GEOGRAPHY Test 6 20-03-2026 Geography Test 6 1 / 30 1) Consider the following minerals: Iron Chromium Gold IV. Manganese Nickel How many of the above are classified as ferrous metallic minerals? Only two Only three Only four All five Explanation: Ferrous minerals are metallic minerals that contain iron or are commonly alloyed with iron. Iron – A primary ferrous mineral. Chromium – Alloyed with iron to make stainless steel; classified as ferrous. Gold – A non-ferrous metallic mineral; not related to iron alloys. Manganese – Used in steel production; grouped under ferrous minerals. Nickel – Commonly alloyed with iron; classified as ferrous. Metallic Minerals – Contain metals. Ferrous: Iron, manganese, chromium (used in steel), Nickel. Non-ferrous: Copper, gold, silver, zinc (used in electrical and industrial sectors). Non-Metallic Minerals – Do not contain metals. Structural materials: Sa3nd, stone, gravel. Industrial materials: Phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, asbestos, abrasives. Precious Minerals – Gemstones used mainly for ornamental purposes. Energy Minerals – Used for power generation: Coal, petroleum, natural gas, uranium. Source: Ignou 2 / 30 2) Consider the following statements regarding Iron Ore in India: India has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia. Haematite and magnetite are the two main types of iron ore found in India. Nearly 95% of India’s iron ore reserves are located in northern and western India. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: India possesses the largest iron ore reserves in Asia and has high-quality ore with strong international demand. Statement 2 – Correct: The two principal types of iron ore found in India are haematite and magnetite. Statement 3 – Incorrect: About 95% of total iron ore reserves are located in Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Goa, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu, mainly in the northeastern plateau region, not predominantly in northern and western India. Additional Information Iron ore mines are located near coal fields, giving logistical advantages to the iron and steel industry. Major belts include Odisha-Jharkhand belt, Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt, Ballari-Chitradurga- Chikkamagaluru belt, and Maharashtra-Goa belt. 3 / 30 3) An important mineral in India is widely used in the smelting of iron ore and in the manufacture of ferro-alloys. Although its deposits occur in various geological formations, it is primarily associated with the Dharwar system. The leading producers of this mineral include Madhya Pradesh and Odisha, with major mining areas located in districts such as Bonai, Kendujhar and Sundergarh. Which one of the following minerals is being described? Chromite Bauxite Manganese Hematite Explanation: Manganese is a crucial raw material in: Smelting of iron ore Manufacture of ferro-alloys It is mainly associated with the Dharwar geological system, one of the oldest rock systems in India. Madhya Pradesh and Odisha are leading producers. Major manganese mining belts in Odisha include: Bonai Kendujhar Sundergarh Gangpur Koraput Kalahandi Bolangir 4 / 30 4) Consider the following pairs regarding types of iron ore: Iron Ore Characteristic I. Haematite Iron content about 60–70% II. Magnetite Contains more than 70% iron and has magnetic properties III. Limonite Hydrated iron oxide with 40–60% iron content IV. Siderite Iron carbonate with 20–40% iron content How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Haematite is reddish (red-ochre) in colour and contains about 60–70% iron. It forms the bulk of India’s iron ore reserves. Hence, Pair I is correct. Magnetite is the best quality iron ore with more than 70% iron content. It is dark brown to black in colour and possesses magnetic properties. Hence, Pair II is correct. Limonite is a yellow or light brown ore, known as hydrated iron oxide, with iron content ranging from 40–60%. Hence, Pair III is correct. Siderite is an inferior variety, called iron carbonate, containing about 20–40% iron. Hence, Pair IV is correct. 5 / 30 5) With reference to mica in India, consider the following statements: Mica can be split into very thin sheets which are tough and flexible. Jharkhand is known for producing high quality mica from the lower Hazaribagh plateau region. The mica belt in Rajasthan extends for about 150 km from Jaipur to Bhilwara. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All the three None Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. Mica can be split into very thin sheets which are tough and flexible, making it useful in electrical and electronic industries. Statement 2: Correct. High quality mica in Jharkhand is obtained from a belt in the lower Hazaribagh plateau (about 150 km long and 22 km wide). Statement 3: Incorrect. The Rajasthan mica belt extends for about 320 km, not 150 km, from Jaipur to Bhilwara and around Udaipur. Mica Used mainly in electrical and electronic industries. Can be split into thin, tough and flexible sheets (good insulator). Major Producing States Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan Followed by Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh Important Belts Jharkhand – Lower Hazaribagh plateau (150 km long, 22 km wide). Andhra Pradesh – Nellore (best quality mica). Rajasthan – 320 km belt from Jaipur to Bhilwara and Udaipur. Other Areas Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal. 6 / 30 6) With reference to Indian coal, consider the following statements: Most Indian coal is of Gondwana origin. Indian coal has high ash and low sulphur content. Indian coal generally has low ash fusion temperature. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All the three None Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. Over 98% of India’s coal reserves belong to the Gondwana period. These deposits are mainly found in eastern and central India and form the bulk of commercial coal production. Statement 2: Correct.: Indian coal is characterized by: High ash content (20–45%), which lowers calorific value and makes it relatively inferior compared to global coal standards. Low sulphur content (0.5–1%), which reduces sulphur dioxide emissions and makes it relatively eco-friendlier. Statement 3: Incorrect.: Gondwana coal typically has a high ash fusion temperature (often above 1400°C). High ash fusion temperature means ash does not melt easily at high temperatures. This makes the coal refractory in nature and suitable for certain industrial uses. Hence, Indian coal does not generally have low ash fusion temperature. 7 / 30 7) Consider the following products: I. Fertilisers II. Synthetic rubber III. Synthetic fibre IV. Lubricants V. Vaseline VI. Cosmetics How many of the above are products of petrochemical industries? Only three Only four Only five All six Explanation: Petrochemical industries process crude petroleum and natural gas to manufacture a wide range of by-products. These include: Fertilisers (e.g., urea from natural gas) Synthetic rubber Synthetic fibres (nylon, polyester) Lubricants Vaseline (petroleum jelly) Cosmetics Petroleum Crude petroleum consists of liquid and gaseous hydrocarbons. Main source of energy for internal combustion engines (automobiles, railways, aircraft). Called “Liquid Gold” due to scarcity and diversified uses. Occurs in sedimentary rocks of the Tertiary period. Systematic exploration began after Oil and Natural Gas Commission (ONGC) was set up in 1956. Major Oil Fields in India Region Important Oilfields Assam Digboi, Naharkatiya, Moran Gujarat Ankleshwar, Kalol, Mehsana, Nawagam, Kosamba, Lunej Offshore Mumbai High (Discovered 1973; Production 1976) East Coast Krishna–Godavari Basin, Kaveri Basin Refining Crude oil contains impurities → must be refined. Type of Refinery Example Field-based Digboi Market-based Barauni 8 / 30 8) Consider the following pairs: State Uranium Deposit Region I. Meghalaya Mahadek Basin II. Jharkhand Singhbhum Shear Zone III. Karnataka Cuddapah Basin How many of the above pairs are incorrectly matched? Only one Only two All the three None Explanation: Let us examine each pair: Pair I: Meghalaya – Mahadek Basin (Correct) Uranium deposits in Meghalaya occur in the Mahadek Basin, mainly in sedimentary formations. Pair II: Jharkhand – Singhbhum Shear Zone (Correct) Jharkhand hosts major uranium deposits in the Singhbhum Shear Zone, one of India’s most important uranium-bearing regions. Pair III: Karnataka – Cuddapah Basin (Incorrect) Karnataka uranium deposits are located in the Bhima Basin, not in the Cuddapah Basin. State-wise Distribution of Uranium Resources (U₃O₈) State / Region Geological Area Share in India’s Uranium Resources Andhra Pradesh South Cuddapah Basin ~49% Jharkhand Singhbhum Shear Zone ~26% Meghalaya Mahadek Basin ~9% Rajasthan North Delhi Fold Belt Part of remaining share Karnataka Bhima Basin Part of remaining share Telangana North Cuddapah Basin Part of remaining share 9 / 30 9) Ilmenite and rutile, which are abundantly found in certain coastal regions of India, are major sources of which of the following? Aluminium Copper Iron Titanium Explanation: Ilmenite (FeO·TiO₂) and Rutile (TiO₂) are the principal ores of titanium. These heavy minerals are commonly found in beach sand deposits along India’s coastline, extending from Saurashtra in the west to Digha in the east. Significant concentrations of these minerals occur in the following coastal zones: Chavara Deposits – Situated between Neendakara and Kayamkulam in Kollam district, Kerala. Manavalakurichi (MK) Deposits – Located between the Valliyar River mouth and Colachel in Kanyakumari district, Tamil Nadu. OSCOM Deposits – Found along the Chatrapur coast in Ganjam district, Odisha, between the Rushikulya River mouth and Gopalpur lighthouse. Brahmagiri Deposits – Spread across parts of Puri district, Odisha, from Girala Nala to Bhabunia village. Bhavanapadu Coast – Extends between Nilarevu and Sandipeta in Srikakulam district, Andhra Pradesh. 10 / 30 10) With reference to Asbestos, consider the following statements: Chrysotile is a fibrous variety of serpentine and accounts for the majority of commercially used asbestos. Asbestos is valued for its high tensile strength and resistance to fire. Asbestos cement sheets and pipes are used in building construction. India’s asbestos production is mainly concentrated in Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: Chrysotile, a fibrous variety of serpentine, accounts for nearly 80% of commercially used asbestos. Statement 2 – Correct: Asbestos has high tensile strength and excellent resistance to fire, which gives it significant commercial value. Statement 3 – Correct: Asbestos cement products such as sheets, pipes, and tiles are widely used in construction. Statement 4 – Correct: Rajasthan (largest producer) and Andhra Pradesh account for most of India’s asbestos production. 11 / 30 11) Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Permanent wind systems such as the trade winds and westerlies, as well as seasonal winds like the monsoon, can be harnessed for generating wind energy. Statement-II: Local winds such as land and sea breezes are not suitable for electricity generation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Explanation: Statement-I: Correct Permanent wind systems like the trade winds and westerlies blow consistently over large parts of the Earth due to global pressure differences. Seasonal winds such as the monsoon provide strong and predictable wind flow during specific months. These steady and strong wind currents are ideal for running large wind turbines, which convert the kinetic energy of moving air into electrical energy. Many wind farms are strategically located in areas where such wind systems operate effectively. Hence, Statement-I is correct. Statement-II: Incorrect Local winds, including land and sea breezes, are caused by differential heating of land and water. Though they are smaller in scale compared to permanent wind systems, they still produce usable wind speeds. Coastal regions, where sea breezes are regular, can utilize these winds for electricity generation. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that local winds are not suitable for electricity generation. Hence, Statement-II is incorrect. 12 / 30 12) The rivers that provide water to the Tata Iron and Steel plant are Damodar and Subarnarekha Ganga and Son Subarnarekha and Kharkai Mahanadi and Brahmani Explanation: The Tata Iron and Steel plant (TISCO) at Jamshedpur receives its water supply from the Subarnarekha and Kharkai rivers. These rivers ensure a continuous supply of water required for industrial processes in the steel plant. TISCO (Tata Iron and Steel Company) – Jamshedpur One of the oldest and largest integrated steel plants in India. Located at Jamshedpur (Jharkhand). Situated close to the Mumbai–Kolkata railway line, ensuring efficient transport connectivity. Approximately 240 km from Kolkata Port, the nearest major port for export of steel. Water Supply Water is supplied by the rivers: Subarnarekha River Kharkai River Raw Material Sources Iron Ore: Noamundi Badam Pahar Coal: Joda mines (Odisha) Coking Coal: Jharia Coalfield West Bokaro Coalfield Location Advantage Proximity to raw materials (iron ore and coal). Availability of water supply. Good railway connectivity. Nearness to Kolkata port for export. 13 / 30 13) Consider the following pairs : Steel Plant Collaboration Country I. Rourkela Steel Plant Germany II. Bhilai Steel Plant Russia III. Durgapur Steel Plant United Kingdom How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: I. Rourkela Steel Plant – Germany : Rourkela Steel Plant was established in 1959 in Sundargarh district of Odisha with German collaboration. II. Bhilai Steel Plant – Russia : Bhilai Steel Plant was set up in 1959 in Durg district of Chhattisgarh with Russian collaboration. III. Durgapur Steel Plant – United Kingdom : Durgapur Steel Plant was established in 1962 in collaboration with the United Kingdom. Plant State Collaboration Iron Ore Source Coal Source Power Source Rourkela Odisha Germany Sundargarh, Kendujhar Jharia Hirakud Project Bhilai Chhattisgarh Russia Dalli-Rajhara Korba, Kargali Korba Thermal Durgapur West Bengal UK Noamundi Raniganj, Jharia DVC 14 / 30 14) With reference to the development of the cotton textile industry in India, consider the following statements: In ancient and medieval times, it functioned mainly as a cottage industry. India was famous for muslin, calicos and chintz. The industry developed partly because cotton is suitable for hot and humid climates. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. In ancient and medieval India, cotton textile production was primarily a cottage industry carried out by skilled artisans. Statement 2: Correct. India was globally renowned for fine cotton varieties such as muslin, calicos and chintz. Statement 3: Correct. India’s tropical climate made cotton the most suitable and comfortable fabric, encouraging the growth of this industry. 15 / 30 15) Consider the following statements: I. Sugar factories are generally located within sugarcane-producing regions because sugarcane is a weight-losing crop and needs to be crushed within 24 hours of harvesting. II. Maharashtra produces more than one-third of India’s total sugar production and has 119 sugar mills, of which 87 are in the cooperative sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? I only II only Both I and II Neither I nor II Explanation: Statement I: Correct. Sugarcane is a weight-losing crop as only about 9–12% of it is recoverable as sugar. Moreover, its sucrose content starts deteriorating after harvesting, and better recovery depends on crushing within 24 hours. Therefore, sugar mills are located close to cane-producing regions to minimise transport time and loss of sugar content. Statement II: Correct. Maharashtra is a leading sugar-producing state, contributing more than one-third of India’s total sugar production. The state has 119 sugar mills located in a narrow belt from Manmad (north) to Kolhapur (south), and 87 of these mills are in the cooperative sector, highlighting the strong cooperative movement in the state. 16 / 30 16) With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of the sugar industry, consider the following statements: Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. Bagasse is the fibrous residue left after extracting juice from sugarcane. It is widely used as a biomass fuel in sugar mills for generating heat and electricity (cogeneration). It is also used in paper and board manufacturing and sometimes as cattle feed. Statement 2: Correct. Molasses, a thick syrup obtained during sugar refining, serves as a feedstock in various industrial processes, including the production of chemicals and certain fertilizers through fermentation-based industries. Statement 3: Correct. Molasses is a major raw material for ethanol production. It is widely used in distilleries for manufacturing ethanol and alcoholic beverages. 17 / 30 17) With reference to Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India, consider the following statements: The SEZ policy was introduced in April 2000 to promote exports and investment. Asia’s first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) was set up at Kandla in 1965. The SEZ Act, 2005 came into force in February 2006. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only NONE Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. The Special Economic Zone Policy of India was introduced in April 2000 to promote exports, attract domestic and foreign investment, generate employment, and develop infrastructure. Statement 2: Correct. Asia’s first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) was established at Kandla in 1965. Statement 3: Correct. The Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 was passed in 2005 and came into effect on 10 February 2006 along with the SEZ Rules. SEZs in India 1965: Asia’s first EPZ set up at Kandla (Gujarat). SEZ Policy introduced: April 2000. 8 EPZs converted into SEZs (Kandla, Surat, Mumbai, Cochin, Chennai, Visakhapatnam, Falta, Noida). SEZ Act, 2005 passed; effective from 10 February 2006. As of 31 March 2024: 280 operational SEZs. Incentives & Key Rules Duty-free import and domestic procurement for authorised operations. No import licence required. Manufacturing and services both allowed. Income Tax Exemption (Section 10AA): 100% for first 5 years 50% for next 5 years 50% of reinvested export profits for next 5 years GST exemption (Zero-rated supplies under IGST Act, 2017). Single-window clearance system. Subcontracting permitted. No routine customs inspection of cargo. Must maintain Positive Net Foreign Exchange (NFE) over 5 years. Domestic sales allowed but subject to full customs duty. MAT (Minimum Alternate Tax) applicable. 2025 Reforms (Semiconductor & Electronics Focus) Rule 5 amended: Minimum land requirement reduced from 50 hectares to 10 hectares for semiconductor/electronics SEZs. Rule 18 amended: Domestic sales permitted with applicable duties. Rule 7 amended: SEZ Board can waive encumbrance-free land requirement in specific cases. 18 / 30 18) Consider the following minerals: I. Lithium II. Cobal III. Nickel IV. Rare Earth Elements (REE) V. Silicon VI. Gold How many of the above are included in the 2023 notified list of Critical Minerals by the Government of India? Only three Only four Only five All six Explanation: Lithium – Correct: Included; crucial for EV batteries, ceramics and lubricants. Cobalt – Correct: Included; important for EV batteries and aerospace alloys. Nickel – Correct: Included; used in stainless steel, batteries and defence applications. Rare Earth Elements (REE) – Correct: Included; vital for magnets, electronics, defence and renewable energy. Silicon – Correct: Included; essential for semiconductors and electronics. Gold – Incorrect: Gold is not part of the 2023 notified list of 30 Critical Minerals. Critical Minerals Definition: Minerals essential for national security, economic growth, and advanced technologies with high supply risk. Criticality Criteria: High economic importance High risk of supply disruption Often occur as by-products of major minerals. Processing and refining highly concentrated globally (≈40% of Cobalt, Lithium, REE refining in China). Coking Coal – Key Facts India reserves: ~37.37 billion tonnes Major state: Jharkhand Imports: 51.20 MT (2020–21) → 57.58 MT (2024–25) ~95% of steel sector requirement met through imports Significance of Inclusion: Promotes domestic exploration Reduces import dependence Strengthens steel and infrastructure sector Enhances industrial security Major Applications Energy: Lithium, Cobalt → EV batteries Electronics: Semiconductors, LEDs, microchips Defence: Titanium in fighter jets, submarines Medical: MRI, implants Space: Beryllium in satellites 19 / 30 19) With reference to classification of roads in India, consider the following statements: National Highways are constructed and maintained by the Central Government through NHAI. The Golden Quadrilateral connects Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata. The East–West Corridor connects Srinagar and Kanyakumari. How many of the statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. National Highways are constructed and maintained by the Central Government through NHAI. Statement 2: Correct. The Golden Quadrilateral links Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata. Statement 3: Incorrect. The East–West Corridor connects Silcher (Assam) and Porbandar (Gujarat). Srinagar to Kanyakumari is the North–South Corridor. National Highways in India National Highways (NHs) constitute about 2% of the total road network of India but carry over 40% of the total road traffic, making them the most crucial arterial routes of the country. They are constructed and maintained by the Central Government, primarily through the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI). NH 44 is the longest National Highway in India, running from Srinagar to Kanyakumari. Major Highway Development Projects Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways Connects the four major metropolitan cities: Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai – Mumbai. Built as six-lane (or more) super highways to enhance connectivity and economic growth. North–South Corridor Connects Srinagar (Jammu & Kashmir) to Kanyakumari (Tamil Nadu). East–West Corridor Connects Silchar (Assam) to Porbandar (Gujarat). 20 / 30 20) With reference to the Border Roads Organisation (BRO), consider the following statements: It was established in 1960. It functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs. It was created to strengthen defence preparedness along northern and north-eastern boundaries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Explanation: Statement 1 and 3 is correct, The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) was established in 1960 to improve strategically important roads along India’s northern and north-eastern borders for defence preparedness. Statement 2 is Incorrect, It functions under the Ministry of Defence, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Border Roads Organisation (BRO) Established: 1960 Established to strengthen defence preparedness by developing and maintaining strategically important roads. Focuses on roads along the northern and north-eastern boundaries of India. Plays a critical role in connectivity in difficult terrains such as the Himalayas and border areas. Works under the Border Roads Organisation. Functions under the Ministry of Defence. 21 / 30 21) With reference to India’s plastic roads initiative, consider the following statements: NHAI mandates the use of waste plastic–mixed bitumen for certain roads. Mixing plastic with bitumen weakens road durability during monsoons. Plastic roads help absorb urban plastic waste into infrastructure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 3 only 2 only 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) mandates the use of waste plastic–mixed bitumen for service roads and selected stretches of highways to promote sustainable road construction. Statement 2: Incorrect. Plastic does not weaken road durability. Instead, mixing waste plastic with bitumen enhances resistance to water seepage during monsoons and improves tolerance to extreme heat, thereby increasing road longevity. Statement 3: Correct. Plastic roads help in utilising urban plastic waste in infrastructure projects, reducing environmental pollution while improving road strength. India’s Plastic Road Initiative The National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) mandates the use of waste plastic–mixed bitumen in: Service roads Select National Highways Significance Plastic strengthens bitumen, making roads: More resistant to monsoon water damage More durable under extreme heat Helps in absorbing urban plastic waste into infrastructure. Converts environmental liability (plastic waste) into durable national assets. This initiative reflects India’s move towards sustainable infrastructure development by integrating waste management with highway construction. 22 / 30 22) Which of the following components are included under Bharatmala Pariyojana? Economic Corridors National Corridor Efficiency Improvement Coastal and Port Connectivity Roads Development of Metro Rail Networks Select the correct answer using the code below: 1, 2 and 3 only 1 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation: Bharatmala Pariyojana includes Economic Corridors, Inter-Corridors, Feeder Routes, National Corridor Efficiency Improvement, border connectivity roads, coastal and port connectivity roads, greenfield expressways, and completion of NHDP works. Metro rail networks are not part of Bharatmala. Hence, 1, 2 and 3 are correct. Bharatmala Pariyojana An umbrella programme for the highways sector. Focuses on optimising freight and passenger movement efficiency. Key components include: Development of Economic Corridors Inter-Corridors and Feeder Routes National Corridor Efficiency Improvement Border and International Connectivity Roads Coastal and Port Connectivity Roads Greenfield Expressways Completion of remaining works under NHDP (National Highways Development Project) Implemented by the Central Government through National Highways Authority of India (NHAI). 23 / 30 23) Consider the following statements regarding the Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFCs) in India: The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor runs from Ludhiana to Dankuni and is largely funded by the World Bank. The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor runs from Dadri to Jawaharlal Nehru Port and is funded by the Japan International Cooperation Agency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Eastern DFC (1,856 km) runs from Ludhiana (Punjab) to Dankuni (West Bengal) and is largely funded by the World Bank. Statement 2 is correct: The Western DFC (1,504 km) runs from Dadri (UP) to Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Maharashtra) and is funded by the Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA). Railway Infrastructure Projects in India ● Dedicated Freight Corridors (DFCs) Dedicated high-capacity freight railway corridors to improve logistics efficiency and decongest passenger routes. Implemented by Dedicated Freight Corridor Corporation of India Limited (DFCCIL) under Indian Railways. 1. Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) Length: 1,856 km Route: Ludhiana (Punjab) to Dankuni (West Bengal) States Covered: Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal Funding: Majority funding by the World Bank Primarily facilitates coal, steel, cement, and foodgrain movement. 2. Western Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC) Length: 1,504 km Route: Dadri (Uttar Pradesh) to Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Maharashtra) States Covered: Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh Funding: Funded by Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA) Boosts connectivity between northern hinterland and western ports. 24 / 30 24) The “Diamond Quadrilateral” project of Indian Railways aims to connect which of the following cities through a high-speed rail network? Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai Mumbai, Chennai, Hyderabad and Kolkata Delhi, Chennai, Hyderabad and Ahmedabad Explanation: The Diamond Quadrilateral is a proposed high-speed rail network connecting India’s four major metropolitan cities: Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai, forming a quadrilateral pattern similar to the Golden Quadrilateral highway network. Diamond Quadrilateral Project Proposed high-speed rail network project of Indian Railways. Aims to connect four mega cities: Delhi Mumbai Kolkata Chennai Designed to replicate the impact of the Golden Quadrilateral highways in the rail sector. Focus: High-speed passenger movement and economic integration. 25 / 30 25) Consider the following pairs regarding Major Sea Ports of India: Port Characteristic 1. Chennai Artificial harbour 2. Paradip Riverine port 3. Visakhapatnam Land-locked harbour 4. Kandla Tidal port How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Chennai – Correct. Chennai Port is an artificial harbour built in 1859. Paradip – Incorrect. Paradip Port is a natural harbour in the Mahanadi delta, not on the Hugli River. The riverine port on the Hugli is Kolkata Port. Visakhapatnam – Correct. Visakhapatnam Port is a land-locked harbour connected to the sea by a channel. Kandla – Correct. Deendayal Port (Kandla) is a tidal port on the Gulf of Kachchh. Major Sea Ports of India Eastern Coast Ports Chennai Port (Tamil Nadu) Artificial harbour built in 1859. Not very suitable for very large ships due to shallow coastal waters. Hinterland: Tamil Nadu and Puducherry. Ennore / Kamarajar Port (Tamil Nadu) Located north of Chennai. Constructed to reduce congestion at Chennai Port. India’s first corporatised port. Important from UPSC perspective (UPSC 2023). Tuticorin / V.O. Chidambaranar Port (Tamil Nadu) Located in the Gulf of Mannar. Developed to reduce pressure on Chennai Port. Deals mainly with fertilisers and petrochemical products. Kolkata / Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port (West Bengal) Located on the Hugli River. It is a riverine port. Major issue: Silt accumulation. Paradip Port (Odisha) Natural harbour located in the Mahanadi delta. Specialises in the export of iron ore. Has the deepest harbour among Indian major ports. Suitable for handling very large vessels. Visakhapatnam Port (Andhra Pradesh) A land-locked natural harbour. Connected to the sea by a channel cut through solid rock. Deals with export of iron ore to Japan. Western Coast Ports Kochi Port (Kerala) Natural harbour. Situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal. Known as the “Queen of the Arabian Sea.” Kandla / Deendayal Port (Gujarat) First port developed after Independence. Called the “Child of Partition” (to reduce load on Mumbai Port). A tidal port located on the Gulf of Kachchh. Had the largest cargo handling capacity (2020–21) among major ports. Mundra Port (Gujarat) Located in the Gulf of Kutch. India’s first private port. Largest privately owned port in India. Important from UPSC perspective (UPSC 2023). Mangalore Port (Karnataka) Caters to the export of iron ore and iron concentrates from Kudremukh mines. 26 / 30 26) With reference to ports on the Eastern Coast of India, consider the following statements: Ennore Port is India’s first corporatised port. Tuticorin Port is located in the Gulf of Mannar. Kolkata Port is a natural harbour with no problem of siltation. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 only 1, 2 and 3 Explanation: Statement 1 is Correct. Kamarajar Port (Ennore) is India’s first corporatised port. Statement 2 is Correct. Tuticorin Port is officially known as V.O. Chidambaranar Port Authority, V.O. Chidambaranar Port is located in the Gulf of Mannar. Statement 3 is Incorrect. Kolkata Port /Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port is a riverine port on the Hugli River and faces heavy silt accumulation. 27 / 30 27) Consider the following pairs regarding National Waterways of India: National Waterway River/Stretch 1. NW-1 Ganga–Bhagirathi–Hooghly (Haldia–Allahabad) 2. NW-2 Brahmaputra (Dhubri–Sadiya) 3. NW-3 Krishna–Godavari River systems 4. NW-4 West Coast Canal, Champakara and Udyogmandal Canals How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: NW-1 – Correct. National Waterway 1 stretches along the Ganga–Bhagirathi–Hooghly river system from Haldia to Allahabad (Prayagraj), covering Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal. NW-2 – Correct. National Waterway 2 runs on the Brahmaputra River from Dhubri to Sadiya, primarily in Assam (with connectivity implications for Meghalaya and Bangladesh). NW-3 – Incorrect. National Waterway 3 is located in Kerala and consists of the West Coast Canal, Champakara Canal and Udyogmandal Canal — not the Krishna–Godavari system. NW-4 – Incorrect. National Waterway 4 covers the Krishna–Godavari river systems in Andhra Pradesh, not the West Coast Canal. Inland Waterways of India Inland waterways provide a cost-effective and eco-friendly mode of transport for bulk cargo. Major waterways are declared as National Waterways (NWs) by the Central Government. National Waterway–1 (NW–1) Length: 1,629 km River System: Ganga–Bhagirathi–Hooghly Stretch: Haldia to Allahabad (Prayagraj) States Covered: Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal One of the most important inland waterways for cargo movement in North India. National Waterway–2 (NW–2) Length: 891 km River: Brahmaputra Stretch: Dhubri to Sadiya States Covered: Assam, Meghalaya Also connected to Bangladesh protocol routes, enhancing international connectivity. National Waterway–3 (NW–3) Length: 205 km Water System: West Coast Canal, Champakara Canal and Udyogmandal Canal State Covered: Kerala Important for passenger and cargo transport in coastal Kerala. National Waterway–4 (NW–4) Length: 82 km (as mentioned in your data) River System: Krishna–Godavari river systems State Covered: Andhra Pradesh Connects deltaic regions with inland areas. National Waterway–5 (NW–5) Water System: East Coast Canal State Covered: Odisha Designed to improve coastal and mineral belt connectivity. 28 / 30 28) Consider the following statements regarding India’s “Pharmacy Migration” paradox: Statement I: Tax incentives and the need for cool, dust-free climates encouraged pharmaceutical units to shift from the hot plains of Gujarat and Maharashtra to Himalayan foothill regions such as Baddi and Sikkim. Statement II: The rapid growth of pharmaceutical industries in Baddi led to urban sprawl in a fragile mountain ecosystem. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Explanation: Statement I is correct: Pharmaceutical industries require controlled, dust-free environments. Combined with special tax incentives (such as excise duty exemptions), this encouraged companies to relocate from hotter plains of Gujarat–Maharashtra to cooler Himalayan foothill regions like Baddi (Himachal Pradesh) and Sikkim. Statement II is correct: Baddi, once a small village, transformed into a major pharmaceutical hub. This rapid industrialization triggered urban sprawl in an ecologically fragile mountain ecosystem, creating stress on land, water, and infrastructure. While both statements are factually correct, Statement II describes a consequence of industrial migration, not the reason for it. Therefore, Statement II does not explain Statement I. 29 / 30 29) Consider the following initiatives related to tourism in India: PRASHAD Scheme Swachh Bharat Movement All India Permit Rules, 2021 Dekho Apna Desh Initiative Which of the above aim to promote tourism directly or indirectly? 1 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 2 and 3 only Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. The PRASHAD Scheme promotes pilgrimage and heritage tourism by developing religious destinations. Statement 2: Correct. The Swachh Bharat Mission improves sanitation and cleanliness, including at national monuments, thereby indirectly supporting tourism. Statement 3: Correct. The All India Tourist Vehicles Authorisation and Permit Rules, 2021 enables online permits for tourist vehicles, facilitating easier interstate tourism operations. Statement 4: Correct. The Dekho Apna Desh initiative promotes India as a premier tourism destination through webinars and digital outreach. 30 / 30 30) Consider the following statements regarding types of urban areas in India: Statement I: Statutory Towns are areas that have been legally notified as urban by the State government and include Municipal Corporations, Municipalities, and Cantonment Boards. Statement II: Census Towns are identified by the Census of India based on specific demographic and economic criteria rather than statutory notification. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct Explanation: Statement I is correct: Statutory Towns are legally recognized urban areas. They are governed by urban local bodies such as Municipal Corporations, Municipalities, and Cantonment Boards. Their urban status comes from a legal/administrative notification. Statement II is correct: Census Towns are not legally notified as urban. Instead, they are identified by the Census of India based on three criteria: Population of at least 5,000 At least 75% of male main workers engaged in non-agricultural activities Population density of at least 400 persons per sq. km Both statements are correct but refer to two different categories of urban classification. Statement II does not explain Statement I. Your score is 0%