News at a Glance

1. Telangana: Osmania improves, NIT-Warangal and UoH slip in NIRF rankings 2025
2. Shankara Narayana, the “Brahma of Humour,” enters Wonder Book of Records
3. Economy: NITI Aayog’s Roadmap for Atmanirbharta in Pulses
4. Polity and Governance: Exemption for Sri Lankan Tamil Refugees and Six Minority Communities under the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025
5. Social Justice: NIRF India Rankings 2025: IIT Madras Retains Top Spot for 7th Consecutive Year
6. Demographic Trends in India: Insights from the Sample Registration Survey 2023
7. Defence: Theaterisation of Indian Armed Forces: Challenges, Opportunities, and the Road Ahead
8. Environment and Ecology: Environment Audit Rules, 2025 – Towards Strengthening Environmental Compliance

Osmania improves, NIT-Warangal and UoH slip in NIRF rankings 2025

Source: Telangana Today

https://telanganatoday.com/osmania-improves-nit-warangal-and-uoh-slip-in-nirf-rankings-2025

TGPSC Syllabus Relevance: Education

Context: NIRF rankings 2025 Telangana

Why in News

The NIRF Rankings 2025 show a mixed performance of Telangana institutions, with Osmania University and PJTSAU improving, while NIT-Warangal and UoH slipped slightly; IIT-Hyderabad retained its top positions.

Introduction

• The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) is released annually by the Ministry of Education, Government of India, to assess and rank higher education institutions across various categories like Overall, Universities, Engineering, Management, Law, Pharmacy, and Agriculture.
• The 2025 rankings reflect a mixed performance for Telangana institutions, with some improving their positions while others slipping down.

Key Highlights for Telangana Institutions

1. Osmania University (OU)

• Improved in University Category: Climbed from 70th (2024) to 53rd (2025).
• Overall Rank: Improved from 43rd (2024) to 30th (2025).
• State Public Universities Rank: Declined slightly, from 6th (2024) to 7th (2025).
• Significance: OU’s improvement in the national university ranking shows positive institutional reforms and research output, though competition among state universities is intense.

2. National Institute of Technology, Warangal (NIT-Warangal)

• Ranking slipped from 53rd (2024) to 63rd (2025) in overall category.
• In engineering institutions, it is ranked 28th.
  Significance: NIT-Warangal, one of the oldest NITs, is facing stiff competition from newer IITs and well-performing private universities.

3. University of Hyderabad (UoH)

• Overall ranking fell slightly from 25th (2024) to 26th (2025).
• In engineering category, UoH is placed at 74th.
• Significance: UoH remains a strong research-oriented central university but shows marginal decline compared to peers.

4. Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-Hyderabad)

• Retained 12th rank overall.
• Ranked 7th among engineering institutions.
• Significance: IIT-Hyderabad continues to be a premier institute, excelling in innovation and research.

5. International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIIT-Hyderabad)

• Overall rank: 74th.
• University category: 89th.
• Engineering institutions: 38th.
• Significance: IIIT-H remains among the top private tech institutes, though its overall position reflects limited diversification beyond engineering.

(Image Source– Telangana Today)

Other Telangana Institutions

• SR University (Warangal): Engineering rank 91st.
• JNTU-Hyderabad: Engineering rank 94th.
• NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad: Ranked 3rd in Law Category (top tier nationally).
• Pharmacy Institutions:
  • NIPER Hyderabad: 5th rank.
  • Anurag University: 72nd rank.
• Professor Jayashankar Telangana State Agricultural University (PJTSAU): Improved from 37th (2024) to 24th (2025) in Agriculture & Allied institutions.

National Context of NIRF 2025

• Top Overall Institutions:
  1. IIT Madras
  2. IISc Bengaluru
  3. IIT Bombay
• Telangana’s IIT-Hyderabad, OU, UoH, and NALSAR stand out in specific categories but lag behind the traditional top performers from Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Maharashtra.

Analysis of Telangana’s Performance

1. Improvement Areas:
   • OU’s rise indicates better research publications, outreach, and teaching-learning outcomes.
   • PJTSAU’s significant improvement highlights progress in agricultural research and extension.
   • NALSAR’s continued top performance strengthens Telangana’s reputation in legal education.
2. Areas of Concern:
   • Decline of NIT-Warangal shows challenges in maintaining competitiveness.
   • UoH slipping slightly indicates the need for renewed focus on global research collaborations and infrastructure.
   • IIIT-Hyderabad’s strong engineering ranking contrasts with weaker overall/university category positions.
3. Sectoral Strengths:
   • Law (NALSAR), Pharmacy (NIPER), and Agriculture (PJTSAU) are emerging as strong pillars for Telangana.
   • Engineering and Technology remain mixed, with IIT-H excelling but NIT-W and JNTU-H needing revival.

CARE MCQ

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the NIRF Rankings 2025 for Telangana institutions:

1. Osmania University improved its position in the University category, moving from 70th in 2024 to 53rd in 2025.
2. NIT-Warangal improved its overall ranking, moving from 63rd in 2024 to 53rd in 2025.
3. The University of Hyderabad slipped by one position to 26th in the overall category.
4. NALSAR University of Law was ranked the third best in the country in the law category.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only

Answer 1- B

• Statement 1 is correct: Osmania University showed notable improvement in the University category, moving up from 70th position in 2024 to 53rd in 2025, reflecting progress in teaching, research, and outreach indicators.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: NIT-Warangal did not improve; rather, its ranking slipped from 53rd in 2024 to 63rd in 2025, indicating challenges in sustaining its earlier position among leading engineering and overall institutions.
• Statement 3 is correct: The University of Hyderabad (UoH) slipped marginally by one rank, from 25th in 2024 to 26th in 2025 in the overall category, though it continues to remain among India’s top central universities.
• Statement 4 is correct: NALSAR University of Law, Hyderabad, maintained its status as a premier legal education institute, securing the 3rd rank nationally in the law category.

Hence statement B is correct

Shankara Narayana, the “Brahma of Humour,” enters Wonder Book of Records

Source: Telangana Today

https://telanganatoday.com/shankara-narayana-the-brahma-of-humour-enters-wonder-book-of-records

TGPSC Syllabus Relevance: Awards and honours

Context: Hasya Avadhani

Why in News

Renowned Hasya Avadhani Shankara Narayana, honoured as the “Brahma of Humour”, entered the Wonder Book of Records International for performing 550 Hasya Avadhanams over 27 years

Introduction

• Humour has always been a vital part of India’s rich cultural tradition, from the witty subhashitas of classical Sanskrit literature to modern-day stand-up performances.
• In this tradition, Hasya Avadhanam (a humorous form of the classical Avadhanam art) has gained prominence for blending intellect, wit, memory, and entertainment.
• Recently, renowned Hasya Avadhani Shankara Narayana was honoured by the Wonder Book of Records International for his unique contributions in this field, solidifying his position as the “Brahma of Humour.”

About the Achievement

• Record Recognition: Shankara Narayana was felicitated at Tyagaraya Gana Sabha, Hyderabad, for securing a place in the Wonder Book of Records International.
• Performance Legacy:
  • Conducted 550 Hasya Avadhanams over 27 years.
  • Notably, performed a 25-hour nonstop public Hasya Avadhanam at the same venue.
• Cultural Outreach: He has conducted thousands of humour programmes across India and abroad, making humour an accessible cultural expression.

(Image Source: Telangana Today)

What is Hasya Avadhanam?

• Origin: Derived from the classical Avadhanam, a unique literary performance art from Telugu and Sanskrit traditions, which showcases memory power, wit, and spontaneous creativity.
• Hasya Avadhanam: Focuses on humour (hasya rasa), engaging audiences with wit, satire, and improvisation while adhering to the structural discipline of Avadhanam.
• Cultural Value: It preserves traditional art forms while adapting them for modern sensibilities, thus keeping literary and performative traditions alive.

Significance of the Recognition

1. Preservation of Tradition: Encourages the continuation of Avadhanam, a unique Indian cultural heritage art.
2. Promotion of Humour as a Social Tool: Humour helps in reducing stress, spreading awareness, and building social harmony.
3. Cultural Diplomacy: Through performances abroad, Shankara Narayana has showcased Indian wit and creativity to international audiences.
4. Role Model for Artists: Recognition by the Wonder Book of Records inspires younger generations to pursue traditional yet innovative performance arts.

Broader Context – Humour and Society

• Sociological Relevance: Humour plays a crucial role in questioning authority, highlighting social issues, and fostering group cohesion.
• Literary Heritage: Classical Sanskrit plays (like those of Kalidasa) and medieval Bhakti poetry often used humour to connect with people. Shankara Narayana’s contribution continues this lineage in a contemporary setting.

CARE MCQ

Q2. Consider the following statements about Hasya Avadhanam:

1. It is a modern Indian theatre form introduced in the 20th century, unrelated to traditional Avadhanam.
2. Hasya Avadhanam derives from the classical Avadhanam tradition of Telugu and Sanskrit, focusing on humour (hasya rasa).
3. Shankara Narayana, known as the “Brahma of Humour,” was recently recognised by the Wonder Book of Records for his Hasya Avadhanam performances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer 2- B

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Hasya Avadhanam is not a modern 20th-century invention. It originates from the traditional Avadhanam practice in Telugu and Sanskrit literature, where performers exhibit wit, memory, and creativity.
• Statement 2 is correct: Hasya Avadhanam is indeed derived from the classical Avadhanam tradition, with a focus on humour (hasya rasa). It blends satire, wit, and improvisation while following Avadhanam’s structural discipline.
• Statement 3 is correct: Shankara Narayana, honoured as the “Brahma of Humour,” entered the Wonder Book of Records International for conducting 550 Hasya Avadhanams over 27 years, including a 25-hour nonstop performance.
• Hence statement B is correct

NITI Aayog’s Roadmap for Atmanirbharta in Pulses

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/niti-aayog-recommends-multiple-strategies-to-enhance-pulses-production/article70013235.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Economy

Context: NITI Aayog’s report on pulses

Why in News

NITI Aayog’s report “Strategies and Pathways for Accelerating Growth in Pulses towards the Goal of Atmanirbharta” recommends state- and district-specific strategies to boost pulse production.

Introduction

• Pulses play a vital role in India’s food and nutritional security. They are rich in proteins, micronutrients, and fibre, and are crucial for a balanced diet, particularly in a country with widespread vegetarianism.
• Beyond nutrition, pulses also contribute to sustainable agriculture due to their nitrogen-fixing ability, reducing the need for chemical fertilisers and improving soil health.
• Recognising these multidimensional benefits, NITI Aayog released a report on September 4, 2025, titled “Strategies and Pathways for Accelerating Growth in Pulses towards the Goal of Atmanirbharta”.
• The report underlines the need for tailored state- and district-specific strategies to enhance production, reduce import dependence, and ensure long-term sustainability.

(Image Source -The Hindu)

Current Status of Pulses in India

• Largest producer, consumer, and importer: India accounts for over a quarter of global production and consumption.
• Rain-fed dependency: Nearly 80% of pulses cultivation occurs in rain-fed regions, sustaining the livelihoods of 5 crore farmers.
• Regional concentration: Three states—Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan—contribute around 55% of national output, while the top 10 states account for 91%.
• Production trends:
• Decline in 2015–16: 16.35 million tonnes (MT), necessitating 6 MT imports.
• Recovery due to policy support: By 2022–23, production rose by 59.4% to 26.06 MT, with productivity up by 38%.
• Import dependency reduced from 29% to 10.4% in the same period.

Significance of Pulses for India

• Nutritional security: Key protein source for vegetarians, contributing to combating malnutrition and hidden hunger.
• Sustainable agriculture: Enhance soil fertility through nitrogen fixation; require less water compared to cereals.
• Environmental benefits: Reduce greenhouse gas emissions by lowering fertiliser use.
• Rural livelihood: Provide income security for small and marginal farmers in semi-arid regions.

Government Initiatives

• National Food Security Mission (NFSM–Pulses): Promoted seed distribution, demonstrations, and farm mechanisation.
• Price support mechanisms: Minimum Support Price (MSP) and procurement through NAFED.
• Mission for Atmanirbharta in Pulses (2023–29): A six-year focused programme targeting pigeonpea, black gram, and lentil to strengthen domestic production.

NITI Aayog Report: Key Recommendations

Tailored Agricultural Strategies:

• State- and district-specific roadmaps considering local agro-ecological constraints.
• Region-wise diversification of crops for risk mitigation.

Area Retention and Diversification:

• Prevent conversion of pulse-growing areas to other crops.
• Cluster-based cropping systems (targeted crop-wise clusters).

Seed and Technology Support:

• Distribution of high-quality seed and treatment kits.
• Special focus on 111 high-potential districts contributing 75% of national output.
• “One Block – One Seed Village” approach to build cluster-based hubs facilitated by Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs).

Adoption of Customised Technologies:

• Agro-ecological sub-region specific mechanisation and improved irrigation.
• Promotion of climate-resilient and high-yielding varieties.
• Institutional Support:
• Strengthening extension services for transfer of knowledge.
• Encouraging PPP models for research and marketing.

Future Projections

• By 2030: Domestic supply of pulses is expected to reach 30.59 MT.
• By 2047 (Centenary of Independence): Production projected at 45.79 MT.
• With sustained growth, India could achieve self-sufficiency within 10 years, eliminating dependency on imports.

Challenges Ahead

• High reliance on monsoon → vulnerability to climate change.
• Price volatility and inadequate procurement in non-MSP states.
• Low awareness and access to quality seeds and modern technologies among smallholders.
• Regional concentration creating risks for supply chain stability.

Way Forward

• Strengthening research-extension-farmer linkages.
• Expanding micro-irrigation and watershed management for rain-fed areas.
• Ensuring inclusive procurement and price stabilisation.
• Promoting nutri-cereals-pulses intercropping systems for resilience.
• Enhancing international cooperation for genetic resources and best practices.

Conclusion

• The NITI Aayog’s roadmap recognises that pulses are not just a dietary necessity but also a pillar of sustainable agriculture and rural livelihoods. By adopting customised, region-specific strategies and focusing on seed systems, cluster-based production, and institutional support, India can move decisively towards Atmanirbharta in pulses.

CARE MCQ

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the NITI Aayog’s report on “Strategies and Pathways for Accelerating Growth in Pulses towards the Goal of Atmanirbharta” (2025):

1. Nearly 80% of India’s pulses production is dependent on irrigated areas.
2. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan together account for more than half of the country’s pulse output.
3. The “Mission for Atmanirbharta in Pulses” announced in the Union Budget targets crops such as pigeonpea, black gram, and lentil.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 3- B

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Around 80% of India’s pulse production is rain-fed, not irrigated, making the sector vulnerable to monsoon fluctuations.
• Statement 2 is correct: Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan together contribute about 55% of national production, highlighting regional concentration.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Mission for Atmanirbharta in Pulses (six-year plan) indeed focuses on pigeonpea, black gram, and lentil as priority crops.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer

UPSC PYQ

Q. With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements: (2020)

1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crop.
2. Green gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.
3. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: a

Exemption for Sri Lankan Tamil Refugees and Six Minority Communities under the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/persecuted-hindus-sikhs-jains-from-afghanistan-bangladesh-pakistan-who-entered-india-up-to-2024-to-be-allowed-to-stay-mha/article70008018.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS 2 Polity and Governance

Context: Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025

Why in News

The MHA’s Immigration and Foreigners (Exemption) Order, 2025 exempts Sri Lankan Tamil refugees (before Jan 9, 2015) and six minority communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan (before Dec 31, 2024) from penal provisions under the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025.

Introduction

• Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) issued the Immigration and Foreigners (Exemption) Order, 2025 exempting Sri Lankan Tamil refugees who arrived before January 9, 2015, and members of six minority communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan who entered India before December 31, 2024, from penal provisions under the new Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025.
• The order has wide-ranging implications for refugee protection, India’s citizenship framework, and the implementation of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA).

Background

1. Sri Lankan Tamil Refugees
   • Since the 1980s, due to the civil war in Sri Lanka, lakhs of Tamil refugees sought shelter in India, particularly in Tamil Nadu.
   • Though India does not officially recognise refugees in law, successive governments allowed them to stay in camps and provided welfare assistance.
   • Earlier, in 2015, the MHA waived visa fees and penalties for Sri Lankan Tamils opting for voluntary repatriation.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

1. Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025
   • Enacted in April 2025, it repealed and replaced four laws governing the entry and stay of foreigners in India, including the Foreigners Act, 1946.
   • Under Section 3, entry and stay without valid passports, travel documents, or visas became punishable with a fine of ₹5 lakh or imprisonment up to 5 years, or both.
2. Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA)
   • Grants citizenship to Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan who entered India on or before December 31, 2014, exempting them from being treated as illegal migrants.
   • Reduced the naturalisation period from 11 years to 5 years for these groups.

Key Provisions of the September 2, 2025 Exemption Order

1. Sri Lankan Tamil Refugees

• Exemption from Section 3(1), (2), and (3) of the 2025 Act (passport/visa requirements).
• Applies to registered Sri Lankan Tamils who took shelter before January 9, 2015.
• They can legally stay in India without facing penalties for lack of documents.

2. Six Minority Communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan

• Exempted from passport/visa requirements if they entered on or before December 31, 2024:
  • Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, Christians.
• Covered both undocumented migrants and those with expired documents.
• Protection from prosecution and deportation.
• Eligible to apply for Long-Term Visas (LTVs) → precursor to citizenship.

Clarifications from Government

• No change in CAA cut-off date: The exemption order does not extend the CAA’s cut-off date of December 31, 2014 for citizenship.
• Purpose is to decriminalise stay and provide a pathway to legal residence.
• Citizenship can still be sought via naturalisation under the Citizenship Act, 1955 (11 years of residence).

Significance

1. Humanitarian Approach

• Recognises historical displacement of Sri Lankan Tamils and religious persecution of minorities in neighbouring countries.
• Prevents their categorisation as “illegal migrants” under the strict provisions of the 2025 Act.

2. Legal Certainty

• Brings consistency between India’s immigration regime and its citizenship policy under the CAA.
• Provides migrants with legal status through LTVs, preventing arbitrary detention or deportation.

3. Political Implications

• In Tamil Nadu, exemption addresses sensitivities around Sri Lankan Tamil refugees.
• In West Bengal, sparked debate on whether the CAA cut-off date should be extended; BJP leaders initially misinterpreted the notification.

Challenges and Concerns

1. Selective Exemptions
   • Sri Lankan Tamils and six religious communities are covered, but other groups (e.g., Rohingyas, Ahmadiyyas, or ethnic minorities from Myanmar) remain excluded.
2. Lack of Refugee Law
   • India is not a signatory to the 1951 UN Refugee Convention. Refugee protection remains ad hoc and politically driven.
3. Ambiguity in Citizenship Pathway
   • While LTVs secure temporary stay, actual naturalisation still requires long residence and is subject to executive discretion.

Broader Context

• Sri Lankan Tamils: Around 60,000 refugees still live in camps across Tamil Nadu, with uncertain future.
• CAA Implementation: Citizenship Amendment Rules were notified in March 2024, operationalising the CAA.
• Regional Politics: Moves may influence politics in Tamil Nadu and West Bengal, where refugee issues are deeply intertwined with local identities and electoral debates.

Conclusion

• The Immigration and Foreigners (Exemption) Order, 2025 is a crucial intervention that balances strict immigration controls under the new 2025 Act with humanitarian considerations for historically displaced communities.
• While it protects Sri Lankan Tamils and six minority groups from penal action, it also highlights the absence of a comprehensive refugee policy in India.
• Going forward, India will need to reconcile security, humanitarian, and political concerns in framing its approach towards refugees and undocumented migrants.

CARE MCQ

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Immigration and Foreigners (Exemption) Order, 2025:

1. It exempts Sri Lankan Tamil refugees who came to India before January 9, 2015, from penal provisions of the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025.
2. The exemption extends the cut-off date of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA) from December 31, 2014, to December 31, 2024.
3. Six minority communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan who entered India on or before December 31, 2024, are eligible for protection from prosecution under the Order.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer 4- B

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: The Order clearly exempts Sri Lankan Tamil refugees who entered India before January 9, 2015 from penal provisions of the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025. They will not be treated as illegal migrants for lack of documents.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The exemption does not extend the cut-off date of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA). The CAA cut-off remains December 31, 2014. The September 2, 2025 Order only prevents prosecution under the new Act; it does not change eligibility for fast-track citizenship under CAA.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Order exempts members of six minority communities — Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, and Christians from Afghanistan, Bangladesh, and Pakistan — provided they entered on or before December 31, 2024, from being penalised for lacking valid documents.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021)

1.There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3
Ans: a
NIRF India Rankings 2025: IIT Madras Retains Top Spot for 7th Consecutive Year

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/nirf-ranking-2025-iit-madras-iisc-bangalore-jnu-manipal-academy-of-higher-education-hindu-college-iim-ahmedabad-aiims/article70011118.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 Social Justice

Context: NIRF India Rankings 2025

Why in News

The NIRF India Rankings 2025 placed IIT Madras as the top overall institution for the 7th consecutive year, with debates on methodology and inclusion of new parameters.

Introduction

• The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF), launched in 2016 by the Ministry of Education, is India’s official mechanism to evaluate higher education institutions.
• On September 4, 2025, the 10th edition of the India Rankings was released. For the seventh straight year, the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras secured the top overall position, and for the tenth straight year, it topped the Engineering category.
• The rankings highlight India’s expanding higher education ecosystem but also raise debates over methodology, inclusivity, and regional balance.

Key Highlights of NIRF 2025

1. IIT Madras
   • Overall topper for 7th year in a row.
   • Best in Engineering for 10th consecutive year.
   • Also ranked 1st in Innovation and SDGs (a newly introduced category).

(Image Source: The Hindu)

1. IISc Bengaluru
   • Topped the Universities category for the 10th straight year.
   • Ranked 1st in Research Institutions for the 5th consecutive year.
2. IIM Ahmedabad
   • Best in Management studies for the 6th consecutive year.
3. AIIMS New Delhi
   • 1st in Medical institutions for the 8th year.
   • Topped the Dental category for the first time.
   • Ranked 8th in overall category.
4. Other Notable Winners
   • Jamia Hamdard, New Delhi: No. 1 in Pharmacy.
   • IIT Roorkee: Best in Architecture and Planning.
   • Hindu College, Delhi: Best College (2nd year in a row).
   • NLSIU Bengaluru: Best in Law for the 8th year.
   • Indian Agricultural Research Institute, Delhi: Top in Agriculture & Allied Sectors.
   • IGNOU, New Delhi: Best Open University.
   • Symbiosis Skill and Professional University (SSPU), Pune: Best in Skill Universities.

Composition of Top 100 Overall Institutions

The top 100 overall institutions included:

• 24 State Universities
• 22 Private deemed Universities
• 19 IITs
• 9 Private Universities
• 8 NITs
• 7 Central Universities
• 5 Medical Institutions
• 4 IISERs
• 1 College (Hindu College, Delhi)
• 1 Agricultural University (IARI)

Parameters of NIRF Rankings

Currently, NIRF ranks institutions on five core parameters:

1. Teaching, Learning, and Resources (TLR)
2. Research and Professional Practice (RP)
3. Graduation Outcomes (GO)
4. Outreach and Inclusivity (OI)
5. Perception (PR)

Issue with Peer Perception

• Weightage: 10% of the ranking score.
• Criticism: Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan expressed concern that peer perception benefits metropolitan institutions while disadvantaging State-run and suburban institutions, creating a sense of “regional bias.”

Government’s Stand and Reforms Proposed

• Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan stressed the need for data-driven rankings under the principle of “One Nation, One Data.”
• Suggested additional parameters:
  • Entrepreneurship outcomes (start-ups and job creators from institutions).
  • Broader inclusivity metrics.
  • Innovation and Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
• Assured that a new institutional ranking mechanism will soon be introduced to complement NIRF.

Evolution of NIRF (2016–2025)

• 2016: Launched with 1 category (Universities) and 3 subject domains (Engineering, Management, Pharmacy).
• 2025: Expanded to 17 categories and subject domains including Law, Medical, Dental, Agriculture, Research, Innovation, SDGs, and Skills.
• Demonstrates stable growth of higher education rankings and wider participation across private, state, and central institutions.

Challenges Ahead

1. Regional Imbalance
   • Metropolitan institutions dominate due to higher visibility and perception.
   • State-run universities often lose out despite student numbers and regional outreach.
2. Quality vs. Quantity
   • While India has a growing number of institutions, only a limited few reach global recognition in QS/Times rankings.
3. Inclusivity and Social Representation
   • Current framework has limited weightage for inclusivity and diversity.
4. Overemphasis on Research Output
   • Institutions with strong research ecosystems get higher ranks, sidelining teaching-focused universities.

Conclusion

• The NIRF India Rankings 2025 reaffirm India’s higher education strengths, with IIT Madras, IISc, AIIMS, and IIM Ahmedabad maintaining leadership in their domains.
• However, criticisms regarding peer perception, regional imbalances, and limited inclusivity metrics indicate the need for reforms.
• With the government’s proposal for a data-driven, inclusive ranking framework, the coming years may see a more balanced and globally competitive system of higher education evaluation in India.

CARE MCQ

Q5. With reference to the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF), consider the following statements:

1. NIRF was first released in 2016 with one category and three subject domains.
2. The parameter of “Peer Perception” carries 10% weightage in the rankings.
3. In 2025, a new category on Innovation and Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) was introduced.
4. Only centrally funded institutions are eligible for ranking under NIRF.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer 5- B

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: The NIRF was first released in 2016 with one category (Universities) and three subject domains — Engineering, Management, and Pharmacy.
• Statement 2 is correct: The parameter of Peer Perception carries 10% weightage in the overall rankings, though it has faced criticism for favoring metropolitan institutions.
• Statement 3 is correct: In 2025, the government introduced a new category on Innovation and Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), with IIT Madras securing the top spot.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: NIRF rankings are open to all types of institutions — central, state, private, and deemed universities. They are not restricted to centrally funded institutions alone.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana’? 2017

1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.
2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Ans: a

Demographic Trends in India: Insights from the Sample Registration Survey 2023

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/indias-infant-mortality-rate-touches-low-of-25-down-from-40-in-2013/article70011215.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 Social Justice

Context: Population and Demographics

Why in News?

The Sample Registration Survey (SRS) 2023 shows India’s TFR declining to 1.9 (below replacement level), CBR at 18.4, IMR at 25, SRB at 917, and elderly population rising to 9.7%.

Introduction

• The Sample Registration Survey (SRS) 2023, released by the Office of the Registrar General of India, provides critical insights into India’s demographic dynamics.
• It reveals a continued decline in fertility, mortality, and birth rates, with significant inter-state variations, reflecting the country’s transition towards an ageing society and altered population structure.

Crude Birth Rate (CBR)

• National CBR declined from 19.1 (2022) to 18.4 (2023).
• Highest: Bihar (25.8)
• Lowest: Tamil Nadu (12.0)

This indicates a gradual slowdown in India’s population growth rate.

(image Source: The Hindu)

Total Fertility Rate (TFR)

• National TFR: Declined to 1.9 (2023), below the replacement level of 2.1.
• After being stable at 2.0 during 2021 and 2022, this fall reflects faster fertility decline.

States above replacement level TFR (all in northern India):

• Bihar (2.8), Uttar Pradesh (2.6), Madhya Pradesh (2.4), Rajasthan (2.3), Chhattisgarh (2.2).

States/UTs with lowest TFR:

• Delhi (1.2), West Bengal (1.3), Tamil Nadu (1.3), Maharashtra (1.4).
• Others at 1.5: Kerala, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, J&K, Punjab.

Mortality Indicators

• Crude Death Rate (CDR): 6.4 (down by 0.4 from 2022).
• Infant Mortality Rate (IMR): 25 (2023), a decline of 7 points in the last 5 years.
  • Still, 1 in every 40 infants dies within the first year of life.

Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB)

• National SRB: 917 girls per 1,000 boys (2023).
• Highest: Chhattisgarh (974), Kerala (971).
• Lowest: Uttarakhand (868).
• Persistently low SRB states: Bihar (897, down from 964 in 2020), Delhi, Maharashtra, Haryana (all below 900).

Ageing Population

• Proportion of elderly (60+) increased from 9% (2022) to 9.7% (2023).
• Highest: Kerala (15%).
• Lowest: Assam (7.6%), Delhi (7.7%), Jharkhand (7.6%).

This signals a demographic shift towards an ageing society, with implications for social security, healthcare, and workforce dynamics.

Analytical Insights

1. Population Stabilisation
   • With TFR dipping below replacement level in most states, India is moving towards population stabilisation earlier than projected.
   • High fertility persists in certain Hindi heartland states, pointing to regional demographic imbalances.
2. Health and Gender Concerns
   • Decline in IMR reflects progress in maternal and child healthcare.
   • However, skewed SRB highlights gender-based discrimination and the persistence of sex-selective practices despite legal prohibitions (e.g., PCPNDT Act).
3. Ageing Challenge
   • Rising share of elderly population (nearing 10%) will increase demand for geriatric care, pensions, and social support systems.
   • Kerala provides a preview of future national trends in ageing.
4. Regional Variations
   • Southern and western states are experiencing below-replacement fertility, while northern states continue to exhibit high fertility and high CBR.
   • This will exacerbate inter-state migration and alter India’s labour market dynamics.

Policy Implications

1. Population Policy Goals
   • Reinforce the National Population Policy (2000) by focusing on high-fertility states (Bihar, UP, MP, Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh).
   • Strengthen reproductive health services and family planning access.
2. Health System Strengthening
   • Continue investments in maternal and child healthcare to further reduce IMR and maternal mortality.
   • Ensure equitable healthcare delivery across states.
3. Gender Equity Measures
   • Strict enforcement of laws against sex determination.
   • Social campaigns for valuing the girl child and improving female education and employment.
4. Preparing for Ageing
   • Expansion of social security schemes (pensions, healthcare insurance).
   • Investment in geriatrics and elderly-friendly infrastructure.

Conclusion

• The SRS 2023 highlights India’s demographic transition—falling fertility, declining mortality, increasing longevity, and emerging challenges of ageing.
• While population stabilisation appears within reach, regional disparities, gender imbalances, and ageing-related issues demand policy attention.
• For India, the demographic window of opportunity is narrowing, and the focus must now shift to quality of population, human capital development, and inclusive social support systems.

CARE MCQ

Q6. With reference to the Sample Registration Survey (SRS) 2023, consider the following statements:

1. India’s Total Fertility Rate (TFR) declined to 1.9 in 2023, which is below the replacement level of 2.1.
2. Bihar reported the highest Crude Birth Rate (CBR) as well as the highest Total Fertility Rate (TFR) among large States.
3. The proportion of the elderly population (60 years and above) in India declined marginally in 2023 as compared to 2022.
4. The sex ratio at birth (SRB) in 2023 improved to 917 girls per 1,000 boys at the national level.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer – 6 – B

Explanation –

• Statement 1 is correct: The Sample Registration Survey (SRS) 2023 shows that India’s TFR fell to 1.9, below the replacement level TFR of 2.1, marking a demographic shift.
• Statement 2 is correct: Bihar recorded the highest CBR (25.8) and highest TFR (2.8) among large States, confirming regional demographic variations.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The proportion of elderly population (60+) actually increased from 9% (2022) to 9.7% (2023), indicating ageing, not decline.
• Statement 4 is correct: The national Sex Ratio at Birth improved to 917 girls per 1,000 boys in 2023, though still below the natural baseline.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development: (2012)

1. Low birthrate with low death rate
2. High birthrate with high death rate
3. High birthrate with low death rate

Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3

(b) 2, 1, 3

(c) 2, 3, 1

(d) 3, 2, 1

Ans: c
Theaterisation of Indian Armed Forces: Challenges, Opportunities, and the Road Ahead

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/plan-for-theatre-commands-10229049/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 Defence

Context: Theaterisation of Indian Armed Forces

Why in News?

Theaterisation aims to restructure India’s Army, Navy, and Air Force into integrated theatre commands under a unified command for joint warfighting, but differences among services remain over its structure and implementation.

Introduction

• Theaterisation is among the most ambitious and debated defence reforms currently under discussion in India.
• It seeks to bring the Army, Navy, and Air Force under a unified command structure to ensure joint planning, resource sharing, and operational synergy.
• While the idea has been welcomed in principle, lingering differences in approach and concerns over its implementation remain evident, as highlighted in the Ran Samwad 2025 tri-service seminar at the Army War College, Mhow.

What is Theaterisation?

• Definition: Theaterisation is the restructuring of the armed forces into integrated theatre commands, where assets of the Army, Navy, and Air Force are placed under a single commander responsible for a specific geographical area or operational role.
• Objective: To ensure jointness in planning and execution, avoiding duplication, enhancing efficiency, and preparing for multi-domain modern warfare.

(Image Source: Indian Express)

Current Command Structure

• Army: 7 commands
• Air Force: 7 commands
• Navy: 3 commands
• Tri-service:
  • Andaman & Nicobar Command (ANC)
  • Strategic Forces Command (SFC)
• HQ IDS: Established post-Kargil for higher defence management

This structure is service-specific and siloed, with limited integration across domains.

Rationale for Theaterisation

1. Changing Nature of Warfare:
   • Increasingly multi-domain involving land, sea, air, cyber, and space.
   • Integration critical against threats like drones, hypersonic missiles, cyber-attacks, and space-based platforms.
2. Learning from Other Militaries:
   • The US, China, and Russia operate integrated commands.
   • These models have shown the benefits of seamless coordination and unity of effort.
3. Optimal Resource Utilisation:
   • Pooling scarce assets (like combat aircraft, UAVs, and precision strike systems).
   • Avoiding duplication in logistics and procurement.
4. National Security Imperative:
   • India faces a two-front challenge from China and Pakistan.
   • Unified commands will allow faster, coordinated response.

Evolution of the Idea in India

• 2019: PM Narendra Modi announced creation of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) post.
• 2020: Gen Bipin Rawat became India’s first CDS, tasked with advancing theaterisation.
• Initial Model: 4 commands — Air Defence, Maritime, Western Land, and Eastern Land.
• Revised Plan:
  • Shift to adversary-based theatre commands (China-specific, Pakistan-specific, and Maritime).
  • Retention of ANC and SFC.
  • Service Chiefs to retain roles in raising, training, and sustaining forces.
• 2021 onwards: Multiple studies, tabletop exercises, and refinements under Gen Anil Chauhan after Rawat’s death.

Challenges in Implementing Theaterisation

1. Service-Specific Concerns

• Indian Air Force (IAF):
  • Worries about division of scarce air assets.
  • Argues air power is an independent war-winning instrument, not just a support arm.
  • Concerned about doctrinal dilution and longer decision-making chains.
• Indian Navy:
  • Supportive in principle, but emphasizes seamless integration of maritime command with Army & IAF.
• Indian Army:
  • Most enthusiastic due to its manpower-intensive role on land borders.
  • Keen on synergy with Navy and Air Force for border conflicts.

2. Structural Inertia

• Existing 17 service-specific commands have operated for over seven decades.
• Dismantling them requires massive institutional, logistical, and doctrinal changes.

3. Operational Complexity

• Overlaps between air defence, cyber, and space domains.
• Commanders must balance offensive and defensive roles.

4. Need for Indigenous Model

• Blindly replicating US or Chinese models could be counterproductive.
• India’s geography, threat environment, and resources demand a tailored approach.

Current Status and Way Forward

• Differences remain:
  • ACM A P Singh (IAF Chief) has urged caution, suggesting creation of a Joint Planning and Coordination Centre in Delhi before dismantling existing structures.
  • Admiral Dinesh Tripathi reaffirmed Navy’s commitment to integration.
  • CDS Gen Anil Chauhan pledged to address dissonance and build consensus.
• Government Role: Final approval of theatre commands is awaited.
• Interim Measures for Jointness:
  • Joint logistics nodes
  • Cross-postings among services
  • Integrated procurement and training

Conclusion

• Theaterisation represents the biggest structural reform in India’s defence architecture since Independence.
• It promises to prepare the armed forces for 21st-century warfare by ensuring seamless jointness and resource optimisation.
• However, the path is fraught with institutional resistance, doctrinal differences, and structural challenges.
• A cautious, India-specific phased approach, starting with joint planning centres, followed by gradual integration into theatre commands, may strike the right balance between urgency and preparedness.
• The success of this reform will hinge on consensus-building within the services and clear government direction.

CARE MCQ

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the Theaterisation plan of the Indian Armed Forces:

1. The first CDS, General Bipin Rawat, initially proposed four theatre commands including an Air Defence Command and a Maritime Theatre Command.
2. The Strategic Forces Command (SFC), which manages India’s nuclear arsenal, is already a tri-service command.
3. The Indian Air Force fully supports dismantling its existing command structure to implement theaterisation at the earliest.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – 7 – A

Explanation –

• Statement 1 is correct: General Bipin Rawat, as the first CDS, did propose four theatre commands in the initial plan — an Air Defence Command, a Maritime Theatre Command, and two land-based commands (Western and Eastern).
• Statement 2 is correct: The Strategic Forces Command (SFC), responsible for managing India’s nuclear arsenal, is indeed one of the two existing tri-service commands (the other being Andaman & Nicobar Command).
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The IAF has consistently expressed reservations about dismantling its existing command structure, citing concerns over division of scarce assets and doctrinal dilution. It supports “jointness” but urges caution, not immediate restructuring.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.  Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (2016)

1. Amphibious warfare ship
2. Nuclear-powered submarine
3. Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
4. Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

Answer: (c)
Environment Audit Rules, 2025 – Towards Strengthening Environmental Compliance

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/centre-approves-creation-of-new-independent-class-of-environment-auditors/article70012532.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3 Environment and Ecology

Context: Environment Audit Rules, 2025

Why in News?

The Environment Audit Rules, 2025 allow accreditation of private auditors to strengthen compliance monitoring and bridge manpower gaps in India’s environmental governance.

Introduction

• India faces persistent challenges in balancing rapid industrial growth with environmental sustainability.
• Monitoring and enforcing compliance with environmental laws has traditionally been the responsibility of regulatory institutions such as the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs), and Regional Offices of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
• However, manpower shortages, resource limitations, and infrastructural gaps have constrained their effectiveness.
• To address these challenges, the Government of India has notified the Environment Audit Rules, 2025, introducing accredited private environment auditors to strengthen compliance and enforcement mechanisms.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Key Provisions of the Rules

1. Accreditation of Private Auditors
   • Private agencies can now obtain licences as environment auditors, similar to how chartered accountants are licensed.
   • These auditors will be authorised to evaluate project compliance with environmental laws and best practices in pollution prevention, control, and abatement.
2. Institutional Gaps and Rationale
   • Current monitoring framework is dependent on CPCB, SPCBs, and MoEFCC regional offices.
   • These bodies face acute shortages of manpower, technical expertise, and infrastructure.
   • The new framework seeks to bridge these gaps by leveraging external expertise.
3. Scope of Audits
   • Auditors will assess compliance under:
     • Green Credit Rules (afforestation, sustainable water/waste management, etc.)
     • Ecomark Rules, 2024 (eco-labelling of environmentally friendly products)
     • E-Waste Management Rules, 2022
     • Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016
     • Battery Waste Management Rules, 2022
     • Relevant provisions of the Van (Sanrakshan Evam Samvardhan) Adhiniyam, 1980 and the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
4. Integration with Green Credit Mechanism
   • Audit findings can be used for compliance with the Green Credit Programme, where individuals and organisations earn tradeable credits for sustainable actions.
5. Transparency and Accountability
   • The rules emphasise transparency, credibility, and accountability in compliance reporting.
   • Designed to build trust among industries, regulators, and citizens.

Significance

1. Strengthens Regulatory Capacity
   • Bridges manpower and resource gaps in CPCB/SPCBs.
   • Introduces professionalised, third-party audit mechanisms.
2. Promotes Sustainable Governance
   • Facilitates effective enforcement of waste management, eco-labelling, and pollution control norms.
   • Encourages industries to adopt environmentally sound practices.
3. Boosts Green Economy
   • Direct linkage with Green Credit Rules creates economic incentives for sustainable actions.
   • Helps integrate environmental compliance with market-based mechanisms.
4. Aligns with Global Practices
   • Many countries employ accredited third-party auditors to ensure independent environmental compliance monitoring.
   • Strengthens India’s commitment under global frameworks like the Paris Agreement and SDGs.

Challenges and Concerns

1. Conflict of Interest – Private auditors may be influenced by the industries funding their audits, potentially compromising independence.
2. Quality Control – Ensuring uniform standards and preventing superficial audits will require strict oversight.
3. Regulatory Capture – There is a risk of audits becoming a procedural formality rather than a robust compliance mechanism.
4. Capacity Building – Effective implementation will require trained professionals and strong accreditation processes.

Way Forward

• Robust Accreditation Framework: Independent accreditation body with clear eligibility, training, and periodic evaluation of auditors.
• Randomised Audits & Cross-Checks: CPCB/SPCBs should continue random inspections to verify third-party audit reports.
• Digital Integration: Use of digital platforms for real-time monitoring and transparent disclosure of audit reports.
• Public Participation: Making audit findings publicly available can enhance citizen oversight and accountability.
• Capacity Development: Training programmes for auditors and strengthening SPCBs’ supervisory role.

Conclusion

• The Environment Audit Rules, 2025 mark a paradigm shift in India’s environmental governance by bringing private expertise into compliance monitoring.
• While they have the potential to enhance transparency, accountability, and regulatory capacity, their success will depend on robust accreditation, oversight mechanisms, and safeguards against conflicts of interest.
• If implemented effectively, these rules can strengthen India’s journey towards sustainable development, aligning industrial growth with ecological responsibility.

CARE MCQ

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the Environment Audit Rules, 2025:

1. The rules allow private agencies to be accredited as environment auditors, similar to chartered accountants.
2. The audits undertaken under these rules can be used for compliance with the Green Credit Rules.
3. The rules are limited only to industrial pollution monitoring and do not apply to waste management regulations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – 8 – A

Explanation –

• Statement 1 is correct: The Environment Audit Rules, 2025 provide for accreditation of private agencies as environment auditors, granting them licences similar to chartered accountants for evaluating project compliance.
• Statement 2 is correct: The audits conducted by these private agencies can also be used for compliance under the Green Credit Rules, which incentivise afforestation, sustainable water and waste management, etc.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The scope of the rules is not restricted to industrial pollution; it also covers compliance under E-Waste Management Rules, Plastic Waste Management Rules, Battery Waste Management Rules, and other regulations issued by MoEFCC.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Consider the following statements: (2019)

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to:

1. State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought.
2. Lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: b