UPSC – 2025 Paper -1(GS) Set – B (Analysis)
Q1) Consider the following types of vehicles:
- Full battery electric vehicles
- Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
- Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Alternative powertrain: An alternative powertrain is any propulsion system that does not rely solely on a traditional internal-combustion engine (ICE).
All three types mentioned qualify:
- Full Battery-Electric Vehicles (BEVs):
- Power source: Rechargeable lithium-ion batteries.
- Emission: Zero tailpipe emissions.
- Hydrogen Fuel-Cell Vehicles (FCEVs):
- Power source: Hydrogen reacts with oxygen in fuel cells to generate electricity.
- Emission: Only water vapor.
- Examples: Hydrogen Trains
- Fuel-Cell–Electric Hybrid Vehicles (FCEV + Battery):
- Power source: Combination of a hydrogen fuel cell and a battery system.
- Advantage: Offers better range and efficiency than a pure FCEV.
- Example: Honda Clarity Fuel Cell (hybrid variant).
Sources Links:
https://e-amrit.niti.gov.in/types-of-electric-vehicles
Q2) With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:
- All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
- All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
- Al types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), also known as drones, are aerial vehicles operated remotely or autonomously. They come in various types with different capabilities and power sources.
- All types of UAVs can do vertical landing (Statement 1 is incorrect): Not all UAVs can perform vertical landing. Rotary-wing UAVs like quadcopters can take off and land vertically. However, fixed-wing UAVs require a runway or launching device and cannot perform vertical landing unless they are specially designed hybrid VTOL types.
- All types of UAVs can do automated hovering (Statement 2 is incorrect): Only rotary-wing UAVs can hover in place. Fixed-wing UAVs must move forward constantly to generate lift and cannot hover. Therefore, automated hovering is not possible for all UAV types.
- Al types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply (Statement 3 is incorrect): While many small UAVs use rechargeable batteries, larger UAVs use alternative power sources such as internal combustion engines, fuel cells, or solar panels depending on their range and payload requirements.
Therefore, all three statements are incorrect.
Q3) In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:
- Cobalt
- Graphite
- Lithium
- Nickel
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All the four
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Electric vehicle (EV) batteries, particularly lithium-ion (Li-ion) types, consist of two key components: anode and cathode.
- Cathode materials are crucial for determining the energy density and performance of the battery. Common cathode components include: Cobalt, Lithium, and Nickel — all of which are used in various proportions in EV battery chemistries such as NMC (Nickel Manganese Cobalt) and NCA (Nickel Cobalt Aluminum).
- Graphite is not used in cathodes. Instead, it is the most common material used for the anode in lithium-ion batteries.
Hence, Cobalt, Lithium, and Nickel are used in battery cathodes, making the correct count three.
table below.
|
BATTERY TYPE |
|
CATHODE |
ANODE |
ELECTROLYTE |
|
Alkaline |
Single use |
Manganese dioxide (MnO2) |
Zinc |
Aqueous alkaline |
|
Lead acid (secondary) |
Rechargeable |
Lead dioxide (PbO2) |
Lead |
Sulphuric acid |
|
Nickel Cadmium (NiCd) (secondary) |
Rechargeable |
Nickel oxyhydroxide (NiOOH) |
Cadmium |
Potassium hydroxide |
|
Nickel Metal Hydride (NiMH) (secondary) |
Rechargeable |
Hydrogen-absorbing alloy |
||
|
Lithium Ion (LCO) (secondary) |
Rechargeable |
Lithium cobalt oxide (LiCoO2) |
Carbon-based, typically graphite |
|
|
Lithium Ion (NMC) (secondary) |
Rechargeable |
Lithium nickel manganese cobalt oxide (LiNiMnCoO2) |
Lithium salt in an organic solvent |
|
|
Lithium Ion (NCA) (secondary) |
Rechargeable |
Lithium nickel cobalt aluminium (LiNiCoAlO2) |
Source: https://www.aquametals.com/recyclopedia/lithium-ion-anode-and-cathode-materials/
Q4) Consider the following:
- Cigarette butts
- Eyeglass lenses
- Car tyres
How many of them contain plastic?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Each of the listed items contains plastic in some form:
- Cigarette Butts:
- Made of cellulose acetate, a type of plastic.
- Not biodegradable in the short term; they can take up to 10 years to break down.
- Release toxic microplastics and chemicals into the environment.
- Eyeglass Lenses:
- Most modern lenses are made from polycarbonate or other lightweight plastic polymers.
- During manufacturing, the polishing process releases microplastics into wastewater.
- Car Tyres:
- Composed of synthetic rubber blended with plastic polymers such as styrene-butadiene rubber.
- Tire wear is a major contributor to microplastic pollution, especially in urban water bodies.
All three items are significant sources of plastic or microplastic pollution.
Answer: (3) All the three
Sources:
https://www.earthday.org/tiny-but-deadly-cigarette-butts-are-the-most-commonly-polluted-plastic/
Q5) Consider the following substances:
- Ethanol
- Nitroglycerine
- Urea
Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Coal gasification is a process in which coal is converted into synthetic gas (syngas), primarily composed of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H₂), and other gases. This syngas serves as a feedstock for a variety of downstream chemical processes.
Let’s evaluate the substances:
- Ethanol – Yes
- Syngas can be converted into ethanol through catalytic chemical processes.
- Ethanol produced this way is called synthetic ethanol.
- Nitroglycerine – No
- Nitroglycerine is an explosive made by nitrating glycerol, a compound not produced through coal gasification.
- It requires glycerol and nitric acid, not syngas.
- Urea – Yes
- Urea is produced by reacting ammonia (NH₃) with carbon dioxide (CO₂).
- Ammonia can be synthesized from hydrogen (H₂), which is derived from coal gasification (via syngas).
Hence, only ethanol and urea can be produced using coal gasification-derived inputs.
Correct Answer: (2) Only two
Source: https://coal.gov.in/sites/default/files/ncgm/ncgm21-09-21.pdf
National Coal Gasification Mission- pdf Index
Q6) What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?
- These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants
- These are explosives in military weapons
- These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
- These are fuels for rocket propulsion
Answer: 2
Explanation:
CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are all high-energy explosive compounds developed primarily for military applications. These substances are part of advanced munitions and are used in warheads, bombs, and other precision weapon systems.
- CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane):
- One of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives known.
- Developed in the 1980s at the U.S. Naval Air Weapons Station, China Lake.
- Superior performance compared to HMX and RDX, with high detonation velocity and energy density.
- HMX (High Melting Explosive):
- A powerful nitroamine explosive related to RDX.
- Widely used in military-grade explosives due to its high detonation power.
- LLM-105 (2,6-Diamino-3,5-dinitropyrazine-1-oxide):
- Developed at Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory in the 1990s.
- Known for being an insensitive high explosive, meaning it is more stable and safer to handle than traditional explosives.
- Suitable for use in conditions where thermal and mechanical stability are crucial.
These are not fuels (options c and d), nor are they refrigerants (option a). Their primary function is explosive energy release in military settings.
Correct Answer: (2) These are explosives in military weapons
Source:
https://www.pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=67872
https://pubs.rsc.org/en/content/articlelanding/2020/cp/d0cp02159h
Q7) Consider the following statements:
- It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
- Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
- Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 3
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Correct – The Majorana 1 chip is a quantum chip introduced by Microsoft, not AWS. It is designed using topological qubits and is powered by a new material innovation known as a topoconductor, enabling better stability and performance in quantum computing.
- Statement 2: Incorrect – The chip was introduced by Microsoft, not Amazon Web Services. AWS is also involved in quantum computing through its Braket platform, but it has not introduced the Majorana 1 chip.
- Statement 3: Correct – Deep learning is indeed a subset of machine learning, which focuses on the use of neural networks to model complex patterns in large datasets. It mimics human brain functions for tasks like image recognition, speech processing, and autonomous systems.
Correct Answer: (3) I and III only
Sources:
https://cloud.google.com/discover/deep-learning-vs-machine-learning
Q8) With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:
- They are man-made proteins.
- They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
- They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 4
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Correct – Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are laboratory-made proteins designed to act like natural antibodies in the immune system. They are produced from a single clone of cells, hence the name “monoclonal.”
- Statement 2: Correct – mAbs work by binding to specific antigens such as those found on the surface of viruses or cancer cells. This targeted binding stimulates the immune system and blocks harmful biological processes, making them effective tools in immunotherapy.
- Statement 3: Correct – Monoclonal antibodies are being explored and used as therapeutic agents against viral infections, including Nipah virus. For example, the m102.4 monoclonal antibody has shown potential in neutralizing Nipah virus in preclinical studies and emergency use scenarios.
Correct Answer: (4) I, II and III
Source:
Q9) Consider the following statements:
- No virus can survive in ocean water.
- No virus can infect bacteria.
- No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 4
Explanation:
All three statements are incorrect, as explained below:
- Statement 1: Incorrect
- Numerous studies confirm that viruses can survive in ocean water.
- Marine environments are home to a vast number of viruses, including those that infect marine organisms.
- Example: Marine bacteriophages are abundant and play a key role in oceanic ecosystems.
- Statement 2: Incorrect
- Viruses can infect bacteria, and such viruses are called bacteriophages.
- Bacteriophages are used in scientific research and even in therapy (phage therapy) to fight antibiotic-resistant bacterial infections.
- Statement 3: Incorrect
- Viruses alter cellular transcriptional activity of host cells to promote their own replication.
- They manipulate the host’s gene expression and biochemical pathways to create favorable conditions for producing viral progeny.
Correct Answer: (4) None
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/hesc102.pdf
Q10) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: 1
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct: Activated carbon is widely used for environmental cleanup because of its excellent adsorptive properties. It is used in wastewater treatment, air purification, and industrial effluent remediation.
- Statement II is correct: Activated carbon has a very large surface area, making it highly effective for adsorbing heavy metals, organic pollutants, and gases. This explains why it is a good pollution-control material — due to its performance.
- Statement III is correct: It can be synthesized easily from agricultural and industrial wastes like coconut shells, wood, sawdust, and even sewage sludge. This explains why it is attractive — because it’s cost-effective and sustainable.
- Thus, both performance (Statement II) and affordability/availability (Statement III) justify Statement I.
- Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Q11) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from the cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- Only one of the Statements II and Statement III is correct and that explains Statement I
- Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Statement I is correct.
- According to the World Economic Forum and the International Energy Agency, the cement industry contributes around 7–8% of global CO₂ emissions.
- This is due to both the chemical process of limestone calcination and the combustion of fossil fuels in kilns.
Statement II is correct.
- In cement manufacturing, limestone (CaCO₃) is combined with silica-rich materials such as clay, shale, or sand.
- However, this does not directly explain the CO₂ emissions—it describes the input materials.
Statement III is correct.
- Limestone is heated to form lime (CaO), releasing CO₂ in the process: CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
- This reaction, called calcination, is a primary source of CO₂ emissions in cement production and directly explains Statement I.
Therefore, both Statements II and III are correct, but only Statement III explains Statement I.
- Correct Answer: (2) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
https://www.weforum.org/stories/2024/09/cement-production-sustainable-concrete-co2-emissions/
Q12) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.
Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize the health sector.
Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: 3
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct. At COP28 in Dubai (2023), India did not sign the COP28 UAE Declaration on Climate and Health, while over 140 countries endorsed it.
- Statement II is incorrect. The declaration is non-binding, meaning it is not legally enforceable. Signing it would not make it mandatory to decarbonize the health sector; it merely encourages voluntary action.
- Statement III is correct. India cited concerns about resilience and functionality of the healthcare sector, especially regarding cooling systems in hospitals. Rapid decarbonization could hamper essential services in vulnerable and remote areas.
- Hence, only Statement III is correct and it explains why India refrained from signing, making option (c) the correct answer.
- Correct Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
Q13) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.
Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.
Statement III: As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Statement I is correct.
- Scientific evidence from NASA and other geophysical studies confirms that Earth is undergoing “polar wander” or true polar drift—a shift in the Earth’s axis of rotation. This change is measurable in terms of the shifting position of the rotational pole over the last century.
Statement II is correct but does not explain Statement I.
- Solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs) do release large amounts of energy into Earth’s upper atmosphere.
- They affect communication systems, power grids, and satellites, but do not physically alter the rotation or axis of the Earth.
- Hence, Statement II is true, but unrelated to the cause of axial shift in Statement I.
Statement III is correct and explains Statement I.
- Melting of polar ice, particularly in Greenland and Antarctica, leads to redistribution of mass toward the equator.
- This mass movement alters Earth’s moment of inertia, leading to a measurable shift in the axis of rotation.
- This phenomenon directly contributes to polar drift, explaining Statement I.
Correct Answer: (2) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
Source:
Q14) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.
Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: (1) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation:
Statement I is correct.
- Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is a core focus in global climate negotiations because it provides mechanisms for international cooperation to achieve climate goals, especially in the context of sustainable development.
Statement II is correct.
- Article 6 includes market-based mechanisms, such as:
- Article 6.2: Allows for bilateral and multilateral carbon credit trading through Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes (ITMOs).
- Article 6.4: Establishes a UN-supervised carbon market mechanism, a successor to the Clean Development Mechanism under the Kyoto Protocol.
- These mechanisms help countries reduce emissions in a cost-effective manner.
Statement III is correct.
- Article 6.8 of the Paris Agreement promotes non-market approaches, such as:
- Technology transfer, capacity building, climate finance, and policy cooperation between countries.
- These strategies are essential for countries, especially developing nations, to meet their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) without relying solely on carbon markets.
- Both Statements II and III describe major components of Article 6 and help explain why it is frequently discussed globally.
- Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Source: https://unfccc.int/process/the-paris-agreement/cooperative-implementation
Q15) Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?
- The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
- The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
- The New Development Bank (NDB)
- The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
Answer: 1
Explanation:
In December 2023, during the COP28 climate summit held in Dubai, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific.
Purpose of the Initiative:
- The Hub aims to mobilize at least $2 billion in investments for nature-based solutions (NbS).
- It focuses on addressing climate change, biodiversity loss, and disaster risk reduction in the Asia-Pacific region.
- It also supports sustainable development goals (SDGs) by mainstreaming natural capital into climate financing and project planning.
Key Features:
- Encourages the scaling up of NbS projects through:
- Blended finance
- Impact-linked payments
- Green guarantees
- Risk-sharing instruments
- Seeks to leverage private sector capital by de-risking investments in nature and environmental infrastructure.
- Supports ADB member countries in climate-resilient development pathways.
Why this matters:
Nature-based solutions are increasingly recognized as effective, low-cost strategies to:
- Enhance ecosystem resilience
- Improve community adaptation to climate impacts
- Store carbon and mitigate emissions sustainably
Correct Answer: (1) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
Source: https://www.adb.org/news/adb-and-partners-launch-nature-financing-initiative-asia-and-pacific
Q16) With reference to ‘Direct Air Capture’ (DAC), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
- It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
- In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- None of the above statements is correct
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct
- Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a technology that removes carbon dioxide (CO₂) directly from the atmosphere.
- The captured CO₂ can be permanently stored underground in geological formations, functioning as carbon sequestration.
- It is categorized as a Negative Emissions Technology (NET) and is essential to achieving net-zero climate targets.
Statement 2: Correct
- Captured CO₂ from DAC can be converted into methanol or ethylene, which are used to produce plastics like polyethylene.
- Additionally, CO₂ is used to make dry ice, which has practical applications in food preservation and cold-chain logistics.
Statement 3: Correct
- In the aviation sector, DAC-derived CO₂ can be combined with green hydrogen to create synthetic fuels (also known as e-fuels or power-to-liquid fuels).
- These low-carbon fuels are a potential solution for decarbonizing air travel — one of the hardest sectors to electrify.
Correct Answer: (3) I, II and III
Sources:
https://www.iea.org/energy-system/carbon-capture-utilisation-and-storage/direct-air-capture
https://www.plasticsengineering.org/2024/07/carbon-capture-in-plastics-manufacturing-005502/
Q17) Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:
- It is an omnivorous crustacean.
- Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
- In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 1 and 3
- 2 only
- 2 and 3
Answer: 4
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Incorrect – The Peacock tarantula, also known as the Gooty tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica), is not a crustacean; it is an arachnid, a type of spider. It is also not omnivorous—it is carnivorous, preying on insects and other small invertebrates.
- Statement 2: Correct – The species is endemic to a small patch of forest in Andhra Pradesh, near the town of Gooty in the Eastern Ghats. Its habitat is extremely restricted and fragmented, contributing to its critically endangered status under the IUCN Red List.
- Statement 3: Correct – The Gooty tarantula is arboreal, meaning it lives in trees.
In the wild, it resides in tree holes and crevices, spinning silken retreats. It avoids ground-level activity unless disturbed.
Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/environment/tracking–the-elusive—metallic-spider-46057
Q18) Consider the following statements:
- Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5t CO₂/capita.
- In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region.
- Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Statement 1: Incorrect
- According to the International Energy Agency (IEA), India’s per capita CO₂ emissions stood at approximately 2 tonnes in 2023.
- This is significantly higher than 0.5 tonnes, though still below the global average (~4.6 tonnes).
- Therefore, the claim that emissions are less than 0.5 t CO₂/capita is false.
Statement 2: Correct
- India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region for CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, after China.
- This is based on data from the IEA and the Global Carbon Atlas, reflecting India’s growing energy consumption and dependence on coal.
Statement 3: Correct
- The electricity and heat production sector is the largest contributor to CO₂ emissions in India.
- Over 50% of the emissions are due to coal-based power plants, as per IEA’s energy-related emissions reports.
- This sector leads over others like industry, transport, and agriculture.
Correct Answer: (3) II and III only
Sources:
https://www.iea.org/countries/india/emissions
Q19) Consider the following pairs:
|
Plant |
Description |
|
1. Cassava |
Woody shrub |
|
2. Ginger |
Herb with pseudostem |
|
3. Malabar spinach |
Herbaceous climber |
|
4. Mint |
Annual shrub |
|
5. Papaya |
Woody shrub |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- Only two
- Only three
- Only four
- All the five
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Pair 1: Cassava – Woody shrub → Correct
- Cassava (Manihot esculenta) is a tropical woody shrub, cultivated for its starchy tuberous roots.
- It grows up to 2–3 meters tall with a branching woody stem.
Pair 2: Ginger – Herb with pseudostem → Correct
- Ginger (Zingiber officinale) is a herbaceous perennial plant.
- What appears to be a stem is actually a pseudostem, formed by rolled leaf bases.
- The real stem is the underground rhizome.
Pair 3: Malabar spinach – Herbaceous climber → Correct
- Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is a succulent herbaceous climber, often used as a leafy vegetable.
- It climbs with the help of soft stems and thrives in tropical climates.
Pair 4: Mint – Annual shrub → Incorrect
- Mint (Mentha spp.) is a perennial herb, not an annual shrub.
- It spreads via stolons or runners and has soft, non-woody stems.
Pair 5: Papaya – Woody shrub → Incorrect
- Papaya (Carica papaya) is technically a giant herb, not a true woody shrub or tree.
- It has a soft, hollow, green stem with no true secondary growth (wood).
- Correctly matched pairs: 1, 2, and 3 → Total = 3
- Correct Answer: (2) Only three
Source:
https://www.nparks.gov.sg/florafaunaweb/flora/2/5/2573
Q20) With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
- Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
- Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of the world’s oxygen.
- Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2
- 2 only
- 1 and 3
- None of the above statements is correct
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Statement 1: Incorrect
- While rainforests are important oxygen producers, oceans produce more oxygen than all the world’s rainforests combined.
- Marine phytoplankton, algae, and photosynthetic bacteria contribute to at least 50% of Earth’s total oxygen production.
- A single bacterium, Prochlorococcus, is estimated to contribute up to 20% of the planet’s oxygen.
Statement 2: Correct
- Scientists estimate that approximately 50% of the oxygen in Earth’s atmosphere comes from photosynthetic organisms in the ocean, such as phytoplankton and cyanobacteria.
- These organisms also play a key role in the carbon cycle by absorbing CO₂ from the atmosphere.
Statement 3: Incorrect
- Although surface ocean water is the most oxygen-rich part of the ocean, it does not contain more oxygen than atmospheric air.
- Well-oxygenated water has around 8 mg of O₂ per liter, while air has about 210 mg of O₂ per liter — much higher.
- Hence, surface water does not have oxygen levels several folds higher than air; it has significantly less.
- Correct Answer: (2) II only
Sources:
https://oceanservice.noaa.gov/facts/ocean-oxygen.html
https://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/images/87465/oxygen-factories-in-the-southern-ocean
Q21) Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
- He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
- He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct
- Raja Ram Mohan Roy was deeply rooted in Indian traditions and had profound respect for Eastern philosophical systems, especially the Upanishads and Vedanta.
- He studied Sanskrit, Persian, Arabic, and Latin, and drew upon Indian scriptures to argue against superstitions and social evils like Sati.
Statement 2: Correct
- At the same time, Roy was a strong advocate of Western rationalism, scientific inquiry, and liberal human values.
- He wanted Indian society to embrace modern education, equality, individual rights, and the scientific temper.
- He actively campaigned for women’s rights, including the abolition of Sati, women’s education, and equality.
- Raja Ram Mohan Roy is thus seen as a bridge between Indian tradition and modern Western thought, blending reformist zeal with cultural pride.
Correct Answer: (3) Both I and II
https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SecSocSciCour/English/Lesson-06.pdf
Q22) Consider the following subjects with regard to the Non-Cooperation Programme:
- Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
- Observance of strict non-violence
- Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
- Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes
How many of the above were parts of the Non-Cooperation Programme?
- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All the four
Answer: 3
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. Boycott of British law courts and foreign cloth was a major part of the Non-Cooperation Programme. It was aimed at weakening the legitimacy of colonial institutions and promoting swadeshi (indigenous goods).
- Statement 2 is correct. The entire movement was based on the principle of non-violence, as insisted upon by Mahatma Gandhi. Any act of violence would result in immediate suspension of the movement.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The programme called for the complete surrender of British-conferred titles and honours, not merely avoiding their public use. Retaining them in any form was against the spirit of the movement.
- Statement 4 is correct. Establishing village panchayats to resolve disputes was encouraged as part of building alternative institutions rooted in Indian traditions and autonomy from British control.
- Therefore, only three statements (1, 2, and 4) are correct.
- Correct Answer: (3) Only three
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/44306/1/Unit-12.pdf( pg no: 141,142)
Q23) The irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was:
- A water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
- A large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
- A larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
- A large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand
Answer: 2
Explanation:
- The Araghatta was a traditional irrigation device used extensively in parts of India, especially Rajasthan, for lifting water from wells or reservoirs for agricultural use. It is often associated with the Persian wheel, though there are technical distinctions in early designs.
- Historical references, such as the Upamitibhavaprapanchakatha of Siddharshi (9th century CE), describe the Araghatta as a revolving apparatus with spokes (arakas) and a mechanism involving earthen pots (ghatiyantra or pot garland) attached to a wheel.
- These earthen pots were arranged along the circumference of a large wheel. As the wheel rotated—usually driven by animal power—the pots would dip into the water source, fill up, and then rise to discharge water into a channel or trough.
- This mechanical lifting system was widespread in arid regions and is considered one of the early examples of hydraulic engineering in Indian agriculture.
- Correct Answer: (2) A large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
Source:
https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/73310/1/Unit-11.pdf (Page: 206)
Q24) Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrachitta’, and ‘Gunabhara’?
- Mahendravarman I
- Simhavishnu
- Narasimhavarman I
- Simhavarman
Answer: 1
Explanation:
- Mahendravarman I (reigned c. 590–630 CE) was a prominent Pallava ruler who succeeded his father Simhavishnu. He is best remembered not only for expanding Pallava power but also for his deep interest in arts, literature, music, and architecture.
He assumed several honorary and descriptive titles that reflected his personality and achievements:
- Mattavilasa – One addicted to pleasures (also the title of his famous Sanskrit play Mattavilasa Prahasana)
- Vichitrachitta – One with a curious and creative mind
- Gunabhara – A person filled with virtues
- Chitrakarapuli – A tiger among painters
- Lalitankura – Charming or graceful prince
- Chattakari – Temple builder
- He was a patron of temple architecture, notably initiating rock-cut cave temples in South India, and was also a skilled veena player and dramatist.
Correct Answer: (1) Mahendravarman I
Source:
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/61908/1/Unit-5.pdf
Q25) Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of:
- Samudragupta
- Chandragupta II
- Kumaragupta I
- Skandagupta
Answer: 2
Explanation:
- Fa-hien (also spelled Faxian), a Chinese Buddhist monk, traveled to India between AD 399–414 in search of Buddhist scriptures and knowledge. His journey took him across various parts of northern India, including Pataliputra, Mathura, and Lumbini.
- He visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II (AD 375–414), also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya, one of the most prominent rulers of the Gupta Empire. Chandragupta II was known for his patronage of art, culture, and learning.
- Fa-hien’s travel account, called “A Record of Buddhist Kingdoms”, provides a detailed and valuable description of social, political, and religious conditions in India during the early 5th century. His writings particularly highlight the prosperity, peace, and religious tolerance during the Gupta period.
Correct Answer: (2) Chandragupta II
Source:
https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/315_History_Eng/315_History_Eng_Lesson7.pdf
Q26) Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?
- Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
- Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
- Rajendra I (Chola)
- Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)
Answer: 3
Explanation:
- Rajendra Chola, I led a successful naval expedition against the Srivijaya kingdom in Southeast Asia.
- His campaign resulted in Chola influence over trade routes in the region.
Source: Tamil Nadu History Textbook Unit 11 – Later Cholas and Pandyas – page 156
Q27) With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs:
Territorial Region River flowing in the region
- Asmaka : Godavari
- Kamboja : Vipas
- Avanti : Mahanadi
- Kosala : Sarayu
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All the four
Answer: 2
Explanation:
- Asmaka – Godavari – Correct – Asmaka was the only Mahajanapada located in the Deccan region (southern India). It lay along the banks of the Godavari River, making this pair correctly matched.
- Kamboja – Vipas (Beas) – Incorrect – Kamboja was situated in the north-western frontier of the Indian subcontinent, corresponding to parts of modern-day Afghanistan and Tajikistan. The Vipas (Beas) River, however, flows through the Punjab region, not Kamboja. Hence, this pair is incorrectly matched.
- Avanti – Mahanadi – Incorrect – Avanti was a Mahajanapada located in western Madhya Pradesh, with its capital at Ujjain. The river associated with this region is primarily the Chambal River, not the Mahanadi, which flows through Chhattisgarh and Odisha. Therefore, this pair is also incorrectly matched.
- Kosala – Sarayu – Correct – Kosala was located in eastern Uttar Pradesh, with its capital at Shravasti. The Sarayu River flowed through this region, making this pair correctly matched.
|
Source: NIOS – History Material – Unit 5 – From Janapadas to Empire – Page 67 |
Q28) The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in:
- Delhi
- Gwalior
- Ujjain
- Lahore
Answer: 4
Explanation:
- The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya was founded by Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar on 5 May 1901 in Lahore, which was then part of British India (present-day Pakistan).
Q29) Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the:
- village-level administration
- district-level administration
- provincial administration
- level of the central administration
Answer: 2
Explanation:
- Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the Pradeshika, Rajuka, and Yukta were important officers at the district level.
- Rock edict 3 refers to these officers going on tours every five years in order to instruct people in dhamma and for other purposes.
|
Source: A History of Ancient and Early Medieval India From the Stone Age to the 12th Century – Upinder Singh – Page 607 |
Q30) Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:
- The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
- It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: 3
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: In 1921, the Indian National Congress adopted a new constitution which reflected a significant shift in its methods. Article 1 of the new constitution stated:
- “The object of the Indian National Congress is the attainment of Swarajya by the people of India by all legitimate and peaceful means.” This marked a departure from purely constitutional methods, allowing for unconstitutional yet peaceful and lawful means such as mass protests and non-cooperation, aligning with Gandhi’s vision of passive resistance.
- Statement 2 is correct: Gandhiji envisioned the Non-Cooperation Movement as a phased struggle.
- The first phase included the surrender of titles, boycott of government institutions like civil services, police, courts, schools, and foreign goods.
- If these efforts failed to achieve Swaraj within a year, and the government responded with repression, a full-scale civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes campaign would follow.
This conditional escalation strategy was central to Gandhi’s non-violent resistance plan.
|
Source: Spectrum Chapter 16 Non-Cooperation Movement and Khilafat Aandolan |
Q31) With reference to investments, consider the following:
- Bonds
- Hedge Funds
- Stocks
- Venture Capital
How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All the four
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) refer to privately pooled investment vehicles that collect funds from investors to invest as per a defined investment policy for the benefit of investors. They are regulated by SEBI in India under the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012.
AIFs are typically classified into three categories:
- Category I: Venture Capital Funds, SME Funds, Social Venture Funds, etc.
- Category II: Private Equity Funds, Debt Funds
- Category III: Hedge Funds, PIPE Funds
- Bonds: Incorrect
- These are traditional fixed-income instruments, not classified as AIFs. They are regulated separately and widely traded.
- Hedge Funds : Correct
- Yes, hedge funds fall under Category III AIFs.
- Stocks: Incorrect
- Equity shares (stocks) are standard market instruments, not considered AIFs. They are listed and traded on stock exchanges.
- Venture Capital: Correct
- Yes, venture capital funds are included under Category I AIFs.
|
Source: https://www.sebi.gov.in/sebi_data/attachdocs/1471519155273.pdf |
Q32) Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
- Buying and selling Government bonds
- Buying and selling foreign currency
- Pension fund management
- Lending to private companies
- Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 and 2 only
- 2, 3 and 4
- 1, 3, 4 and 5
- 1, 2 and 5
Answer: 1
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI), India’s central bank, derives its income mainly from activities linked to its monetary and regulatory functions — not commercial banking. Here’s an evaluation of each statement:
1. Buying and selling Government bonds – Correct
- The RBI conducts Open Market Operations (OMOs) where it buys and sells government securities to manage liquidity in the economy.
- It earns interest income on the bonds it holds, making this a major source of revenue.
2. Buying and selling foreign currency – Correct
- The RBI manages India’s foreign exchange reserves and intervenes in the currency markets.
- It earns from interest on foreign securities (e.g., U.S. Treasury bonds) and gains from forex operations.
3. Pension fund management – Incorrect
- RBI does not manage pension funds as a commercial activity. Pension fund regulation is handled by PFRDA, not the RBI.
4. Lending to private companies – Incorrect
- RBI is not a commercial lender. It lends only to banks and financial institutions (like via repo operations), not directly to private companies.
5. Printing and distributing currency notes – Incorrect
- While the RBI is the issuer of currency, printing and distribution is an expenditure, not a revenue stream.
- This cost is reflected in the RBI’s annual financial reports under expenditures.
|
Source: https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/AnnualReportPublications.aspx?Id=1325 |
Q33) With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
|
Organization |
Some of its functions |
It works under |
|
Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 |
Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs |
|
Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 |
Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
|
Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders |
Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance |
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 2
Explanation:
I. Directorate of Enforcement (ED)
- Function: Enforcing the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 – Correct
- Works under: Incorrect — It is not under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- The ED functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
- It investigates offenses under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), FEOA, and Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA).
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI)
- Function: Enforces the Customs Act, 1962 – Correct
- Works under: Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance – Correct
- DRI also handles enforcement under allied Acts such as the NDPS Act, COFEPOSA, Wildlife Act, etc.
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management
- Function: Conducts big data analytics, supports IT infrastructure for GST and Customs, aids in policy formulation, and helps in detecting tax evasion – Correct
- Works under: Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance – Correct
- It is a part of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) and handles data management and analytics under indirect taxation.
|
Source: https://enforcementdirectorate.gov.in/history-ed https://dri.nic.in/main/history https://www.cbic.gov.in/entities/cbic-content-mst/ODkyOQ%3D%3D |
Q34) Consider the following statements:
- The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).
- In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: 2
Explanation:
Statement 1: Incorrect
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) does not mandate the submission of Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reports (BRSR).
- The mandate comes from SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India), not RBI.
- Moreover, SEBI mandates BRSR only for the top 1,000 listed companies by market capitalization, not all listed companies.
Statement 2: Correct
- The BRSR framework, introduced by SEBI, requires companies to disclose non-financial information, specifically related to Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) factors.
- It includes details such as sustainability initiatives, human rights practices, labor policies, community development, carbon emissions, etc.
- These disclosures help investors assess the company’s long-term value and risk management strategies.
Q35) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.
Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Statement I: Incorrect
- Only income derived from core agricultural operations (like cultivation of land, harvesting of crops, etc.) is exempt from income tax under Section 10(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961.
- Allied activities such as poultry farming, wool rearing, dairy, etc., are not classified as agricultural income under the Act and are therefore taxable.
- Thus, income from these allied rural activities is not tax-exempt, even if carried out in rural areas.
Statement II: Correct
- According to Section 2(14)(iii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, “rural agricultural land” is not considered a capital asset.
- As a result, any capital gains arising from the sale of rural agricultural land are not subject to capital gains tax.
- Only urban agricultural land (as defined by population and distance from municipality limits) is treated as a capital asset and hence taxable.
Q36) Consider the following statements:
- India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.
- India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.
- The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct
- India joined the US-led Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in June 2023, during Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to the United States.
- The MSP is a multilateral initiative involving 14 partner countries and the European Union, aiming to secure and diversify global critical mineral supply chains, especially for green technologies like electric vehicles, batteries, and solar energy.
Statement 2: Incorrect
- India has identified 30 critical minerals (including lithium, cobalt, nickel, graphite, etc.), but it is not resource-rich in all of them.
- India is heavily import-dependent for many of these minerals, particularly lithium, cobalt, and nickel, which are essential for energy storage and electronics.
- Thus, India is not self-sufficient or “resource-rich” in all 30 identified minerals.
Statement 3: Correct
- In 2023, the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 was amended by Parliament.
- The amendment empowers the Central Government to exclusively conduct auctions for mining lease and composite licence of 24 specified critical minerals.
- The aim is to encourage private and foreign investment, fast-track exploration, and reduce import dependency on critical minerals needed for India’s energy transition.
|
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1946416 https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2038443 https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1984942 |
Q37) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.
Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.
Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- Both Statement I and —Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
- Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Statement I: Correct
- Bondholders (those who invest in company bonds) generally face lower risk compared to stockholders (equity investors).
- This is because bondholders receive fixed interest payments and their principal is repaid before equity holders in case the company is liquidated.
Statement II: Correct
- Bondholders are creditors to the company—they lend money and receive interest.
- Stockholders, on the other hand, are owners—they hold a share of the company and their returns come in the form of dividends and capital gains, which are not guaranteed.
Statement III: Correct
- In case of liquidation or bankruptcy, bondholders are repaid first, followed by preferred shareholders, and lastly the equity shareholders (stockholders).
- This hierarchy in repayment reduces the financial risk for bondholders.
- Statement II explains why bondholders are at lower risk—because they are creditors.
- Statement III further explains why their repayment is prioritized, reinforcing the lower risk profile.
- Hence, both Statement II and III are correct, and both explain Statement I.
|
Source: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/s/shareholder.asp |
Q38) Consider the following statements:
- India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.
- India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.
- There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct
- India has become the world’s largest equity options market by the number of contracts traded.
- According to NSE and global derivatives market data, India accounted for over 84% of all equity option contracts globally in 2023 and early 2024.
- This reflects a massive surge in retail participation and is widely characterized as an options trading boom in India.
Statement 2: Correct
- In January 2024, India’s stock market capitalization surpassed Hong Kong’s, making it the fourth-largest equity market in the world, after the US, China, and Japan.
- This milestone indicates the rapid growth and confidence in India’s equity markets.
Statement 3: Incorrect
- India does have a regulatory body, namely the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
- SEBI plays an active role in:
- Issuing warnings about the risks of options trading, especially to retail investors
- Cracking down on unregistered investment advisors
- Introducing tighter rules and regulations to promote transparency and reduce speculation in options trading
Recent SEBI actions (2023–2024):
- Issued investor alerts via circulars and press releases
- Mandated disclaimer requirements for financial influencers
- Introduced a regulatory framework for research analysts and investment advisors
- Implemented T+0 settlement for select securities, improving liquidity but also risk management
Q39) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Statement I: Correct
- The circular economy reduces greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions by:
- Reducing dependence on energy-intensive extraction of virgin materials
- Promoting resource efficiency, recycling, and reuse
- Example: Recycling aluminum uses 95% less energy than producing it from raw ore.
Statement II: Correct
- The circular model minimizes the need for raw materials by:
- Encouraging reuse and recycling
- Reducing demand for virgin inputs such as metals, fossil fuels, and minerals
This directly contributes to reducing GHG emissions, as mining and processing raw materials are major contributors to emissions.
Statement III: Correct
- Circular economy also emphasizes designing out waste, which includes:
- Optimizing production processes
- Reducing material loss
- Prioritizing durability and repairability of products
- This further reduces emissions by limiting resource extraction and waste disposal processes (e.g., landfilling and incineration), both of which generate GHGs.
Q40) Consider the following statements:
- Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.
- Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.
- Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Statement I: Correct
- Capital receipts are those government receipts which either create a liability (e.g., borrowings) or reduce financial assets (e.g., disinvestment).
- Examples:
- Borrowings from domestic or foreign sources → create future repayment obligation.
- Disinvestment (sale of shares in PSUs) → reduces ownership/assets.
Statement II: Correct
- Borrowings (internal or external) and disinvestment are both classified as capital receipts.
- Borrowings = liability
- Disinvestment = reduction in assets
- These are non-recurring in nature and typically used for capital expenditures or to finance deficits.
Statement III: Incorrect
- Interest received on loans (e.g., from states or PSUs) is a non-tax revenue receipt, not a capital receipt.
- It is considered revenue income for the government and does not create any liability.
- In fact, it is a return on previous capital expenditure.
|
Source: https://cag.gov.in/uploads/old_reports/state/Punjab/rep_2001/comm_ch7.pdf |
Q41) Consider the following countries:
- Austria
- Bulgaria
- Croatia
- Serbia
- Sweden
- North Macedonia
How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
- Only three
- Only four
- Only five
- All the six
Answer: 2
Explanation:
NATO membership status as of 2024:
|
Country |
NATO Membership |
Remarks |
|
Austria |
No |
Constitutionally neutral; not part of NATO. |
|
Bulgaria |
Yes |
Joined NATO in 2004. |
|
Croatia |
Yes |
Joined NATO in 2009. |
|
Serbia |
No |
Military neutral, not a NATO member, maintains ties with Russia. |
|
Sweden |
Yes |
Officially joined NATO in March 2024. |
|
North Macedonia |
Yes |
Became a NATO member in March 2020. |
Total NATO members among the six listed = 4
- Members: Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, North Macedonia
- Non-members: Austria, Serbia
Q42) Consider the following countries:
- Bolivia
- Brazil
- Colombia
- Ecuador
- Paraguay
- Venezuela
Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
- Only two
- Only three
- Only four
- Only five
Answer: 3
Explanation:
The Andes Mountains form the longest continental mountain range in the world, stretching along the western edge of South America, passing through seven countries in total:
- Argentina, Bolivia, Chile, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, and Venezuela
- Let’s examine whether the Andes pass through each of the given countries:
|
Country |
Andes Present? |
Explanation |
|
Bolivia |
Yes |
The Andes dominate Bolivia’s western region (e.g., Altiplano plateau). |
|
Brazil |
No |
The Andes do not extend into Brazil, which lies to the east of the range. |
|
Colombia |
Yes |
The Andes split into three branches (Cordilleras) in Colombia. |
|
Ecuador |
Yes |
The Andes form the spine of the country, dividing it into coastal and Amazon regions. |
|
Paraguay |
No |
Paraguay lies to the east of the Andes; it is not crossed by the mountain range. |
|
Venezuela |
Yes |
The northernmost extension of the Andes enters Venezuela (Cordillera de Mérida). |
Q43) Consider the following water bodies:
- Lake Tanganyika
- Lake Tonlé Sap
- Patos Lagoon
Through how many of them does the equator pass?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 4
Explanation:
- Lake Tanganyika – Does not lie on the Equator
- Location: Bordering Tanzania, Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Burundi, and Zambia
- Although its northern tip is very close to the Equator (around 3°S), the Equator does not cross the lake.
2. Lake Tonlé Sap – Does not lie on the Equator
- Location: In Cambodia, Southeast Asia
- Cambodia lies entirely north of the Equator (approximately 10°N to 14°N)
- Hence, Lake Tonlé Sap is well north of the Equator.
3. Patos Lagoon – Does not lie on the Equator
- Location: Southern Brazil, near Porto Alegre
- It lies well south of the Equator, even south of the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5°S)
Equator Passes Through:
The Equator traverses the land or territorial waters of 13 countries:
- Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, São Tomé & Príncipe, Gabon, Republic of the Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Maldives (via oceanic territory), Indonesia, and Kiribati
But none of the lakes mentioned above are intersected by the Equator.
|
Source: https://www.thoughtco.com/countries-that-lie-on-the-equator-1435319 |
Q44) Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:
- India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
- More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
- Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Statement 1: India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world – Correct
- In 2022–23, India accounted for approximately 75% of global turmeric production.
- India also held 62% of the global turmeric export market, making it the world’s leading producer, consumer, and exporter of turmeric.
- Major export destinations included Bangladesh, UAE, the US, and Malaysia.
Statement 2: More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India – Correct
- India cultivates over 30 recognized varieties of turmeric across more than 20 states.
- Some well-known varieties include Lakadong (Meghalaya), Kandhamal (Odisha), Erode (Tamil Nadu), and Armoor (Telangana) – many of which hold Geographical Indication (GI) tags.
Statement 3: Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric-producing States – Correct
- These four states are among the top turmeric producers in India.
- Nizamabad (Telangana), Sangli (Maharashtra), Erode (Tamil Nadu), and regions in North Karnataka are known for large-scale turmeric farming.
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Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1964083 |
Q45) Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?
- The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
- The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
- The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1 and 3 only
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Statement 1: Ancient rock belts from Brazil and Western Africa match: correct
- The Precambrian rock formations on the eastern coast of Brazil closely match those found on the western coast of Africa, particularly in Ghana and Angola.
- This supports the idea that South America and Africa were once joined together.
Statement 2: Gold deposits of Ghana derived from Brazil plateau: correct
- Ghana’s placer gold deposits do not have nearby source rocks.
- Geologists believe these deposits were originally part of Brazil’s plateau, indicating a shared geologic history when the two landmasses were once adjacent.
Statement 3: Gondwana sediments have counterparts in six southern landmasses: correct
- The Gondwana rock system found in India is also found in:
- Africa
- Antarctica
- Australia
- Madagascar
- Falkland Islands
- South America
- These similarities in rock strata and fossils support the idea of a common landmass before continental drift.
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Source: NCERT Class 11 Geography – Fundamentals of Physical Geography Chapter 4 – Distribution of Oceans and Continents Page 27 |
Q46) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Statement I: Correct
- Dust concentration is higher in subtropical and temperate regions than in equatorial or polar areas.
- Why? These regions are drier, experience stronger winds, and are closer to major desert belts (like the Sahara, Arabian, and Gobi deserts).
- Dry winds and less vegetation cover allow dust to remain suspended in the air more easily.
- In contrast, equatorial regions have high rainfall and dense vegetation, which washes dust particles out of the air, while polar regions are cold and have minimal dust activity.
Statement II: Incorrect
- The statement claims that subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds, which is incorrect.
- In fact, subtropical high-pressure zones (like the Horse Latitudes) are dominated by descending dry air and desiccating winds, making these areas much drier than equatorial or polar regions.
- Temperate zones too often experience dry, cold, or continental winds depending on the season.
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Source: NCERT Class 11 Geography – Fundamentals of Physical Geography Chapter 7 – Composition and Structure of Atmosphere – Page 64 |
Q47) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Statement I: Correct
- Isotherms are lines joining points of equal temperature on a map.
- In January, during the Northern Hemisphere winter:
- Over landmasses, temperatures fall sharply due to continental cooling. As a result, isotherms bend equatorward (southward).
- Over oceans, water retains heat longer than land, so temperatures remain relatively higher. Therefore, isotherms bend poleward (northward) across oceans.
This pattern is visible in:
- Europe and Asia: Cold continental interiors cause southward bending.
- North Atlantic Ocean: Warm ocean currents like the Gulf Stream keep the ocean warmer, causing isotherms to bend northward.
Statement II: Correct
- In January, landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere lose heat quickly due to their low specific heat capacity, while oceans cool down slowly.
- Thus, the air above oceans is warmer than above land during this time.
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Source: NCERT Class 11 Geography – Fundamentals of Physical Geography – Chapter 8 – Solar Radiation, Heat Balance and Temperature – Page 71 |
Q48) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
- Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
- Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
- Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Statement I: Correct
- Chalk is a porous and permeable rock, which allows water to pass through easily.
- Clay, though it can hold water due to its fine grains, is very impermeable to water movement.
- Hence, the comparison of high permeability of chalk vs. low permeability of clay is accurate.
Statement II: Correct
- Chalk is porous, containing many tiny air spaces which allow it to absorb and transmit water, making it permeable.
- This explains why chalk is a permeable rock. So, Statement II is correct and explains Statement I.
Statement III: Incorrect
- Clay is not completely non-porous.
- It has very fine pores (micropores), meaning it can absorb water, but water moves through it extremely slowly, making it almost impermeable, not absolutely non-porous.
Q49) Consider the following statements:
- Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
- Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
- Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct
- Without the atmosphere, Earth would not have the natural greenhouse effect, leading to extremely low surface temperatures.
- The average temperature would drop to around -18°C or lower, well below freezing, making life unsustainable.
- The atmosphere traps heat and prevents it from escaping too quickly into space, maintaining a livable climate.
Statement 2: Correct
- The atmosphere absorbs solar radiation and reradiates infrared (heat) energy, maintaining the planet’s average surface temperature at around 15°C (59°F).
- This blanket effect prevents wild temperature swings between day and night.
Statement 3: Correct
- Certain greenhouse gases in the atmosphere — especially carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), nitrous oxide (N₂O), and water vapor — are very effective at absorbing and trapping longwave radiation (infrared).
- These gases regulate Earth’s temperature, and increases in their concentration contribute to global warming and climate change.
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Source: NCERT Class 11 Geography – Fundamentals of Physical Geography, Chapter: Composition and Structure of the Atmosphere |
Q50) Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:
- It is important for the upliftment of rural poor, as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
- It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct
- The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) aims to conserve and develop indigenous breeds of cattle and buffaloes.
- The mission plays a crucial role in the upliftment of the rural poor, especially because over 80% of low-producing indigenous animals are owned by small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
- By improving productivity and providing infrastructure for animal husbandry, the scheme supports livelihood enhancement in rural areas.
Statement 2: Correct
- The RGM was launched with the objective of promoting indigenous bovine breeds through scientific methods, such as:
- Genomic selection,
- Artificial insemination,
- Establishment of Gokul Grams (indigenous cattle centers),
- Enhancing milk productivity in a sustainable manner.
- The scheme adopts a holistic approach by integrating breed conservation with rural economy and dairy sector development.
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Source: https://agri.gujarat.gov.in/Home/gldb/RashtriyaGokulMission |
Q51) Consider the following statements:
- Panchayats at the intermediate level (exist in all States.
- To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
- The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Statement I: Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States
Incorrect statement.
Intermediate-level Panchayats (Block-level or Panchayat Samiti) exist only in states with a population above 20 lakhs, as per Article 243B of the Constitution.
Therefore, not all states have Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Statement I is NOT correct.
Statement II: To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years
Incorrect.
As per Article 243F of the Constitution and relevant State Panchayat Acts, the minimum age to be a Panchayat member is 21 years, not 30 years.
Statement III: The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats…
Incorrect.
The State Finance Commission (SFC) is constituted by the Governor, not the Chief Minister, under Article 243I of the Constitution.
It reviews the financial position of Panchayats and makes recommendations regarding the distribution of financial resources.
Q52) Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC :
- It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
- It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
- Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
- In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 1 and 4
- 1 only
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Statement I: It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.
Correct. As of January 2025, BIMSTEC comprises seven member states: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
Statement II: It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.
Incorrect. BIMSTEC was established on 6 June 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration, not the Dhaka Declaration.
Statement III: Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.
Incorrect. The founding members in 1997 were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. Myanmar joined later in 1997, and Nepal and Bhutan became full members in 2004
Statement IV: In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India.
Incorrect. Nepal is the lead country for the ‘Tourism’ sector within BIMSTEC.
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Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2100771 |
Q53) Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?
- The President of India
- The Prime Minister of India
- The Chief Justice of India
- The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 2 and 4 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2, 2 and 4
- 1 and 3 only
Answer: 3
Explanation:
The Gandhi Peace Prize jury comprises the following members:C
Prime Minister of India (Chairperson)
Chief Justice of India
Leader of the single largest Opposition Party in the Lok Sabha
Two eminent persons nominated for a term of three years
These members collectively decide the recipient of the Gandhi Peace Prize.
Evaluating the Given Options:
Statement 1: The President of India Incorrect. The President is not a member of the jury.
Statement 2: The Prime Minister of India Correct. The Prime Minister serves as the Chairperson of the jury.
Statement 3: The Chief Justice of India Correct. The Chief Justice is an ex-officio member of the jury.
Statement 4: The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Correct. The Leader of the single largest Opposition Party in the Lok Sabha is an ex-officio member of the jury.
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Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1706590 |
Q54) GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?
- It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.
- It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.
- It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1, 2 and 3
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 only
- 1 and 2 only
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Statement I: It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity. Correct. The GAGAN system is specifically designed to provide additional accuracy, availability, and integrity necessary to enable users to rely on GPS for all phases of flight—from en route through approach—across all qualified airports within the GAGAN service area.
Statement II: It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management. Correct. GAGAN enhances Air Traffic Management (ATM) by providing improved positional accuracy and integrity, leading to more uniform and high-quality air traffic operations.
Statement III: It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation. Incorrect. While developed for aviation, GAGAN also provides benefits to other modes of transportation such as maritime, highways, and railroads by enhancing navigation and positional accuracy.
Q55) Consider the following statements regarding Al Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:
- Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
- Along with other countries US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable Al.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: 1
Explanation:
- Statement I: Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.
- Correct. The AI Action Summit held in Paris in February 2025 was co-chaired by French President Emmanuel Macron and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi. This summit built upon the progress made during the Bletchley Park Summit in November 2023 and the Seoul Summit in May 2024.
- Statement II: Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.
- Incorrect. While the summit concluded with the “Statement on Inclusive and Sustainable Artificial Intelligence for People and the Planet,” the United States and the United Kingdom declined to sign this declaration. Their refusal was based on concerns that the declaration did not sufficiently address global AI governance and national security implications.
Q56) Consider the following pairs :
- International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026
- International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027
- International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025
- International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All the four
Answer: 4
Explanation:
International Year of the Woman Farmer – 2026
- Correct. The United Nations General Assembly declared 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer. This initiative aims to highlight the vital role women play in agriculture and address the challenges they face in the sector. USDA
International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism – 2027
- Correct. In February 2024, the UN General Assembly proclaimed 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism. This designation emphasizes the importance of sustainable tourism in promoting economic growth, cultural preservation, and environmental protection.
International Year of Peace and Trust – 2025
- Correct. The UN General Assembly adopted a resolution designating 2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust. This year aims to foster peace and trust among nations through dialogue and cooperation.
International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence – 2029
- Correct. In December 2024, the UN General Assembly declared 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence. This observance seeks to raise global awareness about the potential threats posed by asteroids and the importance of planetary defense measures.
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Source: https://www.un.org/en/observances/tourism-resilience-day |
Q57) Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS;
- 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
- Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
- The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1 only
Answer: 1
Explanation:
- Statement I: 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.
- Correct. The 16th BRICS Summit took place in Kazan, Russia, from October 22 to 24, 2024, under the Russian Chairmanship.
- Statement II: Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.
- Correct. Indonesia officially joined BRICS as a full member in January 2025, becoming the first Southeast Asian country to do so.
- Statement III: The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.
- Incorrect. The official theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was “Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security.
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Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2067386 |
Q58) Consider the following statements about Lokpal :
- The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
- The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
- The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
- Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 4 only
- None of the above statements is correct
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Statement I: Incorrect
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 applies to all public servants, including those posted outside India.
There is no exemption for public servants stationed abroad.
Statement II: Incorrect
While it is true that the Chairperson or a Member cannot be a sitting MP or MLA, the Chairperson need not be only the Chief Justice of India.
The Chairperson can be:
A former Chief Justice of India,
A former Judge of the Supreme Court, or
An eminent person of impeccable integrity and outstanding ability with special knowledge and expertise of not less than 25 years in matters relating to anti-corruption, public administration, law, etc.
Statement III: Correct
As per Section 3(2) of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, the Chairperson or a Member shall not be less than 45 years of age on the date of assuming office.
Statement IV: Incorrect
Lokpal can inquire into allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister, but with restrictions.
For example, such inquiries cannot be related to matters of:
International relations
External and internal security
Public order
Atomic energy and space
Additionally, the complaint must be cleared by a full bench of the Lokpal before proceeding.
Q59) Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:
- The event was held in Delhi, India.
- Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.
- Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Statement I: Correct
The first Kho Kho World Cup was held at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi, from 13 to 21 January 2024.
Organized by the Kho Kho Federation of India and supported by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Statement II: Incorrect
In the men’s final, India defeated Nepal with a score of 54–36, not 78–40.
Statement III: Incorrect
In the women’s final, India beat Nepal with a score of 78–40, not 54–36.
Summary of Actual Scores:
|
Category |
Winner |
Runner-up |
Final Score |
|
Men |
India |
Nepal |
54–36 |
|
Women |
India |
Nepal |
78–40 |
|
Source: https://www.olympics.com/en/news/kho-kho-world-cup-2025-final-india-vs-nepal-men-women-match-report |
Q60) Consider the following statements :
- In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Jan Nepomniachtchi
- Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
-
-
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2Answer: 2
-
Explanation:
- Statement I: In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Jan Nepomniachtchi.
- Incorrect. The 45th Chess Olympiad, held in Budapest in September 2024, is a team-based event without individual finals. While Gukesh Dommaraju delivered an outstanding performance, scoring 9 out of 10 points on board one with a rating performance of 3056, there was no individual final match against Jan Nepomniachtchi. Therefore, this statement is factually incorrect.
- Statement II: Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.
- Correct. Abhimanyu Mishra became the youngest Grandmaster in chess history on June 30, 2021, at the age of 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days, breaking the previous record held by Sergey Karjakin
Q61) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television, screens and computer monitors,
Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: 1
Explanation:
- Statement I is correct. Certain rare earth elements (REEs) such as europium, yttrium, and terbium are used in manufacturing flat screen televisions, LED displays, and computer monitors because of their unique optical properties.
- Statement II is also correct. These rare earth elements exhibit phosphorescent or luminescent properties, meaning they can emit light when excited by electrons, which makes them valuable in display technologies.
Source :
Q62) Consider the following statements:
- Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future ready railway system by 2028.
- ‘Kavach’ an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
- ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 1
Explanation:
- Statement I: Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a future-ready railway system by 2028.
- Incorrect. The National Rail Plan (NRP) aims to develop a future-ready railway system by 2030, not 2028. The plan focuses on strategies to increase the modal share of railways in freight transportation to 45% and enhance overall infrastructure and services.
- Statement II: ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
- Incorrect. ‘Kavach’ is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system by Indian Railways’ Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO), in collaboration with Indian companies such as Medha Servo Drives, HBL Power Systems, and Kernex Microsystems. While international companies like Siemens have shown interest in deploying Kavach, the system itself was not developed in collaboration with Germany.
- Statement III: ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.
- Correct. The Kavach system employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tags installed on tracks in station sections, block sections, and near signals. These tags provide real-time trackside information to the onboard Kavach units, enhancing train safety by preventing collisions and signal passing at danger (SPAD) incidents.
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Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1806617 |
Q63) Consider the following pace missions :
- Axiom-4
- SpaDeX
- Gaganyaan
How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Axiom-4
- The Axiom Mission-4 (Ax-4), scheduled for launch on June 8, 2025, is a collaborative effort involving NASA, ISRO, and ESA. Indian astronaut Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla will conduct several microgravity experiments aboard the International Space Station (ISS), including studies on space agriculture, such as growing green gram (moong) and fenugreek (methi) seeds. These experiments aim to explore sustainable food options for long-duration space missions.
SpaDeX
- The Space Docking Experiment (SpaDeX), launched by ISRO, primarily aimed to demonstrate autonomous docking capabilities between two satellites. Additionally, the mission utilized the PSLV’s fourth stage (POEM-4) as an orbital platform to conduct microgravity experiments, including the Compact Research Module for Orbital Plant Studies (CROPS), which successfully demonstrated seed germination and plant growth in space.
Gaganyaan
- India’s Gaganyaan mission, its first crewed spaceflight program, is set to conduct multiple microgravity experiments. ISRO plans to perform four biological and two physical science experiments related to microgravity during the mission. These experiments will focus on human health, space medicine, and the behavior of living organisms in microgravity conditions.
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Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2122687 |
Q64) With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:
Aircraft type : Description
- Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft
- IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft
- C-17 Globe- : Military transport aircraft master III
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 2
Explanation:
I. Dornier-228 – Maritime patrol aircraft
Correct
- The Dornier Do-228 is a twin-turboprop utility aircraft used by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard for maritime surveillance, patrol, and transport duties.
II. IL-76 – Supersonic combat aircraft
Incorrect
- The Ilyushin IL-76 is a strategic airlifter, not a combat aircraft.
- It is a heavy transport aircraft used for cargo and troop movement, not supersonic nor designed for combat.
III. C-17 Globemaster III – Military transport aircraft
Correct
The C-17 Globemaster III is a large military transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force for strategic airlift of troops and cargo.
Q65) Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of
- silver iodide and potassium iodide
- silver nitrate and potassium iodide
- silver iodide and potassium nitrate
- silver nitrate and potassium chloride
Answer: 1
Explanation:
- Cloud seeding is an artificial method to induce rainfall, often used to combat drought or reduce air pollution by washing out pollutants.
- The commonly used chemicals for cloud seeding include:
- Silver iodide (AgI): Provides nuclei for condensation of water vapor into droplets.
- Potassium iodide (KI): Can also be used for nucleation in some cases.
- Dry ice (solid CO₂) is another method but less common in tropical countries
Q66) Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India :
- The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
- The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Statement 1: The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review
Correct.
- The Supreme Court in Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of Andhra Pradesh (2006) held that the President’s pardoning power under Article 72 is subject to judicial review if exercised arbitrarily, mala fide, or in disregard of constitutionalism.
- Courts can examine whether the decision was based on relevant considerations, but cannot sit in appeal over the merits of the decision.
- Statement 2: The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government
Incorrect.
- As per Article 74 of the Constitution, the President is bound to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
- This includes the exercise of the pardoning powers under Article 72.
- The President cannot act independently in this regard
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Source: M Laxmikanth Indian Polity Book.(Pg. No 198 |
7th edition) |
Q67) Consider the following statements:
- On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
- According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political Ammediately party
- The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: 3
Explanation:
- Statement I: Correct Article 94 of the Constitution states that the Speaker does not vacate office upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha and continues until a new Speaker is elected.
Hence, Statement I is correct. - Statement II: Incorrect The Constitution does not mandate resignation from a political party on being elected as Speaker. While impartiality is expected, there is no formal requirement for resignation.
- Hence, Statement II is not correct.
- Statement III: Correct As per Article 94(c) and Rule 11 of the Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure,
the Speaker may be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members (i.e., effective majority), with a 14-day advance notice required. Hence, Statement III is correct.
Source: Laxmikant 7 edition ( Pg. 229)
Q68) Consider the following statements:
- If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
- There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: 4
Explanation:
The Anti-Defection Law, added as the Tenth Schedule by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985, provides the grounds and procedure for disqualification of elected members for defection. Its purpose is to promote political stability and discourage party-switching among legislators.
🔸 Statement I: Incorrect
As per Paragraph 6(1) of the Tenth Schedule, the power to decide on disqualification on grounds of defection lies with the Speaker (Lok Sabha) or the Chairman (Rajya Sabha), not with the President.
Additionally, this decision is subject to judicial review, as established in the Kihoto Hollohan case (1992).
🔸 Statement II: Incorrect
The term ‘political party’ is explicitly mentioned multiple times in the Tenth Schedule (e.g., Paragraph 2), which deals with disqualification for defection.
|
SOURCE: Constitution of India – Tenth Schedule |
Q69) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Statement I: Incorrect
Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act):
State Governments have the power to make rules for the grant of concessions, regulation of mining, and transportation of minor minerals.
This includes powers over royalty rates, lease terms, and procedural regulations.
Hence, states do have authority over the management and concession of minor minerals.
Statement II: Correct
The Central Government has the power to declare a mineral as a minor mineral under the MMDR Act.
For example, limestone, granite, sand, and gravel are notified as minor minerals by the Central Government.
Once a mineral is notified as a minor mineral, regulatory powers are delegated to State Governments.
|
Source: |
|
https://www.indiacode.nic.in/bitstream/123456789/1421/3/A1957-67.pdf |
|
https://ibm.gov.in/writereaddata/files/10252016173841Mineral%20digest%20PartI.pdf |
Q70) Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
- The European Union
- The World Bank
- The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
- The Food and Agriculture Organization
Answer: 1
Explanation:
- The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) was passed by the European Union (EU) in 2024.
- It is the first continent-wide law aimed at restoring degraded ecosystems, enhancing biodiversity, and contributing to the EU’s climate neutrality goals by 2050.
- The law sets legally binding restoration targets for member states to revive forests, wetlands, rivers, and marine habitats.
- It is a key part of the EU Green Deal and EU Biodiversity Strategy for 2030.
Q71) Suppose the revenue expenditure is Rs.80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are Rs.60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of Rs.10,000 crores and interest payments of Rs.6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?
- Revenue deficit is Rs.20,000 crores.
- Fiscal deficit is Rs.10,000 crores.
- Primary deficit is Rs.4,000 crores.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 4
Explanation:
- Revenue Deficit =Revenue Expenditure−Revenue Receipts=80,000−60,000=₹20,000 crores= text{Revenue Expenditure} – text{Revenue Receipts} = 80,000 – 60,000 = textbf{₹20,000 crores}=Revenue Expenditure−Revenue Receipts=80,000−60,000=₹20,000 crores
So, Statement I is correct.
- Fiscal Deficit =Borrowings=₹10,000 crores= text{Borrowings} = textbf{₹10,000 crores}=Borrowings=₹10,000 crores
So, Statement II is correct.
- Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit−Interest Payments=10,000−6,000=₹4,000 crores= text{Fiscal Deficit} – text{Interest Payments} = 10,000 – 6,000 = textbf{₹4,000 crores}= Fiscal Deficit−Interest Payments=10,000−6,000=₹4,000 crores
So, Statement III is correct.
Q72) India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal a transportation corridor, which will connect
- India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
- India to Central Asia via China
- India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
- India to Europe through Azerbaijan
Answer: 1
Explanation:
- The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) was passed by the European Union (EU) in 2024.
- It is the first continent-wide law aimed at restoring degraded ecosystems, enhancing biodiversity, and contributing to the EU’s climate neutrality goals by 2050.
- The law sets legally binding restoration targets for member states to revive forests, wetlands, rivers, and marine habitats.
- It is a key part of the EU Green Deal and EU Biodiversity Strategy for 2030.
|
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1892221 |
Q73) Consider the following statements :
Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.
Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Statement I: Incorrect
- The United States is the world’s largest producer of ethanol, followed by Brazil.
- As of recent global data (including 2023), the U.S. produces more ethanol than Brazil, primarily due to its large corn-based ethanol industry.
Statement II: Correct
- In the U.S., corn is indeed the primary feedstock for ethanol production.
- In Brazil, sugarcane is the main feedstock due to its abundance and high sucrose content, making ethanol production more efficient and environmentally sustainable.
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Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/india-brazil-wto-sugar-related-dispute-9008032/ |
Q74) The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?
- Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.
- The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Statement I: “Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.”
Incorrect
- While Peninsular India may indeed experience flooding, cyclones, and droughts due to climate change,
- The World Bank’s warning on wet-bulb temperature is not about these events, but about extreme humid heat and heat stress-related mortality.
- Therefore, this statement does not reflect the core implication of the wet-bulb temperature warning.
Statement II: “The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.”
Correct
- This is exactly the concern raised by the World Bank.
- At wet-bulb temperatures beyond 35°C, perspiration fails, and thermoregulation breaks down, leading to potentially lethal conditions even in shade and with rest.
- This is a direct and correct reflection of the implication.
Q75) A country’s fiscal deficit stands at Rs.50,000 crores. It is receiving Rs.10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are Rs.1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
- Rs.48,500 crores
- Rs.51,500 crores
- Rs.58,500 crores
- None of the above
Answer: 1
Explanation:
- Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments
= ₹50,000 crores−₹1,500 crores=₹48,500 crores= ₹50,000,text{crores} – ₹1,500,text{crores} = ₹48,500,text{crores}=₹50,000crores−₹1,500crores=₹48,500crores
- Non-debt creating capital receipts (like disinvestment or recovery of loans) are relevant for fiscal deficit composition, but do not affect the primary deficit calculation, which focuses only on interest burden.
Q76) Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?
- It has recommended grants of ₹ 4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.
- 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.
- ₹ 45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.
- It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1, 2 and 4
- 1, 3 and 4
- 2, 3 and 4
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Statement I: Correct
- The 15th Finance Commission recommended a grant of ₹4,800 crores during 2022–23 to 2025–26 to incentivize states for better educational outcomes, especially in school education.
- This is aimed at rewarding improvements in learning outcomes and educational governance.
Statement II: Incorrect
- The share of states in the net proceeds of Union taxes is 41%, not 45%.
- This is the same as the 14th Finance Commission, maintained by the 15th FC.
- It was reduced from the originally recommended 42% to 41% to accommodate funding needs for the new Union Territories of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
Statement III: Correct
- The 15th FC recommended ₹45,000 crores as a performance-based incentive for states undertaking agricultural reforms.
- These include agricultural marketing reforms, crop diversification, and enhancing productivity.
Statement IV: Correct
- The tax effort criterion was reintroduced in the devolution formula.
- It was given a weightage of 2.5% to encourage states to raise their own revenues (measured via tax-to-GSDP ratio).
- It rewards fiscally disciplined states with higher efficiency in tax collection.
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Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1693868 |
Q77) Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):
- It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.
- It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.
- It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Statement I: Correct
- The IBRD is the lending arm of the World Bank Group that provides loans and guarantees to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.
- It aims to promote sustainable development and reduce poverty in these nations.
Statement II: Incorrect
- The IBRD does not work single-handedly.
- It is one of five institutions that collectively form the World Bank Group, which includes:
- IBRD
- IDA (International Development Association)
- IFC (International Finance Corporation)
- MIGA (Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency)
- ICSID (International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes)
- These institutions work together to support development in member countries.
Statement III: Correct
- The IBRD was established in 1944 during the Bretton Woods Conference, primarily to help European countries rebuild after the destruction caused by World War II.
- Over time, its mission expanded to include development assistance to middle-income countries globally.
Q78) Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:
- In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, is takes some time to settle payments.
- In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.
- Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- I only
- I and II
- I and III
- III only
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Statement I: Correct
- RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement):
- Funds are settled instantly, in real time, and on a transaction-by-transaction basis.
- It is suitable for high-value transactions (minimum ₹2 lakh).
- NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer):
- Funds are transferred in batches, on a deferred net settlement (DNS) basis.
- So, there is a delay compared to RTGS, although the gap is small (settled every 30 minutes).
Statement II: Incorrect
- As per the RBI guidelines, no charges are levied on inward transactions (i.e., when you receive money) in both RTGS and NEFT.
- Charges may apply to outward transactions, depending on the bank and amount, but receiving funds is free in both systems.
Statement III: Incorrect
- As per RBI’s latest update:
- Both RTGS and NEFT are now available 24×7, 365 days a year, including Sundays and bank holidays.
- This was implemented:
- NEFT: 24×7 from December 2019
- RTGS: 24×7 from December 2020
So, there are no restricted operating hours anymore for either.
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Source: https://www.rbi.org.in/commonman/english/Scripts/FAQs.aspx?Id=275 |
Q79) Consider the following countries:
- United Arab Emirates
- France
- Germany
- Singapore
- Bangladesh
How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
- Only two
- Only three
- Only four
- All the five
Answer: 2
Explanation
The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is India’s flagship real-time payment system. In recent years, it has been expanded internationally to allow Indian travelers to make merchant payments abroad using UPI apps like PhonePe, Google Pay, Paytm, etc. Let’s evaluate each country:
|
Country |
UPI Acceptance Status (as of May 2025) |
Status |
|
United Arab Emirates (UAE) |
Yes. Through partnerships with NeoPay (Mashreq Bank), UPI is accepted at many retail outlets. |
Accepted |
|
France |
Yes. UPI payments started in February 2024, starting with places like the Eiffel Tower. |
Accepted |
|
Germany |
No official integration with UPI or merchant acceptance announced yet. |
Not accepted |
|
Singapore |
Yes. UPI is linked with PayNow, enabling merchant payments at over 30,000 locations. |
Accepted |
|
Bangladesh |
No UPI merchant payment support. Only conventional cross-border banking systems are used. |
Not accepted |
Total countries where UPI merchant payments are accepted (other than India):
- UAE
- France
- Singapore
Total = 3 countries
|
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2057013 |
Q80) Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:
- It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.
- The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.
- It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up- skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 4
Explanation:
The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana is a centrally sponsored scheme launched in 2024 to promote solar energy adoption in the residential sector, particularly among households.
Statement I: Correct
- The scheme targets the installation of 1 crore (10 million) solar rooftop systems in residential homes by March 2027.
- It aims to provide up to 300 units of free electricity per month to these households.
Statement II: Correct
- The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), which is the nodal agency for the scheme, has included a component of grassroots-level training.
- This includes training on installation, maintenance, operation, and repairs of rooftop solar systems, to ensure long-term functionality and employment generation.
Statement III: Correct
- The scheme has an ambitious capacity-building component aiming to create over 3 lakh skilled workers.
- This includes:
- 1 lakh Solar PV Technicians
- Training through fresh skilling and upskilling programs
- Collaboration with Skill India Mission, ITIs, and local institutions
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Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2081250 |
Q81) Which reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
- An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
- An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
- An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct
- An ordinance has the same force as an Act of Parliament, once issued.
- Therefore, it can amend or repeal any existing Central Act, provided it adheres to constitutional provisions.
Statement 2: Not Correct
- As per Article 13 of the Constitution:
“The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by this Part (Fundamental Rights).”
- An ordinance is considered “law” under Article 13, so it cannot abridge or violate Fundamental Rights.
- Hence, ordinances are subject to judicial review and can be struck down if they violate fundamental rights.
Statement 3: Correct
- Ordinances can be retrospective, i.e., they can be made effective from a date before the date of their promulgation.
- Example:
- Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Ordinance, 2016, which was promulgated in January 2016 but amended the 1968 Act with retrospective effect.
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Source: Laxmikanth Page – 225 |
Q82) Consider the following pairs:
|
State |
Description |
|
I. Arunachal Pradesh |
The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks |
|
II. Nagaland |
The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act |
|
III. Tripura |
Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory in 1956, and later attained full statehood |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- Only one
- Only two
- All three
- None
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh – Correct
- Capital: Itanagar
- The city is named after the historical Ita Fort (14th century) built with bricks (Ita = brick).
- National Parks:
- Namdapha National Park (Eastern Arunachal, known for biodiversity)
- Mouling National Park (located in the Siang district)
Pair II: Nagaland – Correct
- Nagaland was formed as a state on 1st December 1963.
- It was established through the Constitution (13th Amendment) Act, 1962, which inserted Article 371A into the Constitution.
- Article 371A provides special constitutional safeguards to Nagaland’s customary laws, ownership of land and resources, and religious practices.
Pair III: Tripura – Correct
- Historical Status:
- Became a Part ‘C’ state after its merger with the Indian Union in 1949.
- Under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, it became a Union Territory (centrally administered).
- On 21st January 1972, Tripura became a full-fledged state under the North Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.
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Source: https://thenationalparksofindia.in/parks/?q=&sta=6&ani= https://schooleducation.tripura.gov.in/index.php/state-profile |
Q83) With reference to India, consider the following:
- The Inter-State Council
- The National Security Council
- Zonal Councils
How many of the above are established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 1
Explanation:
1. Inter-State Council – Established by the Constitution
- Article 263 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council.
- It may be constituted by the President if it appears to him that such a body would serve the public interest.
- It aims to facilitate coordination between states and between the Centre and the states.
- Accordingly, the Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 based on Sarkaria Commission recommendations.
This is the only body among the three that has a constitutional backing.
2. National Security Council (NSC) – Not a constitutional body
- Established in 1999 by the Government of India through an executive order.
- Functions as an advisory body on matters of national security and strategic interest.
- Chaired by the Prime Minister and assisted by the National Security Advisor (NSA).
- It is neither constitutional nor statutory.
Not established under the Constitution.
3. Zonal Councils – Statutory bodies, not constitutional
- Created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 (a Parliamentary law).
- Not mentioned anywhere in the Constitution.
- Five Zonal Councils were created: Northern, Central, Eastern, Western, and Southern.
- Additionally, the North Eastern Council was set up by a separate Act: North Eastern Council Act, 1971.
Statutory bodies, not constitutional bodies.
|
Source: Laxmikanth Page (7th Edition) 170, 167 |
Q84) Consider the following statements:
- The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
- The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- I only
- II only
- Both 1 and II
- Neither I nor II
Answer: 1
Explanation:
Statement I: Correct
- The Governor of a state generally acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
- However, the Constitution explicitly provides certain situations where the Governor can act in his/her discretion, i.e., without the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. Examples include:
- Article 200 – Reserving a Bill for the consideration of the President.
- The Governor may act in discretion in deciding whether or not to reserve the Bill.
- Article 371A(1)(b) – Nagaland: The Governor has discretionary power in relation to law and order.
- Article 371H(a) – Arunachal Pradesh: Discretionary powers in relation to law and order are granted to the Governor.
- While recommending President’s Rule under Article 356, the Governor may send a report on his own discretion.
- Article 200 – Reserving a Bill for the consideration of the President.
Hence, Statement I is correct.
Statement II: Incorrect
- Under Article 200, only the Governor of a state has the power to reserve a Bill passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President.
- The President cannot act suo motu (on their own) to take up any State Bill without it being reserved by the Governor.
|
Source: Laxmikanth 7th Edition (Governor) – page 321 |
Q80) Consider the following pairs:
|
Provision in the Constitution of India |
Stated under |
|
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State |
The Directive Principles of the State Policy |
|
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture |
The Fundamental Duties |
|
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories |
The Fundamental Rights |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Pair I: Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State – The Directive Principles of the State Policy
Correct
- This is mentioned in Article 50 under the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
- It aims to ensure the independence of the judiciary at the state level.
Pair II: Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture – The Fundamental Duties
Correct
- This is listed as a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(f).
- It obliges citizens to value and preserve the rich heritage of India’s composite culture.
Pair III: Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories – The Fundamental Rights
Correct
- This is mentioned in Article 24, which falls under Part III: Fundamental Rights.
- It prohibits child labour in hazardous environments like factories.
Explanation:
|
Provision |
Stated under |
Status |
|
Separation of Judiciary from Executive |
Article 50 – DPSP |
Correct |
|
Valuing heritage of composite culture |
Article 51A(f) – Fundamental Duty |
Correct |
|
Prohibition of child labour below 14 in factories |
Article 24 – Fundamental Right |
Correct |
Source: Laxmikanth 6th edition page 244, 210, 266
Q86) Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:
- The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.
- The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- I only
- II only
- Both I and II
- Neither I nor II
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Statement I: INCORRECT
- The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution provides for special governance mechanisms for Scheduled Areas but does not strip the State Government of its executive powers.
- The State continues to govern these areas, subject to special provisions.
- A Tribal Advisory Council (TAC) and powers granted to the Governor (e.g., modifying laws for these areas) aim to protect tribal interests, but no local body takes over full administration.
Statement II: INCORRECT
- The Union Government cannot take over total administration of Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, even on the Governor’s recommendation.
- The Governor has special powers and may:
- Modify or annul laws for Scheduled Areas.
- Submit an annual report to the President regarding administration of Scheduled Areas.
- The Governor, not the Union, plays a central role in administration, and no constitutional provision allows the Centre to directly take over.
Sources: Laxmikanth 6th edition page 882
Q87) With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
|
Organization |
Union Ministry |
|
I. The National Automotive Board |
Ministry of Commerce and Industry |
|
II. The Coir Board |
Ministry of Heavy Industries |
|
III. The National Centre for Trade Information |
Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Source: https://heavyindustries.gov.in/national-automotive-board
Source: https://www.pib.gov.in/Pressreleaseshare.aspx?PRID=1876599
Source: https://www.india.gov.in/information-national-centre-trade-information
Q88) Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
- List I – Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
- Extent of the executive power of a State
- Conditions of the Governor’s office
For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
- I and II only
- II and III only
- I and III only
- I, II and III
Answer: 1
Explanation:
I. List I – Union List (Seventh Schedule)
Requires ratification
- Any amendment affecting any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule (i.e., Union, State, Concurrent Lists) requires ratification by half the states.
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
Requires ratification
- This falls under Article 162, which is explicitly listed in the proviso to Article 368(2) as requiring ratification by half the states.
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office
Does NOT require ratification
- This is covered under Article 158, and is not listed among the provisions that need state ratification under Article 368(2).
- Hence, an amendment to this Article would not require ratification by states.
|
Subject |
Requires State Ratification? |
Article/Provision |
|
List I – Union List |
Yes |
Seventh Schedule |
|
Extent of Executive Power of State |
Yes |
Article 162 |
|
Conditions of the Governor’s Office |
No |
Article 158 |
Sources:
- Laxmikanth 6th edition page 278
- https://www.constitutionofindia.net/articles/article-162-extent-of-executive-power-of-state/
- https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1389240/
- https://www.mea.gov.in/Images/pdf1/Part6.pdf
Q89) With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
- The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
- No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
- Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 4
Explanation:
Statement I: Correct
- As per Article 361(1) of the Indian Constitution:
“The Governor shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office…”
- This ensures constitutional immunity to the Governor from judicial accountability while in office.
Statement II: Correct
- According to Article 361(2):
“No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.”
- Also, no arrest or imprisonment of the Governor is allowed while in office.
Statement III: Correct
- As per Article 194(2) (Parliamentary privileges of State Legislatures):
“No member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given in the Legislature…”
- This protects freedom of speech and expression within the legislative proceedings of State Assemblies and their committees.
Source: Laxmikanth 6th edition page 191
Q90) Consider the following activities:
- Production of crude oil
- Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
- Marketing and sale of petroleum products
- IV. Production of natural gas
How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
- Only one
- Only two
- Only three
- All the four
Answer: 2
Explanation:
- The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established under the PNGRB Act, 2006 to regulate certain downstream activities in the petroleum and natural gas sector.
Evaluation of Each Activity:
Production of crude oil
Not regulated by PNGRB
- This is an upstream activity, regulated by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) and Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH), not by PNGRB.
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
Partially regulated
- Refining is not regulated by PNGRB (upstream/midstream).
- But storage and distribution related to city or pipeline network are regulated by PNGRB under its downstream role.
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
Regulated by PNGRB
- PNGRB regulates marketing and transportation of petroleum products through pipelines and city gas distribution.
IV. Production of natural gas
Not regulated by PNGRB
- Like crude oil, production is an upstream activity and is outside the jurisdiction of PNGRB. It is regulated by DGH/MoPNG.
Source: https://pngrb.gov.in/eng-web/the_act.html
Q91) “Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of
- the Champaran Satyagraha
- publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
- attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
- the launch of the Quit India Movement
Answer: 2
Explanation:
- Mahatma Gandhi made the iconic statement “Sedition has become my religion” during the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930, specifically after he broke the salt law at Dandi on April 6, 1930.
Upon picking up a handful of salt in defiance of British law, Gandhi declared:
- “The British rule in India has brought about moral, material, cultural and spiritual ruination of this great country. I regard this rule as a curse. I am out to destroy this system of Government… Sedition has become my religion. Ours is a non-violent battle. We are not to kill anybody, but it is our dharma to see that the curse of this Government is blotted out.”
- This act marked a symbolic and powerful beginning to the Civil Disobedience Movement, making option (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi the correct answer.
- Gandhi, accompanied by 78 volunteers, began the historic Dandi March on March 12, 1930, from Sabarmati Ashram, covering around 375 kilometers over 24 days to reach the coastal village of Dandi in Gujarat.
- The march received widespread national and international attention, sparking mass civil disobedience, resignations by local officials, and spontaneous participation by the public across India.
Source:
- https://www.mkgandhi.org/civil_dis/speech14.php
- https://tws.edu.in/blog/the-civil-disobedience-movement-of-1930/
Q92. The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of
- Carnelian
- Clay
- Bronze
- Gold
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-daro
- The National Museum, New Delhi, houses one of the world’s most representative collections of Harappan antiquities, with over 3,500 objects on permanent loan from the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
- Among the most iconic discoveries is the bronze ‘Dancing Girl’, recovered from Mohenjo-daro, a prominent city of the Indus Valley Civilization.
- The Dancing Girl is:
- Made of bronze
- Around 4,500 to 5,000 years old
- A symbol of the artistic and metallurgical skill of Harappan artisans
- Cast using the lost-wax technique, indicating advanced craftsmanship
- Alongside painted earthen vessels, toy animals, and seals, this sculpture reflects the creativity, sensitivity, and cultural uniqueness of the Harappan people
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/kefa102.pdf
Q93) Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
C. R. Das
Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
M. A. Jinnah
Answer: 2
Explanation:
- The Chauri Chaura incident occurred on 4 February 1922 during the Non-Cooperation Movement.
- Protesters, provoked by police violence, set fire to the Chauri Chaura police station, resulting in the death of 22 policemen.
- In the legal proceedings that followed:
- 172 people were put on trial for murder.
- Mahamana Madan Mohan Malaviya, a prominent lawyer and nationalist leader, along with Krishna Kant, defended the accused in 1923.
- Through a brilliant legal defence, they managed to save 155 people from the death sentence.
Q94) Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?
-
- The Poona Pact
- The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
- Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
- Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: 4
Explanation:
- The Poona Pact was signed on 24 September 1932 between Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Madan Mohan Malaviya, representing Mahatma Gandhi.
- It was signed after Gandhi undertook a fast unto death to oppose the British Communal Award, which granted separate electorates to the Depressed Classes (Scheduled Castes).
- The Poona Pact replaced separate electorates with reserved seats for Scheduled Castes in joint electorates, with increased representation.
After the Pact:
- Gandhi was deeply moved by the condition of the Depressed Classes.
- He began referring to them as Harijans (Children of God).
- He launched:
- The All India Anti-Untouchability League (later Harijan Sevak Sangh) in September 1932
- The weekly ‘Harijan’ in January 1933
- A nationwide Harijan tour (1933–34) to promote social reforms and integration
Sources: spectrum
- https://upscaspirants.co.in/wp-content/uploads/2022/10/A-Brief-History-of-Modern-India-2019-2020-Edition-by-Spectrum-Books-Rajiv-Ahir-Kalpana-Rajaram-z-lib.org_.pdf
Q95) Consider the following fruits:
- Papaya
- Pineapple
- Guava
How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 3
Explanation:
I. Papaya
Introduced by the Portuguese
- Native to Central America and southern Mexico
- Brought to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century
II. Pineapple
Introduced by the Portuguese
- Native to South America
- Portuguese introduced it to coastal India (Goa and Kerala) in the 16th century
III. Guava
- Although native to Central America, guava had a wider pre-Portuguese diffusion, possibly via Arab traders
- There is no conclusive evidence it was introduced specifically by the Portuguese
- Some sources even suggest it may have been present in India before their arrival
Source: https://nios.ac.in/media/documents/SrSec315NEW/315_History_Eng/315_History_Eng_Lesson13.pdf
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/food/why-guava-is-attractive-for-farmers-consumers-alike-88900
Q96) Consider the following countries:
-
- United Kingdom
- Denmark
- New Zealand
- Australia
- Brazil
How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
- All the five
- Only four
- Only three
- Only two
Answer: 3
Explanation:
SOURCE: https://www.worldatlas.com/time-zones/10-countries-with-the-most-time-zones.html
Q97) Consider the following statements:
Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: 1
Explanation:
- Statement 1: Correct. Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (Alaska, USA) are located relatively close to each other geographically across the Bering Strait. However, they are on opposite sides of the International Date Line (IDL). Anadyr follows UTC+12 or UTC+13, while Nome follows UTC−9 or UTC−8 (depending on daylight saving). This means that despite being geographically close, there is a 20 to 21-hour time difference. So when people in both cities wake up in the morning, they are indeed on different calendar days.
- Statement 2: Incorrect. The correct date difference is the reverse. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is still Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday. Anadyr is ahead of Nome in time, not behind.
Source: https://aa.usno.navy.mil/faq/international_date
https://www.timeanddate.com/worldclock/usa/nome
Q98) Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?
- ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
- Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
- Bhaskarrao Jadhav
- Dinkarrao Javalkar
Answer: 1
Explanation:
- The Self-Respect Movement was founded in 1925 in Tamil Nadu by Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker, a prominent social reformer and rationalist.
- Periyar belonged to the Balija Naidu community and initiated the movement to challenge Brahminical supremacy, religious orthodoxy, and caste-based oppression in Hindu society.
Source: https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/hess207.pdf
Q99) Consider the following pairs:
|
Country |
Resource-rich in |
|
I. Botswana |
Diamond |
|
II. Chile |
Lithium |
|
III. Indonesia |
Nickel |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 3
Explanation:
I. Botswana – Diamond
Correct
- Botswana is one of the world’s top producers of diamonds, especially gem-quality diamonds.
- The country’s economy is significantly dependent on diamond mining, led by companies like Debswana (a joint venture between De Beers and the government of Botswana).
II. Chile – Lithium
Correct
- Chile holds some of the world’s largest reserves of lithium, especially in the Atacama Desert.
- It is part of the “Lithium Triangle” (Chile–Argentina–Bolivia), which accounts for over 50% of global lithium reserves.
III. Indonesia – Nickel
Correct
- Indonesia is among the world’s largest producers of nickel, essential for electric vehicle (EV) batteries.
- The country has recently imposed restrictions on raw nickel exports to promote domestic processing industries.
Source: https://www.naturaldiamonds.com/in/diamond-facts-info/diamond-facts-and-statistics-that-matter/
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/mining/booming-indonesian-nickel-industry-faces-challenges-ahead
Q100) Consider the following pairs:
|
Region |
Country |
|
I. Mallorca |
Italy |
|
II. Normandy |
Spain |
|
III. Sardinia |
France |
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
- Only one
- Only two
- All the three
- None
Answer: 4
Explanation:
I. Mallorca – Italy
Incorrect
- Mallorca (Majorca) is the largest island in the Balearic Islands, which are part of Spain, not Italy.
- Recently in the news for anti-tourism protests due to overcrowding and environmental concerns.
II. Normandy – Spain
Incorrect
- Normandy is a region in northern France, not Spain.
- It is historically significant for the D-Day landings (June 6, 1944) during World War II.
- Was recently in the news for 80th-anniversary commemorations of D-Day.
III. Sardinia – France
Incorrect
- Sardinia is a large island in the Mediterranean Sea belonging to Italy, not France.
- In the news due to wildfires and climate-related events in recent years.
