UPSC CARE 10th September 2025 Current Affairs
News at a Glance
- Polity and Governance: Vice-Presidential Election 2025: C.P. Radhakrishnan Declared Winner
- Social Justice: Unique Disability ID (UDID) Card: Implementation, Challenges, and Issues
- Ecology and Environment: Surat City Awarded Among Top Three in National Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2025
- International Relations: Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam (GERD): A Landmark Achievement Amid Regional Tensions
- International Relations: Gen Z Protests in Nepal: Causes, Consequences, and Regional Implications
- Environment and Ecology: Offshore Aquifers: A New Frontier in Freshwater Resources
Counting of Votes Begins for Vice-Presidential Election 2025: C.P. Radhakrishnan Declared Winner
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance
Context: Vice-Presidential Election 2025
Why in News?
C.P. Radhakrishnan was elected as India’s Vice-President in 2025, emphasizing development over politics and nationalistic ideology as key to progress.
Introduction
- Recently, the counting of votes for the Vice-Presidential Election of India began at 6 p.m. in the new Parliament building, under the supervision of Returning Officer P.C. Mody, Rajya Sabha Secretary General.
- This followed the Conclusion of polling earlier in the day at 5 p.m., where over 98% of the Members of Parliament (MPs) exercised their franchise to elect the Vice-President.
- The contest was primarily between two candidates:
- C.P. Radhakrishnan – NDA (National Democratic Alliance) nominee.
- B. Sudershan Reddy – Joint opposition candidate.
- The voting process witnessed a very high participation rate, with official sources confirming over 98% of votes cast. Notably, government sources mentioned that 13 MPs abstained from voting, while Congress leader Jairam Ramesh claimed that all Opposition members voted, terming it an “unprecedented 100% turnout.”
Declaration of the Winner
- After thorough counting, C.P. Radhakrishnan emerged victorious.
(Image Source: the Hindu)
Vice-Presidential Election of India
1. Constitutional Provisions
- The Vice-President of India is elected under Article 66 of the Indian Constitution.
- The Vice-President serves as the Second Highest Constitutional Authority in India, after the President.
- The Vice-President’s primary constitutional role is to act as the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha (Upper House of Parliament).
2. Electoral College
- The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament:
- Elected Members + Nominated Members of Lok Sabha (House of the People)
- Elected Members + Nominated Members of Rajya Sabha (Council of States)
- State Legislatures do not participate in the Vice-Presidential election (unlike the Presidential election).
3. Voting System
- The election is conducted by Secret Ballot.
- Proportional Representation by Single Transferable Vote (STV) system is used.
- This ensures that the election is based on preferences rather than just the first choice.
- Voting is done by MPs of both Houses.
4. Term and Eligibility
- The term of the Vice-President is 5 years from the date of entering office.
- A Vice-President can be re-elected without limit.
- Eligibility Criteria:
- Must be a citizen of India.
- Must be at least 35 years of age.
- Must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or any State Government.
5. Role and Responsibilities
- The Vice-President acts as the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, ensuring smooth conduct of debates and legislative business.
- In the absence of the President, the Vice-President acts as the Acting President.
- Ensures impartial conduct in parliamentary procedures.
- Plays a crucial role in maintaining the decorum of the upper house.
6. Significance of the Election
- It reflects the strength of different political alliances in Parliament.
- Though a non-partisan constitutional position, the political contest reflects ideological and political shifts.
- High turnout and participation in the electoral process indicate the seriousness with which the Vice-Presidential election is regarded.
Significance of the Vice-Presidential Election
- The Vice-President of India holds a crucial constitutional position:
- Acts as the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha (Upper House of Parliament).
- Plays a significant role in maintaining parliamentary decorum and facilitating legislative discussions.
- The Vice-President’s election is an indirect election, where the electoral college consists of all elected and nominated members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
- This election has political and ideological significance because it reflects the power dynamics between ruling and opposition alliances in Parliament. The high turnout reflects the seriousness with which the parliamentary members treated this election.
Conclusion
- The victory of C.P. Radhakrishnan marks a significant development in Indian politics, reinforcing the ruling alliance’s strength in Parliament.
CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Vice-Presidential Election of India 2025:
- The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected and nominated members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
- The Vice-President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Lok Sabha.
- In the 2025 election, over 98% of MPs participated in voting, and 13 members abstained.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All of the above
Answer 1- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of both elected and nominated members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha as per Article 66 of the Indian Constitution.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The Vice-President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, not the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
- Statement 3 is correct: In the 2025 Vice-Presidential election, over 98% of MPs participated in voting, while 13 members abstained, as per official reports.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. Consider the following statements: (2013)
- The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
- While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Unique Disability ID (UDID) Card: Implementation, Challenges, and Issues
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS2 Social Justice, Polity and Governance
Context: Unique Disability ID (UDID) Card
Why in News?
Less than 40% of India’s Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) have received a Unique Disability ID (UDID) Card due to implementation delays, low digital literacy, and reduced funding.
Introduction
- The Unique Disability ID (UDID) Card is a crucial initiative by the Union Government under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD).
- The objective of the UDID scheme is to create a national database of Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) in India and facilitate their access to various government benefits, such as assistive devices, scholarships, and reservations in government jobs.
Unique Disability ID (UDID) Card
- The Unique Disability ID (UDID) sub-scheme is a national initiative implemented by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (DEPwD) to create a centralized national database of Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) across India.
- Under this scheme, each PwD is issued a Unique Disability Identity (UDID) Card and a Disability Certificate through competent medical authorities designated by State Governments or Union Territories.
- The primary objectives of the UDID scheme are to ensure transparency, uniformity, and efficiency in delivering government benefits to PwDs, as well as to prevent duplication of records.
- The scheme facilitates tracking of physical and financial progress of beneficiaries across various administrative levels — from village and block to district, state, and national levels.
Key features of the UDID project include:
- Nationwide availability of PwD data through a centralized web-based application.
- Both online and offline application submissions for UDID Cards and Disability Certificates, with offline applications digitized subsequently.
- An efficient assessment process conducted by hospitals or Medical Boards to determine the percentage of disability.
- Mechanism to eliminate duplicate PwD records.
- Provision for online renewal and updating of information by PwDs or authorized persons.
- A robust Management Information System (MIS) for systematic reporting.
- Integrated management of multiple government benefits and schemes related to disability.
- Provision to support the inclusion of additional disabilities in the future (currently covering 21 disabilities).
This initiative promotes digital governance while enabling PwDs to access schemes such as assistive devices, scholarships, and job reservations in a streamlined manner.
(Image Source: swavlambancard)
Current Status of UDID Coverage
- Less than 40% of the projected population of PwDs in India have been issued a UDID card.
- Over 11 lakh applications for the UDID card are pending, with more than 60% of them pending for over six months.
- In terms of state-wise coverage:
- Only Tamil Nadu, Meghalaya, Odisha, and Karnataka have crossed the 50% coverage mark.
- West Bengal stands out with a meagre coverage of just 6%.
- Data for Andhra Pradesh and Telangana were not available separately.
- Purpose of the UDID Card
- The UDID card enables PwDs to avail benefits from key schemes such as:
- Assistance to Persons with Disabilities (ADIP) scheme: Provides wheelchairs, crutches, prostheses, hearing aids, Braille slates, etc.
- Educational scholarships.
- Reservation in government employment.
Problems in Implementation
- Staggered Implementation and Lack of Communication
- Before the UDID sub-scheme, only State-level disability certificates were issued.
- The shift from State-specific certificates to a centralized UDID system was not effectively communicated, leading to poor awareness at the ground level.
- Delays in Application Processing
- Over half of the pending applications have remained unprocessed for over six months.
- Specific challenges: Himachal Pradesh, Ladakh, and Mizoram recorded the highest delays, with over 80% of applications pending for more than six months.
- Digital Literacy Barrier
- The UDID application process is entirely online, requiring applicants to upload scanned documents.
- Government data shows that only 60% of the population above the age of 15 can effectively use basic copy-paste tools on digital devices.
- Digital literacy among women and PwDs is assumed to be lower but lacks specific data.
- Therefore, many potential beneficiaries are unable to navigate the online process independently.
- Reduction in Scheme Funding
- While the overall funds for PwD-related schemes have increased, the UDID sub-scheme’s funding has reduced from 2019 to 2023.
- This underfunding limits the scheme’s effectiveness and expansion, contributing to low coverage.
- Political Negligence
- According to Shashank Pandey, a lawyer working on the political representation of PwDs, the neglect towards PwDs stems from their weak political representation.
- PwDs constitute a small political constituency of approximately 2.68 crore people (as per the Census).
- As they do not form a significant vote bank, policymakers and political parties do not prioritize their welfare.
Conclusion
- The UDID scheme is a well-intentioned government effort aimed at mainstreaming PwDs by providing them access to various benefits and enabling their social and economic inclusion.
- However, critical challenges such as delayed application processing, lack of digital literacy, poor ground-level communication, and reduced funding have hampered the effectiveness of this initiative.
- Moreover, the weak political visibility of PwDs results in their issues not receiving due attention in policy-making circles.
CARE MCQ
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Unique Disability ID (UDID) scheme in India:
- The UDID scheme aims to create a national database of Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) and facilitate access to government benefits.
- The UDID application process is entirely online, contributing to low coverage due to limited digital literacy.
- The UDID sub-scheme has received increasing funding consistently from 2019 to 2023.
- Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Karnataka, and Meghalaya have achieved over 50% UDID card coverage among PwDs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) 1, 2, and 4 only
B) 1, 3, and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All of the above
Answer 2- A
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: The UDID scheme’s primary purpose is to create a national database of PwDs and provide access to key government benefits.
- Statement 2 is correct: The online-only application process is a significant barrier due to limited digital literacy, especially among PwDs and women.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Funding for the UDID sub-scheme has reduced from 2019 to 2023, not increased.
- Statement 4 is correct: Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Karnataka, and Meghalaya are the States with more than 50% UDID coverage.
- Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law? (2011)
- Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government run schools.
- Preferential allotment of land for setting up business.
- Ramps in public buildings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Surat City Awarded Among Top Three in National Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2025
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS3 Ecology and Environment
Context: National Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2025
Why in News?
Surat city was ranked among the top three cleanest air cities in India under the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2025 for the second consecutive year, being the only city from Gujarat to receive the award.
Introduction
- Surat city has been ranked among the top three cities at the national level in the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2025, marking its second consecutive achievement in this prestigious ranking. Surat is also the only city from Gujarat to be selected under this survey.
- The award ceremony was held at Ganga Auditorium, Indira Gandhi Bhavan, New Delhi, where the award was conferred by Union Minister of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change.
About Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan (SVS)
- Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan is a central government initiative aimed at assessing and ranking Indian cities based on their efforts toward improving air quality and achieving clean and healthy ambient air.
- The Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2025 survey was conducted across 130 cities of India.
- The survey is part of India’s broader commitment to tackling air pollution, which is one of the most pressing environmental and public health challenges in the country.
- It complements other programs like Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) and efforts to implement National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) targets.
(Image Source: PIB)
Key Criteria for Ranking
Several technical and administrative criteria are used to assess and rank the cities, including:
- Solid Waste Management
- Effective collection, processing, and disposal of solid waste.
- Promoting waste segregation at the source.
- Machinery Sweeping and Sprinkling
- Deployment of mechanized road sweepers to remove dust and debris.
- Regular sprinkling of water to reduce road dust and particulate matter.
- Dust Suppression Measures
- Steps taken to control road dust, which is a major contributor to PM10 levels.
- Use of chemical stabilizers or water sprays on construction sites and open lands.
- Construction and Demolition Waste Management
- Systematic management of debris from construction and demolition activities.
- Encouraging recycling and proper disposal methods to prevent air pollution.
- Vehicular and Industrial Emission Control
- Stringent monitoring and implementation of pollution control norms for vehicles and industries.
- Promotion of periodic pollution checks (PUC) for vehicles.
- Promotion of Renewable/Green Energy
- Adoption of solar energy and other renewable sources in municipal operations.
- Incentives for citizens and industries to switch to cleaner energy options.
- Reduction of Pollutant Levels
- Continuous monitoring of PM10, PM2.5, NOx, SOx, and other pollutants.
- Implementation of corrective actions where pollution levels exceed permissible limits.
Significance of Surat’s Achievement
Surat’s consistent high ranking in the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan is important for several reasons:
- Model of Sustainable Urban Development: The city stands out as a model in air quality management, showcasing effective integration of technological and administrative measures to control air pollution.
- Public Health and Quality of Life: Improved air quality directly impacts public health by reducing respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
- Environmental Leadership: Surat’s performance reflects its commitment to environmental sustainability, which aligns with national and global frameworks like the Paris Agreement on Climate Change.
- Boost to Governance Standards: The award underscores the role of proactive municipal governance led by effective leaders such as the Surat Municipal Commissioner and Mayor.
Conclusion
Surat’s recognition under the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan illustrates a successful convergence of technological interventions, strong policy implementation, and administrative willpower in achieving sustainable urban air quality management. This serves as a replicable model for other cities in India and reinforces India’s commitment toward a cleaner and healthier environment.
CARE MCQ
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan 2025:
- It is a central government initiative aimed at ranking Indian cities based on their air quality management efforts.
- The survey covers solid waste management, vehicular emission control, and renewable energy adoption as part of its assessment criteria.
- Surat city was ranked among the top three cities at the national level and is the only city from Maharashtra to receive the award in 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer 3- A
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: The Swachh Vayu Sarvekshan is indeed a central government initiative designed to assess and rank Indian cities based on their efforts to improve air quality and adopt sustainable measures.
- Statement 2 is correct: The survey evaluates multiple criteria, including solid waste management, control of vehicular and industrial emissions, dust suppression measures, and promotion of renewable energy, among others.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: While Surat city was ranked among the top three cities, it is from Gujarat, not Maharashtra.
- Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct? (2019)
(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only
(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory on the part of the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
Ans: (c)
Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam (GERD): A Landmark Achievement Amid Regional Tensions
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations
Context: Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam (GERD)
Why in News?
Ethiopia inaugurated the Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam (GERD), Africa’s largest hydroelectric project, amid strong protests from Egypt over Nile water security concerns.
Introduction
- Ethiopia inaugurated the Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam (GERD), the largest hydroelectric project in Africa. Prime Minister Abiy Ahmed hailed it as a historic achievement and a symbol of African pride, stating that it represents a major leap forward for Ethiopia and black people globally. However, the project immediately drew diplomatic protests from Egypt, a downstream nation heavily dependent on the Nile for its water supply.
About GERD
- Location: The dam spans the Blue Nile River near the Sudanese border.
- Specifications:
- Height: 170 meters
- Length: Nearly 2 kilometers
- Water Storage Capacity: 74 billion cubic meters
- Power Generation Capacity: 5,150 Megawatts (MW)
- Investment & Construction:
- Cost: $4 billion
- Construction began in 2011
- Main Contractor: Italian firm Webuild
- Challenges Faced:
- Financing hurdles
- Manpower shortages
- Civil War (2020–2022) between the Ethiopian government and Tigray rebels
(Image Source: the Hindu)
Significance for Ethiopia
- Energy Access:
- About 45% of Ethiopia’s 130 million population lack access to electricity.
- Frequent blackouts in the capital Addis Ababa force reliance on costly private generators.
- Industrial & Economic Impact:
- Expected to enhance industrial production.
- Supports transition towards electric vehicles.
- Enables power export to neighboring countries like Tanzania.
- Political Symbolism:
- GERD serves as a unifying national project amid Ethiopia’s internal ethnic and political tensions.
- Showcases Ethiopia’s capacity for large-scale development and infrastructural advancement.
- Regional Dispute
Egypt’s Concerns
- Dependence on Nile:
- 97% of Egypt’s freshwater comes from the Nile.
- Egypt views GERD as an existential threat to its water security.
- UN Protest:
- Egypt labeled the inauguration a unilateral action violating international law.
- Called upon the UN Security Council, pledging to protect the existential interests of its people.
- Ethiopia’s Response
- Prime Minister Abiy Ahmed asserted that GERD would not reduce Nile water flow to downstream nations.
- Emphasized that GERD is purely a hydroelectric project, not an irrigation scheme consuming water.
- Technical Clarification:
- According to the main contractor, Pietro Salini (CEO of Webuild), the project releases water back into the Nile after energy generation, meaning no net reduction in water flow.
Geopolitical Dynamics
- Mediation efforts by the US, World Bank, Russia, UAE, and African Union have failed over the past decade.
- Egypt views the GERD issue as:
- Economic: Affecting agriculture and industry dependent on Nile water
- Political: Threat to national stability
- Social: Potential unrest due to water scarcity
- Analysts argue that Ethiopia’s government is leveraging GERD as a domestic unifying strategy, particularly in a fragile political environment.
Wider Implications
- Regional Power Dynamics:
- GERD shifts the power dynamics of the Nile Basin.
- Ethiopia emerges as a potential regional energy hub, exporting electricity and reinforcing its geopolitical position.
- Environmental Concerns:
- Impact on Nile flow patterns is disputed.
- Potential long-term ecological effects remain contentious.
- Development vs. Diplomacy:
- The GERD project exemplifies the tension between national development aspirations and transboundary resource sharing.
- Raises questions of international water laws, equity, and the principle of no significant harm.
Conclusion
- The inauguration of the Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam marks a significant developmental milestone for Ethiopia, with far-reaching economic, political, and symbolic importance.
- However, it continues to deepen the longstanding dispute between Ethiopia and Egypt over Nile water rights.
- The challenge now lies in achieving a diplomatic resolution that balances Ethiopia’s right to development with Egypt’s water security concerns, in accordance with international norms and regional stability.
CARE MCQ
Q4. Consider the following statements with regards to the Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam (GERD):
- The Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam (GERD) is designed primarily for hydroelectric power generation and does not significantly alter the flow of the Nile River downstream.
- Egypt depends on the Nile River for nearly 97% of its freshwater and considers GERD an existential threat to its water security.
Which of the following is correct?
A) Only Statement 1 is correct
B) Only Statement 2 is correct
C) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
D) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct
Answer 4- C
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: The Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam (GERD) is primarily a hydroelectric project designed to generate electricity and does not significantly reduce the flow of the Nile to downstream countries.
- Statement 2 is correct: Egypt relies on the Nile for nearly 97% of its freshwater and views GERD as an existential threat to its water security.
- Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. Consider the following pairs: (2022)
Country –
Important reason for being in the news recently
1.Chad -Setting up of permanent military base by China
2.Guinea -Suspension of Constitution and Government by military
3.Lebanon -Severe and prolonged economic depression
4.Tunisia -Suspension of Parliament by President
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
- Only one pair
- Only two pairs
- Only three pairs
- All four pairs
Ans: C
Gen Z Protests in Nepal: Causes, Consequences, and Regional Implications
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations
Context: Gen Z Protests in Nepal
Why in News?
In September 2025, Nepal faced massive youth-led protests triggered by a government ban on social media platforms, leading to violent clashes, political resignations, and the fall of Prime Minister K.P. Sharma Oli.
Introduction
- Nepal witnessed massive protests led by the youth, primarily from the Generation Z (under 30 years of age), following a sweeping government ban on major social media platforms such as Facebook, WhatsApp, Instagram, X (formerly Twitter), and YouTube.
- The demonstrations began peacefully but escalated into violent clashes between protesters and security forces. At least 19 people were killed and over 400 injured during the unrest. The situation forced the resignation of Prime Minister K.P. Sharma Oli, as well as key ministers, marking a significant political upheaval in Nepal.
(Image Source: The Hindu)
Trigger for Protests
- The immediate catalyst was the decision of the Nepal Government’s Ministry of Communications and Information Technology on September 4, 2025, to block 26 social media platforms.
- The government accused these platforms of failing to meet the registration deadline, appoint grievance redressal handlers, and remove flagged content, as mandated by local laws. The Ministry directed the Nepal Telecommunication Authority (NTA) to make non-compliant platforms inactive.
- This action was seen by many, especially the youth, as an attack on freedom of expression and an effort to curb digital democracy, thus sparking large-scale dissent.
Profile of the Protesters and Their Demands
- The protests were termed the “Gen Z protests”, symbolizing a youth-driven movement not formally affiliated with any political party.
- Many demonstrators were young students wearing school or college uniforms, highlighting their identity as the educated youth of the nation.
- The movement was coordinated by Hami Nepal, a youth-oriented non-profit organization established in 2015.
- Key demands included:
- Repeal of the social media ban.
- Greater transparency and accountability in governance.
- End to nepotism and corruption, with specific references to “nepo babies”, criticizing elite political privilege.
- Employment opportunities for youth and a move away from economic dependence on remittances.
- Justice for past corruption cases, including the infamous 2017 Airbus procurement scandal.
Events on the Ground
- The protest began at 9 a.m. on September 8, 2025, near the Mandala monument in Maitighar, Kathmandu.
- Initially peaceful, the demonstration turned violent as some protestors—possibly including motorcycle groups—breached barricades and stormed the Parliament complex.
- Security forces responded with tear gas, water cannons, and rubber bullets, while protesters retaliated with sticks and bottles.
- At least 19 fatalities were reported, and over 400 people were injured. Many suffered severe gunshot wounds to the head and chest.
- Hospitals such as Civil Hospital, National Trauma Centre, and Everest Hospital were overwhelmed by the number of critical patients.
- Authorities imposed curfews from 12:30 p.m. to 10 p.m. around the Parliament area, New Baneshwor, and political leaders’ residences to contain the unrest.
Government Response and Political Fallout
- In an emergency cabinet meeting, the government revoked the social media ban, reinstating access to all platforms.
- Prime Minister K.P. Sharma Oli expressed sorrow for the deaths but defended the original ban, attributing violence to “infiltrators” seeking destabilization.
- An investigation panel was ordered to submit its findings in 15 days, focusing on causes and future preventive measures.
- Significant political resignations occurred:
- Home Minister Ramesh Lekhak resigned on “moral grounds”.
- Communications Minister Prithvi Subba Gurung also tendered his resignation.
- Ultimately, Prime Minister K.P. Sharma Oli himself resigned as protests escalated further.
Underlying Grievances Beyond the Ban
- While the social media ban was the immediate trigger, deeper structural issues fueled the uprising:
- High youth unemployment and lack of economic opportunities.
- Heavy reliance on remittances from migrant workers for national income.
- Perceptions of systemic corruption and nepotism in governance.
- Specific corruption cases, such as the Airbus deal controversy, where state resources were misused, reinforcing public disillusionment.
India’s Response and Regional Implications
- The Indian Ministry of External Affairs advised Indian nationals in Nepal to exercise caution.
- India expressed concern and urged peaceful resolution through dialogue.
- Security was strengthened in districts of Uttar Pradesh sharing a border with Nepal to prevent spillover violence.
- The protests raised regional concerns regarding political stability in Nepal, cross-border movements, and the influence of social media in democratic movements.
Significance and Conclusion
- The Gen Z protests in Nepal reflect a broader global trend of youth mobilization against authoritarian measures and corruption, particularly in South Asia. They highlight:
- The growing political awareness and activism among young citizens.
- The role of social media as a tool for democratic expression and mobilization.
- The dangers of policy measures that restrict digital freedom without considering public sentiment.
- This incident is a pivotal moment in Nepal’s democratic journey, showing the power of youth activism in shaping national politics and governance reforms.
CARE MCQ
Q5. The term “nepo babies”, recently in news, is related to which of the following?
a) Children affected by nutritional deficiencies in Nepal
b) Politicians’ children benefiting from nepotism
c) Young social media influencers in India and Nepal
d) Students studying abroad under scholarship programs
Answer 5- B
Explanation
- The term “nepo babies” is a colloquial expression derived from “nepotism babies”.
- It refers to individuals, often children of influential or powerful people, who benefit from their family connections to gain opportunities, especially in careers like politics, entertainment, or business, rather than earning success purely on merit.
- In the context of the September 2025 Gen Z protests in Nepal, protesters used the term to criticize perceived privilege and lack of accountability in governance, targeting politicians’ children and the entrenched elite who are seen as benefiting unfairly from family ties.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. Community sometimes mentioned in the news in the affairs of (2016)
- Kurd : Bangladesh
- Madhesi : Nepal
- Robingya : Myanmar
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: (c)
Offshore Aquifers: A New Frontier in Freshwater Resources
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS3 Environment and Ecology
Context: Offshore Aquifers
Why in News?
International scientists recently confirmed the presence of a large offshore freshwater aquifer beneath the Atlantic Ocean, stretching from New Jersey to Maine, with potential significance for global freshwater resources.
Introduction
- Nearly 50 years ago, a U.S. government ship drilling off the northeastern coast of the United States accidentally encountered freshwater beneath the sea floor while searching for minerals and hydrocarbons.
- Recently, an international group of scientists revisited this surprising discovery and confirmed the presence of a vast offshore aquifer—a body of porous rock or sediment saturated with freshwater—stretching from New Jersey to Maine.
- In a landmark effort, the scientists drilled nearly 1,289 feet beneath the sea floor and extracted about 50,000 liters of freshwater for detailed analysis.
- Brandon Dugan, a geophysicist and hydrologist from the Colorado School of Mines, highlighted the unexpected nature of the discovery: “It’s one of the last places you would probably look for freshwater on Earth.”
- This discovery has significant implications amid growing concerns over global freshwater scarcity, making it crucial to understand the nature, origin, and potential of offshore aquifers.
(image Source: Indian Express)
What Are Offshore Aquifers?
- Offshore aquifers are analogous to terrestrial aquifers but located beneath the sea floor. These geological formations contain freshwater trapped within porous rocks or sediment layers.
- Unlike conventional aquifers on land, offshore aquifers can extend up to 90 kilometers off the coast, and astonishingly, studies estimate that they contain more freshwater than all groundwater ever extracted from terrestrial aquifers.
- A 2021 study published in Environmental Research Letters estimated that approximately one million cubic kilometers of freshwater—roughly 10% of all terrestrial freshwater—resides beneath the world’s ocean floors.
- Such aquifers have been identified in regions off the coasts of Australia, China, North America, and South Africa, though they remain largely unexplored due to the historical focus on land-based aquifers and technological constraints.
- The recent expedition marks the first systematic global attempt to drill specifically for undersea freshwater, and the scientists estimate that the northeastern U.S. aquifer contains enough freshwater to supply New York City for 800 years.
Origin of Freshwater in Offshore Aquifers
- Unlike onshore aquifers that primarily receive freshwater from precipitation (rainfall and snowmelt), the presence of freshwater beneath the sea floor is explained by competing theories:
- Ice Age Hypothesis:
- During previous ice ages, sea levels were significantly lower, and large areas currently submerged under oceans were dry land. During this period:
- Rainwater penetrated the soil and percolated deep into the ground.
- The immense weight of growing ice sheets possibly forced freshwater into porous rocks extending beneath the continental shelf.
- Connection to Onshore Aquifers:
- Another theory suggests that offshore aquifers remain connected to terrestrial aquifers, with periodic replenishment occurring through infiltration from rainfall and natural hydraulic gradients.
- An important factor that preserves the freshwater within these offshore aquifers is the presence of a cap rock layer—compact clay-rich sediments. As noted by Scientific American, clay becomes almost impervious when compacted, effectively preventing the less dense freshwater from rising and mixing with the overlying salty seawater.
- The current scientific mission involves extracting thousands of samples to ascertain whether the freshwater is non-renewable (from the Ice Age) or part of a renewable system connected to surface processes.
Significance of Offshore Aquifers
- The global freshwater crisis is one of the most pressing challenges of the 21st century. According to a 2023 United Nations report:
- Global freshwater demand is projected to exceed supply by 40% by 2030.
- Rising global temperatures have contributed to:
- Increased frequency of droughts.
- Altered rainfall and snowfall patterns, which reduce aquifer recharge.
- Pollution and wasteful water practices.
- Johan Rockstrom, Director of the Potsdam Institute for Climate Impact Research, termed the situation a “triple crisis”—misuse, pollution, and climate-induced hydrological change.
- In this context, offshore aquifers represent a potentially vast and largely untapped freshwater resource.
- Their development could relieve pressure on land-based freshwater sources, providing an alternative solution to growing demands, especially in densely populated coastal regions.
Challenges in Exploiting Offshore Aquifers
Despite the potential, several challenges complicate the large-scale utilization of offshore aquifers:
- High Extraction Cost: Offshore drilling for freshwater is highly expensive. The recent project in the U.S. northeast cost around $25 million, posing significant economic challenges for scalability.
- Engineering Complexities: Extracting freshwater beneath the sea requires:
- Designing specialized wells that operate under high pressure and prevent seawater intrusion.
- Establishing safe and effective transport infrastructure to carry freshwater onshore.
- Implementing advanced pumping mechanisms to avoid mixing freshwater with salty seawater.
- Environmental and Ecological Impacts: There is significant uncertainty about the ecological consequences of extracting freshwater from offshore aquifers. Impacts on marine ecosystems, sediment stability, and coastal hydrodynamics are largely unknown.
- Ownership and Governance Issues: The question of legal ownership and resource management arises:
- Who will regulate and control the extraction?
- How will indigenous communities, fishermen, and coastal populations be involved in the decision-making process?
- Rob Evans, a geophysicist, cautioned: “If we were to go out and start pumping these waters, there would almost certainly be unforeseen consequences.”
Conclusion
- Offshore aquifers hold immense potential as a freshwater reserve in a world facing growing water scarcity. However, they remain a largely untapped resource due to high costs, technological challenges, environmental concerns, and governance complexities.
- Scientific studies, like the recent drilling off the U.S. northeast coast, mark the beginning of a new phase of exploration and understanding.
- For sustainable development and efficient resource management, it is essential to balance technological advancement with environmental safeguards and equitable governance structures. Given the looming global water crisis, offshore aquifers could, in the near future, serve as a critical buffer for freshwater security.
CARE MCQ
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding Offshore Aquifers:
- Offshore aquifers are bodies of freshwater trapped beneath the sea floor, typically within porous rocks or sediments.
- Freshwater in offshore aquifers is primarily replenished by direct rainfall and snowmelt, similar to terrestrial aquifers.
- The existence of offshore aquifers is significant as they can help mitigate the global freshwater scarcity exacerbated by climate change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer 6- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Offshore aquifers are bodies of freshwater trapped beneath the sea floor within porous rocks or sediments.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike terrestrial aquifers, offshore aquifers are not primarily replenished by direct rainfall or snowmelt. Their freshwater may have originated from ice-age periods or possibly through connections with onshore aquifers, but not through current precipitation.
- Statement 3 is correct: Offshore aquifers are significant as untapped freshwater reserves that can help mitigate global freshwater scarcity, which is worsening due to climate change, pollution, and rising demand.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. With reference to ‘Water Credit’, consider the following statements: (2021)
- It puts microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector.
- It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank.
- It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)





