TGPSC CARE 13th October 2025 Current Affairs

Telangana HC directives on enhanced BC quota and old reservation rules

Source: New Indian Express

TGPSC Relevance: Polity and Governance

Context: BC Quota in Local Body Elections

Why in News?

Telangana High Court has stayed the implementation of enhanced BC quota in local body elections, directing polls to proceed under the previous reservation framework in line with the 50% ceiling rule.

Introduction

  • The Telangana High Court, in a significant interim order, has stayed the implementation of Government Order (GO) No. 9, dated September 26, 2025, which enhanced Backward Classes (BC) reservation in local bodies from 23% to 42%.
  • The court directed that the forthcoming local body elections be conducted under the earlier reservation framework, in conformity with the Telangana Panchayat Raj Act, 2018, and the constitutional ceiling limit of 50% total reservation.

Background of the Case:

  • The Government of Telangana issued GO 9 to increase the BC quota in local body institutions — gram panchayats, mandal parishads, and zilla parishads — from 23% to 42%.
  • The order was challenged in the High Court through a batch of writ petitions, alleging that it violated constitutional provisions and Supreme Court directions on reservation limits.
  • Petitioners argued that the move breached the 50% cap on total reservations, which includes quotas for Scheduled Castes (SCs)Scheduled Tribes (STs), and Backward Classes (BCs) combined.

Key Observations of the High Court:

  • Division Bench comprising Chief Justice Aparesh Kumar Singh and Justice G.M. Mohiuddin made several key observations:
  • Violation of the “Triple Test” Requirement: The Court noted that the State Government failed to comply with the “triple test” established by the Supreme Court in cases such as K. Krishna Murthy vs. Union of India (2010) and Vikas Kishanrao Gawali vs. State of Maharashtra (2021).
    The triple test requires:

(i) Empirical data collection on backwardness in the concerned local bodies,

(ii) Appointment of a dedicated commission to study and recommend reservation levels, and

(iii) Adherence to the 50% ceiling on total reservation.

  • The One-Man Commission Report relied upon by the Telangana Government was found to be unpublished and not subjected to public objections, thus violating both procedural and judicial mandates.
  • Statutory Violation under Telangana Panchayat Raj Act, 2018:
  • Section 285A of the Act explicitly restricts the total reservation for SCs, STs, and BCs to 50%.
  • Enhancing the BC quota to 42% would push the total reservation well beyond this ceiling, making it statutorily untenable.

Telangana HC pulls up state tax officers for repeated errors, terms it 'official misconduct' - A2Z Taxcorp LLP

(Image Source: A2Z Taxcorp LLP )

Election Process Not Interrupted:

  • The Court, while refusing to stall the election process, directed the Telangana State Election Commission (TSEC) to conduct elections as per the existing reservation pattern prior to the issuance of GO 9.
  • The additional 17% BC-reserved areas were to be treated as general category seats for the purpose of the upcoming elections.

Judicial Directions:

  • The High Court stayed the operation of GO 9 and ordered the TSEC to proceed under the earlier reservation framework.
  • The State Government was given four weeks to file its counter-affidavit, and the petitioners two weeks thereafter to respond.
  • The Court reiterated that constitutional and statutory safeguards must guide any future alteration of reservation percentages.

Constitutional and Legal Framework Involved:

  • Article 243D: Provides for reservation of seats for SCs, STs, and women in Panchayats.
  • Article 243T: Applies similar provisions to municipalities.
  • Supreme Court’s 50% Ceiling Rule: Originating from Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India (1992) and reaffirmed in subsequent judgments, the aggregate reservation cannot exceed 50% to maintain the balance between equality and affirmative action.
  • Section 285A, Telangana Panchayat Raj Act, 2018: Reinforces this constitutional ceiling within the state’s statutory framework.

Significance of the Judgment:

  • Upholds Constitutional Balance: The judgment reinforces the balance between social justice and equality, ensuring that political reservations do not breach constitutional limits.
  • Ensures Procedural Rigor: The insistence on the triple test ensures that empirical and evidence-based policymaking guides reservation policy rather than arbitrary expansion.
  • Precedent for Other States: This order serves as a precedent for other states considering enhancement of political reservations without adequate data and procedural compliance.
  • Checks Executive Overreach: The ruling reaffirms the judiciary’s role as a constitutional guardian, checking arbitrary or politically motivated policy actions.

Conclusion:

  • The Telangana High Court’s order to halt the enhanced BC quota in local body elections underscores the constitutional sanctity of the 50% reservation limit and the importance of evidence-based policymaking in affirmative action.

CARE MCQ

Q1.  Consider the following statements regarding the Telangana High Court’s recent order on BC reservation:

  1. The High Court stayed the government order which enhanced BC reservation from 23% to 42% in local bodies.
  2. The Court directed the Telangana State Election Commission (TSEC) to conduct elections under the earlier reservation framework.
  3. The ruling allowed total reservations to exceed 50% in exceptional cases.
  4. The Court cited the failure to follow the “triple test” as a reason for halting the enhanced quota.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer 1- B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Telangana High Court stayed the operation of GO 9, which sought to increase BC reservation from 23% to 42% in local body elections.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Court directed the Telangana State Election Commission (TSEC) to conduct elections under the earlier reservation framework, treating the additional 17% BC-reserved areas as general seats.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The ruling did not allow total reservations to exceed 50%; instead, it reinforced the Supreme Court and statutory ceiling on total reservations for SCs, STs, and BCs.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The Court cited that the State Government failed to follow the “triple test” mandated by Supreme Court precedents before enhancing reservations — which includes empirical data collection, commission-based study, and adherence to the 50% ceiling.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Telangana deploys tourist police units to enhance safety across heritage spots

Source: The Hindu

TGPSC Relevance: Governance

Context: Tourist Police Units in Telangana

Why in News?

Telangana has deployed Tourist Police units across seven districts to enhance safety, manage heritage and religious sites, and provide a world-class visitor experience.

Key Highlights

  • In October 2025, the Government of Telangana launched Tourist Police units across major tourist destinations in the state, including heritage monuments, temples, and other prominent cultural sites.
  • This initiative aims to enhance visitor safety, ensure smooth tourist management, and provide a world-class travel experience.

Objective of the Initiative

  • Strengthen safety and security at high-footfall tourist locations.
  • Provide assistance and guidance to tourists, both domestic and international.
  • Improve the overall tourist experience through trained personnel who are orientated in hospitality, local history, and cultural sensitivity.
  • Promote Telangana as a safe, tourist-friendly destination, enhancing the state’s tourism potential and global image.

Training and Capacity Building

  • 80 police personnel underwent specialised training from October 6 to 9, 2025, at the National Institute of Tourism and Hospitality Management (NITHM), Hyderabad.
  • The training program focused on:
    • Orientation and sensitisation of Tourist Police duties
    • Tourist interaction skills
    • Emergency response and crowd management
  • Field visits to key tourist destinations, including Yadagirigutta, Bhongir Fort, Golconda Fort, Qutb Shahi Tombs, and Lumbini Park, were conducted on October 10–11 to provide practical exposure to on-ground tourist management.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Deployment of Tourist Police

  • Trained officers have been stationed across seven districts of Telangana, including Hyderabad, Yadadri Bhuvanagiri, Vikarabad, Bhadradri Kothagudem, Mulugu, Nalgonda, and Nagarkurnool.
  • Key locations include:
DistrictKey Tourist Destinations
HyderabadCharminar, Golconda Fort, Salar Jung Museum
Yadadri BhuvanagiriYadadri Laxmi Narasimha Swamy Temple, Pochampally Rural Tourism Destination, Bhongir Fort, Sree Ramalingeshwara Swamy Temple (Keesaragutta)
VikarabadAnantha Padmanabha Swamy Temple, Ananthagiri Hills, Kotapalli Reservoir
Bhadradri KothagudemSree Sita Rama Chandra Swamy Temple (Bhadrachalam), Parnasala, Kinnerasani Dam
MuluguRamappa Temple and Lake, Sammakka Sarakka Temple (Medaram)
NalgondaBuddhavanam, North Vijayapuri Project (Peddavoora), Chaya Someswara Swamy Temple (Panagal), Sri Parvati Jadala Ramalingeswara Swamy Temple (Cheruvugattu)
NagarkurnoolAmrabad, Somasila Temple

Significance of the Initiative

  • Enhanced Tourist Safety
    • Ensures that high-footfall heritage sites and religious destinations are under constant vigilance.
    • Reduces risks of mismanagement, accidents, and security lapses.
  • Professional and Trained Workforce
    • Officers are trained in discipline, punctuality, professionalism, and tourist handling protocols, improving visitor satisfaction.
  • Promotion of Heritage and Culture
    • Tourist Police act as ambassadors of Telangana’s cultural heritage, guiding visitors and providing authentic information.
  • Support for Telangana Tourism Growth
    • Improved safety and management is expected to boost tourism footfall, strengthen local economies, and support sustainable tourism practices.
  • World-Class Visitor Experience
  • Through structured deployment and training, the initiative aims to position Telangana as a globally recognized tourist-friendly state.

Implementation Highlights

  • Formal Inauguration: The Tourist Police units were formally inaugurated on September 27, 2025, coinciding with World Tourism Day during the Telangana Tourism Conclave 2025.
  • Field-Oriented Training: Combines classroom training with hands-on field experience at key monuments and heritage sites.
  • District-Wise Coverage: Ensures balanced deployment across heritage, religious, and ecotourism destinations.

Conclusion

  • The deployment of Tourist Police units across Telangana represents a strategic effort to enhance visitor safety, manage tourism effectively, and promote the state’s cultural and heritage assets.

CARE MCQ

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Telangana’s Tourist Police initiative:

  1. It involves the deployment of trained police personnel at key tourist destinations to enhance visitor safety.
  2. Officers underwent training at the National Institute of Tourism and Hospitality Management (NITHM), Hyderabad.
  3. The initiative is limited to Hyderabad and Yadadri Bhuvanagiri districts only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 2- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: Trained police personnel have been deployed across major tourist destinations to ensure visitor safety and better tourist management.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The personnel underwent specialised training at NITHM, Hyderabad, including field visits to heritage and religious sites.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The initiative covers seven districts of Telangana, not just Hyderabad and Yadadri Bhuvanagiri.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Rebuilding Trust in Public Service Recruitment

Source: Indian Express

UPSC Relevance: GS 2- Polity and Governance:

Context: Public Service Reforms

Why in News?

Restoring trust in public service recruitment requires transparent appointments, technology-led safeguards, legal accountability, and independent oversight to uphold meritocracy and social justice.

Introduction

  • Trust forms the moral and operational foundation of democratic governance. It is the invisible social contract that binds citizens and institutions.
  • In India, where millions of aspirants see public service as the pinnacle of social mobility, the credibility of recruitment examinations is central to sustaining faith in the state.
  • However, recurrent scams and systemic lapses across several states have eroded this trust, breeding cynicism, protest, and despair among youth. Rebuilding this trust is not only an administrative necessity but a moral and constitutional imperative.

Significance of Public Service Recruitment Exams

  • Public service commissions—both at the Union and state levels—serve as the gatekeepers of meritocracy and social justice.
  • They ensure that entry into the bureaucracy and other government services is based on fairness, competence, and equal opportunity.
  • For millions of young Indians, especially from modest socio-economic backgrounds, these exams represent the promise of dignity, stability, and upward mobility. Thus, any breach in their credibility directly undermines social cohesion and economic aspiration.

The Crisis of Credibility: A Pattern of Scams

  • The past decade has witnessed a disturbing proliferation of recruitment-related malpractices across states.
    • Bihar (2023): Proxy candidates and leaked papers in the police recruitment exam.
    • Punjab (2021): The Punjab Public Service Commission (PPSC) scandal exposed systemic corruption and compromised paper security.
    • Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal: Allegations of manipulation and favoritism undermined merit-based selection.
    • Uttarakhand: Recent Staff Selection Commission exam leaks triggered widespread protests, prompting a CBI inquiry.
  • These incidents collectively reflect a structural malaise rather than isolated administrative failures. They point to deep-rooted issues of political interference, weak institutional autonomy, and poor technological safeguards.

Impact: Disillusionment and Social Discontent

  • The fallout of such scandals extends far beyond exam halls.
  • Psychological distress: Years of preparation and financial sacrifices are rendered futile, leading to frustration and alienation.
  • Erosion of faith: Citizens begin to question the legitimacy of state institutions, weakening the democratic fabric.
  • Youth unrest: Protests and agitations over paper leaks have increasingly turned violent, signifying deep-seated resentment against a perceived culture of injustice.
  • In essence, the recurring failures in recruitment threaten not just individual futures but the credibility of governance itself.

(Image Source: Indian Express)

Need for Reform: From Reaction to Reconstruction

  • Restoring integrity in recruitment requires a holistic, multi-layered reform strategy combining administrative transparency, technological modernization, and institutional accountability.
  • Transparent Appointments and Functioning:
    • Appointments to public service commissions must be based on professional competence rather than political patronage.
    • Transparency in recruitment should extend to every stage—syllabus publication, evaluation methodology, and post-exam disclosures—to eliminate ambiguity and mistrust.
  • Leveraging Technology for Integrity
    • Technological interventions can drastically minimize human discretion and leakages.
    • Biometric verification and unique candidate IDs can prevent impersonation and proxy candidates.
    • Encrypted digital paper transmission systems can protect question papers from leaks.
    • AI-driven analytics can detect anomalies in results and ensure data integrity.
    • Such innovations can make examination processes tamper-proof and audit-friendly.
  • Strengthening the Legal and Institutional Framework
    • Legal deterrence is crucial for accountability. Fast-track courts for exam-related offences and stringent anti-cheating laws—like the one passed in Uttarakhand (2022)—can ensure swift justice.
    • At the institutional level, a national regulatory authority could oversee, audit, and evaluate recruitment processes across states. The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) or a newly created independent body could be entrusted with this mandate.
  • Accountability and Citizen Participation
    • Public service commissions must be subjected to institutional audits and citizen oversight.
    • Independent review panels comprising retired civil servants, legal experts, and representatives from civil society can monitor integrity and decision-making.
    • Such participatory oversight bridges the trust gap between citizens and the state.

Reimagining the Ethos of Recruitment

  • Recruitment reform is not merely a technical exercise—it is a reconstruction of moral legitimacy.
  • An examination system that is fair, transparent, and inclusive reaffirms the democratic ideals of equality and justice. It transforms governance from a privilege-based structure to a merit-based one. In doing so, it strengthens social mobility and the moral fabric of the republic.

Conclusion:

  • Rebuilding trust in public service recruitment is integral to rebuilding trust in governance itself.
  • A robust, technology-driven, and transparent system is no longer a choice—it is a fundamental right of every aspirant who dreams of serving the nation.
  • While the path to reform is complex, it is achievable through political will, administrative innovation, and citizen vigilance.
  • In a society where public employment remains a cornerstone of aspiration, restoring trust is the true measure of a state’s commitment to justice, merit, and equality.

CARE MCQ

Q1.  Consider the following statements regarding reforms in public service recruitment in India:

  1. Technology such as biometric verification and encrypted question-paper delivery can reduce proxy candidates and paper leaks.
  2. Citizen participation and civil society engagement are discouraged in recruitment oversight to maintain independence.

Which of the above options are correct?

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 1- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: Recent reforms in public service recruitment in India focus on the use of technology to enhance transparency and integrity. Tools such as biometric verificationAI-based facial recognition, and encrypted digital delivery of question papers are being introduced to prevent proxy candidates and paper leaks. These measures ensure secure, tamper-proof examinations and improve public trust in recruitment systems.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: In recent reforms, citizen participation and civil society engagement are encouraged, not discouraged. In fact, reforms promote public oversight, grievance redressal mechanisms, and social audit practices to strengthen accountability and fairness in recruitment processes. Independence of recruitment bodies like UPSC and State Public Service Commissions is maintained through institutional autonomy, not by excluding civil society participation.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.  Consider the following: (2023)

  1. Demographic performance
  2. Forest and ecology
  3. Governance reforms
  4. Stable government
  5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five

Ans: (b)

India to Host UN Troop Contributing Countries’ Chiefs Conclave (UNTCC)

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Defence

Context: India–U.K. Strategic Missile Deal

Why in News?

India and the U.K. signed a £350-million missile deal, advanced naval electric engine collaboration, and secured £1.3 billion in Indian investments in the U.K.

Introduction

  • The India and the United Kingdom have taken a significant step forward in their strategic and economic partnership through a series of high-value agreements signed during British Prime Minister Keir Starmer’s visit to India on October 9, 2025.
  • The visit, marked by a meeting between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Mr. Starmer at Raj Bhavan, Mumbai, witnessed the conclusion of key defence and investment deals aimed at strengthening bilateral ties under the emerging framework of India–U.K. Comprehensive Strategic Partnership.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Defence Cooperation: £350-Million Missile Deal

  • Core Agreement: India signed a £350-million deal with the U.K. to acquire Lightweight Multirole Missiles (LMM), manufactured in Belfast, for the Indian Army.
  • Strategic Significance: This contract marks a major development in India’s efforts to modernize its defence arsenal and diversify its sources of advanced military technology. For the U.K., it aligns with its “Plan for Change,” reinforcing the country’s post-Brexit ambition to strengthen defence exports and establish global industrial partnerships.
  • Broader Implications: The missile purchase serves as a gateway to a wider “complex weapons partnership” currently under negotiation. Such collaboration may encompass co-development and co-production of advanced systems, aligning with India’s Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat initiatives while bolstering the U.K.’s defence manufacturing sector.

Naval Collaboration: Electric Engines Initiative

  • New Frontier in Green Defence:
    • Alongside the missile deal, both sides agreed to advance cooperation in electric-powered naval engines, under an Implementing Arrangement worth £250 million.
    • This reflects a shared commitment to sustainable defence innovation, with electric propulsion expected to reduce emissions and improve stealth in future naval fleets.
  • The collaboration also positions India as a participant in next-generation naval technology, complementing its growing maritime ambitions under the Sagarmala and Maritime India Vision 2030 initiatives.

Economic and Investment Engagement

  • Indian Investments in the U.K.
    • A total of 64 Indian firms have committed to invest £1.3 billion (₹15,430 crore) in the U.K., signalling deepening commercial confidence between the two economies.
    • These investments are expected to create nearly 7,000 new jobs across the U.K., primarily in sectors such as engineering, technology, and creative industries.
  • Major Announcements:
    • TVS Motor Company: £250 million investment in Solihull to expand Norton Motorcycles operations and develop electric vehicles.
    • Cyient Ltd.: £100 million investment in semiconductors, geospatial technology, clean energy, and digital innovation, creating 300 jobs.
    • Muthoot Finance UK Ltd.: £100 million to expand its financial network to 20 branches across the U.K.
    • Hero Motors: £100 million over five years in e-mobilitye-bicycles, and aerospace sectors.
  • This surge in Indian investments underscores India’s emergence as a global investor, with its private sector actively expanding into international markets.
  • For the U.K., it supports regional growth post-Brexit and diversifies foreign investment sources beyond Europe.

Educational and Innovation Partnerships

  • The University of Lancaster and University of Surrey have been granted approval to establish campuses in India, marking a landmark development in educational cooperation.
  • Imperial College London has partnered with Science Gallery Bengaluru to foster research and innovation linkages, deepening the knowledge diplomacy dimension of bilateral relations.
  • Significance:
    • This academic engagement caters to India’s booming demand for higher education and enhances the U.K.’s academic presence in the Indo-Pacific. It also promotes cross-border mobility of talent, research collaboration, and skill development — key pillars in both countries’ innovation ecosystems.

Trade and Investment Symmetry: Missing Data on U.K. Investments

  • While the U.K. government highlighted Indian investment inflows, similar data on U.K. investments into India remains undisclosed by the Indian Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  • However, statements from Rolls-Royce CEO Tufan Erginbilgic indicating ambitions to “develop India as a home for Rolls-Royce” point to the likelihood of future industrial collaboration, particularly in aerospace and marine engineering sectors.

Recent Developments in India–UK Defence Ties

  • Defence Partnership – India (DP-I):
    • India and the U.K. have launched the Defence Partnership–India (DP-I), aimed at strengthening and streamlining bilateral defence collaboration across technology, manufacturing, and strategic operations.
  • Defence Manufacturing Collaboration:
    • The two countries have signed contracts to supply Laser Beam Riding MANPADs (LBRM), starting with the initial delivery of High Velocity Missiles (STARStreak) and associated launchers.
    • Additionally, both nations will jointly produce Lightweight Multirole Missiles (LMMs), integrating Indian industries into the U.K.’s global defence supply chain.
    • India will also host its first Advanced Short-Range Air-to-Air Missile (ASRAAM) assembly and testing facility in Hyderabad, supporting fighter jet modernization and potential global exports.
  • Electric Propulsion Systems:
    • India and the U.K. have agreed to develop an Integrated Full Electric Propulsion (IFEP) system for India’s next-generation Landing Platform Dock (LPD) fleet, with an expected delivery timeline by 2030.
    • This marks a step toward modernising India’s naval capabilities with sustainable and advanced technologies.

How the U.K. Can Strengthen India’s Defence

  • Access to Advanced Technologies: Under the India–UK 2030 Roadmap, the U.K. is providing critical technologies such as jet engine development and electric propulsion systems, enabling India to co-develop next-generation defence capabilities.
  • Promoting Self-Reliance: These collaborations align with India’s ‘Make in India, Make for the World’ initiative, enhancing indigenous production while integrating global standards and expertise.
  • Strategic Military Presence: The partnership includes the establishment of a Littoral Response Group in the Indian Ocean for joint exercises, leveraging bases in Oman, Nepal, Brunei, Diego Garcia, and Singapore, thereby strengthening India’s maritime security and strategic reach.

Strategic Context: Beyond Bilateralism

  • The current round of agreements fits within the broader framework of India–U.K. strategic alignment across defence, economy, climate, and education.
  • It also complements ongoing discussions on the India–U.K. Free Trade Agreement (FTA), which, once concluded, could further liberalize trade and strengthen the Indo-Pacific partnership.
  • Defence Dimension: These deals reinforce India’s diversification away from traditional suppliers, expanding its defence diplomacy with democratic partners.
    Economic Dimension:
  • The reciprocal flow of investments signifies a maturing economic interdependence between the two nations.
  • Education and Innovation: The institutional presence of U.K. universities in India represents a soft power bridge, enhancing human capital cooperation.

Conclusion

  • The £350-million missile deal and the accompanying economic and educational agreements signal a comprehensive deepening of India–U.K. relations.

CARE MCQ

Q2.   Consider the following statements regarding the recent India–U.K. engagements:

  1. India signed a deal with the U.K. to procure Lightweight Multirole Missiles for the Indian Army.
  2. The Indian government officially disclosed that U.K. companies committed equal investments in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
    B) Only 2
    C) Both 1 and 2
    D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 2- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: India signed a £350-million deal with the U.K. to procure Lightweight Multirole Missiles for the Indian Army, marking a significant step in defence cooperation and modernization.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian government has not shared official data on U.K. investments in India. While the U.K. government has reported Indian investments in the U.K., any claim of “equal investments” by U.K. companies in India is unverified and inaccurate.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Consider the following pairs: (2022)

 CountryImportant reason for being in the news recently
1.ChadSetting up of permanent military base by China
2.GuineaSuspension of Constitution and Government by military
3.LebanonSevere and prolonged economic depression
4.TunisiaSuspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. Only one pair
  2. Only two pairs
  3. Only three pairs
  4. All four pairs

Ans: (b)

The India–United Kingdom Economic Partnership

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations

Context: India UK

Why in News?

India and the U.K. are strengthening their economic, defence, cultural, and educational ties through pragmatic and low-drama diplomacy, following Prime Minister Keir Starmer’s 2025 visit.

Introduction

  • The evolving economic relationship between India and the United Kingdom (U.K.) stands as a model of pragmatic and mature diplomacy.
  • At a time when international negotiations are increasingly defined by populism, protectionism, and diplomatic friction, India and the U.K. have quietly strengthened their economic and strategic ties.
  • The recent visit of U.K. Prime Minister Keir Starmer to India in October 2025 marks another significant milestone in this steady, result-oriented partnership.

Background: A Relationship Built on Common Ground

  • India and the U.K. share a long historical and institutional relationship rooted in shared democratic values, common law traditions, the English language, and people-to-people ties.
  • In recent years, this partnership has been revitalized by mutual economic interests, particularly after the U.K.’s exit from the European Union (Brexit).
  • The U.K. is keen to expand trade partnerships beyond Europe, while India seeks to diversify its global economic linkages and attract technology, defence, and education investments.
  • The two countries signed a comprehensive trade deal in July 2025, which now forms the foundation of a deeper economic engagement.

Cabinet Approves India-UK Free Trade Pact, Signing in London on July 24

(Image Source: Deccan Chronicle)

Key Outcomes of Prime Minister Keir Starmer’s Visit

  • Sir Keir Starmer’s two-day visit to India in October 2025 brought together a high-level delegation of over 100 entrepreneurs, cultural representatives, and university vice-chancellors, signaling a whole-of-society approach to strengthening bilateral cooperation.

1. Defence Cooperation

  • £350 million missile supply deal was finalized, enhancing India’s defence modernization drive.
  • This aligns with India’s current fiscal priorities, where defence acquisitions are increasingly being prioritized over capital expenditure in other areas.
  • The partnership in defence not only bolsters India’s capabilities but also supports U.K.’s defence manufacturing exports post-Brexit.

2. Bilateral Investments

  • 64 Indian companies have committed to investing £1.3 billion in the U.K., showcasing India’s growing role as an investor in global markets.
  • Although the Indian government has not yet disclosed reciprocal U.K. investments in India, companies such as Rolls-Royce have expressed strong enthusiasm for deepening their presence in India.
  • The trend reflects the mutual confidence of both nations in each other’s economic stability and long-term prospects.

3. Cultural and Creative Collaboration

  • Sir Starmer’s visit to Yash Raj Films (YRF) studios in Mumbai led to an agreement for three Indian films to be shot in the U.K., expanding soft power ties and boosting the U.K.’s creative economy.
  • Such collaborations enhance tourism, cultural diplomacy, and people-to-people engagement.

4. Educational Partnerships

  • Two leading U.K. universities announced plans to establish campuses in India, in line with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which promotes internationalization of higher education.
  • This move signifies a major leap in academic collaboration and knowledge exchange between the two countries.

Trade and Economic Landscape

  • Despite the positive trajectory, there remains untapped potential in India–U.K. trade relations:
    • India accounts for less than 2% of the U.K.’s total merchandise exports.
    • The U.K. accounts for around 3% of India’s exports.
  • This indicates significant scope for growth. Expanding trade volumes could also help India cushion against the adverse effects of U.S. tariffs—currently at a punitive 50%—on certain exports.
  • A stronger India–U.K. corridor can thus serve as a stabilizing factor in India’s global trade diversification strategy.

Contrasting Diplomatic Styles

  • The India–U.K. partnership stands out for its measured and businesslike approach, especially when compared with India’s experiences with other global partners:
  • India–U.S. negotiations have often been fraught and erratic, marked by unpredictability and changing deal contours.
  • India–EU discussions, while less volatile, have been slow-moving with discrepancies between public assurances and private negotiation stances.
  • In contrast, India and the U.K. have demonstrated a mature, low-drama, and pragmatic diplomacy, where outcomes matter more than optics.

The Role of the Indian Diaspora

  • The Indian-origin community in the U.K., the country’s largest ethnic minority, plays a crucial role in strengthening bilateral ties.
  • Their contributions to politics, business, academia, and culture foster a positive environment for deeper engagement.
  • Prime Minister Starmer’s outreach to Indian cultural and business leaders reflects an acknowledgment of this community’s influence in bridging the two economies.

Significance of the Evolving Partnership

The current phase of India–U.K. relations exemplifies how two mature democracies can:

  • Pursue strategic and economic cooperation without ideological friction,
  • Focus on results over rhetoric, and
  • Leverage complementary strengths in technology, defence, education, and culture.
  • This pragmatic engagement model demonstrates a blueprint for modern international diplomacy—where cooperation is driven by shared economic interests and mutual respect rather than geopolitical posturing.

Challenges and the Way Forward

Despite positive momentum, several challenges persist:

  • Need for greater transparency in investment commitments.
  • Addressing non-tariff barriers and regulatory hurdles that impede trade.
  • Ensuring reciprocal market access for companies on both sides.
  • Aligning defence cooperation with India’s Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliance) vision.
  • Moving forward, completing the India–U.K. Free Trade Agreement (FTA) and ensuring balanced gains will be key milestones in transforming this relationship into a robust long-term economic partnership.

Conclusion

  • The India–U.K. economic relationship today represents a mature, confident, and forward-looking partnership that prioritizes stability and shared prosperity over confrontation and rhetoric.
  • By combining economic pragmatism, cultural cooperation, and educational exchange, both nations have shown how “quiet diplomacy” can achieve transformative results.

CARE MCQ

Q3.  Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): India–U.K. economic relations have deepened in 2025 through cooperation in trade, defence, education, and culture.

Reason (R): The visit of U.K. Prime Minister Keir Starmer, along with a delegation of entrepreneurs, cultural representatives, and university vice-chancellors, facilitated agreements in multiple sectors.

Options:
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.

Answer 3: A

Explanation

  • The assertion highlights the broad-based deepening of India–U.K. relations across trade, defence, education, and culture in 2025.
  • The reason correctly identifies the cause of this deepening: PM Keir Starmer’s visit, accompanied by a high-level delegation, resulted in agreements such as defence contracts, investment commitments, educational partnerships, and film/cultural collaborations.
  • Therefore, both statements are true, and the reason directly explains the assertion, making option A correct.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known as (2016)

(a) G20

(b) ASEAN

(c) SCO

(d) SAARC

Ans: (b)

US–China Trade Frictions and Technological Rivalry: Implications for Global Geopolitics

Source: Indian Express

UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations

Context: US–China Trade issues and global implications

Why in News?

Two Chinese government agencies announced multiple export control measures related to rare earths, which are key industrial minerals whose processing is largely dominated by China

Introduction

  • The 25th edition of China This Week highlights escalating tensions between the United States and China following fresh rounds of tariff impositions and export control measures.
  • The developments mark a renewed phase in the US-China trade rivalry, now centered around rare earths, semiconductors, and technological dominance.
  • Simultaneously, diplomatic frictions extend to Europe, where the United Kingdom faces a political controversy linked to alleged Chinese espionage.
  • Together, these developments underscore how China’s economic and strategic maneuvers continue to reshape global geopolitics.

US-China Clash Over Rare Earths and Tariffs

Background

  • Rare earth elements (REEs) are critical minerals used in manufacturing electric vehicles, smartphones, wind turbines, and defense systems. China currently controls nearly 60–70% of global rare earth production and over 80% of processing capacity, giving it immense leverage in global supply chains.

Recent Developments

  • On October 9, 2025, two Chinese government agencies announced export control measures targeting rare earth technologies and lithium battery-related materials.
  • These restrictions were framed as necessary to safeguard national security, but the timing and scope reflect a strategic response to US restrictions on Chinese access to advanced semiconductor technologies.
  • In retaliation, US President Donald Trump declared a 100% tariff on all Chinese goods effective November 1, 2025, and announced export controls on critical software — signaling a deepening of the technological decoupling between the world’s two largest economies.

Chinese Perspective

  • According to China’s state media (Xinhua), the United States has been “abusing the concept of national security” and “imposing unilateral discriminatory measures.”
  • Beijing justified the export curbs under the doctrine of “dual-use regulation”, stating that Chinese rare earth materials were being diverted to foreign military applications, threatening its national interests.

Implications

  • Economic Impact:
    • The rare earth restrictions could disrupt global industries, including electric vehicles, renewable energy, and defense manufacturing.
    • US and European firms heavily dependent on Chinese rare earth processing will face short-term supply shocks.
  • Strategic Leverage:
    • Rare earths have historically been China’s “strategic weapon” in trade negotiations, similar to how oil was used geopolitically in the 1970s.
    • By imposing export controls, China signals its readiness to use economic tools to counter Western technological restrictions.
  • Geopolitical Context:
    • The timing precedes the planned meeting between Trump and Xi Jinping at the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) summit in South Korea later this month.
    • The measures are being viewed as bargaining chips for China to gain diplomatic leverage during negotiations.

(Image Source: Outlook Business)

Additions to the “Unreliable Entity List” and Qualcomm’s Troubles

Background

  • China maintains an “Unreliable Entity List” (UEL) — a countermeasure to the US’s Entity List, which restricts Chinese firms like Huawei from accessing American technologies. The UEL targets foreign entities deemed to harm China’s sovereignty, security, or development interests.

Recent Actions

  • China’s Commerce Ministry recently added 14 foreign organizations to the UEL, many of which were US-based, accusing them of cooperating with Taiwan, making “malicious remarks about China,” and aiding foreign efforts to suppress Chinese companies.
  • In a parallel move, the State Administration for Market Regulation (SAMR) launched an anti-monopoly investigation into Qualcomm, the US semiconductor giant, over its acquisition of Israel’s Autotalks without proper disclosure.
  • This mirrors China’s earlier antitrust probe into Nvidia, signaling a broader strategy to regulate and possibly restrain American tech giants operating within its jurisdiction.

Analysis

  • Economic Nationalism and Reciprocity: China’s regulatory actions reflect a reciprocal response to Western sanctions and technology bans. It uses market access as leverage in ongoing trade wars.
  • Impact on Global Supply Chains:
    • Qualcomm derives nearly 50% of its global revenue from China, making the move economically significant.
    • As tensions escalate, Western companies may accelerate efforts to “de-risk” by shifting supply chains to Southeast Asia or India.
  • Strategic Significance:
    • China’s use of regulatory tools demonstrates the fusion of economic policy with national security.
    • It highlights Beijing’s willingness to use domestic laws to push back against perceived geopolitical containment.

The UK Spy Controversy: Diplomacy Meets Domestic Politics

Overview

  • The UK has recently witnessed political controversy over alleged Chinese espionage. Two men — Christopher Cash, a parliamentary researcher, and Christopher Berry, a teacher — were accused under the Official Secrets Act of gathering information prejudicial to Britain’s national interests between 2021 and 2023.
  • However, the charges were dropped last month, as the legal definition of “enemy” under the Act does not include China. The development reignited debate within British politics.

Political Fallout

  • Prime Minister Keir Starmer blamed the previous Conservative government for failing to manage relations with China effectively.
  • Conservative MPs, on the other hand, accused Starmer of going soft on Beijing to avoid diplomatic friction.
  • The case rekindled older concerns about Chinese interference in UK politics and universities, and MI5’s 2023 warning about a “sustained campaign of Chinese espionage on an epic scale.”

Broader Context

  • The controversy coincides with China’s proposal to build a 20,000 sq. metre embassy complex in London, which has faced opposition from local residents over security concerns.
  • For the UK government, the issue underscores the dilemma between economic engagement and national security vigilance — a challenge also faced by other Western democracies.

Broader Implications for Global Geopolitics

  • Reassertion of Economic Sovereignty: The recent developments show major powers reasserting control over strategic supply chains — from semiconductors to rare earths — reshaping global trade governance.
  • Technological Decoupling: Both the US and China are now institutionalizing “tech nationalism”, marking the end of decades-long interdependence in high-tech sectors.
  • Fragmented Globalization: The trade and regulatory clashes indicate a shift from globalization to regionalization, where alliances and security concerns increasingly define economic policies.
  • European Balancing Act: The UK’s espionage row and Europe’s trade dilemmas highlight the region’s struggle to balance economic interests with security imperatives in dealing with China.

Conclusion

  • Recent developments encapsulate the deepening structural contest between the United States and China — a contest not merely over trade but over technological supremacy, resource control, and geopolitical influence.

CARE MCQ

Q4.  Consider the following statements regarding China’s recent rare earth export controls:

  1. China dominates global rare earth processing and exports.
  2. Rare earths are critical for industries such as defense, semiconductors, and electric vehicles.
  3. The export controls are aimed at restricting domestic consumption of rare earths in China.
  4. The measures are seen as a strategic response to US technology and trade restrictions.

Options:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer 4- B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: China processes and exports the majority of the world’s rare earth minerals, giving it global strategic leverage.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Rare earths are vital for electric vehicles, renewable energy, defense technologies, and high-tech electronics.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The export controls are aimed at regulating foreign access and strategic use abroad, not limiting domestic consumption in China.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The measures are largely a response to US tariffs and semiconductor export restrictions, reflecting strategic economic and geopolitical considerations.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. “Belt and Road Initiative” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of: (2016)

  1. (a) African Union
  2. (b) Brazil
  3. (c) European Union
  4. (d) China

Ans: D

WTI Report Highlights Crucial Role of India’s Forest Protectors

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Environment and Ecology

Context: India’s Forest Protectors

Why in News?

A recent report by the Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) highlighted the critical role of India’s forest protectors, focusing on 540 rangers killed or injured in the line of duty.

Introduction

  • India’s ecological wealth, encompassing vast forests and diverse wildlife, owes much of its protection to the silent dedication of frontline forest staff.
  • A recent report by the Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) titled “Guardians of the Wild: Supporting India’s Frontline Forest Staff” sheds light on the immense contributions, challenges, and sacrifices made by these unsung heroes — the Van Rakshaks (forest rangers).
  • Released in Abu Dhabi during the IUCN-WCPA International Ranger Award Ceremony at the IUCN World Conservation Congress 2025, the report underscores the indispensable role of India’s forest protectors in safeguarding biodiversity under perilous conditions.

Background and Context

  • India is home to over 1,100 protected areas, covering more than 5% of its geographical area. These include national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, conservation reserves, and community reserves.
  • However, increasing human pressure, poaching, deforestation, and climate change have intensified threats to wildlife and forest ecosystems.
  • In this context, forest guards and rangers form the first line of defense against environmental degradation and wildlife crimes.
  • The WTI, in collaboration with the International Fund for Animal Welfare (IFAW), initiated the Van Rakshak Project (VRP) in 2000 to strengthen, equip, and empower these frontline personnel across India.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Key Highlights of the Report

Scope and Recognition

  • The report documents 540 cases of rangers killed or injured in the line of duty, accompanied by personal narratives from the field.
  • It serves as a tribute to the courage and sacrifice of India’s forest staff, many of whom operate under hazardous and isolated conditions.

Launch and Global Context

  • The report was released by Kirti Vardhan Singh, Union Minister of State for Environment, Forest, and Climate Change, alongside WTI Executive Director Vivek Menon, IFAW CEO Azzedine Downes, IUCN-WPCA Chair Madhu Rao, and Abu Dhabi Environment Agency Secretary General Shaikha Salem al Dhaheri.
  • The event highlighted India’s leadership in forest protection within the global conservation discourse.

Van Rakshak Project (VRP) Achievements

  • Since its inception in 2000, the VRP has supported over 21,000 personnel across India.
  • Initiatives include:
    • Training in wildlife crime prevention and human-wildlife conflict mitigation.
    • Workshops on basic wildlife rescue techniques.
    • Provision of essential field gear for patrolling and safety.
    • Supplementary Accident Assurance Scheme
    • Provides immediate financial relief to frontline forest workers or their families in case of injury or death during service.
  • Since 2001, aid has been extended to 367 forest staff or their families, with 74% cases involving fatalities.
  • During the COVID-19 pandemic, WTI’s Conservation Heroes COVID Casualty Fund supported 173 families who lost members to the crisis.

Challenges Faced by Frontline Forest Staff

  • Occupational Hazards: Rangers face threats from poachers, wild animals, and harsh weather, often with minimal safety gear.
  • Limited Resources: Many operate with outdated equipment and inadequate communication systems.
  • Low Recognition and Compensation: Despite their critical role, forest staff often remain underpaid and underappreciated.
  • Isolation and Mental Stress: Extended deployment in remote areas with little social or medical support impacts morale and mental health.
  • These challenges amplify the urgency for systemic reforms and better welfare measures.

Significance for India’s Environmental Governance

  • The report reinforces the idea that effective conservation is people-driven, especially from the ground level.
  • The Van Rakshaks embody the principle of “Conservation through Commitment” — ensuring that wildlife protection extends beyond policy frameworks into everyday field realities.
  • The WTI initiative aligns with India’s broader commitments under:
    • Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
    • IUCN’s Global Ranger Framework
    • UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) — particularly SDG 13 (Climate Action) and SDG 15 (Life on Land)
  • By empowering local protectors, India strengthens both its ecological and social resilience.

Analytical Perspective

The Guardians of the Wild report goes beyond mere documentation — it is a moral and policy appeal. It calls for:

  • Institutionalizing occupational safety standards for forest staff.
  • Creating a national-level welfare fund for rangers.
  • Integrating mental health and family welfare programmes.
  • Enhancing training, surveillance technology, and protective equipment.
  • Recognizing Van Rakshaks through national awards and service medals, similar to police or defense honors.
  • Such measures would not only reduce vulnerability but also professionalize India’s forest protection services, ensuring sustainable biodiversity management.

Conclusion

  • India’s forest rangers — the Van Rakshaks — are the invisible guardians of its ecological future. The WTI’s Guardians of the Wild report is both a tribute and a reminder: conservation success depends as much on those who patrol the forests as on those who make policies.

CARE MCQ

Q5.  Which of the following initiatives has been launched under the Van Rakshak Project (VRP)?

  1. Training workshops on wildlife crime prevention
  2. Supplementary Accident Assurance Scheme
  3. Financial aid to families of forest staff affected by COVID-19
  4. Deployment of armed forest battalions in all protected areas

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 1 and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer 5- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The VRP conducts training workshops for frontline forest staff, including wildlife crime prevention, human-wildlife conflict mitigation, and basic rescue techniques.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Supplementary Accident Assurance Scheme is a key initiative under VRP, providing immediate financial assistance to frontline staff or their families in case of injury or death while on duty.
  • Statement 3 is correct: During the COVID-19 pandemic, the WTI extended support to 173 families of forest staff who lost their lives through the Conservation Heroes COVID Casualty Fund, which is part of VRP’s welfare measures.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: VRP does not involve the deployment of armed forest battalions in all protected areas. Its focus is on training, capacity-building, field support, and welfare, not large-scale armed deployment.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.  At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (2021)

(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj

(c) Ministry of Rural Development

(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Ans: (d)

Kaziranga Director Becomes First Indian to Receive IUCN Award for Innovation in National Parks

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Environment and Ecology

Context: IUCN Award for Innovation in National Parks

Why in News?

Kaziranga Director becomes first Indian to receive IUCN award for innovation in national parks.

Introduction

  • In a landmark achievement for India’s conservation community, Dr. Sonali Ghosh, Director of Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve, has become the first Indian to be conferred the prestigious Kenton R. Miller Award for Innovation in National Parks and Protected Area Sustainability.
  • The award, presented by the World Commission on Protected Areas (WCPA) under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), recognizes individuals or teams demonstrating exceptional innovation in the management and sustainability of protected areas.
  • Dr. Ghosh received the award alongside Roque Simón Sevilla Larrea of Ecuador at a ceremony held in Abu Dhabi on October 10, 2025.

About the IUCN and WCPA

  • The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), established in 1948, is a global authority on the status of the natural world and the measures needed to safeguard it. It brings together governments, civil society organizations, and experts to advance sustainable development and biodiversity conservation.
  • Within the IUCN, the World Commission on Protected Areas (WCPA) is one of six technical commissions.
  • It focuses on protected area governance, management, and policy, supporting efforts to create, expand, and effectively manage national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, biosphere reserves, and marine protected areas across the globe.

About the Kenton R. Miller Award

The Kenton R. Miller Award, instituted in 2006 by IUCN-WCPA, is presented biennially to individuals or groups who have demonstrated outstanding innovation in managing protected areas. Named after Dr. Kenton R. Miller, a former Director General of IUCN and a pioneer in conservation planning, the award recognizes:

  • Innovations in planning, governance, management, and finance of protected areas
  • Integration of traditional and modern conservation methods
  • Capacity building, communication, and monitoring mechanisms
  • Tangible conservation outcomes achieved under challenging socio-ecological contexts
  • Past recipients have included:
  • Burung Indonesia, for integrating local knowledge in bird conservation;
  • Nizar Youssef Hani (Lebanon), for post-conflict ecosystem restoration and community empowerment in the Shouf Biosphere Reserve;
  • Maria Del Carmen Garcia Rivas (Mexico), for advancing collaborative governance in marine protected areas.

Kaziranga National Park

1. Location and Geography:

  • State: Assam, India
  • Districts Covered: Golaghat, Nagaon, and Karbi Anglong
  • Area: Approximately 430 sq. km (core area), with a buffer zone of 1,526 sq. km
  • Coordinates: 26°30’–26°45’ N latitude, 93°08’–93°36’ E longitude
  • Landscape: Alluvial floodplains of the Brahmaputra River, including grasslands, wetlands, and tropical moist forests

2. Establishment and History:

  • Declared as Reserve Forest: 1905
  • Declared as National Park: 1974
  • UNESCO World Heritage Site: 1985
  • Named “Kaziranga” after the Karbi word ‘Kazzi’, meaning ‘goat’ or ‘hog deer’.

3. Flora and Fauna:

a) Fauna:

  • One-Horned Rhinoceros: Kaziranga harbours about two-thirds of the world population, making it the flagship species.
  • Other Mammals:
    • Bengal tiger
    • Asian elephant
    • Swamp deer (Barasingha)
    • Wild water buffalo
    • Leopard, sloth bear, hog deer
  • Birds: Over 450 species including migratory birds such as storks, pelicans, and geese
  • Insects and Spiders: Rich diversity due to wetlands and grasslands

b) Flora:

  • Tropical moist deciduous forests, reed beds, and tall elephant grass
  • Floodplain grasslands vital for rhinos and swamp deer

4. Significance:

  • Biodiversity Hotspot: Part of the Indo-Burma biodiversity hotspot
  • Conservation Success:
    • Population of one-horned rhinoceros has increased from less than 200 in early 20th century to over 2,500 today
    • Model of community-based conservation
  • Research and Education: Supports ecological studies, wildlife management research, and environmental awareness programs

Significance of the Award for India

  • Dr. Sonali Ghosh’s recognition marks a milestone for India’s protected area governance model, highlighting the country’s transition from traditional fortress-style conservation to inclusive, community-based environmental stewardship.
  • The IUCN’s citation praised her for pioneering a model of conservation rooted in community engagementawareness-building, and the fusion of traditional ecological knowledge with scientific expertise—particularly across the biodiverse landscapes of Manas and Kaziranga in Assam.
  • This approach aligns with India’s broader conservation paradigm under initiatives such as:
    • Project Tiger and Project Elephant
    • Eco-sensitive zone management
    • Community-based ecotourism and livelihood generation
    • Landscape-level conservation planning

Kaziranga National Park: A Global Conservation Icon

  • Located in Assam, Kaziranga National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, renowned for housing two-thirds of the world’s one-horned rhinoceros population. Beyond the rhino, the park sustains a rich variety of biodiversity, including tigers, elephants, wild buffaloes, swamp deer, migratory birds, and rare insect and spider species.
  • As the first woman Director of Kaziranga, Dr. Ghosh has emphasized:
    • Human-wildlife coexistence through local participation
    • Technology-driven monitoring, including drone surveillance and digital mapping
    • Habitat restoration in flood-prone and erosion-affected zones
    • Community awareness and education to reduce poaching and promote ecotourism
  • Her leadership has strengthened the park’s reputation as a model of adaptive management, balancing conservation imperatives with livelihood security for surrounding communities.

Global Context and Comparative Significance

  • Dr. Ghosh’s recognition alongside Roque Simón Sevilla Larrea of Ecuador underscores the global relevance of sustainable conservation economics—where environmental protection aligns with community welfare and responsible business practices.
  • While Larrea’s contribution lies in integrating sustainability into private enterprise and policy, Dr. Ghosh’s innovation demonstrates how grassroots participation, scientific rigor, and gender-inclusive leadership can transform biodiversity hotspots into living laboratories of resilience and sustainability.

Which safari is best in Kaziranga National Park? | Kaziranga National Park News | Kaziranga National Park Blog

(Image Source: Kaziranga National Park)

Broader Implications

This achievement carries multiple implications for India and global conservation efforts:

  • Recognition of India’s Conservation Ethos: Reinforces India’s standing as a leader in community-based conservation and wildlife management.
  • Inspiration for Women in Conservation: As the first woman Director of Kaziranga and first Indian recipient of the award, Dr. Ghosh’s success inspires greater gender representation in environmental leadership.
  • Validation of Traditional Knowledge Systems: Demonstrates that indigenous wisdom, when integrated with modern science, can enhance ecological sustainability.
  • Strengthening India’s Global Voice: Enhances India’s soft power and credibility in international climate and biodiversity negotiations, including frameworks like the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (2022).

Conclusion

  • Dr. Sonali Ghosh’s recognition with the IUCN Kenton R. Miller Award is more than an individual accolade—it represents a paradigm shift in conservation thought and practice in India.
  • By intertwining science, community, and sustainability, her work exemplifies how protected area management can evolve beyond preservation to become a dynamic, participatory, and resilient system.

CARE MCQ

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the recent IUCN recognition of Kaziranga National Park:

  1. Dr. Sonali Ghosh, Director of Kaziranga National Park, became the first Indian to receive the Kenton R. Miller Award.
  2. The Kenton R. Miller Award is presented annually by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
  3. The award recognises innovations in national park management, governance, finance, monitoring, and community engagement.
  4. Kaziranga National Park is located in Arunachal Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer 6-A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: Dr. Sonali Ghosh, Director of Kaziranga National Park, became the first Indian to receive the Kenton R. Miller Award for innovation in national parks and protected area sustainability.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The Kenton R. Miller Award is presented biennially, not annually.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The award recognises innovations in national park management, governance, finance, monitoring, and community engagement, focusing on impactful solutions to challenges like poaching, climate change, invasive species, and limited finances.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Kaziranga National Park is located in Assam, not Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021)

(a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river.

(b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal river.

(c) Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada river.

(d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari river.

Ans: (a)

 
TGPSC CARE 14th October 2025 Current Affairs
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