Google for Startups Hub to be launched in Hyderabad

Source: The Hindu

TGPSC Relevance: Economy

Context: T-Hub for AI Startups

Why in News?

Google for Startups Hub is set to be launched in Hyderabad within T-Hub to accelerate AI-first startups, foster talent, and connect them to global markets as part of Telangana’s economic growth vision.

Introduction

  • In a significant development for India’s digital economy and entrepreneurial ecosystem, the Google for Startups (GfS) Hub is set to be launched in Hyderabad, as part of a strategic partnership between Google and the Government of Telangana.
  • The hub will be housed within T-Hub, India’s premier innovation intermediary and startup incubator, and is expected to be inaugurated by Chief Minister A. Revanth Reddy on December 9, 2025.

Strategic Vision Behind the Hub

  • This collaboration is a landmark initiative designed to accelerate the growth of AI-first startups, build entrepreneurial talent, and create direct bridges to international markets and capital.
  • The partnership is part of Telangana’s broader economic ambition to transform the state into a $1 trillion economy by 2034 and a $3 trillion economy by 2047.

Key Features of the Google for Startups Hub

  • Focus on AI and Digital Innovation The hub aims to foster startups that are solving real-world challenges in key sectors such as climate, health, and education using Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML). Through curated programmes, Google’s senior experts will conduct in-depth training sessions in areas such as AI/ML, product development, user experience (UX), and go-to-market (GTM) strategies.
  • Inclusive Development Approach Special tracks will be designed to support women entrepreneurs, innovators from Tier-2 cities, and university talent, thereby promoting inclusive growth. The initiative aims to instill an early innovation mindset in over 10,000 students annually, bridging the gap between academia and industry.
  • Global Connectivity and Investment Facilitation The hub will serve as a bridge to the global startup ecosystem by bringing top Venture Capitalists (VCs) from Silicon Valley, Japan, and Southeast Asia, along with corporate innovation leaders and founders of successful AI startups. This interaction is expected to provide local startups exposure to global best practices, market strategies, and investment opportunities.
  • Support Mechanisms for Startups Startups will benefit from Google’s cloud credits, advanced AI/ML capabilities, tools, and platforms, as well as curated innovation bootcamps and special innovation days. The government and Google project that by next year, over 200 startups will emerge, with approximately 30% focusing on AI and deep-tech solutions.
  • Investment Impact It is projected that the combined investor network of Google and T-Hub will help attract investments exceeding ₹50 crore, providing a significant boost to the local startup ecosystem.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Implications for Telangana and the Nation

  • Economic Growth and Digital Leadership: By fostering innovation and entrepreneurship, Telangana is aligning itself with India’s national vision of becoming a digital economy powerhouse. The hub’s focus on AI-first solutions will not only contribute to economic growth but also improve problem-solving in critical sectors.
  • Skill Development and Job Creation: The initiative is expected to generate employment, upskill thousands of students, and nurture a culture of innovation. It will act as a talent pipeline for future technological challenges.
  • Global Market Integration: By connecting local startups to global investors and corporates, the hub will increase the international visibility of Indian entrepreneurs and reduce market access barriers, thereby promoting export of knowledge services.

Way Forward

The launch of the Google for Startups Hub represents a well-calculated step in Telangana’s economic strategy, positioning the state as a leader in AI-driven innovation. To ensure sustained success, the government must:

  • Promote research collaborations between universities and industry.
  • Ensure that intellectual property rights and data privacy frameworks are strengthened.
  • Support startups with regulatory ease and infrastructure.

CARE MCQ

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Google for Startups Hub to be launched in Telangana:

  1. The Hub will focus on promoting AI-first startups addressing challenges in climate, health, and education sectors.
  2. The initiative aims to support over 10,000 students annually and facilitate over ₹50 crore in startup funding next year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 1- C

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Google for Startups Hub will promote AI-first startups solving real-world problems in climate, health, and education sectors.
  • The Hub is expected to be inaugurated by Chief Minister A. Revanth Reddy.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Hub aims to support over 10,000 students annually and attract over ₹50 crore in funding through Google and T-Hub investor networks.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

Four sub-panels to finalise education policy in Telangana

Source: New Indian Express

TGPSC Relevance: Governance

Context: Telangana Education Policy (TEP)

Why in News?

The Telangana government has formed a high-level committee with four sub-committees to draft the Telangana Education Policy (TEP).

Introduction

  • The Telangana government has initiated the process of formulating a progressive and futuristic Telangana Education Policy (TEP) aimed at aligning the state’s education system with the demands of the 21st-century global economy.
  • A high-level seven-member committee, headed by K. Keshava Rao (Advisor to the Telangana government), has been tasked with this responsibility.

(Image Source: New Indian Express)

Key Objectives of the Telangana Education Policy:

  • Align Education with Emerging Job Markets: The policy seeks to address the rapidly changing job market by focusing on the development of skills relevant to the digital economy, innovation, and entrepreneurship.
  • Global Opportunities & Digital Transformation: By integrating digital technologies and global best practices into the education framework, the policy aims to prepare students for global competition.
  • Foster Innovation and Entrepreneurship: The policy emphasizes creating an ecosystem where innovation is encouraged from school levels, aiming to nurture entrepreneurial mindsets among students.

Structure of the Committee and Sub-Committees:

To ensure a comprehensive and evidence-based policy formulation, the Telangana government has structured the process as follows:

  • seven-member expert committee, chaired by K. Keshava Rao, is leading the effort.
  • Four specialized sub-committees have been constituted, each with a distinct focus area:
  • Best Practices Sub-Committee: Tasked with studying and adopting national and international best practices in the education sector.
  • Research and Development Sub-Committee: Responsible for exploring innovative approaches to pedagogy, curriculum design, and integrating research culture into education.
  • Curriculum Innovation Sub-Committee: Will review existing curricula and suggest the incorporation of future-ready skills such as coding, data analytics, digital literacy, critical thinking, and problem-solving.
  • Legal Committee: Will examine relevant judicial pronouncements and legal frameworks to suggest reforms necessary for aligning the education system with constitutional and legal mandates in India.

Process and Timeline:

  • The sub-committees are expected to submit detailed reports by October 2025.
  • Following the receipt of reports, the policy drafting process will involve extensive stakeholder consultations, including interactions with educators, industrialists, policymakers, and students.
  • draft policy will be made public, inviting feedback from citizens and stakeholders, ensuring transparency and inclusiveness.
  • The final policy will be submitted after incorporating relevant suggestions, focusing on holistic education reform for Telangana.

Significance of Telangana Education Policy (TEP):

  • Bridging Skill Gaps: TEP aims to bridge the growing skill gap between academia and industry demands by promoting vocational education, digital skills, and interdisciplinary learning.
  • Global Competitiveness: Preparing students to compete globally through exposure to international standards and digital technologies.
  • Encouraging Innovation: By integrating research and development into the education ecosystem, TEP seeks to encourage problem-solving, innovation, and entrepreneurial initiatives at early stages.
  • Legal Backing for Reforms: Ensuring that reforms are constitutionally sound and compliant with judicial guidelines enhances the legitimacy and robustness of the policy.

Conclusion:

  • The Telangana Education Policy (TEP) initiative reflects a forward-looking vision to transform the state’s education landscape into a global standard, industry-relevant, and innovation-driven ecosystem.

CARE MCQ

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Telangana Education Policy (TEP):

  1. The Telangana Education Policy aims to align the education framework with emerging job markets, digital transformation, and global opportunities.
  2. The sub-committees under TEP include Best Practices, Research and Development, Curriculum Innovation, and Legal Review.
  3. The final policy will be prepared without stakeholder consultation to expedite the process.
  4. The policy focuses on promoting innovation and entrepreneurship from school level itself.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 4 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 2- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Telangana Education Policy (TEP) aims to align the education framework with emerging job markets, digital transformation, and global opportunities.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The four sub-committees are: Best Practices, Research and Development, Curriculum Innovation, and Legal Review.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The policy formulation involves stakeholder consultation, including educators, industrialists, and the public, to ensure inclusiveness and transparency.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The policy emphasizes promoting innovation and entrepreneurship from the school level itself to nurture future-ready skills.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Kolhan’s Manki-Munda system

Source: Indian Express

UPSC Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance

Context: Kolhan’s Manki-Munda system

Why in News?

The recent protest by Ho adivasis in Jharkhand’s Kolhan region arose due to fears of interference in their traditional Manki-Munda self-governance system by the state administration.

Introduction

  • The recent protests in Jharkhand’s Kolhan region have highlighted a deep-rooted socio-political issue concerning the traditional self-governance system of the Ho adivasi community, known as the Manki-Munda system.
  • On September 9, 2025, the adivasis of the Ho tribe staged a protest in West Singhbhum district, accusing the Deputy Commissioner (DC) of interfering in their centuries-old system by allegedly removing traditional village heads — the Mundas.
  • The protests underscore the persistent fear among adivasis of losing autonomy over their traditional governance institutions.

Historical Background of the Manki-Munda System

  • Pre-British Period
    • Before British colonial intervention, the Ho adivasis of Kolhan, in present-day Jharkhand, practiced a decentralized and hereditary self-governance system.
    • Each village was administered by a Munda (village head), responsible for resolving local social and political disputes. The Munda operated as a custodian of customary norms but had no authority in revenue or land-related matters.
    • A group of 8 to 15 villages was led by a Manki, who acted as an appellate authority if disputes remained unresolved at the village level. Importantly, this governance system was not linked to any sovereign authority or tax mechanism but functioned purely as a traditional judicial and administrative framework intrinsic to the community’s self-rule.

Subject of recent protest, history of Kolhan tribe’s Manki-Munda system

(Image Source: Indian Express)

Colonial Intervention and the East India Company

  • After the British East India Company’s victory at the Battle of Plassey (1757) and the subsequent Treaty of Allahabad (1765), the Company acquired Diwani rights in Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha, including Kolhan.
  • The Permanent Settlement Act of 1793 fundamentally changed land relations. Zamindars were tasked with tax collection under fixed land revenue demands. In Kolhan, zamindars, under British support, began encroaching upon Ho tribal lands to expand colonial control, triggering multiple adivasi revolts such as:
    • Ho Revolt (1821–22)
    • Kol Revolt (1831–32)
  • Due to repeated failures to suppress the adivasis by force, the British opted for a strategic compromise: integrating the traditional Manki-Munda system into colonial administration.

Wilkinson’s Rules (1833): Formal Codification

  • Captain Thomas Wilkinson, appointed as Political Agent in Kolhan in 1837, drafted 31 guiding principles, termed Wilkinson’s Rules, which formalized the role of Mankis and Mundas in local governance. This was the first official recognition of any adivasi customary governance by colonial authorities.
  • The British incentivized the Manki and Munda to act as intermediaries between the colonial government and the tribal community. While the system preserved an appearance of tribal autonomy, it also enabled the British to integrate Kolhan into the colonial administrative framework.

Key Impacts of Colonial Integration

  1. Demographic Shift: Between 1867 and 1897, the number of non-tribal people (referred to as dikkus) in the region increased dramatically—from 1,579 to 15,755—fueled by infrastructural development such as railways.
  2. Introduction of Private Property: The concept of private land ownership replaced the community-based system. The issuance of pattas (land titles) made adivasis into tenants (raiyats), significantly altering their traditional relationship with land.
  3. Loss of Autonomy: While the Manki-Munda system was allowed to continue, it became integrated into the revenue and administrative machinery of the colonial state, restricting its independence.

Post-Independence Scenario

  • Post-1947, the Kolhan Government Estate (KGE) was dissolved, but Wilkinson’s Rules remained in use. Indian courts, in the absence of alternative codified legislation, continued to uphold these customary rules.
  • Landmark Judgment: In Mora Ho vs State of Bihar (2000), Patna High Court ruled that Wilkinson’s Rules are not formal law but old customs. However, due to lack of legislative alternatives, they continued to operate, creating a legal ambiguity.
  • In February 2021, Jharkhand government formally recognized the Nyaya Panchayat system, integrating traditional structures into administrative functions like:
    • Tax collection
    • Reporting of land transactions
    • Maintaining law and order
    • Settlement of disputes

The Current Conflict

  • The recent protests (September 2025) are symptomatic of a long-standing tension between the adivasi self-governance system and the formal state machinery.
  • The Deputy Commissioner of West Singhbhum, Chandan Kumar, noted that the conflict stemmed from grievances raised by Scheduled Castes (SC) and Other Backward Classes (OBC) living in Ho-majority villages, accusing Mankis and Mundas of bias and malpractice.
  • Adivasis fear a gradual erosion of their cultural and political autonomy under the pretext of administrative reform or social justice.

Conclusion

The Manki-Munda system is not merely a relic of the past but a living institution that has provided local self-governance to the Ho adivasis for centuries. While integration into the formal legal framework is important for uniform governance, the challenge lies in balancing constitutional rights and modern governance with the preservation of indigenous systems.

CARE MCQ

Q1. Which of the following statements correctly describe the Manki-Munda system of the Ho tribe in Jharkhand?

  1. The Munda was the head of a group of villages and responsible for collecting revenue from tribal communities.
  2. The Manki was responsible for resolving disputes that the Mundas could not settle at the village level.
  3. The system was purely traditional, with no link to the colonial state until it was formally codified by Wilkinson’s Rules in the 19th century.
  4. After Independence, Wilkinson’s Rules were repealed, and the system was fully abolished.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 4 only
D) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer 1- B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Munda was the head of a single village, not a group of villages, and the Munda had no responsibilities for revenue or tax collection. Their role was to resolve socio-political disputes within the village.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Manki was indeed responsible for resolving disputes that the Mundas could not settle at the village level. A Manki typically presided over a group of 8 to 15 villages and acted as an appellate authority.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The system was purely traditional before British arrival. The British formally codified it through Wilkinson’s Rules in the 19th century, integrating it into the colonial administrative structure.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: After Independence, Wilkinson’s Rules were not repealed or abolished. Instead, they continued to operate in practice because no alternative legal framework was created. Even as recently as 2021, the Jharkhand government officially recognized traditional bodies like Nyaya Panchayats to work alongside state functions.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.   Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019)

  1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
  2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
  3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
  4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?  

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans: C

Supreme Court and Presidential reference

Source: Indian Express

UPSC Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance

Context: Presidential reference under Article 143(1)

Why in News?

The Supreme Court is hearing a Presidential reference on whether it can set timelines for the President and Governors to give assent to legislative Bills.

Introduction

  • The Supreme The issue of whether the Supreme Court (SC) can set a timeline for the President and State Governors to give assent to legislative Bills has emerged as a significant matter of constitutional interpretation and federalism.
  • This debate gained prominence following a Presidential reference under Article 143(1) of the Constitution, after the Supreme Court’s April 2025 ruling declared the delay in assent by Tamil Nadu Governor R. N. Ravi as unconstitutional.

Background of the Reference

  • The Presidential reference allows the President to seek the SC’s opinion on questions of law or fact of public importance.
  • In April 2025, a two-judge Bench ruled that Governors cannot indefinitely withhold assent to state Bills, exercising Article 142 powers to set specific timelines.
  • The current five-judge Constitution Bench, headed by the Chief Justice of India B. R. Gavai, is now examining the validity of imposing such timelines, testing the limits of judicial review in the executive-legislative relationship.

SC & Presidential reference

(Image Source: Indian Express)

Key Arguments: States vs. Centre

1. Validity of the Presidential Reference

  • States’ Position:
    • Argue that the reference is an attempt to relitigate the April verdict.
    • Invoke the principle of stare decisis (respect for judicial precedents) and hold that there is no scope for appeal against an SC judgment except by review.
    • Tamil Nadu’s Senior Advocate Abhishek Manu Singhvi argued the reference seeks to “subvert the integrity of the Court.”
  • Centre’s Position: Solicitor General Tushar Mehta argued that advisory jurisdiction under Article 143 is independent and can clarify constitutional doubts, even where prior rulings exist.

2. Governor’s Powers and Constitutional Role

  • States’ View:
    • Under Article 163 of the Constitution, the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the State Council of Ministers.
    • Emphasized the principle of popular sovereignty, arguing that the Governor cannot act in ways that obstruct the elected government.
    • Highlighted SC’s historical rulings that restricted the Governor’s discretionary powers, asserting that Governors are not colonial-era viceroys.
  • Centre’s View:
    • Asserted that the Governor has an independent constitutional role and is not merely a ‘postman’ of the state government.
    • Referred to historical debates in the Constituent Assembly where proposed removal of discretionary powers was explicitly rejected.
  • Cited examples like the 2004 Punjab law termination of a river-sharing treaty, where the Governor’s role was essential to constitutional checks and balances.

3. Pocket Veto and Legislative Process

  • Supreme Court’s April Verdict: Declared that indefinite withholding of assent (pocket veto) by the Governor is unconstitutional.
  • Centre’s Argument:
    • Contended that if a Governor withholds assent indefinitely, the Bill would simply fall through.
    • Referred to the Government of India Act, 1935, where the Governor had an absolute veto, which they argued carried constitutional continuity.
  • States’ Counter: Emphasized that colonial discretionary powers were deliberately omitted in the Indian Constitution.

4. Judicial Enforcement of Timelines

  • Centre’s Reservations:
    • Attorney General R. Venkataraman argued that imposing strict timelines is tantamount to a judicial amendment of the Constitution.
    • Highlighted that the Constituent Assembly deliberately avoided setting time limits, preferring the phrase “as soon as possible” in Article 200.
    • Proposed that impasses should be politically resolved through dialogue, not judicial diktat.
  • States’ Viewpoint:
    • Senior Advocate Gopal Subramanium argued that “as soon as possible” implies urgency.
    • Suggested that the timelines were only indicative of when judicial review becomes permissible, not an automatic assent after the deadline.

5. States’ Right to Move Supreme Court Under Article 32

  • Centre’s Stance:
      • Strong opposition to allowing states to file writ petitions under Article 32, which is primarily for enforcing fundamental rights of individuals.
      • Argued that states cannot claim Article 32 as a remedy against the Governor.
  • States’ Counter-Argument:
    • Asserted that the Governor is a constitutional link between Union and State, and states should have the right to challenge executive inaction.
    • Even Andhra Pradesh (a coalition ally of the Central Government) defended states’ right to approach the SC.

Federalism Dimension

  • The debate reflects a tension between unitary executive control and state autonomy in India’s quasi-federal structure.
  • Opposition-ruled states support judicial intervention, seeing the Governor’s inaction as encroaching on state democracy.
  • The Centre, concerned about executive independence and separation of powers, argues for restraint by the judiciary.

Implications of the Verdict

  • Will determine the scope of judicial intervention in executive discretion.
  • Will clarify the limits of Governors’ discretion vs. constitutional duty to act promptly.
  • Potentially reshape the relationship between the Centre and States and the constitutional role of the President and Governors.

Conclusion

  • The Supreme Court’s ruling in this Presidential reference is likely to be a landmark judgment, delineating the fine balance between constitutional authority, federalism, and democratic governance.

CARE MCQ

Q2.  Consider the following statements regarding the role of the Governor and President in giving assent to legislative Bills in India:

  1. Article 163 of the Constitution requires the Governor to act on the aid and advice of the State Council of Ministers in all matters.
  2. Article 200 provides that the Governor shall give assent to Bills “as soon as possible” without specifying any timeline.
  3. The Supreme Court, under its advisory jurisdiction (Article 143), can issue binding timelines for assent to Bills.
  4. States can approach the Supreme Court under Article 32 to challenge a Governor’s inaction regarding Bills.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only

Answer 2- B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 163 of the Constitution states that the Governor shall act on the aid and advice of the State Council of Ministers, but this does not apply in all matters. In some cases, the Governor can exercise discretionary powers, for example, in giving assent to Bills, when there is constitutional ambiguity.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Article 200 of the Constitution mentions that the Governor shall give assent to Bills “as soon as possible”, but it does not prescribe any specific timeline for the assent.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Supreme Court’s opinion under Article 143 is advisory in nature. It is not binding on the President or Governors, although it provides strong constitutional guidance.
  • Statement 4 is correct: States have contended that they have the right to file writ petitions under Article 32 of the Constitution, especially when fundamental constitutional duties of the Governor (like giving assent) are being neglected, thus directly impacting state governance.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.    The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its (2014)

  1. (a) advisory jurisdiction
  2. (b) appellate jurisdiction
  3. (c) original jurisdiction
  4. (d) writ jurisdiction

Ans: (c)

Supreme Court guidelines say on DNA

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Science and Technology

Context: DNA

Why in News?

The Supreme Court of India issued guidelines to ensure proper collection, transport, storage, and chain of custody of DNA evidence in criminal cases to maintain its scientific and legal reliability.

Introduction

  • The Supreme Court of India, in a landmark judgment in Kattavellai @ Devakar v. State of Tamil Nadu, has issued comprehensive guidelines to ensure the integrity of DNA evidence in criminal cases.
  • The decision emphasizes the critical role of DNA in forensic science while highlighting serious procedural lapses in its collection, transportation, and storage that can affect the reliability of DNA evidence in courts of law.

Why Did the Supreme Court Intervene?

  • The Supreme Court intervened in the case due to significant procedural lapses uncovered during a trial involving rape, murder, and robbery. Key issues included:
    • Unexplained Delay in sending vaginal swab samples to the Forensic Science Laboratory (FSL) for analysis.
    • Breakdown in Chain of Custody, which raised the possibility of sample contamination.
    • Absence of Uniform Procedures across States for handling DNA evidence, despite the critical nature of the matter.
  • The Court noted that while various guidelines existed, there was no standard procedure uniformly mandated for all investigating authorities. Given the constitutional distribution of powers (where ‘Police’ is a State subject), the Supreme Court stepped in to create uniformity and standardization.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Supreme Court’s New Guidelines

The Supreme Court issued four essential guidelines to maintain the sanctity of DNA evidence in criminal cases:

  • Proper Documentation at Collection:
    • At the time of collection, careful packaging must be done along with documentation of the FIR number, involved statutes, investigating officer details, hospital/police station information, and serial numbers.
    • The collection must be witnessed and signed by the medical professional, investigating officer, and independent witnesses.
  • Timely Transportation of Samples:
    • The investigating officer is responsible for transporting the DNA evidence to the concerned police station or hospital and then to the FSL within 48 hours of collection.
    • If any delay occurs, reasons must be recorded, and sample preservation must be ensured.
  • Preservation of Evidence During Trial: Once collected, DNA samples must not be opened, altered, or resealed without express authorization from the trial court.
  • Chain of Custody Maintenance:
    • Chain of Custody Register must be maintained from collection to final case outcome (conviction or acquittal).
    • The register must be part of the trial court record.
    • The investigating officer is accountable for any lapses.

Past Supreme Court Rulings on DNA Reliability

The Supreme Court has previously addressed the reliability and admissibility of DNA evidence:

  • Anil v. State of Maharashtra (2014): DNA profiles are valid and reliable only if proper quality control and laboratory procedures are followed.
  • Manoj and Ors. v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2022):
    • DNA evidence was rejected because it was collected from an open area, making contamination highly likely.
    • Insufficient quantity and degraded stains were also grounds for inadmissibility.
  • Rahul v. State of Delhi, Ministry of Home Affairs (2022):
    • DNA evidence was rejected because the sample remained in the police Malkhana (evidence room) for two months before analysis.
    • Collection and sealing practices were found suspicious, lacking scientific reliability.
    • These cases highlighted the dual responsibility:
    • Investigating agencies must collect and transport DNA samples without contamination and delay.
    • Forensic experts must apply proper laboratory quality controls.

Is DNA Evidence Alone Enough to Convict?

  • The Supreme Court has clarified that DNA evidence is opinion evidence under Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act (Section 39 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023). Its probative value varies from case to case, and it cannot substitute for substantive evidence.
  • A DNA match indicates a biological link between the crime scene and the accused but does not by itself prove the offense.
  • DNA must be corroborated by other forms of evidence—eyewitness testimony, circumstantial evidence, or confession—to establish guilt beyond reasonable doubt.

Conclusion

  • The Supreme Court’s guidelines mark a crucial step toward strengthening the forensic framework in India by:
    • Mandating uniform procedures for collection, transportation, and storage of DNA evidence.
    • Emphasizing the need for a Chain of Custody Register.
    • Ensuring scientific and legal rigor in admitting DNA evidence.

CARE MCQ

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court guidelines on DNA evidence in criminal cases:

  1. The investigating officer is responsible for transporting DNA samples to the Forensic Science Laboratory within 48 hours of collection, failing which reasons for the delay must be recorded.
  2. The Chain of Custody Register is mandatory from sample collection to the conclusion of the trial or appeal and must be appended to the trial court record.
  3. DNA evidence by itself is considered substantive proof of guilt under the Indian Evidence Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) All of the above

Answer 3- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court mandates that the investigating officer ensure delivery of DNA samples to the FSL within 48 hours, with proper documentation of any delays.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Chain of Custody Register must be maintained throughout and appended to the trial court record.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: DNA evidence is considered opinion evidence under Section 45 of the Evidence Act, not substantive proof of guilt by itself.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.  Consider the following statements: DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:(2022)

  1. assess the age of a plant or animal.
  2. distinguish among species that look alike.
  3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Ans: (B)

Survey of saltwater crocodiles, conservation

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Environment and Ecology

Context: saltwater crocodiles

Why in News?

The recent survey of saltwater crocodiles in the Sundarban Biosphere indicates ecological success and highlights the need for an inclusive, climate-resilient conservation strategy beyond flagship species.

Introduction

  • The recent survey of saltwater crocodiles in the Sundarban Biosphere Reserve has revealed a positive development in the conservation of a lesser-known species.
  • The census indicates a rise in population numbers and improved demographic diversity, signifying not only an ecological achievement but also a broader shift in India’s approach to wildlife conservation.

Background: Evolution of India’s Wildlife Protection Framework

  • Since the enactment of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, India’s conservation efforts largely focused on megafauna species such as tigers and elephants.
  • These charismatic species were chosen because they attracted public and political support, making it easier to implement protective measures.
  • However, this focus inadvertently led to the neglect of many less prominent species like reptiles, amphibians, and small mammals.
  • In the case of saltwater crocodiles, which do not evoke the same public sentiment, conservation interventions have often remained underfunded or ignored.
  • In contrast, India’s unique approach—combining blanket legal protection with site-specific captive breeding and release programs (such as the Bhagabatpur Crocodile Project)—has proven effective for their conservation.

Crocodile | Habitat, Species, Diet ...

(Image Source: Britannica)

Significance of the Survey Findings

The survey indicates:

  • growth in the saltwater crocodile population in Sundarbans.
  • Improved juvenile survival rates, which reflect a healthy and sustainable breeding environment.
  • diverse age structure, which is essential for long-term population stability.
  • Ecological Importance of Saltwater Crocodiles:
  • Being apex predators and hypercarnivores, they regulate the ecosystem by controlling prey populations and removing carcasses.
  • Their presence indicates that the mangrove ecosystem is functioning well, despite pressures from climate change, human encroachment, cyclones, and rising sea levels.
  • The fact that they tolerate a wide range of salinity positions them as an important indicator species for ecosystem resilience.

Key Challenges and Gaps in Conservation Policy

Despite positive outcomes, critical gaps persist:

  • The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, remains reactive rather than proactive.
  • It does not effectively address emerging threats such as:
  • Rising salinity levels due to sea-level rise.
  • Habitat fragmentation from human activities.
  • Climate change impacts that could severely affect species with narrow environmental tolerances (e.g., amphibians and freshwater reptiles).
  • There is an over-reliance on legal protection without anticipatory action plans like:
  • Identifying climate refugia (areas relatively protected from climate impacts).
  • Enabling assisted breeding programs to support vulnerable species.

Way Forward: Towards Inclusive Conservation

The success of the crocodile conservation initiative demonstrates that non-charismatic species can thrive when there is:

  • Adequate funding and sustained institutional focus.
  • Targeted captive breeding and reintroduction programs.
  • Strategic ecological monitoring and data-driven interventions.
    • Policy Recommendations:
    • Expand Recovery Plans:
  • All species under the Wildlife Protection Act should have proactive, well-funded recovery strategies.
  • Focus must extend beyond charismatic animals to lesser-known species essential for ecosystem balance.
  • Integrate Climate Change Concerns:
  • Incorporate climate vulnerability assessments in conservation planning.
  • Identify and protect climate refugia.
    • Implement assisted breeding and habitat restoration efforts for species with narrow tolerance ranges.
  • Revamp Public Communication Strategies:
    • Public outreach should emphasize the ecological role of non-charismatic species.
    • Awareness campaigns must highlight how these species contribute to ecosystem services, e.g., how crocodiles clean water bodies and regulate prey populations.

Conclusion

  • The recovery of saltwater crocodiles in the Sundarbans is a shining example of how inclusive, forward-looking conservation strategies can succeed when backed by strong policy frameworks and sustained investment.

CARE MCQ

Q4.  Which of the following statements about the recent saltwater crocodile survey in the Sundarban Biosphere Reserve are correct?

  1. The survey revealed an increase in population numbers and improved age diversity of saltwater crocodiles.
  2. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides proactive measures against emerging threats like climate change and habitat fragmentation.
  3. Saltwater crocodiles play a critical ecological role by regulating prey populations and maintaining the health of mangrove ecosystems.
  4. Conservation of saltwater crocodiles has been primarily driven by public affection towards the species.

Select the correct answer:

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer 4- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The survey of saltwater crocodiles in the Sundarban Biosphere Reserve showed a notable increase in population numbers as well as improved age diversity, indicating successful breeding and a stable population structure.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 does not provide proactive measures to anticipate emerging threats like climate change and habitat fragmentation. It has been largely reactive in nature, focusing on species already under threat rather than anticipating future challenges.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Saltwater crocodiles are apex predators that regulate prey populations and remove carcasses from water channels, thereby maintaining the health and balance of the mangrove ecosystem.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The conservation of saltwater crocodiles has not been primarily driven by public affection, but rather by targeted conservation efforts like site-specific captive breeding, legal protection, and scientific interventions. Saltwater crocodiles do not evoke the same popular sentiment as charismatic species like tigers.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.    Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India? (2015)

(a) Saltwater crocodile

(b) Olive ridley turtle

(c) Gangetic dolphin

(d) Gharial

Ans: C

Global plastic Pollution Crisis

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Environment and Ecology

Context: Plastic Pollution

Why in News?

Rapidly increasing plastic pollution poses a severe global environmental, health, and socio-economic threat, requiring urgent international cooperation and systemic reforms.

Introduction

  • Plastic pollution has emerged as one of the most pressing environmental issues of the 21st century.
  • With its widespread use across industries, households, and commercial activities, plastic has become an integral part of modern life.
  • However, the harmful consequences of its production, consumption, and disposal on ecosystems, public health, and sustainable development are alarming.
  • Recognizing its seriousness, the theme of this year’s World Environment Day (June 5) was “Ending Plastic Pollution,” aiming to encourage global awareness and action against this menace.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

The Gravity of the Issue

  • According to the OECD’s Global Plastic Outlook, global plastic consumption has surged dramatically, driven by the economic growth of emerging markets. From 2000 to 2019, global plastics production doubled, reaching 460 million tonnes, while plastic waste generation climbed to 353 million tonnes.
  • Key statistics include:
    • Packaging waste accounts for 40% of plastic waste.
    • Consumer goods contribute 12%.
    • Clothing and textiles account for 11%.
  • Alarmingly, only 9% of plastic waste is recycled, while 19% is incinerated and 50% is dumped in landfills. A worrying 22% evades the waste management system altogether, ending up in uncontrolled dumps, pits, or directly polluting land and water bodies, particularly in poorer regions.
  • In 2024 alone, approximately 500 million tonnes of plastic were produced or used, resulting in 400 million tonnes of waste. If these trends persist, by 2060, global plastic waste could almost triple to 1.2 billion tonnes.
  • The Ocean Conservancy data highlights that 11 million tonnes of plastic enter the ocean annually, adding to the already estimated 200 million tonnes of plastic waste in the marine environment.
  • A United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) expert warns that by mid-century, plastic in the oceans could outweigh fish populations, with devastating consequences for marine biodiversity and fisheries.

Why Is Plastic Pollution a Grave Problem?

  • Non-Biodegradability: Plastics do not decompose naturally. Instead, they break into microplastics and nanoplastics, which contaminate ecosystems globally—from the summit of Mount Everest to oceanic depths.
  • Contribution to Climate Change: Plastics account for 3.4% of global greenhouse gas emissions. UNEP projects that plastic production, usage, and disposal could represent 19% of the global carbon budget by 2040, significantly contributing to climate change.

Health Impacts:

  • Plastics contain thousands of hazardous chemical additives, including carcinogens, neurotoxicants, and endocrine disruptors.
  • These chemicals can leach from plastic products and waste, contaminating soil, air, and water, thus entering the food chain.
  • Studies have demonstrated that exposure to plastic pollution adversely affects reproductive abilities in animals, raising concerns about similar impacts on human health.
  • An Open Letter, signed by over 18 million health professionals across 88 countries, calls for urgent global action through a legally binding Plastics Treaty to protect both planet and human health.

Proposed Remedies and International Response

Global Framework

  • At the 5th Session of the UN Environment Assembly (2022)all 193 UN member states agreed to a legally binding international treaty to end plastic pollution. This treaty is critical to achieving several Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), including:
  • Climate action (SDG 13)
    • Sustainable consumption and production (SDG 12)
    • Protection of marine life (SDG 14)
    • Ecosystem restoration (SDG 15)
  • UNEP’s Ambitious Goals
  • The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) aims to reduce plastic waste by 80% within two decades. Achieving this requires:
    • Strong international cooperation and political will.
    • Innovative product designs and environment-friendly alternatives.
    • Improved waste management systems.
    • Increased recycling.
  • Reducing Production and Consumption
    • Plastics are mainly made from petrochemical feedstock, contributing to fossil fuel dependence.
    • It is essential to eliminate unnecessary plastics, especially single-use plastics.
    • Governments should restrict production within clear legal frameworks.
  • Recycling Challenges and Solutions
    • Most plastic produced is virgin (primary) plastic, while only 6% is recycled (secondary plastic).
    • To enhance recycling:
      • Invest in advanced recycling technologies.
      • Build profitable markets for recycled plastics.
      • Promote Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) schemes, where producers take responsibility for post-consumer waste.
      • Impose landfill and incineration taxes to incentivize recycling.
  • Economic Instruments
    • Deposit refund schemes and pay-as-you-throw systems encourage responsible disposal of plastics.
    • Incentives for industries to shift to biodegradable or reusable alternatives.
  • Role of People and Media
    • Consumers must opt for greener alternatives, such as cloth bags, reusable containers, and bamboo-based products.
    • The media plays a vital role in spreading awareness about the dangers of plastic pollution and promoting sustainable practices.

Conclusion

  • Plastic pollution is a multifaceted challenge impacting ecosystems, health, and the climate. With the global production of plastics rising unchecked, urgent and coordinated action is needed.

CARE MCQ

Q5. Which of the following statements about global plastic pollution is/are correct?

  1. Nearly two-thirds of global plastic waste has a lifespan of less than five years.
  2. Only around 9% of plastic waste is recycled globally, while the rest is mostly incinerated or ends up in landfills or oceans.
  3. The United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) in 2022 adopted a legally binding treaty to completely ban plastic production by 2040.
  4. Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy mechanism where producers are made responsible for the disposal of plastic waste they generate.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer 5- B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: Nearly two-thirds of plastic waste globally has a lifespan of less than five years, mostly from packaging and consumer goods.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Only about 9% of plastic waste is recycled, while 19% is incinerated, 50% goes to landfills, and 22% evades proper waste management.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The UN Environment Assembly in 2022 agreed on negotiating a legally binding global treaty to end plastic pollution, but it does not impose a complete ban on plastic production by 2040.
  • Statement 4 is correctExtended Producer Responsibility (EPR) makes producers responsible for the post-consumer management of the plastic waste they generate.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.    In India, ‘extend producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following? (2019)

(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998

(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999

(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011

(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011

Ans: (c)

Indian Navy gets anti-submarine warfare ship

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Defence

Context: Androth warfare ship

Why in News?

Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) has begun formal contract negotiations with procurement authorities for Project 75(I), a flagship programme under Atmanirbhar Bharat, aimed at building six next-generation submarines in India with German technology support.

Introduction

  • Project 75(I) is part of India’s plan to modernise the Indian Navy’s underwater fleet.
  • The collaboration involves MDL (India) and ThyssenKrupp Marine Systems (TKMS), Germany.
  • The programme focuses on technology transfer, indigenisation, and regional maritime security.

Image Source: The Financial Express

About MDL and TKMS

Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL):

  • India’s premier defence public sector shipyard, headquartered in Mumbai.
  • Known for building warships and submarines, including Scorpene-class submarines under Project 75 in collaboration with France.
  • Plays a central role in India’s self-reliance in naval manufacturing. ThyssenKrupp Marine Systems (TKMS), Germany:
  • Among the world’s leading submarine and naval system manufacturers.
  • Known for advanced diesel-electric submarines such as the Type 214 and Type 218 with proven Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) technology.
  • Has decades of expertise in stealth technology, sonar systems, and modular submarine design.

Key Features of Project 75(I)

  • Construction of six conventional submarines in India.
  • Use of Air-Independent Propulsion (AIP) systems to enhance underwater endurance.
  • Technology transfer from TKMS to MDL, building indigenous shipbuilding capacity.
  • Focus on stealth, endurance, and strike capability for modern naval warfare.

Strategic and Industrial Significance

  • For India:
  • Strengthens indigenous capacity in submarine design and manufacturing.
  • Supports Atmanirbhar Bharat and Make in India by boosting local supply chains, jobs, and skills.
  • Enhances India’s position as a net security provider in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
  • For Germany:
  • Reinforces its role as a trusted defence technology partner in Asia.
  • Consolidates industrial cooperation with India in high-technology defence manufacturing.
  • Regional Security:
  • Counters China’s expanding naval footprint in the IOR.
  • Boosts India’s deterrence and maritime domain awareness.

India–Germany Defence Relations

  • The partnership has deepened in the last decade, focusing on maritime security, defence technology transfer, and joint R&D.
  • 2019 Defence Cooperation Agreement set the foundation for stronger collaboration.
  • Germany supports India’s role in maintaining freedom of navigation in the Indo-Pacific.
  • Naval cooperation has expanded to include joint exercises, training exchanges, and high-level dialogues.
  • Project 75(I) represents a landmark Indo-German defence collaboration, highlighting mutual trust.

Challenges Ahead

  • Technology absorption: Effective transfer and integration of advanced German submarine technology.
  • Timelines and costs: Preventing delays and overruns in one of India’s costliest defence projects.
  • Operational training: Building Indian expertise to manage advanced AIP-based platforms.

Way Forward

  • Strengthen public–private ecosystem to build submarine components domestically.
  • Position India as a submarine manufacturing hub with export potential.
  • Create lifecycle maintenance infrastructure within India to reduce foreign dependence.

CARE MCQ

Q. With reference to Project 75(I), consider the following statements:

  1. It envisages construction of six conventional submarines in India with German technology.
  2. The submarines under this project will include Air-Independent Propulsion (AIP) systems.
  3. MDL is India’s leading shipyard for submarine construction and has earlier built Scorpene-class submarines.
  4. TKMS of Germany is a global leader in submarine design and is known for Type 214 submarines.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2, and 3 only
  3. 2, 3, and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 6- D

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct – Project 75(I) aims to construct six advanced conventional submarines in India. This will be done through collaboration with Germany under the Atmanirbhar Bharat framework.
  • Statement 2 is correct – The submarines will be equipped with Air-Independent Propulsion

(AIP) systems. This technology enables longer underwater endurance and enhances stealth.

  • Statement 3 is correct – Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) is India’s premier submarine shipyard. It has earlier constructed the Scorpene-class submarines under Project 75 with French assistance.
  • Statement 4 is correct – ThyssenKrupp Marine Systems (TKMS), Germany, is a global leader

in submarine design. It is especially renowned for its Type 214 and Type 218 submarines with proven AIP technology.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer. UPSC PYQ

Q. Which one of the following is the best description of INS Astradharini? (2016)

  1. Amphibious warfare ship
  2. Nuclear-powered submarine
  3. Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
  4. Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier Ans: (c)
 
TGPSC CARE 16th September 2025 Current Affairs
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