TGPSC CARE 24th September 2025 Current Affairs
News at a Glance
- Telangana: Telangana Pushes for 70% Krishna Water Allocation
- Telangana to Issue GO for 42% BC Reservations in Local Bodies
- International Relations: UN Warns of Setbacks to Women’s Rights, Calls for Renewed Beijing+30 Action
- US, China, and the Future of the United Nations
- Polity and Governance: EC Makes Aadhaar-Linked Phone Must for Voter Deletion Online
- Manipur’s Crisis and India’s Democratic Blind Spot
- Criminal Defamation and Democratic Debate
- Art and Culture: UNESCO Honour for Varkala Cliff Brings Pride and Peril
Telangana Pushes for 70% Krishna Water Allocation
Source: New Indian Express
TGPSC Relevance: Governance
Context: Krishna Water Allocation
Why in News?
In 2025, Telangana sought 70% of Krishna River waters (763 TMC ft) allocated earlier to united Andhra Pradesh before the Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal-II (KWDT-II)
Introduction
- The Government of Telangana has pressed its claim before the Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal-II (KWDT-II), demanding around 70% (763 TMC ft) of the 811 TMC ft assured water allocation made earlier to the erstwhile united Andhra Pradesh.
- Telangana argues this claim is based on principles of equity, basin parameters, and internationally accepted norms of river water sharing.
Background of the Dispute
- Krishna River & Allocation
- The Krishna River, a major east-flowing river, passes through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
- Water sharing has been historically contentious due to competing agricultural, drinking water, and industrial needs.
- KWDT-I (Bachawat Tribunal, 1969–1973)
- Awarded 2060 TMC ft among Maharashtra, Karnataka, and undivided Andhra Pradesh.
- Andhra Pradesh received 811 TMC ft at 75% dependability, 49 TMC ft at 65% dependability, and 145 TMC ft from average flows.
- KWDT-II (2004–present)
- Constituted under the Inter-State River Water Disputes (ISRWD) Act, 1956, Section 3, to reassess allocations.
- After bifurcation in 2014, disputes arose between Telangana and residuary Andhra Pradesh over re-apportionment of the 811 TMC ft share.
(Image Source: The Hindu)
Telangana’s Current Demand (2025)
- Telangana has sought a fresh allocation based on basin parameters and equitable principles:
Category
Rationale
75% dependable waters
Larger basin area, cultivable land, and drought-prone regions within Telangana
65% dependable waters
Population-based & drought vulnerability
Average flows
Command area lies above Nagarjunsagar within Telangana
Godavari diversions
Krishna Delta lies within Telangana basin
Total
Scientific, equitable sharing principles
- Additionally, Telangana seeks liberty to use all surplus flows over average dependability.
Arguments by Telangana
- Historical Injustice (since 1956)
- Major share of Krishna waters diverted to Andhra regions, leaving Telangana drought-prone.
- Outside-basin diversions by Andhra Pradesh (e.g., to Rayalaseema and coastal areas) reduced Telangana’s irrigation prospects.
- Equity Principles Applied
- Catchment area within Telangana is substantial.
- Population within the Krishna basin is higher in Telangana.
- Drought-prone regions and cultivable command area justify higher share.
- International Norms: Principles of equitable apportionment (as followed in Indus, Nile, Mekong river disputes) support basin-state priority.
Andhra Pradesh’s Position
- A.P. seeks to retain a larger part of the 811 TMC ft allocation, defending its existing irrigation projects and diversions.
- Criticised Telangana’s claim as excessive and argued that en bloc allocation should remain unchanged.
Legal & Institutional Framework
- Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956: Empowers Centre to constitute tribunals for adjudication.
- KWDT-II: Functioning under this Act, hearing arguments since 2004; now at final stages.
- Constitutional Backing: Article 262 allows Parliament to provide for adjudication of inter-state river disputes, excluding jurisdiction of Supreme Court in such matters.
Significance of the Dispute
- For Telangana:
- Access to more water for irrigation, drinking water, and industrial needs.
- Correction of historical neglect and underdevelopment of its drought-prone regions.
- For Andhra Pradesh:
- Retention of water critical for Krishna delta and Rayalaseema projects.
- Dependence on outside-basin diversions for agriculture.
- For Federalism:
- Reflects challenges in inter-state resource sharing post-reorganisation of states.
- Tests efficiency of dispute resolution mechanisms like KWDT.
- For Policy:
- Highlights importance of basin-based planning rather than state-centric allocations.
- Reinforces need for a permanent inter-state river management authority (as recommended by committees).
Challenges Ahead
- Tribunal’s final award may face political resistance from losing side.
- Implementation hurdles due to lack of permanent monitoring authority.
- Climate change impacts (changing flow patterns, variability of dependable flows).
- Possible demand for national-level reallocation in the future.
CARE MCQ
Q1. With reference to the Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal-II (KWDT-II) and Telangana’s 2025 claim, consider the following statements:
- Telangana has demanded around 763 TMC ft of Krishna waters out of the 811 TMC ft earlier allocated to undivided Andhra Pradesh at 75% dependability.
- The claim is based on parameters such as catchment area, basin population, extent of drought-prone regions, and cultivable land.
- The Tribunal proceedings are held under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, and fall within the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer 1- A
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Telangana has claimed 763 TMC ft out of the 811 TMC ft allocation made to united Andhra Pradesh at 75% dependability, including 555 TMC ft from 75% dependable flows, 43 TMC ft from 65% dependable flows, 120 TMC ft from average flows, and 45 TMC ft from Godavari diversions.
- Statement 2 is correct: Telangana’s claim is based on scientific and equitable criteria, including catchment area, population within the basin, extent of drought-prone regions, and cultivable land under its command area, following internationally accepted river-sharing principles.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: While the Tribunal is constituted under the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, it does not fall under Supreme Court jurisdiction; Article 262 bars judicial review of inter-state river disputes while the tribunal functions.
- Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
Telangana to Issue GO for 42% BC Reservations in Local Bodies
Source: Telangana Today
TGPSC Relevance: Governance
Context: BC Reservations in Local Bodies
Why in News?
The Telangana government is set to issue a GO reserving 42% seats for Backward Classes (BCs) in upcoming local body elections, alongside SC/ST and women’s quotas.
Introduction
- The Telangana government is preparing to release a Government Order (GO) to finalise 42% reservations for Backward Classes (BCs) in local body elections.
- This decision marks a significant move in the state’s approach to social justice, grassroots democracy, and representation.
Key Features of the Decision
Extent of Reservations
- 42% seats in local body elections will be reserved for BCs.
- Distribution includes posts such as Zilla Parishad chairpersons, ZPTCs (Zilla Parishad Territorial Constituencies), MPTCs (Mandal Parishad Territorial Constituencies), MPPs (Mandal Parishad Presidents), Sarpanchs, and ward members.
Seat Allocation
- Of the 31 Zilla Parishad chairperson posts:
- 13 to BCs
- 5 to SCs
- 3 to STs
- 10 to General category
- 50% of these seats will be reserved for women.
Basis of Reservation
- SC and ST quotas: As per 2011 Census data.
- BC quota: Based on a recent survey conducted by the State government (not Census).
- Implementation Mechanism
- BC Welfare Department to release the preliminary GO.
- Panchayat Raj Department to follow with execution orders.
- Women’s reservations will be allotted through draw of lots.
Election Timeline
- Local body polls are expected to be completed before Diwali 2025.
- The government plans to notify reservations formally and publish a gazette soon after.
- A petition will be filed in the Telangana High Court to extend the September 30 deadline.
(Image Source: Telangana Today)
Significance of the Move
Empowerment of BCs
- Ensures greater political participation for historically marginalised BC communities.
- Strengthens their role in grassroots governance.
Women’s Representation
- With 50% reservation for women, the move enhances gender inclusivity in rural and local politics.
Decentralisation and Grassroots Democracy
- Local body elections are the foundation of Panchayati Raj institutions.
- Inclusive reservations foster participatory democracy and equitable representation.
State-Specific Approach
- Unlike SC/ST quotas tied to the Census, BC reservations rely on a state-conducted survey, showing Telangana’s effort to reflect its current demographic realities.
Challenges and Criticisms
- Constitutional Limits on Reservations
- The Supreme Court in Indra Sawhney (1992) capped reservations at 50%.
- Telangana’s 42% BC quota + existing SC/ST quotas could potentially breach this ceiling, inviting legal scrutiny.
- Lack of Census-Based Data
- Using a state survey instead of Census data may face judicial challenges on grounds of reliability and transparency.
- Implementation Hurdles
- District officials warned against political pressure and leaks before official notification.
- Litigation risks could delay elections.
- Political Contestation
- Opposition parties may allege vote-bank politics.
- Debate over whether reservations are being expanded for genuine empowerment or electoral gain.
Broader Constitutional and Political Context
- 73rd and 74th Amendments (1992–93): Mandated reservation for SCs, STs, and women in Panchayati Raj and urban local bodies.
- Article 243D: Provides for such reservations but does not explicitly guarantee BC quotas—states decide through their legislation.
- Judicial Precedents: Courts have repeatedly stressed empirical data as the basis for OBC/BC reservations.
- Telangana’s Case: By going beyond Census data and setting 42% quota for BCs, Telangana is testing the legal boundaries of affirmative action in local governance.
Way Forward
- Judicial Clarity: The Telangana High Court’s decision on the petition for deadline extension and legality of quota levels will shape the final outcome.
- Balancing Equity and Limits: The state must balance social justice goals with the constitutional ceiling on reservations.
- Strengthening Data Systems: A transparent, statistically robust BC enumeration system is essential to withstand legal tests.
CARE MCQ
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Sammakkasagar Project:
- The With reference to Telangana’s recent decision on BC reservations in local body elections, consider the following statements:
- The State government has finalised 42% reservations for Backward Classes (BCs) in Panchayati Raj institutions.
- SC and ST reservations in local bodies will be based on the 2011 Census, while BC reservations are derived from a state-conducted survey.
- The Supreme Court in Indra Sawhney (1992) permitted states to exceed the 50% ceiling on reservations for ensuring adequate representation in local self-governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer 2- A
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Telangana has finalised 42% reservations for Backward Classes (BCs) in local body elections, covering ZPTCs, MPTCs, Sarpanch posts, and ward members.
- Statement 2 is correct: SC/ST reservations will follow the 2011 Census, whereas BC reservations are based on a recent state-conducted survey, reflecting current demographics.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme Court in Indra Sawhney (1992) capped reservations at 50%, and it did not allow states to exceed this limit for local bodies; Telangana’s BC quota plus existing SC/ST quotas could face legal scrutiny.
- Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
UN Warns of Setbacks to Women’s Rights, Calls for Renewed Beijing+30 Action
Source: Down To Earth
UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations
Context: Beijing+30 meeting in 2025
Why in News?
At the Beijing+30 meeting in 2025, UN leaders warned that women’s rights are under threat from conflict, climate crises, and technology bias, urging renewed global action for equality, protection, and representation.
Introduction
- India and senior UN leaders convened at the High-Level Meeting on the Thirtieth Anniversary of the Fourth World Conference on Women in New York.
- This meeting marked 30 years since the adoption of the Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action (1995), the most ambitious global commitment to gender equality and women’s rights.
Main Highlights of the Meeting
a) Threats to Women’s Rights
- Guterres: Described the gains in women’s rights over the past decades as “hard-won but under attack.”
- Threats arise from:
- Conflicts (war zones affecting women disproportionately)
- Climate crises (impacting women in vulnerable communities)
- Online hate and misogyny
- Baerbock: Referred to women’s rights as “unfinished revolution” – despite progress, women continue to face:
- Violence and exclusion
- Inequality in opportunities and decision-making
b) Artificial Intelligence and Gender Bias
- Guterres: Warned that AI technology is male-dominated, biased, and discriminatory.
- Urged that technology must serve equality, not reinforce exclusion.
- Recommended investment in girls’ education in STEM fields.
c) Participation and Representation
- Women’s participation in decision-making is not a privilege but a right.
- Guterres pledged the UN’s continued efforts towards gender parity within its institutions.
- Baerbock emphasized that women at the table improve outcomes:
- Companies perform better
- Peace treaties are more durable
- Governments deliver more effectively
d) Global Gender Challenges Highlighted by Baerbock
- Gender-based violence: 1 in 3 women globally will experience sexual violence.
- Healthcare and family planning inequalities
- Political/religious restrictions on women’s bodily autonomy
e) Recognition of Women’s Movements
- Despite challenges, women’s movements remain resilient.
- Achievements of past generations provide inspiration and evidence of the importance of representation.
(Image Source: Down To Earth)
Calls to Action
- Ratification and Implementation: Universal ratification of CEDAW (Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women).
- Policy and Decision-making: Ensure women’s inclusion at all levels of governance and leadership.
- Investment in Education: Particularly in STEM and digital fields to counteract AI-driven biases.
- Resource Allocation: Match political rhetoric with financial and institutional resources for gender equality.
Significance of the Beijing+30 Review
- Marks 30 years of global commitment to women’s rights.
- Highlights slow and uneven progress: no country has achieved full gender equality.
- Serves as a wake-up call for governments to accelerate action.
- Emphasizes the link between women’s rights and human development, peace, and economic growth.
Conclusion
- Beijing+30 highlighted that women’s rights remain fragile, threatened by conflicts, climate crises, digital bias, and inequality, demanding urgent, multi-dimensional action for empowerment and human development.
CARE MCQ
Q1. Which of the following statements about the Beijing+30 High-Level Meeting (2025) is/are correct?
- UN Secretary-General António Guterres highlighted that artificial intelligence is male-dominated and can reinforce gender discrimination.
- Annalena Baerbock stated that 1 in 3 women globally face sexual violence in their lifetime.
- The meeting marked the 35th anniversary of the Beijing Declaration on women’s rights.
- Leaders called for universal ratification of CEDAW and greater investment in girls’ education in STEM fields.
Options:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer 1- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: UN Secretary-General António Guterres highlighted that AI is male-dominated, shaped by biased data, and can reinforce discrimination, urging technology to serve equality.
- Statement 2 is correct: Annalena Baerbock noted that 1 in 3 women globally experience sexual violence in their lifetime.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The meeting marked the 30th anniversary, not the 35th, of the Beijing Declaration on women’s rights.
- Statement 4 is correct: Leaders called for universal ratification of CEDAW and investment in girls’ education, particularly in STEM fields.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world? (2017)
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) UN Human Rights Council
(c) UN Women
(d) World Health Organization
Ans: (a)
US, China, and the Future of the United Nations
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations
Context: US-China rivalry and UN
Why in News?
The UN, on its 80th General Assembly, faces challenges from US-China rivalry, while middle powers like India have the opportunity to shape multilateralism for a rapidly changing world.
Introduction
- The United Nations (UN) is celebrating its 80th General Assembly session in 2025.
- The UN, as a multilateral forum, was established in 1945 to maintain international peace, security, and cooperation.
- The article examines the role of major powers and middle powers in shaping the future of the UN amid global political shifts.
- US President Donald Trump’s second term is highlighted as a period where the UN’s relevance.
(Image Source: Indian Express)
Trump and the UN
- Trump’s stance on multilateralism:
- Trump has historically been skeptical of multilateral institutions, including the UN.
- During his first term (2017–21), he reduced US engagement with the UN and other global bodies.
- His second term shows a more powerful and assertive Trump, pushing to diminish the UN’s global influence.
- Trump as a “peace president”:
- Trump claims to have ended seven wars in the first eight months of his second term.
- These claims appeal to his populist base, emphasizing opposition to “endless wars” and portraying himself as more effective than the UN in maintaining peace.
- However, this narrative masks his hostility to the UN, framing it as less relevant than unilateral US action.
The Real Question: Power and Multilateralism
- The central question is not just US vs China dominance, but the role of middle powers like India.
- The UN faces challenges in an era of great power rivalry.
- Middle powers can help revive multilateralism by shaping a system suited to rapid global changes, rather than simply following US or Chinese agendas.
- Middle powers:
- Countries like India, Brazil, South Africa, and Japan are considered middle powers.
- They have growing economic, political, and diplomatic influence.
- They can act as balancing forces, ensuring the UN does not become dominated by one or two major powers.
Implications for India and Global Governance
India has a strategic opportunity to:
- Promote a rules-based order in international relations.
- Advocate inclusive multilateralism that addresses 21st-century challenges like climate change, peacekeeping, and economic inequality.
- The UN’s credibility and relevance depend on collective action, not just the agendas of powerful countries.
Significance of the UN Today
- Serves as a forum for global cooperation, peacekeeping, and conflict resolution.
- Hosts discussions on climate change, human rights, migration, and pandemics.
- Faces challenges from unilateral actions of major powers.
Challenges Highlighted
- US Skepticism: Trump’s policies may reduce the UN’s global influence.
- China’s Growing Role: China’s increasing power may shift UN dynamics.
- Middle Power Dilemma: Countries like India must act strategically to shape multilateralism, or risk the UN becoming dominated by US-China rivalry.
Opportunities
- Middle powers can revive multilateralism to suit modern global challenges.
- India’s diplomatic and strategic positioning allows it to push for reforms in the UN and secure a larger voice in global governance.
CARE MCQ
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the current challenges and opportunities for the United Nations (UN):
- The UN’s relevance is threatened by the unilateral policies of major powers like the US and China.
- Middle powers such as India have the potential to influence multilateralism and global governance.
- The UN Security Council has successfully prevented great power dominance since its inception.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer 2- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: The UN’s relevance is threatened by unilateral policies of major powers, such as the US under Trump and China’s assertive global role, which can undermine multilateral decision-making.
- Statement 2 is correct: Middle powers like India have the potential to shape multilateralism and contribute to a rules-based global order in the 21st century.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The UN Security Council (UNSC) has not consistently prevented great power dominance; in fact, it is often criticized for being controlled by the P5 (US, UK, France, Russia, China), limiting impartiality.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. With reference to the United Nations, consider the following statements: (2009)
- The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of UN consists of 24 member States.
- It is elected by a 2/3rd majority of the General Assembly for a 3-year term.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans(b)
EC Makes Aadhaar-Linked Phone Must for Voter Deletion Online
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance
Context: Aadhaar-linked phone verification
Why in News?
The Election Commission of India has made Aadhaar-linked phone verification mandatory for online voter registration, deletion, and correction to prevent fraudulent manipulations in electoral rolls.
Introduction
- The Election Commission of India (ECI) introduced a new ‘e-sign’ feature on its ECINet portal and mobile app.
- The move requires Aadhaar-linked phone verification for voters applying to:
- Register as a new voter
- Apply for deletion of their name from electoral rolls
- Request corrections in electoral details
- This decision follows allegations made by Rahul Gandhi, Leader of the Opposition, regarding irregularities in online voter deletion applications in the Aland Assembly constituency, Karnataka, during the 2023 state Assembly elections.
Key Features of the EC’s New E-Sign System
- Aadhaar-Linked Verification
- Any application for voter registration, deletion, or correction now requires authentication through a mobile number linked to Aadhaar.
- Ensures that only the authentic owner of the Aadhaar number can initiate or approve changes in the voter list.
- E-Sign Integration
- The e-sign system functions as a digital signature mechanism, reducing dependence on physical documents.
- Simplifies the process while increasing security and transparency in electoral roll management.
- Online Accessibility
- All applications can be made through the ECINet portal or official Election Commission mobile app.
- Aims to provide a seamless, convenient, and paperless experience for citizens.
(Image Source: Indian Express)
Background: Aland Constituency Allegation
- Rahul Gandhi, in a press conference, alleged that mass deletions from voter rolls were carried out in the Aland Assembly seat in Karnataka during the 2023 elections.
- He suggested the misuse of online voter deletion forms, potentially affecting electoral fairness.
- The EC’s quick move to tighten verification procedures is seen as a response to these fraud allegations, enhancing the credibility of the voter list.
Significance of the EC’s Measure
- Prevents Electoral Fraud: Linking voter deletion and registration to Aadhaar ensures identity verification, making fraudulent deletions or duplicate registrations more difficult.
- Strengthens Digital Governance: Promotes digitalization of electoral processes, aligning with India’s broader goal of e-governance.
- Enhances Transparency: Each action (registration, correction, deletion) can now be tracked digitally, creating an audit trail.
- Citizen Convenience: Reduces the need for physical verification and paperwork, while safeguarding voter rights.
Potential Concerns and Critiques
- Digital Divide: Citizens without smartphones or Aadhaar-linked numbers may face difficulties in accessing online services.
- Data Privacy: The system relies on Aadhaar authentication, which raises concerns about personal data security.
- Implementation Challenges: Ensuring smooth integration across all states and constituencies may take time, and technical glitches could temporarily hinder voter services.
Conclusion
- The EC’s e-sign initiative with Aadhaar-linked phone verification strengthens the credibility of India’s electoral process by minimizing potential fraud in voter deletion and registration.
- While it marks a significant step towards digital governance, careful implementation is needed to ensure inclusivity, security, and public confidence in the electoral system.
CARE MCQ
Q3. The Election Commission of India recently mandated Aadhaar-linked mobile verification for voter registration, deletion, and correction. Consider the following statements:
- The measure aims to prevent fraudulent deletions and duplicate entries in the electoral rolls.
- Aadhaar authentication is now mandatory for casting votes in all elections.
- The new e-sign feature allows voters to make online corrections or deletions securely.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Answer 3- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: The primary purpose of linking voter registration, deletion, and corrections to Aadhaar and mobile verification is to prevent fraudulent deletions and duplicate entries, ensuring authenticity in electoral rolls.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Aadhaar authentication is not mandatory for casting votes; it is only used for voter registration, deletion, and correction. Voting itself continues through the traditional EVM or ballot system.
- Statement 3 is correct: The e-sign feature allows voters to submit corrections or deletion requests digitally and securely, improving convenience and transparency.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. Consider the following statements: (2018)
- Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
- Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Manipur’s Crisis and India’s Democratic Blind Spot
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance
Context: Manipur Crisis
Why in News?
Ethnic violence in Manipur since May 2023 has caused mass displacement and destruction, yet the crisis remains politically and socially marginalized, reflecting systemic neglect of the Northeast in India’s democratic governance.
Introduction
- Manipur witnessed a major outbreak of ethnic violence between the Meitei and Zo (Kuki-Zomi-Mizo) communities.
- The conflict caused mass displacement (over 60,000 people), destruction of villages, and loss of lives and property.
- Despite being a serious crisis, the issue remains marginalized in national discourse, with limited political, media, or civil engagement.
- The Centre imposed President’s Rule under Article 356, not once but twice, highlighting governance failure and political abdication.
Key Issues Highlighted
1. Governance Failure
- President’s Rule misused: Article 356, meant as a temporary emergency measure, became a long-term administrative placeholder, reflecting the Centre’s failure to engage politically.
- Lack of political dialogue: No roadmap for peace, reconciliation, or justice for displaced persons.
- Passive security forces: Militias operate with impunity, and AFSPA, Internet shutdowns, and arbitrary detentions substitute governance.
- No rehabilitation plan: Displaced populations struggle to survive without government support.
2. Myth of Normalcy
- Government claims of “returning normalcy” contrast with reality:
- Villages remain deserted.
- Relief camps are overcrowded and squalid.
- Community tensions persist, with militias patrolling “buffer zones.”
3. Parliamentary and Political Indifference
- Manipur receives minimal political attention due to:
- Electoral marginality (only 2 Lok Sabha seats).
- Opposition MPs’ efforts to debate the issue being blocked or diluted in Parliament.
- Lack of political will translates into neglect of democratic processes, justice, and citizen rights.
4. Media Apathy
- Unlike crises in Kashmir, farmers’ protests, or Hathras, national media coverage is sparse, contributing to the invisibility of the conflict.
5. Structural and Ethnic Complexity
- Manipur has 33 recognized ethnic communities, with deep-rooted Meitei vs Zo divisions, complicating governance and reconciliation.
- Geographic remoteness and Northeast’s perceived insignificance in Delhi’s political calculus further marginalize it.
6. Pattern of Neglect in India
- Manipur reflects a wider pattern in India’s governance of conflict zones:
- Kashmir: Use of AFSPA, mass arrests, and internet blackouts.
- Chhattisgarh: Vigilante groups, fake encounters, displacement.
- Nagaland: Decades-long insurgency followed by protracted peace talks.
- Reliance on force over dialogue results in human rights violations and weak democratic accountability.
(Image Source: The Hindu)
Consequences
- Humanitarian crisis: Long-term displacement, destruction of homes, schools, and churches.
- Erosion of democracy: Citizens’ rights ignored, no justice or accountability.
- Militarization over governance: AFSPA and security forces replace civil administration.
- Social fragmentation: Ethnic militias and informal control exacerbate divisions.
- Marginalization in national discourse: Political, media, and public attention remain low.
Suggested Solutions
- Parliamentary action: Urgent debates and testimonies from victims.
- Independent truth commission: Avoid government-controlled committees.
- Disarmament of militias: With international oversight.
- Equal rehabilitation: Support for both Meitei and Zo communities.
- Protection of press freedom: Ensure journalists and activists are safe.
- Long-term peace measures: Focus on justice, accountability, and inclusion, not just elections.
CARE MCQ
Q4. Which of the following factors contributes to the invisibility of Manipur in India’s democratic consciousness?
- Media apathy
- Ethnic divisions
- Geographical remoteness
- Electoral marginality
Select correct option
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 only
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 4 only
Answer 4- C
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Media coverage of Manipur is sporadic and limited compared to other conflicts like Kashmir or national protests, contributing to its invisibility in public discourse.
- Statement 2 is correct: Deep-rooted ethnic divisions, particularly between the Meitei and Zo (Kuki-Zomi-Mizo) communities, exacerbate conflict and complicate governance, reducing national focus.
- Statement 3 is correct: Manipur’s geographical remoteness from Delhi makes it less visible and less prioritized in national politics.
- Statement 4 is correct: With only 2 Lok Sabha seats, Manipur has limited electoral significance, making it easy for political parties in Delhi to ignore the crisis.
- Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022)
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
Ans: (a)
Criminal Defamation and Democratic Debate
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS2 polity and Governance
Context: Criminal defamation
Why in News?
Criminal defamation in India, upheld by the Supreme Court in 2016, is increasingly misused by political actors and private individuals,
Introduction
- The Criminal defamation is a legal provision under Sections 499 and 500 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which punishes the act of harming a person’s reputation through words, writing, or gestures. Conviction can lead to imprisonment of up to two years, a fine, or both.
- In Subramanian Swamy vs. Union of India (2016), the Supreme Court of India upheld the constitutional validity of criminal defamation, reasoning that reputation is part of the right to life under Article 21. However, in practice, this law has raised concerns regarding its misuse and compatibility with democratic values.
Judicial Concerns Over Misuse
- On September 22, 2025, during proceedings against the Foundation for Independent Journalism, Justice M.M. Sundresh highlighted a growing misuse of criminal defamation by private individuals and political actors. Key concerns include:
- Insurance Against Criticism: Powerful individuals use criminal defamation as a shield against public scrutiny or criticism.
- Instrument of Retribution: Cases are often filed to punish dissenters rather than genuinely protect reputation.
- Disproportionate Remedy: While reputational harm is real, imprisonment is a disproportionate response. Civil remedies like monetary compensation or injunctions are more suitable.
- This trend has been visible in cases involving Rahul Gandhi, Shashi Tharoor, and others, where criminal defamation proceedings have been used to intimidate rather than resolve genuine grievances.
(Image Source: ipleaders)
Problems Arising from Criminal Defamation
- Tool for Intimidation:
- Editors of newspapers like The Hindu faced criminal defamation cases during the Jayalalithaa government.
- Local journalists face threats from politicians or businesspersons, leading to self-censorship.
- Misuse in Politics:
- Statements taken out of context or deliberately distorted are weaponized.
- Examples: Subramanian Swamy vs. Sonia Gandhi & Rahul Gandhi (2012–2014), and cases by Nitin Gadkari & Arun Jaitley against Arvind Kejriwal, which created administrative bottlenecks.
- Judicial Procedural Issues:
- Lower courts often issue summons without assessing the threshold of defamatory speech, causing harassment and delaying justice.
- Propaganda Tool:
- Criminal defamation allows complainants to escalate political or personal disputes, converting them into high-profile public spectacles.
Civil Remedies as a Balanced Approach
- Instead of criminal punishment, civil remedies can effectively address reputational harm:
- Monetary damages to compensate for injury.
- Injunctions or retractions to prevent further harm.
- Civil courts reduce opportunistic litigation, particularly by powerful actors, and protect freedom of expression.
- International Practices: Many democracies, including the United Kingdom, have abolished criminal defamation, recognizing its incompatibility with free and open debate.
Implications for Democracy
- Freedom of Expression vs. Reputation: Criminal defamation disproportionately prioritizes reputation over free speech. In a democratic setup, open criticism of public officials, journalists, and institutions is essential.
- Chilling Effect: Fear of criminal proceedings discourages reporting on corruption, governance failures, and public interest issues.
- Power Imbalance: Misuse disproportionately affects less powerful citizens, journalists, and activists, while the powerful can easily initiate proceedings.
Way Forward:
- While protecting individual dignity is important, criminalizing speech is not a proportionate remedy for reputational injury. The growing misuse of criminal defamation in India indicates an urgent need to:
- Strengthen civil remedies for defamation.
- Consider repealing criminal defamation laws, as done in several democracies.
- Ensure courts assess the threshold for defamatory speech carefully to prevent harassment.
Conclusion
- A democracy thrives on free debate and criticism, which should not be stifled by disproportionate criminal sanctions. India must rethink criminal defamation to uphold both freedom of expression and the right to reputation in a balanced manner.
CARE MCQ
Q5. With reference to criminal defamation in India, consider the following statements:
- It is punishable under Sections 499 and 500 of the IPC.
- The Supreme Court upheld its constitutional validity in Subramanian Swamy vs. Union of India (2016).
- Imprisonment is considered a proportionate remedy for reputational harm.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer 5-A
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Sections 499 and 500 of the Indian Penal Code define and punish criminal defamation, making it a cognizable offense in India.
- Statement 2 is correct: In the landmark case of Subramanian Swamy vs. Union of India (2016), the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of criminal defamation, reasoning that reputation is part of the right to life under Article 21.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Imprisonment is considered a disproportionate remedy for reputational harm, as civil remedies such as monetary compensation, injunctions, or retractions are more appropriate and effective.
- Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
- a. 1st Amendment
b. 42nd Amendment
c. 44th Amendment
d. 86th Amendment
Ans: (b)
UNESCO Honour for Varkala Cliff Brings Pride and Peril
Source: Down To Earth
UPSC Relevance: GS1 Art and Culture
Context: UNESCO’s tentative World Heritage list in 2025
Why in News?
Varkala Cliff in Kerala, a unique Mio-Pliocene laterite formation and sacred site, was added to UNESCO’s tentative World Heritage list in 2025, raising concerns over tourism, climate change, and local livelihoods.
Introduction
- In September 2025, Varkala Cliff in Kerala was added to UNESCO’s tentative World Heritage list.
- The cliff is located along the Kerala coastline, near the Arabian Sea, and features unique geological formations from the Mio-Pliocene age (millions of years old).
- It is also a sacred landscape, hosting the Janardana Swamy temple (over 2,000 years old) and Sree Narayana Guru’s Sivagiri Mutt.
Significance:
- Geological:
- Rare laterite and sandstone cliffs, unlike Kerala’s otherwise flat coast.
- Holds fossils and sedimentary layers that document ancient climates.
- Vulnerable to erosion, landslides, and human disturbance.
- Cultural and Religious:
- Janardana Swamy temple hosts major rituals like Karkidaka Vavu, attracting thousands.
- Sivagiri Mutt emphasizes social reform and heritage, making the cliff a living cultural landscape.
- Economic and Livelihood:
- Tourism boom over the past 30 years has created jobs, guesthouses, and cafes.
- Local fisherfolk depend on the cliff and sea for livelihoods.
(Image Source: Down To earth)
Challenges Posed by UNESCO Recognition
- Tourism Pressure:
- Increased tourist influx may lead to waste, congestion, and unregulated construction.
- Narrow cliff-top paths and unplanned development threaten the fragile ecosystem.
- Environmental Vulnerability:
- Laterite cliffs are easily eroded by water and human interference.
- Climate change impacts include sea-level rise, stronger monsoons, and surges, increasing risk of collapse.
- Past floods (2018–2019) already destabilized parts of the cliff.
- Governance and Regulation Issues:
- Lack of strict building codes and environmental regulation.
- Poor coordination between tourism, environmental, and local authorities.
- Plans for a geo-park or heritage management plan remain incomplete.
- Fisherfolk and Local Concerns:
- Fear of displacement due to commercialization and tourism-driven development.
- Dependence on the cliff and sea for safety, livelihood, and cultural identity.
Current Measures and Recommendations
- Some NGOs and local cafes are promoting waste segregation and eco-friendly practices.
- Schools are using the cliff for educational field trips to teach geology and environmental conservation.
- Experts and activists suggest:
- Carrying capacity studies to limit tourist-induced stress.
- Strict construction and land-use regulation.
- Climate adaptation strategies to protect the cliff from natural disasters.
- Local community involvement in heritage management to balance livelihoods with preservation.
Conclusion:
- Varkala Cliff represents a unique convergence of geology, culture, and livelihood.
- Its future depends on Kerala’s ability to balance tourism, local welfare, and environmental protection.
- UNESCO recognition is a first step, but proactive governance, regulation, and community involvement are critical to prevent the cliff from becoming a cautionary tale of mismanaged heritage.
CARE MCQ
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding Varkala Cliff, Kerala:
- It is the only place in Kerala where laterite cliffs rise directly against the Arabian Sea.
- It hosts both the Janardana Swamy temple and Sivagiri Mutt.
- UNESCO has granted it full World Heritage Site status.
- Climate change and unregulated tourism are threats to its stability.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All of the above
Answer: B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Varkala Cliff is the only place in Kerala where laterite cliffs rise directly against the Arabian Sea, making it geologically unique.
- Statement 2 is correct: The cliff hosts both the Janardana Swamy temple and Sivagiri Mutt, highlighting its cultural and religious significance.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: UNESCO has added Varkala Cliff to its tentative World Heritage list, not granted full World Heritage status.
- Statement 4 is correct: Climate change, rising sea levels, and unregulated tourism pose significant threats to the stability and preservation of the cliff.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021)
(a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river.
(b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal river.
(c) Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada river.
(d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari river.
Ans: (a)
