other sectors. The banks are mandated to encourage the growth of such sectors with adequate and timely credit.
• Priority Sector includes the following categories:
  • (i) Agriculture
  • (ii) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
  • (iii) Export Credit
  • (iv) Education
  • (v) Housing
  • (vi) Social Infrastructure
  • (vii) Renewable Energy
  • (viii) Others
• Targets Under the Priority Sector Lending
  • Domestic scheduled commercial banks (excluding Regional Rural Banks and Small Finance Banks) and Foreign banks with 20 branches and above: 40 percent of Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Regional Rural Banks & Small finance banks: 75 percent of Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher.
  • Foreign banks with less than 20 branches: 40 percent of Adjusted Net Bank Credit or Credit Equivalent Amount of Off-Balance Sheet Exposure, whichever is higher, to be achieved in a phased manner by 2020.
  • Sub-targets are specified for certain sectors like 18% to agriculture with 8% to small and marginal farmers, 7.5% to micro units etc.
• Adjusted Net Bank Credit is the net bank credit plus investments made by banks in non-SLR bonds held in the held-to-maturity category.
• Payment banks are the new age banks with limited facilities. It exists in between the mobile wallet and regular banks.
• Payment banks cannot lend or offer credit advance to customers like traditional banks. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Explanation:

• Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme is a central sector scheme operated by Small Farmers AgriBusiness Consortium (SFAC) through lending institutions.
• The Credit Guarantee Fund has been set up with the primary objective of providing a Credit Guarantee Cover to Eligible Lending Institutions (ELI’s) which are providing collateral free loans to Farmer Producer Companies.

About SFAC

• The Government established the Small Farmers’ Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC) as a Society in 1994 to facilitate agri-business ventures by catalyzing private investment through Venture Capital Assistance (VCA) Scheme in close association with financial institutions.
• The main functions of SFAC are:
  • Promotion of development of small agribusiness through VCA scheme;
  • Helping formation and growth of Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) / Farmer Producer Companies (FPCs);
  • Improving availability of working capital and development of business activities of FPOs/FPCs through Equity Grant and Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme;
  • Implementation of National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) Electronic Trading platform.

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct.

• Mixed farming is a type of farming which involves both the growing of crops and the raising of livestock.
• Mixed farms are moderate in size and usually the crops associated with it are wheat, barley, oats, rye, maize, fodder and root crops. Fodder crops are an important component of mixed farming.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Mixed farming is characterized by high capital expenditure on farm machinery building, extensive use of chemical fertilizers and green manures and also by the skill and expertise of the farmers.

Explanation:

Key Benefits of DBT:

• Reduces corruption and leakages
• Enhances efficiency and speed of subsidy delivery
• Promotes financial inclusion through bank accounts
• Improves targeting of beneficiaries
• Prevents fraud and misuse of funds

Explanation:

Industrial development in India faces several challenges, including:

• Lack of savings to invest: Many industries struggle with capital shortages, limiting their growth and expansion.
• Lack of technology, skills, and infrastructure: Outdated technology, inadequate workforce skills, and poor infrastructure hinder industrial efficiency and competitiveness.
• Limited purchasing power among the larger masses: Low per capita income and economic inequality reduce demand for industrial goods, affecting market expansion.