Relevance: TSPSC – Polity | Social Justice | Governance | Welfare State
For Prelims:
SEEEPC Survey 2024, Comprehensive Backwardness Index (CBI), Backward Classes (BC), Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), Article 15(4), Article 16(4), Article 46, Article 340, Mandal Commission
For Mains:
Social Justice, Reservation Policy, Substantive Equality, Caste Inequality, Data-driven Governance, Intra-caste Inequality
Why in News?
- The Telangana government has released the findings of the Socio-Economic, Educational, Employment, Political and
- on targeted welfare policies and the need for data-based identification of backward classes.
Background of the Survey
- The SEEEPC Survey 2024 was conducted as a comprehensive socio-economic exercise by the Telangana government to understand the real conditions of different caste groups across multiple dimensions such as education, employment, income, and social status.
- Recognising the importance of objective analysis, the State constituted an Independent Expert Working Group under the leadership of Justice B. Sudershan Reddy.
- The mandate of this group was to verify, interpret, and analyse the collected data and present scientifically grounded findings.
- The rationale behind such a survey lies in the constitutional requirement that policies related to backward classes must be based on empirical evidence rather than assumptions.
- Therefore, this survey plays a crucial role in informing future policy decisions related to reservation, welfare schemes, and social justice.
Key Findings of the Survey
The survey presents a detailed picture of caste-based inequality in Telangana:
- Total number of castes identified → 242
- Castes above State average backwardness → 135
- Share of these castes in total population → 67%
The State average Comprehensive Backwardness Index (CBI) score has been calculated as 81, which acts as a benchmark to identify relative backwardness.
Category-wise Observations
- Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) are found to be three times more backward than General Castes
- Backward Classes (BC) are 2.7 times more backward than General Castes
The survey also identifies major caste groups by population size:
- Madiga (SC)
- Shaik Muslim (BC)
- Mudiraj (BC)
- Lambadi (ST)
- Yadava (BC)
- Reddy (OC)
- Goud (BC)
A crucial conceptual finding of the report is that “every backward caste is not equally backward.” This highlights the presence of intra-category inequality, which has significant policy implications.
Comprehensive Backwardness Index (CBI)
The Comprehensive Backwardness Index (CBI) is a composite indicator used to measure the level of backwardness across different caste groups.
It is based on multiple parameters such as:
- Social status and historical disadvantage
- Educational attainment
- Economic conditions and income levels
- Employment patterns and occupational status
A higher CBI score indicates a higher degree of backwardness.
The use of such an index represents a shift from traditional classification systems towards a quantitative, data-driven approach, which allows policymakers to identify and target the most disadvantaged groups more accurately.
Constitutional Framework of Backward Classes
The Constitution of India provides enabling provisions for the advancement of backward classes, but deliberately avoids defining the term “backward classes.”
This is because backwardness is considered to be dynamic and context-specific.
Key constitutional provisions include:
- Article 15(4) → Allows the State to make special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes
- Article 16(4) → Permits reservation in public employment for backward classes not adequately represented
- Article 46 → Directs the State to promote the educational and economic interests of weaker sections
These provisions are based on the principle of substantive equality, which recognises that equal treatment may not lead to equal outcomes, and therefore corrective measures are necessary.
Article 340 and Backward Class Commissions
Article 340 provides the institutional mechanism for identifying backward classes. It empowers the President to appoint a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes and recommend measures for their advancement.
Important Commissions
- Kaka Kalelkar Commission (1953) → First Backward Class Commission
- Mandal Commission (1979) → Used multi-dimensional criteria and recommended 27% reservation for OBCs
The Supreme Court, in the Indra Sawhney Case, upheld the validity of reservations and emphasised that backwardness must be determined using objective criteria.
In this context, the Telangana caste survey performs a similar role at the State level by providing a data-based foundation for identifying backward classes.
Concept of Backwardness in India
- Backwardness in India refers to a condition of social, educational, and economic disadvantage faced by certain groups.
- It is not defined explicitly in the Constitution, but has been interpreted through policies and judicial decisions.
Constitutional Basis
- Article 15(4) enables the State to make special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes.
- Article 16(4) allows reservation in public employment for backward classes not adequately represented.
- Article 46 directs the State to promote the educational and economic interests of weaker sections, especially SCs and STs.
Identification of Backward Classes
- Backwardness is primarily identified as social and educational backwardness, not purely economic.
- The Mandal Commission (1979) identified Other Backward Classes (OBCs) using social, educational, and economic indicators.
- The Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992) clarified that backwardness must be social and educational, and not solely economic.
Implications of the Survey
The findings of the survey have several important implications:
- They provide empirical support for targeted welfare policies
- They strengthen the case for sub-categorisation within backward classes
- They improve the accuracy of reservation policies
- They promote transparency and accountability in governance
- They help in identifying the most disadvantaged groups for focused intervention
Challenges and Concerns
Despite its importance, the survey also raises certain challenges:
- Caste-based data is politically sensitive and may lead to social tensions
- Implementing sub-categorisation can be administratively complex
- There is a risk of politicisation of data
- Ensuring accuracy and periodic updating of data remains a challenge
Way Forward
There is a need to use the survey findings for designing evidence-based and targeted policies.
Sub-categorisation within backward classes should be considered to ensure equitable distribution of benefits.
Institutional mechanisms must be strengthened to ensure transparent and effective implementation.
Periodic surveys should be conducted to update data and reflect changing socio-economic conditions.
Conclusion
The Telangana caste survey represents a significant step towards data-driven governance and social justice. By highlighting both inter-caste and intra-caste inequalities, it provides a more nuanced understanding of backwardness and lays the foundation for more effective and inclusive policy-making.
CARE MCQ
Q. Consider the following statements regarding Article 15 of the Constitution of India:
- The protections under Article 15 are available to both citizens of India and foreigners residing within the territory of India.
- Article 15(2) prohibits discrimination only by the State and does not extend to the actions of private individuals.
- The State is empowered to make special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes or for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes regarding admission to all educational institutions, including minority educational institutions.
- The word ‘residence’ is not mentioned as a prohibited ground of discrimination under Article 15.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 15 is a Fundamental Right available only to citizens, not to foreigners. This is clear from the wording “the State shall not discriminate against any citizen…”. Unlike Article 14 or 21 (which apply to all persons), Article 15 is citizen-specific, making this statement incorrect
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 15(2) is broader than Article 15(1). While clause (1) applies to the State, clause (2) applies to both State and private individuals. It prohibits denial of access to shops, public restaurants, hotels, wells, tanks, etc., thereby directly addressing social discrimination like untouchability.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 15(5) allows the State to make special provisions for backward classes in educational institutions including private institutions, but it explicitly excludes minority educational institutions (Article 30(1)). The phrase “including minority institutions” makes this statement incorrect.
Statement 4 is correct: Article 15 prohibits discrimination on only five grounds:
Religion, Race, Caste, Sex, Place of Birth.
Q. With reference to Article 15, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The right is available to both citizens and non-citizens
(b) ‘Residence’ is a prohibited ground under Article 15
(c) Article 15(2) applies to both State and private individuals
(d) Backward class provision was part of original Constitution
Ans: (c)
Article 15(2) prohibits denial of access to public places such as shops, hotels, wells, and roads on grounds of discrimination. It is unique because it applies not only against the State but also against private individuals, thereby addressing social discrimination in everyday public life.
Q.Consider the following statements:
- Article 15 applies to both citizens and non-citizens
- Article 15(2) applies to State and private individuals
- Article 15(4) was part of the original Constitution
- 93rd Constitutional Amendment allows reservation in private institutions
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:Article 15 is a Fundamental Right available only to citizens of India. The Constitution explicitly uses the term “citizen”, thereby excluding non-citizens. This is a key distinction from Articles like 14 and 21 which apply to all persons.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 15(2) is broader in scope and applies to both the State and private individuals. It prohibits discrimination in access to public spaces such as shops, hotels, restaurants, wells, tanks, etc., addressing social discrimination practices directly.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 15(4), which allows the State to make special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes and SCs/STs, was not part of the original Constitution. It was inserted by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 following the Champakam Dorairajan case.
Statement 4 is correct:The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2005 inserted Article 15(5), empowering the State to provide reservation in educational institutions, including private unaided institutions, but excluding minority institutions under Article 30(1).
Q. Consider the following statements regarding Article 15:
- Applies to citizens and non-citizens
- Article 15(3) allows special provisions for women and children
- Article 15(2) applies to private individuals
- Sexual orientation explicitly added via amendment
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: because Article 15 is a Fundamental Right specifically guaranteed to citizens of India and does not extend to non-citizens, unlike certain other rights such as equality before law under Article 14.
Statement 2 is correct : Article 15(3) acts as an enabling provision that allows the State to make special provisions for women and children. This reflects the principle of substantive equality, where protective discrimination is permitted to uplift socially disadvantaged groups.
Statement 3 is correct: because Article 15(2) has a wider horizontal application. It prohibits discrimination not only by the State but also by private individuals in matters relating to access to public places such as shops, hotels, roads, wells, and tanks, thereby targeting social discrimination at the societal level.
Statement 4 is incorrect : since sexual orientation is not expressly mentioned in the Constitution. However, the Supreme Court, through progressive interpretation in Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India, has read sexual orientation within the ambit of constitutional protections, including Article 15.
Q. Which of the following is NOT a ground under Article 15?
(a) Religion
(b) Place of birth
(c) Caste
(d) Residence
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination on five grounds: religion, race, caste, sex, and place of birth.
Residence is not included as a ground under Article 15. This distinction is important because it allows the State to provide benefits based on domicile or residence, such as reservations in educational institutions.
The ground of residence is instead dealt with under Article 16, which relates to equality of opportunity in public employment.
FAQs
Q. What is the SEEEPC Survey?
It is a comprehensive Telangana government survey covering socio-economic, educational, employment, political, and caste-related data.
Q. What is the Comprehensive Backwardness Index (CBI)?
It is a composite index used to measure backwardness based on multiple indicators such as education, income, and social status.
Q. Which Article deals with backward class commissions?
Article 340 of the Constitution.
Q. What is the key finding of the Telangana survey?
A majority of castes (135 out of 242) are more backward than the State average, indicating deep inequality.
Q. Why are caste surveys important?
They provide empirical data necessary for designing reservation policies and welfare schemes.
Relevance: GS Paper III – Science & Technology | Cybersecurity | Internal Security
For Prelims:
Large Language Models, Zero-Day Vulnerability, Bug Bounty, Exploit, Cybersecurity
For Mains:
AI-enabled cyber threats, vulnerability economics, cyber deterrence, technological sovereignty, dual-use technology
Why in News?
A powerful AI model named “Mythos,” developed by Anthropic, has demonstrated the ability to autonomously identify and exploit software vulnerabilities, raising significant concerns about its implications for global cybersecurity.
What is Mythos AI Model?
- Mythos is an advanced Artificial Intelligence system capable of detecting, analysing, and generating exploits for software vulnerabilities without continuous human intervention.
- Due to its high-risk capabilities, the model is not being publicly released and will instead be selectively shared with organisations working on critical infrastructure under controlled initiatives such as Project Glasswing.
Nature of the Cybersecurity Concern
- The key concern is that such AI systems can drastically lower the barrier to entry for cyberattacks by automating complex tasks like vulnerability discovery and exploit generation.
- This shifts the balance of power in cyberspace, enabling both defensive and offensive actors to operate at unprecedented speed and scale.
- The technology represents a classic case of dual-use innovation, where the same capability can enhance security or amplify threats.
Understanding Zero-Day Vulnerabilities
Zero-day vulnerabilities refer to software flaws that are unknown to developers and therefore lack patches or fixes.
These vulnerabilities are highly valuable because they can be exploited before detection, making them critical tools for cybercriminals and state-sponsored attackers.
AI models like Mythos can accelerate the discovery of such vulnerabilities, increasing both their availability and risk.
Impact on Cybersecurity Ecosystem
- The automation of vulnerability discovery and exploitation is expected to transform cybersecurity operations.
- Routine tasks such as scanning, triaging, and initial exploit development may become automated, raising the skill threshold required for cybersecurity professionals.
- At the same time, the speed of attacks may increase, making traditional reactive security models less effective.
Impact on Bug Bounty and Vulnerability Markets
- Bug bounty programmes, which incentivise ethical hackers to report vulnerabilities, may face disruption as AI reduces the cost and time required to discover flaws.
- The increased supply of vulnerabilities could reduce their market price, altering the economics of cybersecurity.
- However, this may also shorten the lifespan of zero-day exploits, forcing attackers to act more quickly
Role of Large Language Models in Cybersecurity
1.Threat Detection & Intelligence
LLMs can process vast threat data (logs, malware reports, dark web chatter) to:
- Identify patterns of attacks in real time
- Generate actionable threat intelligence summaries
- Correlate seemingly unrelated vulnerabilities
2.Automated Malware & Exploit Generation
- LLMs can assist in writing malicious code
- Help identify and exploit zero-day vulnerabilities
AI and Cybersecurity
- AI-based intrusion detection systems differ from traditional systems because they rely on machine learning algorithms that identify abnormal patterns in network behavior rather than only matching known attack signatures, which makes them effective against previously unknown or zero-day attacks.
- In cybersecurity, artificial intelligence is used in malware analysis through both static methods, where the code structure is examined without execution, and dynamic methods, where the behavior of the program is observed in a controlled environment called a sandbox.
- AI systems themselves can be targeted through adversarial attacks, where inputs are deliberately manipulated to mislead the model, and through data poisoning, where corrupted data is introduced during the training phase to compromise the system’s accuracy.
- Natural Language Processing, a subset of AI, is widely used in cybersecurity to detect phishing attacks by analyzing the linguistic patterns, sender information, and metadata of emails to identify suspicious or fraudulent communication.
- AI-powered threat intelligence platforms integrate data from multiple sources such as network logs, open-source intelligence, and dark web activities, enabling real-time analysis and early identification of potential cyber threats.
- Explainable Artificial Intelligence (XAI) is increasingly used in cybersecurity to address the “black box” nature of AI models by making their decision-making processes interpretable, which is crucial for accountability in sensitive systems.
- AI-enabled Endpoint Detection and Response systems continuously monitor devices such as computers and servers, detect unusual behavior, and can automatically isolate compromised systems to prevent the spread of cyberattacks.
- Deepfake technology, which uses AI to generate realistic audio and video content, has emerged as a cybersecurity threat because it can be used for identity theft, financial fraud, and disinformation campaigns.
- In India, the CERT-In utilizes AI-based tools for monitoring cyber threats, issuing alerts, and coordinating responses to cybersecurity incidents.
- Artificial intelligence is increasingly being integrated into cyber warfare capabilities, including automated attack systems and real-time defense mechanisms, raising concerns about escalation and the absence of clear international regulations.
• Zero-day vulnerability → Unknown software flaw without patch |
Global Strategic Implications
- The controlled distribution of advanced AI tools among select countries and corporations may deepen technological asymmetries globally.
- Such developments are increasingly viewed through the lens of national security, with AI becoming part of the strategic competition among major powers.
- The analogy with nuclear technology reflects the disruptive potential of AI in altering global power dynamics.
India’s Position and Preparedness
- India is currently evaluating the implications of such AI models through government and industry bodies.
- The country faces a strategic choice between remaining a service-based technology provider and investing in indigenous AI capabilities.
- Leveraging domestic technological capacity and financial resources is essential to ensure digital sovereignty and resilience.
Way Forward
Developing robust AI governance frameworks is essential to regulate the use of high-risk models. Strengthening cybersecurity infrastructure and adopting proactive defence strategies can mitigate risks. Investment in indigenous AI research and development will enhance technological self-reliance. Capacity building among cybersecurity professionals is necessary to adapt to evolving threats.
Conclusion
The emergence of AI models like Mythos marks a transformative moment in cybersecurity, where the speed and scale of both attacks and defences are significantly enhanced.
While the technology raises serious concerns, it also provides an opportunity to rethink cybersecurity strategies and build more resilient digital systems.
Effective governance and strategic investment will determine whether such innovations become tools of protection or sources of disruption.
CARE MCQ
Q. With reference to Artificial Intelligence in cybersecurity, consider the following statements:
- Zero-day vulnerabilities are software flaws that have already been patched by developers.
- AI models can automate the identification and exploitation of software vulnerabilities.
- Bug bounty programmes aim to encourage ethical disclosure of vulnerabilities.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Zero-day vulnerabilities refer to previously unknown software flaws for which no patch exists at the time of discovery. The term “zero-day” indicates that developers have had zero days to fix the issue, making such vulnerabilities highly dangerous and actively exploitable.
Statement 2 is correct: Advanced AI models are increasingly capable of automating the detection of vulnerabilities in code and, in some cases, even simulating or generating exploits. This raises both opportunities (defensive security testing) and risks (AI-assisted cyberattacks), especially with highly capable models.
Statement 3 is correct: Bug bounty programmes are structured initiatives by organizations to incentivize ethical hackers to responsibly disclose vulnerabilities. By rewarding discovery and reporting, these programmes help improve system security while reducing the risk of malicious exploitation.
Q.In LLM sampling, what does temperature control?
(a) The GPU cooling during training
(b) The randomness/flatness of the probability distribution
(c) The learning rate
(d) The tokenization granularity
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Temperature controls the degree of randomness in output generation. A higher temperature makes the probability distribution flatter (more diverse outputs), while a lower temperature makes it sharper (more deterministic outputs).
Q.What is the role of a loss function in AI?
(a) To measure prediction errors
(b) To store training data
(c) To visualize model outputs
(d) To encrypt data
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
A loss function quantifies the difference between predicted output and actual output, guiding the model during training to minimize errors and improve accuracy.
Q.Which model is an example of a large language model?
(a) MySQL
(b) GPT-4
(c) CSS3
(d) Apache Spark
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
GPT-4 is a large language model (LLM) trained on vast text data to generate human-like responses. The other options are database, styling language, and data processing framework respectively.
Q.Consider the following statements regarding tokenization in Large Language Models (LLMs):
- Tokenization converts raw text into units that may represent whole words, subwords, or characters.
- Different tokenization schemes can influence the model’s efficiency and representation of language.
- Tokenization determines the architecture of the neural network used in LLMs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Tokenization converts text into tokens, which may be whole words, subwords (like Byte Pair Encoding), or even characters, depending on the tokenizer design. This flexibility is central to modern LLMs.
Statement 2 is correct: Different tokenization schemes affect sequence length, memory usage, and how meaning is captured. For example, subword tokenization balances vocabulary size and generalization, directly influencing model efficiency and output quality.
Statement 3 is incorrect : Tokenization affects input representation, not the core neural architecture (e.g., Transformer). The architecture is defined independently of how text is tokenized, although tokenization interacts with model performance.
MAINS QUESTION
Q.“Artificial Intelligence is redefining the nature of cybersecurity threats and responses.” Examine the dual role of AI in both strengthening and undermining cybersecurity systems.
[250 WORDS]
FAQs
Q. What makes Mythos AI different from earlier AI models?
Its ability to autonomously identify and exploit vulnerabilities without continuous human input.
Q. Why are zero-day vulnerabilities dangerous?
Because they can be exploited before developers create patches, making systems highly vulnerable.
Q. How does AI change cybersecurity?
It increases the speed and scale of both attacks and defensive responses.
Q. What is the biggest risk of AI in cybersecurity?
The potential misuse by malicious actors to automate and scale cyberattacks.
Q.What is India’s key challenge in this context?
Balancing technological advancement with cybersecurity preparedness and regulatory oversight.
Relevance: APPSC – Andhra Pradesh Specific (Polity, Political Parties, Women Empowerment, Representation)
For Prelims:
Khasi language, Garo language, Eighth Schedule, Official Languages, Linguistic diversity
For Mains:
linguistic federalism, cultural recognition, constitutional status of languages, identity politics, cooperative federalism
Why in News?
The Cabinet of Meghalaya has approved the Meghalaya Official Languages Ordinance, 2026, declaring Khasi and Garo as official languages of the State alongside English, while also renewing demands for their inclusion in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
Background of the Decision
- Khasi and Garo are the dominant tribal languages of Meghalaya, reflecting the ethnic composition of the State.
- Despite their widespread use in daily life and cultural expression, these languages lacked formal recognition in official administrative functioning.
- The move comes in response to long-standing demands from indigenous communities seeking linguistic recognition and constitutional status.
What the Meghalaya Ordinance Provides?
- The Ordinance enables the use of Khasi and Garo in official communication within the State government.
- It also facilitates their use in legislative proceedings once amendments are made to the Meghalaya State Legislature (Continuance of English Language) Act, 1980.
- This marks a transition from English-only administration towards multilingual governance at the State level.
Constitutional Framework of Official Languages
Constitutional Basis The framework is rooted in Part XVII of the Constitution, divided into four chapters:
2. Language of the Union (Articles 343–344) The Constitution declares Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union.
Key Implication: Article 344 provides for:
3. Regional Languages (Articles 345–347) States are given flexibility regarding official languages.
Key Implication: 4. Language of Judiciary (Articles 348–349)
Key Implication: 5. Special Directives (Articles 350–351) These provisions protect linguistic rights and promote Hindi.
|
Eighth Schedule: Nature and Significance
Nature
- The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India contains a list of recognized languages.
- It was originally included with 14 languages and has been expanded to 22 languages through constitutional amendments.
- Inclusion in the Schedule does not make a language an official language of the Union.
- The Schedule is not part of Part XVII, but is separately placed in the Constitution
- Procedure for Inclusion in Eighth Schedule
- Inclusion of a language requires a Constitutional Amendment passed by Parliament.
Significance
- Languages in the Schedule are given recognition for development and promotion by the Government of India.
- They are used for representation in the Official Language Commission constituted under Article 344.
- Candidates are allowed to use these languages in UPSC and other examinations.
- The Government is expected to take measures for their enrichment and preservation.
- Inclusion in the Schedule has no direct constitutional provision for granting official language status.
Linguistic Identity and Federalism
- Language plays a central role in shaping regional identity and political mobilisation.
- Recognition of regional languages strengthens cooperative federalism by accommodating diversity within the constitutional framework.
- At the same time, it reflects India’s model of asymmetric federalism, where States are given flexibility to address local aspirations.
Implications of the Decision
- The decision strengthens cultural preservation by promoting indigenous languages in governance.
- It enhances administrative accessibility by allowing citizens to interact with the State in their native languages.
- It also increases political representation of tribal communities by integrating their linguistic identity into formal institutions.
- At the national level, it may intensify demands from other linguistic groups seeking inclusion in the Eighth Schedule.
Challenges and Limitations
- Inclusion in the Eighth Schedule remains uncertain, as it requires political consensus at the national level.
- Administrative transition to multilingual governance may face practical issues such as lack of standardisation, training, and translation infrastructure.
- There is also a broader concern that expanding the Eighth Schedule indefinitely may dilute its functional significance.
Way Forward
- A clear and transparent framework for inclusion in the Eighth Schedule should be developed to address growing demands.
- Investment in linguistic infrastructure such as translation systems, teacher training, and digital tools is essential for effective implementation.
- Balancing linguistic diversity with administrative efficiency remains crucial for long-term governance.
Conclusion
The recognition of Khasi and Garo as official languages by Meghalaya represents an important step in aligning governance with cultural identity.
It highlights the dynamic nature of India’s linguistic federalism, where regional aspirations are accommodated within a constitutional framework.
However, the larger question of inclusion in the Eighth Schedule requires a careful balance between representation, practicality, and national coherence.
CARE MCQ
Q. Regarding Article 345 of the Indian Constitution, which statement is correct?
(a) It allows the state legislature to adopt any one language used in the state as the official language of that state.
(b) It mandates Hindi as the official language for all states.
(c) It provides for the adoption of English as the sole official language of India.
(d) It prohibits states from declaring more than one official language.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Article 345 empowers the State Legislature to adopt any one or more languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official language(s) for that state. This provision reflects the federal flexibility of the Constitution, allowing linguistic diversity at the state level.
Q.Consider the following statements regarding the use of languages in the Indian Parliament:
- The presiding officer of each House has the discretion to allow a member to address the House in a language not listed in the Eighth Schedule if deemed necessary.
- While simultaneous interpretation is available for many scheduled languages, its provision for all 22 languages in both Houses during all sessions is not guaranteed.
- If a member submits a written question in a scheduled language other than Hindi or English, the reply provided must also be in that same language.
- The official records and authoritative texts of parliamentary proceedings are maintained and published exclusively in Hindi and English.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 120(1) of the Constitution, business in Parliament is conducted in Hindi or English. However, the presiding officer (Speaker/Chairman) has the discretion to allow a member to speak in their mother tongue, even if it is not included in the Eighth Schedule. This ensures inclusivity in parliamentary participation.
Statement 2 is correct: Although Parliament has developed systems for simultaneous interpretation in multiple scheduled languages, its availability depends on logistical and technical constraints, such as interpreter availability. Therefore, interpretation in all 22 languages is not guaranteed in every sitting.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As per parliamentary rules, answers to questions are provided only in Hindi or English, irrespective of the language in which the question is asked. There is no requirement to respond in the same regional language used by the member.
Statement 4 is correct: The authoritative records and official publications of Parliament are maintained in Hindi and English only, as per constitutional provisions and the Official Languages Act, ensuring uniformity and legal clarity.
Q. Which of the following statements about the recognition of classical languages in India is incorrect?
(a) The Government of India is responsible for conferring classical language status based on specific criteria.
(b) Once declared a classical language, it receives UGC support for establishing academic chairs in central universities.
(c) Classical language status also elevates the language to the rank of an official language under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
(d) Recorded history and independent literary tradition are key criteria for granting classical status.
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Option (c) is incorrect: Classical language status is independent of the Eighth Schedule. A language can be classical without being listed in the Eighth Schedule and vice versa.
Q. Consider the following constitutional amendments:
- 21st
- 71st
- 92nd
- 102nd
How many of the above are related to the official languages under the Eighth Schedule?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
21st Amendment (1967) – Correct:
Added Sindhi to the Eighth Schedule, expanding the list of recognized languages.
71st Amendment (1992) – Correct:
Added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali, increasing linguistic representation.
92nd Amendment (2003) – Correct:
Added Bodo, Santhali, Maithili, and Dogri, further expanding the Schedule.
102nd Amendment (2018) – Incorrect:
This amendment dealt with granting constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) and did not relate to languages or the Eighth Schedule.
UPSC CARE MAINS
Q.Critically examine the role of the Official Languages Act, 1963 in resolving the constitutional tensions arising from the transition to Hindi as the official language of the Union. [250 WORDS]
FAQs
Q. Why are Khasi and Garo important?
Ans: They represent the cultural and linguistic identity of major tribal communities in Meghalaya.
Q. Does official language status mean inclusion in the Eighth Schedule?
Ans:No, State-level recognition and constitutional recognition are separate processes.
Q. What is the benefit of inclusion in the Eighth Schedule?
Ans:It provides constitutional recognition and institutional support for language development.
Q. Which Article allows States to adopt official languages?
Ans:Article 345 of the Constitution.
Q. How many languages are currently in the Eighth Schedule?
Ans:Twenty-two languages.
