News at a Glance

Telangana: Telangana HC upholds 100 per cent quota for STs in sarpanch posts of Scheduled Areas

Peddapalli photographer bags two State awards on World Photography Day

Social Justice: Vocational Education and Training (VET) in India: Challenges, Global Lessons, and the Roadmap to a Viksit Bharat

Economy: GST Rate Rationalisation Proposal: Towards a Two-Rate Structure

SEBI’s Proposal for a “Regulated Venue” for Pre-Listing Trades and Regulation of Grey Market

India’s Solar Module Manufacturing Boom and the Risk of Oversupply

Public Health: Declaring Cancer a Notifiable Disease in India: A Public Health Imperative

Nepal Eliminates Rubella as a Public Health Problem: A Milestone for Maternal and Child Health

Telangana HC upholds 100 per cent quota for STs in sarpanch posts of Scheduled Areas

Source: New Indian Express

TGPSC Syllabus Relevance: Governance

Context: Reservation for STs in Sarpanch Posts

Why in News

The Telangana High Court upheld the state government’s policy of providing 100% reservation for Scheduled Tribes (STs) in sarpanch posts of panchayats in Scheduled Areas.

Introduction

• The Telangana High Court dismissed a petition challenging the state government’s policy of providing 100% reservation for Scheduled Tribes (STs) in sarpanch posts of panchayats located in Scheduled Areas.
• The court upheld the state’s stand that the policy is consistent with the constitutional framework and the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996.
• This judgment highlights the interplay between tribal self-governance, constitutional safeguards, and the principle of equality, raising important questions on affirmative action in local governance.

Case Background

• Petitioner: Non-Tribal Welfare Society, represented by its secretary K. Madhu (Kothagudem district).
• Claim: The policy violates constitutional provisions, particularly Article 14 (equality before law), by excluding non-tribals from contesting.
• Respondent (State of Telangana): Defended the policy citing PESA Act, 1996 and Article 243D (4) of the Constitution.
• Court’s Verdict: A Division Bench of Chief Justice Aparesh Kumar Singh and Justice GM Mohiuddin dismissed the petition and refused to stall upcoming local body elections.

(Image Source: New Indian Express)

Constitutional & Legal Basis

1. Fifth Schedule of the Constitution

• Governs the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
• Empowers the Governor and State to make special provisions for tribal welfare.

2. Article 243D(4) – Reservation in Panchayats

• Provides for reservation of chairperson posts in Panchayats.
• Under PESA, 1996, Article 243D(4) is extended to Scheduled Areas.
• Mandate: Chairperson (sarpanch) posts in Scheduled Areas must be exclusively reserved for Scheduled Tribes.

3. Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996

• Enacted to extend Part IX of the Constitution (Panchayats) to Scheduled Areas.
• Section 4 of PESA: Empowers Gram Sabhas and reserves leadership roles for STs to ensure self-rule and protection from exploitation.

Significance of the Judgment

1. Affirmation of Tribal Self-Governance:
   • Ensures STs hold leadership positions in their traditional areas.
   • Empowers communities historically marginalized in political processes.
2. Protection Against Exploitation:
   • Prevents non-tribals from dominating local bodies in Scheduled Areas.
   • Preserves tribal identity, culture, and resource control.
3. Strengthening Decentralization:
   • Aligns with 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992) objectives of empowering local governance.
   • Ensures local institutions are truly representative of tribal interests.

Criticism and Concerns

1. Exclusivity vs. Equality:

   • Critics argue that 100% reservation excludes non-tribal residents, raising constitutional concerns under Article 14 and basic structure principles.

2. Practical Challenges:

   • In some Scheduled Areas, demographic shifts mean non-tribals form significant populations; complete exclusion may cause governance gaps or resentment.

3. Implementation Issues:

   • Ensuring that elected ST sarpanches are not reduced to figureheads controlled by local elites or external forces remains a challenge.

Policy Linkages

• PESA Act, 1996: Seeks to protect tribal self-rule and resources.
• Forest Rights Act, 2006: Strengthens community rights over forest land.
• Tribal Sub-Plan (TSP): Ensures financial allocation for tribal development.
• National Tribal Policy (Draft): Recognizes the role of political empowerment in holistic tribal development.

Way Forward

• Balancing Representation and Inclusivity: While protecting ST rights, mechanisms can be evolved for consultative roles for non-tribal residents in local governance.
• Capacity Building: Training programs for ST sarpanches in administration, finance, and law to strengthen governance.
• Monitoring Mechanisms: Independent oversight to ensure elected sarpanches genuinely exercise decision-making power.
• Periodic Review: Evaluating the long-term impact of 100% reservation on governance, inclusivity, and tribal welfare.

CARE MCQ

Q1. With reference to the Telangana High Court judgment on 100% reservation for STs in sarpanch posts in Scheduled Areas, consider the following statements: The Court upheld the policy on the basis of Article 243D(4) of the Constitution, as extended to Scheduled Areas through the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act, 1996. Section 4 of the PESA Act mandates that all chairperson posts in panchayats located in Scheduled Areas must be reserved exclusively for Scheduled Tribes. The petition against the policy was filed by a tribal welfare society based in Hyderabad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 1- A Statement 1 is correct: The Telangana High Court upheld the state’s reservation policy by invoking Article 243D(4) of the Constitution, which under PESA applies to Scheduled Areas, reserving leadership positions for STs. Statement 2 is correct: Section 4 of PESA, 1996 provides that chairperson posts in panchayats (sarpanches) in Scheduled Areas must be reserved for Scheduled Tribes to ensure tribal self-governance. Statement 3 is incorrect: The petition was filed not by a tribal welfare society from Hyderabad, but by the Non-Tribal Welfare Society from Kothagudem district, opposing the exclusivity of reservation. Hence option A is correct

Peddapalli photographer bags two State awards on World Photography Day

Source: Telangana Today

TGPSC Syllabus Relevance: Awards and Honours

Context: World Photography Day

Why in News

• On World Photography Day 2025, rural photographer Erukulla Veeresham from Peddapalli, Telangana, won two State-level awards for capturing government welfare schemes—Rajiv Yuva Vikasam and Rythu Bharosa.

Background

• On the occasion of World Photography Day (19th August 2025), rural photographer Erukulla Veeresham from Peddapalli district, Telangana, was conferred with two State-level awards for his photographic works that highlighted the government’s flagship welfare schemes.
• The awards were presented by I&PR Minister Ponguleti Srinivas Reddy at a programme held in Hyderabad.

Details of the Awards

• Organiser: Information and Public Relations (I&PR) Department, Government of Telangana.
• Theme: Photographic representation of State welfare schemes.
• Achievements:
  • Third Prize – Rajiv Yuva Vikasam category.
  • Consolation Prize – Rythu Bharosa category.

These recognitions underscore the importance of visual storytelling in promoting social development programmes.

Significance of the Achievement

1. Recognition of Grassroots Talent

• Erukulla Veeresham, a rural photographer, represents how talent from non-urban areas can gain recognition at the State level.
• Highlights the democratization of media and arts, where rural voices and perspectives are celebrated.

2. Role of Photography in Governance

• Photography serves as a powerful medium for awareness of welfare schemes, bridging the gap between policy and people.
• Visual documentation makes welfare initiatives relatable and emotionally engaging for the public.

3. Linking Culture with Development

• Celebrating World Photography Day through a welfare-centric contest reflects the synergy of cultural expression and developmental communication.
• Encourages youth and creative professionals to engage in nation-building narratives.

About the Schemes Highlighted

• Rajiv Yuva Vikasam: Focuses on youth empowerment through skill development, employment opportunities, and leadership training.
• Rythu Bharosa: A flagship farmer-support scheme providing direct income support, input subsidies, and agricultural assistance to improve rural livelihoods.

By choosing these themes, Veeresham’s works highlighted the State’s socio-economic priorities—youth empowerment and farmers’ welfare.

CARE MCQ

Q2. With reference to Erukulla Veeresham, who was recently honoured in Telangana, consider the following statements: 1. He was awarded on World Photography Day 2025 for works depicting government welfare schemes. 2. He secured the Third Prize in the Rajiv Yuva Vikasam category and a Consolation Prize in the Rythu Bharosa category. 3. The event was organised by the Information and Public Relations (I&PR) Department, Government of Telangana. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer 2- D Statement 1 – Correct: Erukulla Veeresham was felicitated on World Photography Day (19 August 2025). His recognition highlights how cultural platforms are used to promote awareness of flagship government welfare schemes. Statement 2 – Correct: He bagged the Third Prize for Rajiv Yuva Vikasam (youth empowerment) and a Consolation Prize for Rythu Bharosa (farmers’ welfare). These themes reflect Telangana’s socio-economic priorities—uplifting youth and strengthening agriculture. Statement 3 – Correct: The programme was conducted by the Information and Public Relations (I&PR) Department of Telangana, which often uses photography, art, and media as tools of development communication and outreach.

Vocational Education and Training (VET) in India: Challenges, Global Lessons, and the Roadmap to a Viksit Bharat

Source: Indian Express

UPSC Relevance: GS2 Social Justice

Context: Vocational Education and Training (VET) in India

Why in News

India’s Vocational Education and Training (VET) system suffers from low uptake (48% seat utilisation) and modest employment outcomes (63% for ITI graduates).

Introduction

• India is entering a crucial demographic window, with nearly 65% of its population below 35 years. At the same time, external sector volatility makes demand-driven domestic growth essential.
• To sustain such growth, human capital development through a strong education and skilling ecosystem is critical.
• However, India’s current vocational education and training (VET) system remains underutilised, unattractive, and misaligned with labour market needs.
• Despite an extensive institutional network of over 14,000 Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) and 25 lakh sanctioned seats, only 12 lakh students enrolled in 2022 (48% utilisation), and the employment rate of ITI graduates stood at 63% (2018) — far below countries like Germany, Singapore, and Canada (80–90%).

(Image Source: Indian Express)

Challenges in India’s VET System

1. Late Integration of VET in Education

• In India, vocational education is offered post high-school, limiting exposure to hands-on training.
• In contrast, Germany’s dual system integrates VET at the upper-secondary level, combining academic schooling with paid apprenticeships, ensuring smooth transition to jobs.

2. Lack of Pathways to Higher Education

• India offers no formal academic progression from VET to mainstream higher education.
• Credit transfers between vocational and general education are absent.
• Countries like Singapore ensure seamless progression from VET to polytechnics and universities, making it more attractive for students who wish to keep academic options open.

3. Poor Perception and Quality of Training

• ITIs face outdated curricula, vacant instructor posts (over one-third unfilled), and weak quality monitoring.
• In comparison, Singapore’s VET is industry-led, with continuous curriculum updates, regular audits, and feedback loops with employers.

4. Weak Public–Private Partnerships

• Indian ITIs rely heavily on government funding with little private sector participation.
• Sector Skill Councils lack state-level presence, and MSMEs (major employers) have minimal engagement due to capacity constraints.
• Globally, employers co-fund apprenticeships, co-design curricula, and co-train students — creating stronger labour market linkages.

5. Low Investment in VET

• India spends only 3% of its education budget on VET, compared to 10–13% in Germany, Singapore, and Canada.
• Lack of financial viability and autonomy further weakens institutions.

Policy Initiatives: Progress but Limited Impact

• Employment Linked Incentive (ELI) Scheme: Incentivises job formalisation but lacks a skilling component.
• PM Internship Scheme: Offers one-year placements but without permanent job pathways.
• ITI Upgradation Initiative: Focuses on modernisation of 1,000 ITIs but doesn’t address curriculum quality or instructor shortages.
• These reforms tinker at the margins and fail to transform employability outcomes.

Lessons from International Best Practices

Early Integration of VET

• Germany: Dual system at secondary level with apprenticeships.
• Lesson for India: Implement NEP 2020 recommendation of vocational exposure from Grade 6 onwards.

Clear Progression Pathways

• Singapore: Defined VET-to-university routes and credit transfers.
• Lesson for India: Fast-track the National Credit Framework (NCrF) for mobility between VET and higher education.

Industry-led Curriculum and Quality Assurance

• Singapore: Continuous employer feedback and high instructor standards.
• Lesson for India: Expand National Skill Training Institutes (NSTIs), recruit instructors, update curricula, and institutionalise ITI grading with feedback systems.

Public–Private Partnership Models

• Canada & Germany: Shared funding responsibility between state and industry.
• Lesson for India: Scale Private Training Partner model, involve MSMEs, and leverage CSR for infrastructure and training.

Continuous Upskilling and Lifelong Learning

• Singapore: SkillsFuture programme subsidises upskilling throughout life.
• Lesson for India: Build modular, stackable VET courses with financial incentives for continuous learning.

Reform Roadmap for India

• Integrate VET Early: Implement NEP 2020 with urgency, ensuring vocational exposure from school level.
• Create Academic Pathways: Operationalise NCrF, ensuring credit portability between vocational and general education.
• Improve Training Quality: Industry-aligned curricula via market assessments. Recruit faculty and expand NSTIs. Institutionalise regular audits and trainee feedback mechanisms.
• Strengthen PPPs: Incentivise private sector in curriculum design, apprenticeships, and funding. Develop state-level Sector Skill Councils to connect MSMEs and ITIs.
• Increase Public Investment and Institutional Autonomy: Raise spending on VET to at least 6–7% of education budget in the medium term. Link funding to performance while giving ITIs autonomy to generate revenue.

Conclusion

• India stands at a critical juncture where human capital investment is essential to translate its demographic dividend into sustained economic growth.
• With just 4% of the workforce formally skilled, the need to overhaul the VET ecosystem is urgent.
• By integrating VET into schooling, building academic pathways, ensuring quality through industry participation, and boosting investment, India can transform vocational education into a pathway to jobs, productivity, and inclusive development.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q1. With reference to Vocational Education and Training (VET) in India, consider the following statements: The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 recommends integration of vocational education into school curriculum from Grade 6 onwards. India spends about 10–13% of its total education budget on vocational education and training, similar to countries like Germany and Singapore. The National Credit Framework (NCrF) aims to enable credit transfers and academic progression pathways between vocational and general education streams. In India, over 80% of Industrial Training Institute (ITI) seats are filled every year, indicating high uptake of vocational training. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only (C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q.   Which of the following provisions of the Constitution does India have a bearing on Education? (2012) Directive Principles of State Policy Rural and Urban Local Bodies Fifth Schedule Sixth Schedule Seventh Schedule Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3, 4 and 5 only (c) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Ans- (d)

Answer 1- A Explanation Statement 1 is correct: The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 indeed recommends the integration of vocational education from Grade 6 onwards, aiming to familiarise students early with skill-based training. Statement 2 is incorrect: India spends only around 3% of its total education expenditure on VET, far below Germany, Singapore, and Canada (10–13%). Hence, equating India’s spending with theirs is wrong. Statement 3 is correct: The National Credit Framework (NCrF) is designed to establish a system of credit accumulation and transfer, allowing seamless progression between vocational education, general education, and higher education. Statement 4 is incorrect: The actual seat utilisation in ITIs is only about 48% (2022), not over 80%. Low enrolment reflects the unattractiveness of vocational training. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

GST Rate Rationalisation Proposal: Towards a Two-Rate Structure

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Economy

Context: GST rate rationalisation

Why in News

The Group of Ministers (GoM) on GST rate rationalisation has accepted the Centre’s proposal to move towards a simplified two-rate GST structure by removing the 12% and 28% slabs.

Introduction

• The Goods and Services Tax (GST), introduced in 2017, subsumed multiple indirect taxes into a single unified tax regime.
• Currently, GST has a multi-slab structure: 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28% (with an additional cess on certain items). Over the years, this complex rate structure has drawn criticism for creating classification disputes, compliance burdens, and revenue uncertainties for both Centre and States.
• In response, the Group of Ministers (GoM) on Rate Rationalisation, chaired by Bihar Deputy CM Samrat Choudhary, has accepted the Centre’s proposal to simplify GST into a two-rate structure and will recommend this to the GST Council.

The Proposed Two-Rate Structure

The Centre’s proposal seeks to restructure GST rates as follows:

1. 5% slab retained → Most essential and semi-essential items.
2. 18% slab retained → Standard rate for goods and services.
3. 12% and 28% slabs removed.
   • 99% of items in the 12% slab to move down to 5%.
   • 90% of items in the 28% slab to move down to 18%.
4. ‘Sin goods and services’ (tobacco, cigarettes, online real-money gaming, etc.) will shift to a new 40% slab, replacing the current 28% + cess structure.
5. Compensation cess abolished → At present, it is levied mainly on luxury and sin goods to compensate States for revenue loss.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Process of Implementation

• The GoM has recommended this proposal as the first step.
• The final decision will be taken by the GST Council, chaired by the Union Finance Minister and including State Finance Ministers.
• If approved, the changes are likely to be rolled out in late 2025, with Prime Minister Narendra Modi hinting at a “Deepavali gift” to the common man.

Rationale for the Reform

1. Simplification – Reducing the number of tax slabs brings greater transparency and predictability in taxation.
2. Consumer Relief – Shifting items from 12% to 5% and from 28% to 18% would reduce the effective tax burden on households.
3. Boost to Consumption – Lower tax rates may stimulate demand, especially for MSMEs and middle-class households, aligning with India’s consumption-driven growth model.
4. Ease of Compliance – Fewer slabs mean reduced litigation and disputes over classification of goods.
5. Revenue Neutrality vs Growth Push – The government seeks to balance tax simplification with ensuring no major revenue shortfall.

Concerns and Challenges

1. State Revenues – States fear loss of revenue due to downward movement of goods to lower tax slabs. Kerala Finance Minister K.N. Balagopal has demanded a compensation mechanism.
2. Revenue Neutrality – If large volumes of goods move from higher to lower slabs, the Centre must ensure alternative sources of revenue.
3. Inflationary Risks – Tax rate restructuring must be calibrated carefully; otherwise, it may trigger price adjustments and affect inflation.
4. Transition Issues – Businesses may face temporary compliance costs due to system changes and re-pricing.
5. Political Economy of Federalism – GST reforms require consensus in the Council, where States are equal stakeholders.

Broader Implications

1. For Households – Cheaper essential and semi-essential goods, more disposable income.
2. For MSMEs – Lower indirect tax burden enhances competitiveness and boosts production.
3. For States – Risk of revenue shortfall; compensation framework will be crucial.
4. For Economy – Supports a consumption-led growth strategy, aligned with the Centre’s vision of “next-generation GST reforms.”

Way Forward

• The GST Council meeting (expected in September 2025) will deliberate on finalising the reform.
• A robust compensation mechanism for States will be key to ensuring political and fiscal stability.
• Long-term, a simplified two-rate GST could pave the way for further rationalisation towards a single standard rate, as recommended by many economists.

Conclusion

• The move towards a two-rate GST structure marks a significant milestone in India’s indirect tax reform journey.
• By reducing slabs, eliminating cess, and focusing on consumer-centricity, the proposal promises relief to households, growth stimulus to MSMEs, and simplicity to the tax system.
• However, its success will depend on managing State concerns, preserving revenue neutrality, and ensuring a smooth transition.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q2. With reference to the recent proposal for GST rate rationalisation in India, consider the following statements: The proposal recommends retaining only the 5% and 18% GST slabs, while eliminating the 12% and 28% slabs. Goods currently taxed at 12% will mostly move to the 5% slab, while most goods at 28% will move to the 18% slab. The compensation cess levied on luxury and sin goods will continue under the new structure. A new 40% slab has been proposed for certain sin goods such as tobacco, cigarettes, and online real-money gaming. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 4 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 3 and 4

Q.  What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’? (2017)  It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future. Select the correct answer using the code given below:  (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (a)

Answer 2- B Explanation Statement 1 is correct: The Centre’s proposal simplifies the GST structure by retaining only two slabs (5% and 18%), while abolishing the 12% and 28% slabs. Statement 2 is correct: As per the proposal, 99% of goods in the 12% slab will move to 5%, and about 90% of goods in the 28% slab will move to 18%. Statement 3 is incorrect: The compensation cess will be abolished under the new structure. Instead, revenue adjustment for States will be discussed within the GST Council. Statement 4 is correct: A new 40% slab has been proposed exclusively for “sin goods” such as tobacco, cigarettes, and online real-money gaming, replacing the earlier 28% + cess model. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

SEBI’s Proposal for a “Regulated Venue” for Pre-Listing Trades and Regulation of Grey Market

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3 Economy

Context: Regulated Venue” for Pre-Listing Trades

Why in News

SEBI has proposed a regulated venue for pre-listing trades to bring transparency, improve price discovery, and curb the risks of the unregulated IPO grey market.

Introduction

• The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), the regulator of securities markets in India, has recently proposed the idea of a “regulated venue” for pre-listing trades of companies.
• This comes amid concerns about the unregulated grey market in Initial Public Offerings (IPOs), price manipulation, investor protection, and tax leakages.
• At an event organised by the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) on August 21, 2025, SEBI Chairperson Tuhin Kanta Pandey and Whole-Time Member Kamlesh Varshney outlined the regulator’s new initiatives.

What is the Grey Market?

• The grey market refers to an informal, unregulated market where shares of companies (that are yet to be listed on stock exchanges) are traded.
• Transactions happen through private arrangements between buyers and sellers.
• The most common products in the grey market include:
  • Grey Market Premium (GMP): Indicates the unofficial premium at which shares trade before listing.
  • Kostak Rate: Premium paid to IPO applicants for selling their application rights.
• While it helps gauge investor sentiment, it is prone to manipulation, lacks transparency, and results in no revenue/tax collection for the government.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

SEBI’s Proposal: Regulated Pre-Listing Venue

SEBI is considering creating a regulated platform where shares of pre-listing companies can be traded.

Benefits:

• Price Discovery: Brings transparency and efficiency to the process of price formation before an IPO. Helps issuers, investors, and regulators assess true market demand.
• Revenue and Tax Compliance: By bringing trades into the formal framework, government revenue through taxes can be secured.
• Investor Protection: A regulated market would ensure disclosure norms, grievance redressal mechanisms, and surveillance against fraud.
• Market Discipline: Helps prevent manipulation, insider trading, and exploitation of retail investors.

Challenges:

• Designing a robust regulatory regime with checks and balances.
• Avoiding over-regulation that may drive traders back to informal channels.
• Coordination with the Primary Market Advisory Committee for framework design.

SEBI’s Other Regulatory Focus Areas

1. Extension of Tenure of Equity Derivatives

• Currently, equity derivatives in India have weekly and monthly expiry cycles.
• SEBI is considering whether longer-term derivatives can be introduced.
• This could provide more tools for hedging and align Indian markets with global practices.
• However, the decision will be based on stakeholder consultations to balance liquidity, risk management, and market depth.

2. Action Against Misleading Market Influencers

• SEBI has been actively investigating influencers who mislead investors by:
  • Promising guaranteed returns.
  • Giving stock tips without SEBI registration.
  • Using live trading sessions to induce investments.
• Recently, SEBI conducted a search operation against a major influencer, highlighting the seriousness of this crackdown.
• The objective is not revenue generation but to instil a “fear of law enforcement” and protect youth and retail investors.

Significance of the Proposal

1. Investor Confidence:
   • A transparent and regulated grey market substitute will enhance trust in IPOs and capital markets.
2. Capital Market Development:
   • Pre-listing platforms can deepen India’s capital markets, similar to practices in developed economies.
3. Alignment with Global Standards:
   • Many countries allow secondary trading of unlisted shares under regulated environments (e.g., U.S. private placement markets).
4. Curbing Malpractices:
   • Reduces speculative manipulation and prevents youth from being misled by fraudulent influencers.

Challenges and Concerns

• Operational Design: Setting up trading mechanisms, settlement systems, and eligibility criteria.
• Regulatory Overlap: Coordination with RBI, Income Tax authorities, and stock exchanges.
• Market Acceptance: Ensuring traders shift from informal grey market to the regulated platform.
• Education: Retail investors need awareness about risks and rules.

Conclusion

• SEBI’s proposal to regulate the grey market through a “regulated pre-listing venue” represents a significant step in strengthening India’s capital market ecosystem.
• Alongside initiatives such as extending equity derivatives’ tenure and cracking down on misleading influencers, SEBI is aiming to strike a balance between market innovation, investor protection, and regulatory discipline.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q3. With reference to SEBI’s recent proposal of a “regulated venue” for pre-listing trades, consider the following statements: The proposal aims to replace the grey market in IPOs with a transparent and tax-compliant system. One of the objectives is to improve price discovery before a company is listed on the stock exchange. Currently, equity derivatives in India are allowed only on a quarterly expiry basis. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Q Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly? (2019) (a) Certificate of Deposit (b) Commercial Paper (c) Promissory Note (d) Participatory Note Ans: (d)

Answer 3- A Explanation Statement 1 is correct: SEBI’s proposal seeks to bring grey market trades—currently informal and untaxed—into a regulated venue with disclosure requirements, transparency, and tax compliance. Hence, the statement that it aims to replace the grey market with a transparent and tax-compliant system is correct. Statement 2 is correct: A major rationale behind SEBI’s proposal is to ensure better price discovery for IPOs, since grey market premiums are presently opaque and prone to manipulation. Hence, this statement is correct. Statement 3 is incorrect: Currently, equity derivatives in India expire on a weekly and monthly basis, not only quarterly. SEBI is exploring the possibility of extending their tenure to longer durations, but the present system does not limit them to quarterly expiry. Hence, this statement is wrong. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

India’s Solar Module Manufacturing Boom and the Risk of Oversupply

Source: Down to earth

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3 Economy

Context: India’s Solar Energy

Why in News?

India’s solar module manufacturing capacity has reached 100 GW, but risks of oversupply loom due to cheaper Chinese imports and reduced export opportunities, especially after US policy changes.

Introduction

• India has witnessed remarkable growth in solar energy in recent years. Over the past decade, India’s solar power capacity has grown by over 4,000%, making it one of the fastest-growing renewable energy markets in the world.
• To support this expansion and reduce dependence on imports—particularly from China—domestic solar module manufacturing capacity has been scaled up rapidly.
• As per the SBI Capital Markets Ltd (SBICAPS) August 2025 report, Indian manufacturers have expanded solar module capacity to nearly 100 GW, aligning with India’s projected target of 190 GW cumulative solar capacity by 2027.
• However, while this growth supports energy security and domestic industry, the report highlights emerging risks of oversupply due to a mismatch between production, demand, and exports.

(Image Source: Down To Earth)

Growth of Solar Module Manufacturing in India

• Capacity Expansion: Indian solar module capacity has surged to ~100 GW in 2025, driven by private sector players like Waaree Energies, Goldi Solar, Reliance Industries, Emmvee Energy, ReNew Power, and Rayzon Solar.
• Government Support: Several schemes have facilitated this expansion:
  • PLI Scheme for High Efficiency Solar PV Modules:
    • Outlay of ₹24,000 crore
    • Tranche I: ₹4,500 crore, supporting 8,737 MW fully integrated units.
    • Tranche II: ₹19,500 crore, supporting 39,600 MW additional capacity.
  • PM-KUSUM and PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana promoting adoption of solar.
  • ALMM (Approved List of Models and Manufacturers): Restricts imports, encourages domestic production.
• Domestic Demand Growth: Solar installations jumped 60% y-o-y in FY25, reaching 24 GW, requiring nearly 50 GWdc modules.

Emerging Oversupply Concerns

Despite strong growth, SBICAPS warns of oversupply risks due to two primary reasons:

1. Sustained Preference for Cheaper Chinese Modules

   • Domestic modules are costlier than Chinese imports.
   • Many non-utility projects (like rooftop solar) still rely on imports as they are not mandated to use ALMM-approved modules.
   • In FY25, India still imported ₹322 billion worth of modules and cells, mostly from China, despite a 38% decline y-o-y.

2. Reduced Export Opportunities

   • Indian module exports had grown 23-fold between FY22–FY24, with 97% going to the US.
   • But recent US policy changes (ending Inflation Reduction Act subsidies and enacting the ‘One Big Beautiful Bill’) reduce tax credits and discourage imports.
   • Many Indian firms are now considering setting up manufacturing facilities in the US to bypass restrictions under the Foreign Entity of Concern rules.

Domestic Demand Outlook

• CEA & SBICAPS projections: India must add 40–50 GW solar annually to achieve targets by 2030.
• Current momentum: India added 11 GW in Q1 FY26 alone, the highest ever in a quarter.
• Utility-scale projects: Remain the largest contributor to demand.
• Non-utility projects (rooftop, C&I): Growing rapidly, but less regulated—often reliant on cheaper imports.

Thus, while medium-term demand remains strong, if capacity growth outpaces actual installations, oversupply may result in idle factories and stressed balance sheets for manufacturers.

Challenges in Domestic Solar Manufacturing

• High Costs: Indian modules are more expensive than Chinese counterparts.
• Limited Upstream Capacity: Dependence on imports for cells, wafers, and polysilicon makes domestic modules less competitive.
• Technology Gap: Chinese firms dominate high-efficiency solar cells (TOPCon, HJT), while Indian firms are catching up.
• Export Uncertainty: Heavy reliance on US demand exposes India to global policy risks.

Policy and Strategic Implications

• Energy Security: Expanding local manufacturing is vital for reducing dependence on China, especially amid geopolitical tensions.
• Industrial Policy: The PLI scheme has boosted capacity but needs complementary policies to address upstream components and technology.
• Export Diversification: India must explore markets beyond the US (Europe, Africa, Latin America) to mitigate risks.
• Demand Creation: Stronger domestic adoption through rooftop solar, state incentives, and DISCOM reforms can stabilize demand.
• Technology Upgradation: Investment in R&D for high-efficiency modules is essential to remain globally competitive.

Conclusion

• India’s solar module manufacturing capacity expansion to 100 GW reflects its ambition to become a global clean energy leader.
• While domestic demand is rising, risks of overcapacity loom due to cost disadvantages, reliance on imports for upstream components, and reduced exports to the US.
• The challenge for policymakers lies in balancing manufacturing growth with sustainable demand, while addressing structural gaps in technology, upstream integration, and market diversification.
• If managed effectively, India can avoid the pitfalls of oversupply and establish itself as a renewable energy manufacturing hub, aligning with its goal of 500 GW non-fossil capacity by 2030.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding India’s solar module manufacturing sector: India’s solar module manufacturing capacity has reached around 100 GW by 2025. The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for High Efficiency Solar PV Modules has an outlay of ₹24,000 crore, implemented in two tranches. Nearly all Indian photovoltaic module exports in FY23 and FY24 were directed to the European Union. Domestic demand for solar modules rose sharply in FY25, with installations increasing by about 60% year-on-year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q. Consider the following statements: (2016) The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (a)

Answer – 4 – C Explanation – Statement 1 is correct: India’s solar module manufacturing capacity expanded rapidly and reached around 100 GW by 2025, as per the SBICAPS report. Statement 2 is correct: The PLI Scheme for High Efficiency Solar PV Modules has an overall outlay of ₹24,000 crore, implemented in two tranches—Tranche I (₹4,500 crore) and Tranche II (₹19,500 crore). Statement 3 is incorrect: Exports were not directed to the EU; instead, over 97% of India’s PV module exports in FY23 and FY24 went to the US. Hence, this statement is wrong. Statement 4 is correct: Domestic demand rose strongly, with solar installations increasing by about 60% year-on-year in FY25, reaching nearly 24 GW. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

Declaring Cancer a Notifiable Disease in India: A Public Health Imperative

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 Public Health

Context: Notifiable disease

Why in News?

The Rajya Sabha Committee on Petitions has recommended declaring cancer a notifiable disease nationwide to ensure systematic reporting, real-time data, and evidence-based policymaking.

Introduction

• India is witnessing a rapid rise in cancer cases, emerging as one of the leading causes of morbidity and mortality.
• Against this backdrop, the Committee on Petitions of the Rajya Sabha, headed by Narain Dass Gupta, has recommended that cancer be declared a notifiable disease across all States and Union Territories.
• Its 163rd report (August 20, 2025) emphasizes the need for reliable and comprehensive data to design effective policies, allocate resources rationally, and build cancer care infrastructure.
• This recommendation marks a significant shift from the current government stance—guided by WHO norms, where only communicable diseases are declared notifiable.
• The proposal reflects the growing recognition that non-communicable diseases (NCDs), particularly cancer, require systematic tracking and coordinated national action.

Why Cancer Notification is Needed

1. Gaps in Current Data

• Presently, cancer data is primarily sourced from the National Cancer Registry Programme (NCRP), which covers only 18% of India’s population, insufficient for a national picture.
• Lack of real-time, nationwide reporting hampers the ability to track trends, plan infrastructure, and implement region-specific interventions.

(Image Source: The Blue Diamond Gallery)

2. Benefits of Notifiability

Declaring cancer a notifiable disease would:

• Ensure systematic and real-time reporting of cases.
• Strengthen surveillance and disease monitoring.
• Enable evidence-based policymaking.
• Support targeted interventions and rational allocation of resources.
• Provide a clear national picture of disease burden, allowing region-specific strategies.

3. State Experiences

Some states have already made cancer notifiable. A national mandate would ensure uniformity in documentation, bridging existing gaps.

Cancer Burden in India

1. Rising Incidence

• India’s cancer burden is escalating due to lifestyle factors, tobacco use, environmental pollution, and genetic predisposition.

2. Oral Cancer: A Case Study

• Nearly 60,000 new cases of oral cancer are reported annually in India.
• Over five people die every hour due to oral cancer.
• Indians are increasingly affected at a younger age (≤40 years) compared to Western populations.

3. Risk Factors

• Tobacco consumption (smoking and chewing): Primary driver of oral and lung cancer.
• Air pollution: Carcinogenic emissions contribute to lung and other cancers.
• Pesticides and fertilisers: Long-term exposure linked to gastrointestinal cancers.
• Water contamination: Industrial pollutants and heavy metals as risk factors.

Policy Recommendations of the Committee

1. Public Health Measures

• Declare cancer notifiable nationwide for reliable, real-time data.
• Extensive awareness campaigns, especially targeting youth in educational institutions.
• High-risk cess/heavy taxation on tobacco products, with revenues earmarked for cancer care and research.

2. Strengthening Healthcare Infrastructure

• Expansion of medical seats (UG/PG, DNB recognition) is positive, but gaps remain in trained oncologists.
• Address brain drain of medical professionals—those benefitting from subsidised education often migrate abroad.
• Introduce compulsory service norms for government-funded medical graduates.
• Make domestic salary structures more attractive to retain talent.

3. Research and Development in Oncology

• Current cancer drugs in India are largely imported from the US and Europe.
• Limited domestic R&D hinders innovation.
• Committee urged the government to significantly enhance budgetary allocations for oncology R&D.

4. Environmental Risk Mitigation

• Recognised cancer links with air pollution, contaminated water, pesticides, fertilisers.
• Recommended a coordinated inter-ministerial strategy (Health, Environment, Agriculture) to tackle environmental carcinogens.
• Emphasised that siloed approaches are counterproductive; synergy is essential.

Broader Significance

1. Shift in Disease Surveillance Paradigm

   • Traditionally, notifiability has been limited to communicable diseases (e.g., TB, malaria).
   • Extending it to cancer signals an evolution in India’s public health governance, recognising the growing threat of NCDs.

2. Alignment with SDGs and National Health Policy

   • Supports SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-being) by reducing premature mortality from NCDs.
   • Complements the National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS).

3. Economic Implications

   • Cancer treatment imposes catastrophic healthcare expenditure, pushing families into poverty.
   • Improved surveillance and prevention strategies can reduce economic burden on households and health systems.

Challenges Ahead

• Implementation burden: States with weaker health systems may struggle to operationalise uniform notification.
• Privacy concerns: Ensuring patient confidentiality in reporting mechanisms.
• Financial constraints: Need for increased budgetary allocations for cancer care and R&D.
• Resistance from tobacco industry: Pushback against taxation and regulation.

Conclusion

• The recommendation of the Parliamentary Committee to declare cancer a notifiable disease marks a transformative step in India’s public health policy.
• It addresses urgent needs—systematic reporting, effective policymaking, and rational infrastructure planning—while also highlighting broader issues of medical workforce shortages, brain drain, inadequate oncology R&D, and environmental carcinogens.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q5. With reference to the recent recommendations of the Parliamentary Committee on Petitions regarding cancer in India, consider the following statements: Declaring cancer notifiable would help generate reliable, real-time data and strengthen surveillance for evidence-based policymaking. At present, cancer data in India is primarily drawn from the National Cancer Registry Programme (NCRP), which covers about 50% of the population. The Committee recommended imposing a high-risk cess or heavy taxes on tobacco products to supplement cancer research and care. The Committee observed that environmental carcinogens such as air pollution, pesticides, and contaminated water significantly contribute to India’s cancer burden. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 3 and 4 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.     With reference to the treatment of cancerous tumours, a tool called cyberknife has been making the news. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct? (2010) (a) It is a robotic image guided system (b) It delivers an extremely precise dose of radiation (c) It has the capability of achieving sub-millimetre accuracy (d) It can map the spread of tumour in the body Ans: (d)

Answer – 5 – B Explanation – Statement 1 is correct: Declaring cancer as a notifiable disease would indeed ensure systematic reporting, real-time data generation, and strengthen surveillance, which in turn supports evidence-based policymaking. This is exactly what the Committee emphasized in its 163rd report. Statement 2 is incorrect: The National Cancer Registry Programme (NCRP) currently covers only about 18% of India’s population, not 50%. Hence, the claim that half the population is covered is an overstatement. Statement 3 is correct: The Committee recommended imposing a high-risk cess or heavy taxes on tobacco products, with the revenue earmarked for cancer research and care. This is in line with the effort to reduce tobacco consumption and fund cancer interventions. Statement 4 is correct: The Committee explicitly highlighted that environmental carcinogens—including air pollution, pesticides, fertilisers, and contaminated water—are major contributors to India’s growing cancer burden, and called for a coordinated inter-ministerial response. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Nepal Eliminates Rubella as a Public Health Problem: A Milestone for Maternal and Child Health

Source: Down To earth

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 Public Health, International Relations

Context: Rubella

Why in News?

Recently, the WHO declared Nepal rubella-free, making it the first country in Southeast Asia to achieve this milestone in maternal and child health.

Introduction

• On August 18, 2025, the World Health Organization (WHO) officially announced that Nepal has eliminated rubella as a public health problem.
• This marks a historic achievement in South Asia, particularly for maternal and child health.
• The milestone showcases Nepal’s strong public health leadership, effective vaccination campaigns, and resilient community participation despite facing multiple crises in the last decade.

What is Rubella?

• Rubella (German measles): A highly contagious viral infection spread through respiratory droplets.
• Symptoms: Mild fever, rash, swollen lymph nodes; however, many infections remain asymptomatic.
• Public health risk:
  • Especially dangerous for pregnant women.
  • Can cause Congenital Rubella Syndrome (CRS) → miscarriage, stillbirth, or severe birth defects (deafness, blindness, heart defects).
• Global burden: Around 100,000 infants are born annually with CRS worldwide (WHO).

(Image Source: Down To Earth)

Vaccination and Prevention

• MMR vaccine (Measles, Mumps, Rubella):
  • Two doses recommended for lifelong protection.
  • Widely available, safe and cost-effective.
• Global gaps: Despite availability, immunisation coverage remains uneven.

Nepal’s Journey Towards Elimination

1. Vaccine Introduction

   • 2012: Rubella vaccine introduced via nationwide campaign (target group: children 9 months–15 years).
   • 2016: Second dose added to routine immunisation schedule.

2. Immunisation Coverage

   • By early 2024, more than 95% of children had received at least one dose.
   • Achieved despite challenges like:
     • 2015 earthquake and subsequent natural disasters.
     • COVID-19 pandemic (2020–22).
     • 2023 earthquake.

3. Innovative Strategies

   • “Immunisation month” campaigns to boost awareness and coverage.
   • Outreach drives for unvaccinated and hard-to-reach children.
   • District-level campaigns to declare fully immunised zones.
   • Robust laboratory algorithm for rubella surveillance → Nepal became the first country in WHO Southeast Asia Region to adopt such a system.

Significance of the Achievement

• Maternal and Child Health:

  • Prevents congenital rubella syndrome, reducing infant mortality and disability burden.
  • Contributes to SDG-3 (Good Health and Well-being) targets.

• Public Health Resilience:

  • Demonstrates Nepal’s ability to maintain immunisation momentum despite disasters.
  • Builds trust in the health system through community engagement.

• Regional and Global Implications:

  • Provides a model for other low- and middle-income countries struggling with vaccine coverage.
  • Strengthens the Southeast Asia Region’s progress towards the Immunization Agenda 2030.

The Global Rubella Challenge

• Current scenario (2022):

  • 17,865 rubella cases reported in 78 countries.
  • Many regions face stagnant immunisation coverage.

• Missed vaccinations (2024):

  • 14.3 million children worldwide missed all vaccines.
  • DTP3 (diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis) coverage: 85%.
  • Measles first-dose coverage: 84%, still below pre-pandemic levels.

• Wider concern – Measles:

  • With its extreme transmissibility, measles is often the first indicator of immunity gaps.
  • Failure to close gaps could derail progress against rubella and other vaccine-preventable diseases.

Way Forward

1. For Nepal:

   • Maintain high coverage with second-dose immunisation.
   • Sustain robust surveillance and lab systems.
   • Integrate rubella monitoring with broader maternal and child health programmes.

2. For South Asia and Global Community:

   • Strengthen regional collaboration for vaccine supply, surveillance, and outbreak response.
   • Address vaccine hesitancy through education and community participation.
   • Leverage Immunization Agenda 2030 to bridge global equity gaps.

Conclusion

• Nepal’s rubella elimination is a landmark public health achievement in South Asia. It underscores the power of vaccination, community engagement, and resilient healthcare systems in tackling preventable diseases.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q6. Consider the following statements: Rubella, also known as German measles, poses a special risk for pregnant women as it can cause congenital rubella syndrome in infants. Nepal introduced the rubella vaccine in its routine immunisation schedule as early as 2002. Nepal became the first country in WHO’s Southeast Asia Region to adopt a laboratory algorithm for rubella surveillance. The Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR) vaccine requires three doses for lifetime protection. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q. Consider the following statements: (2021) Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (b)

Answer – 6 – A Explanation – Statement 1 is correct: Rubella is indeed a mild viral disease for most people, but for pregnant women, infection can lead to miscarriage, stillbirth, or severe birth defects in infants called Congenital Rubella Syndrome (CRS). Hence, this statement is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect: Nepal introduced the rubella vaccine through a nationwide campaign in 2012, not 2002. Later, in 2016, it was included in the routine immunisation schedule. Thus, this statement is factually wrong. Statement 3 is correct: Nepal was the first country in WHO’s Southeast Asia Region to adopt a robust laboratory algorithm to strengthen rubella surveillance. This helped in the verification of elimination. Hence, this statement is correct. Statement 4 is incorrect: The MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine requires two doses for lifelong protection, not three. Doctors worldwide recommend this two-dose schedule. Thus, this statement is incorrect. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.