TGPSC CARE 11th September 2025 Current Affairs

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TGPSC CARE 11th September 2025 Current Affairs

News at a Glance

Telangana continues impressive growth with NSDP

Source: The Hindu

TGPSC Relevance: Economy

Context: Net State Domestic Product (NSDP)

Why in News?

Telangana’s Net State Domestic Product reached ₹14.56 lakh crore in 2024-25, driven by growth in agriculture, trade, manufacturing, and construction

Introduction

The Telangana continued to demonstrate robust economic performance in the financial year 2024-25, with its Net State Domestic Product (NSDP) estimated at ₹14.56 lakh crore.
This remarkable achievement reflects strong policy implementation, strategic sectoral growth, and improved governance under the leadership of Chief Minister A. Revanth Reddy.
Despite global and domestic economic challenges, Telangana’s economy exhibited healthy expansion, surpassing the previous fiscal’s NSDP of ₹13.22 lakh crore by ₹1.34 lakh crore.

Key Contributors to Telangana’s Economic Growth

1. Agriculture and Allied Sectors

Contribution: ₹2.12 lakh crore
Role: Remains a key pillar of Telangana’s economy, supporting rural livelihoods, agri-business, and food security.
Importance: Focus on technology-driven farming, allied activities such as dairy, horticulture, and fisheries strengthened the sector’s output.

2. Trade, Repair, Hotels & Restaurants

Contribution: ₹2.59 lakh crore
Role: This sector reflects the expansion of commercial activities and services, boosted by consumer spending and urbanization.
Importance: Revival of economic activities post-COVID, improved business confidence, and infrastructure support contributed to growth.

3. Manufacturing

Contribution: ₹1.08 lakh crore
Role: Indicates the growing industrial base, particularly in pharmaceuticals, electronics, and textiles.
Importance: Telangana’s industrial policy, ease of doing business reforms, and investment in industrial corridors played a key role.

4. Construction

Contribution: ₹73,191 crore
Role: Driven by public infrastructure projects and private real estate development.
Importance: Large-scale projects like roads, urban infrastructure, and housing development accelerated economic activities.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Per Capita State Domestic Product (PCSDP) Growth

In 2024-25, Telangana’s per capita state domestic product (PCSDP) reached ₹3.79 lakh, reflecting significant improvement from ₹3.46 lakh in 2023-24.
Telangana ranked second nationally, only after Karnataka (₹3.8 lakh), and was almost double the national average of ₹2.05 lakh.
Historical Context:
- Base Year (2004–05): ₹24,409
- Year of Telangana’s Formation (2014–15): ₹1.24 lakh
- Significant Leap (2017–18 to 2018–19): From ₹1.79 lakh to ₹2.09 lakh
This rapid growth underscores sustained policy focus, industrialization, urban development, and strategic governance.

Significance of the Growth Amid Global Challenges

Despite a general global economic slowdown and geopolitical tensions, Telangana demonstrated resilience.
Leadership under CM Revanth Reddy provided a policy-driven environment focusing on investment promotion, sectoral reforms, and digital governance.
The growth trajectory stands out in contrast to other states where growth was slower, indicating effective state-level policy measures.

Policy Implications and Way Forward

Balanced Sectoral Development: The balanced contribution from agriculture, industry, and services sectors reflects diversified economic development, reducing dependency on any one sector.
Investment in Infrastructure: Projects in construction and industrial development not only created jobs but also laid the foundation for long-term growth.
Sustainable Growth Strategy: To maintain and accelerate the growth momentum, Telangana needs to further focus on:
- Innovation-driven agriculture and agro-processing units
- Industrial policy to attract domestic and foreign investments
- Urban infrastructure development
- Skill development to match industry needs
Inclusive Growth: While focusing on GDP growth, equal emphasis should be placed on reducing regional disparities, improving rural infrastructure, and ensuring sustainability.

CARE MCQ

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Telangana’s economic performance in the financial year 2024–25:

Telangana’s Net State Domestic Product (NSDP) was ₹14.56 lakh crore in 2024–25.
The primary sectors contributing to the growth were agriculture, trade, manufacturing, and construction.
Telangana ranked first in per capita State Domestic Product (PCSDP) in India in 2024–25.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 1- A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Telangana’s NSDP for 2024–25 was ₹14.56 lakh crore.
Statement 2 is correct: The main sectors contributing to the growth were agriculture and allied sectors, trade, repair, hotels & restaurants, manufacturing, and construction.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Telangana ranked second in per capita state domestic product (₹3.79 lakh), next only to Karnataka (₹3.8 lakh).
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Telangana’s IMR plummets by 52 per cent

Source: The Hindu

TGPSC Relevance: Public health

Context: Infant mortality in Telangana

Why in News?

Telangana achieved a remarkable 52% reduction in Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) over the last decade, reflecting significant improvements in maternal and child health infrastructure.

Introduction

The According to the latest SRS Statistical Report 2023 released by the Census Commissioner of India, Telangana has achieved a remarkable 52% reduction in Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) over the last decade, from 41.2 (per 1,000 live births) in 2011-13 (when it was part of undivided Andhra Pradesh) to 18 (per 1,000 live births) in 2021-23.

What is Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)?

IMR refers to the number of deaths of infants (below 1 year of age) per 1,000 live births in a specific time period.
It is a key indicator of maternal and child health infrastructure, healthcare accessibility, socio-economic development, and overall public health of a region.

(Image Source: Telangana Today)

Key Findings from the SRS Statistical Report 2023:

Telangana’s IMR Achievements:
IMR dropped from 41.2 (2011-13) to 18 (2021-23) → a 52% decline.
This is a faster pace of reduction than the national average.
Only Jammu and Kashmir registered a higher percentage decline (63%).
Urban and Rural Breakdown in Telangana (2021-23):

Region: Rural
Total IMR: 20
Male IMR: 21
Female IMR: 19

Region: Urban
Total IMR: 15
Male IMR: 15
Female IMR: 14

Region: Overall
Total IMR: 18
Male IMR: 19
Female IMR: 17

Comparison with National Average:

India’s IMR in 2011-13: 42.3 per 1,000 live births.
India’s IMR in 2021-23: 26.3 per 1,000 live births → 37.8% reduction.
Rural IMR Reduction: 36.3%.
Urban IMR Reduction: 36.0%.
Telangana’s IMR (18) is significantly lower than the national average (26.3).
State-Wise Comparison:
Jammu & Kashmir achieved the highest decline (63%).
Chhattisgarh had the lowest decline (19%).

Significance of Telangana’s IMR Decline:

Reflects a massive improvement in maternal and child healthcare infrastructure since the formation of Telangana in 2014.
Indicates the success of government health schemes such as:
Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) – Focused on institutional deliveries.
Mission Indradhanush – Immunisation coverage.
State-level efforts towards improved health facilities, nutrition, sanitation, and health awareness.
Demonstrates progress toward Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 3.2:
“End preventable deaths of newborns and children under 5 years of age by 2030.”
Highlights gender disparity reduction: The female IMR (17) is comparable to male IMR (19), indicating progress toward gender equality in health outcomes.

CARE MCQ

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) trends in Telangana:

Telangana’s IMR declined from 41.2 per 1,000 live births in 2011-13 to 18 in 2021-23, a 52% reduction.
The reduction in Telangana’s IMR is slower than the national average reduction in the same period.
Telangana’s rural IMR (20) is higher than its urban IMR (15) as of 2021-23.
Jammu & Kashmir recorded the highest percentage reduction in IMR in India in the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1, 3 and 4 only

B) 1 and 2 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 2- A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Telangana’s IMR dropped from 41.2 (2011-13) to 18 (2021-23), a 52% reduction.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Telangana’s decline (52%) was faster than the national average decline (37.8%).
Statement 3 is correct: Telangana’s rural IMR (20) is indeed higher than urban IMR (15) in 2021-23.
Statement 4 is correct: Jammu & Kashmir recorded the highest decline (63%) in IMR over the last decade.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Digital Platform ‘Adi Sanskriti’ to Preserve and Promote Tribal Culture

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance

Context: ‘Adi Sanskriti’ Platform

Why in News?

The Tribal Affairs Ministry launched the Adi Sanskriti digital platform to preserve, promote tribal culture, provide immersive learning, and create an online marketplace for tribal artisans. Introduction

Recently, the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs launched the beta version of the digital platform named ‘Adi Sanskriti’, aimed at preserving and promoting the rich culture and knowledge of India’s tribal communities.
This platform marks a significant step in the government’s efforts toward digitization, cultural preservation, and the socio-economic upliftment of tribal communities in India.

Objective of Adi Sanskriti Platform

The platform has been envisioned as the world’s first digital university dedicated to tribal artforms and heritage. It aims to:
Preserve and promote the diverse tribal culture and traditional knowledge.
Serve as a comprehensive repository of tribal art, folklore, and cultural practices.
Provide a digital space for tribal artisans to showcase and market their products directly to consumers.

Three Main Components of Adi Sanskriti

Adi Vishwavidyalaya (Digital Tribal Art Academy)
- Provides 45 immersive online courses.
- Courses cover tribal dance forms, traditional paintings, crafts, music, folklore, and other art forms.
- The goal is to provide systematic and structured knowledge about tribal culture, ensuring its transmission to future generations.
- Beneficiaries: Students, researchers, cultural enthusiasts, and tribal communities themselves.
Adi Sampada (Socio-Cultural Repository)
- Acts as a digital library of curated resources.
- Contains over 5,000 documents related to tribal practices, including themes on:
  - Traditional clothing and textiles.
  - Artifacts and tools.
  - Dance and music traditions.
  - Livelihood practices and socio-economic structures.
- The content is contributed by State Tribal Research Institutes (TRIs) from several states such as Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, and Uttar Pradesh.
Adi Haat (Digital Marketplace)
- Initially linked with TRIFED (Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India Ltd).
- Provides a platform for tribal artisans to sell their products online.
- Intention: Evolve into a dedicated marketplace, eliminating middlemen and connecting artisans directly with consumers.
- Focuses on promoting tribal handicrafts, textiles, and other traditional products.
- Expected Outcome: Improve livelihoods of tribal artisans and create a sustainable ecosystem for tribal entrepreneurship.

(Image Source: PIB)

Significance of the Digital Platform

Cultural Preservation: With traditional knowledge at risk of fading, this digital initiative ensures its archiving and easy accessibility.
Education & Research: It enables both formal and informal learning about tribal communities, supporting academic research and cultural studies.
Economic Empowerment: Through the Adi Haat, tribal artisans can now sell their products directly to consumers, which helps in increasing their income and reducing exploitation by intermediaries.
Digital Inclusion: Helps integrate tribal communities into the digital economy and promote their visibility nationally and internationally.

Complementary Initiative: Adi Vaani

Alongside Adi Sanskriti, the government also launched the Adi Vaani initiative, comprising a mobile app and website to assist in language translation of Adivasi languages.
Currently supports translation for:
- Gondi
- Bhili
- Santali
- Mundari
Objective: Enable better communication, documentation, and preservation of tribal languages.
Future plans include adding more tribal languages to support linguistic diversity.

Way Forward

The platform is currently in the beta phase, and further enhancements are expected.
Expansion of Adi Haat into a fully-fledged digital marketplace is crucial for realizing the livelihood potential.
Adding more courses, documents, and expanding language support will enhance the platform’s reach and impact.
Strengthening collaboration with more TRIs and cultural organizations is important to further enrich the repository.

CARE MCQ

Q1. Consider the following statements about the ‘Adi Sanskriti’ platform launched by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs:

It aims to serve as the world’s first digital university dedicated to tribal culture and knowledge.
It comprises three components: Adi Vishwavidyalaya, Adi Sampada, and Adi Haat.
The platform is linked with the Ministry of Textiles for promoting tribal textiles globally.
It is supported by the State Tribal Research Institutes (TRIs) for content curation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2, 3, and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer 1- B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Adi Sanskriti platform has been envisioned as the world’s first digital university dedicated to preserving and promoting the culture and knowledge of tribal communities.
Statement 2 is correct: The platform comprises three main components —
1. Adi Vishwavidyalaya (Digital Tribal Art Academy),
2. Adi Sampada (Socio-Cultural Repository), and
3. Adi Haat (Digital Marketplace).
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Adi Haat component is linked with TRIFED (Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India Ltd), not the Ministry of Textiles, and aims to directly connect tribal artisans with consumers.
Statement 4 is correct: The platform’s content has been curated with inputs from State Tribal Research Institutes (TRIs) from various states to create an authentic repository of tribal knowledge and heritage.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022)

1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.

2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.

3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Supreme Court Flags Governors Sitting on Bills

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance

Context: Governors delaying assent to State legislature Bills

Why in News?

The Supreme Court flagged the indefinite delay by Governors in giving assent to State legislature Bills, emphasizing the need for fixed timelines and judicial review to uphold democratic and constitutional governance.

Introduction

The Supreme Court of India, through its five-judge Presidential Reference Bench led by Chief Justice of India B.R. Gavai, addressed a crucial constitutional issue concerning Governors delaying assent to State legislature Bills.
The matter was referred by the President of India for legal clarification after States like Tamil Nadu and Kerala raised concerns over such gubernatorial delays.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Background of the Issue:

Article 200 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor of a State to:
Give assent to a Bill passed by the State Legislature.
Withhold assent.
Return the Bill for reconsideration.
Reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President of India.
However, some Governors have reportedly “sat” on Bills for years without decision. For example, the Tamil Nadu Governor sat over 10 Bills for four years (since 2020) without assent or rejection.

Centre’s Standpoint:

Solicitor General Tushar Mehta argued that:
The term “false alarm” referred to political accusations rather than actual constitutional violations.
Governors and State governments should act collaboratively to ensure smooth constitutional functioning.
The Governor is not a ceremonial figure but holds discretionary power to evaluate Bills before granting assent.
However, the Centre rejected the notion that endless delays by Governors were justified.

Key Questions Raised by Supreme Court:

Can a Governor withhold assent indefinitely?
Justice Surya Kant: The legality of withholding a Bill forever was questioned.
Does the Governor’s decision override the legislative will of the State?
Justice P.S. Narasimha suggested that a consultative process should exist where a Governor returns a Bill for reconsideration, ensuring both legislative and executive roles are respected.
What happens when a Governor acts unilaterally without reasons?
Senior advocates argued that a Governor cannot act as a constitutional court, unilaterally determining constitutionality and indefinitely withholding Bills.

Arguments by States & Petitioners:

Tamil Nadu DMK Government: Senior advocate P. Wilson highlighted that a Bill reflects the political will of elected representatives and cannot be stalled indefinitely by a Governor.
Meghalaya’s Advocate General: Amit Kumar emphasized that citizens cannot be held hostage, e.g., waiting years for a health care Bill’s enactment.
Judicial Review Demand: Senior advocate Gopal Sankaranarayanan and Telangana representative S. Niranjan Reddy demanded that the Governor’s action be subject to judicial review, particularly in cases of discriminatory or political bias.

Significance of the Supreme Court’s Reference:

The Supreme Court is not focused on political trends (like whether such delays increased after 2014) but on constitutional interpretation.
The April 2025 ruling in the Tamil Nadu Governor Case prescribed a three-month timeline for the Governor and President to decide on Bills.
The Court emphasized that Article 200 must not become superfluous due to arbitrary delays.

Constitutional Principle at Stake:

The Indian Constitution envisions a cooperative federal structure, where the Governor serves as the constitutional link between the Centre and State.
However, unlimited discretionary power to the Governor disrupts federal balance, undermining democratic principles and legislative autonomy of States.

Possible Outcomes and Implications:

The Supreme Court may mandate a fixed timeline for gubernatorial assent to prevent arbitrary delay.
It could establish a judicial review mechanism, allowing courts to examine whether a Governor’s withholding of assent is arbitrary, discriminatory, or politically motivated.
It would reinforce the principle that democratically elected State legislatures’ decisions should not be undermined by a lone constitutional authority.

Conclusion:

The Supreme Court’s reference is a landmark effort to address a constitutional grey area concerning the discretionary power of Governors under Article 200.
It seeks to establish clear guidelines that uphold the spirit of cooperative federalism while preventing misuse of gubernatorial discretion.

CARE MCQ

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the role of the Governor in giving assent to Bills passed by the State Legislature under Article 200 of the Indian Constitution:

The Governor can withhold assent indefinitely without any timeline specified in the Constitution.
The Supreme Court recently emphasized that indefinite delay by Governors undermines the federal democratic structure.
The Governor acts solely on the advice of the State Council of Ministers and has no discretionary power.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 2- B

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 200 of the Constitution does not specify any explicit timeline for the Governor to give assent to a Bill. However, the recent Supreme Court judgment clarified that indefinite withholding of assent is unconstitutional, and recommended a three-month timeline for the Governor’s decision. Therefore, the idea that the Governor can withhold assent indefinitely without any constitutional limitation is wrong.
Statement 2 is correct: The Supreme Court, through its Presidential Reference Bench, clearly emphasized that indefinite delays by Governors in giving assent to Bills passed by State Legislatures undermine the federal democratic structure of India. The Court emphasized the need for a consultative process and judicial review to prevent arbitrary and politically motivated delays.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Governor does have limited discretionary power under certain circumstances. The Governor is not bound to mechanically act on the advice of the State Council of Ministers. The Supreme Court recognized that the Governor can return Bills for reconsideration or reserve them for the President’s consideration, and exercise limited discretion as part of their constitutional duty.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? (2014)

Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
Appointing the Ministers
Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (b)

Geotagging of Buildings in Census 2027

Source: Indian Express

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Science and Technology

Context: Geotagging

Why in News?

In Census 2027, India will geotag all buildings using GPS during Houselisting Operations for the first time, ensuring accurate building identification and data collection for efficient planning and governance.

Introduction

India is preparing to conduct its next decennial Census in 2027 after a delay of six years.
The Census has always been a monumental exercise in capturing demographic, socio-economic, and housing data at the most granular levels, serving as a key input for policy planning, resource allocation, and governance.
The upcoming Census is unique in many ways, but one of the most significant firsts is the use of geotagging for all buildings across India during the Houselisting Operations (HLO), scheduled for April to September 2026.

(Image Source: Indian Express)

What is Geotagging?

Geotagging refers to the process of assigning latitude and longitude coordinates to physical objects or locations on Earth—in this case, buildings. These coordinates are mapped on a Geographic Information System (GIS), a computer-based system designed to capture, store, analyze, and present spatial or geographic data.
- Latitude: Horizontal lines measuring north-south position from the equator.
- Longitude: Vertical lines measuring east-west position from the Prime Meridian.
Together, they form a precise grid allowing any building to have a unique geographical identity.

How Will Geotagging Be Carried Out?

During the Houselisting Operations (HLO), which form the first phase of Census operations, enumerators will:
Visit each Houselisting Block (HLB), which is a well-defined demarcated area within a village or town ward.
Use a mobile application on their smartphones, which will have an in-built Digital Layout Mapping (DLM) feature.
Switch on the GPS location service on the smartphone.
Accurately capture and tag the location of each Census House with its latitude-longitude coordinates.
Record detailed attributes of the building:
Number of Census Houses
Number of Households residing
Building classification:
- Residential
- Non-Residential
- Partly Residential
- Landmark
During the second phase (Population Enumeration), individual demographic, socio-economic, and cultural details will be collected.

Why Is Geotagging Being Introduced Now?

In previous Censuses, hand-drawn maps and notional sketches were used for tracking and listing houses, leading to possible inaccuracies and duplication. The decision to introduce geotagging addresses several limitations:
Precision and Accuracy: Each building now receives a unique geospatial identity, reducing errors in mapping and enumeration.
Digital Integration: It aligns with the broader aim of making Census 2027 a fully digital exercise, enhancing efficiency and real-time monitoring.
Standardization: Provides a uniform method to capture building data across all states and union territories.
Moreover, geotagging is already practiced on a smaller scale in government schemes like the Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana (PMAY), where houses built under rural and urban development schemes are geotagged for better tracking.

How Will Geotagging Help India?

Improved Workload Management Geotagging will provide an accurate count of buildings and households in each block. This helps in better task assignment and monitoring of field enumerators, preventing overlaps and missed areas.
Real-Time Monitoring and Accountability As data is collected digitally and geo-tagged in real-time, supervisors can track progress on a live dashboard, enabling immediate intervention if discrepancies arise.
Better Planning for Development Schemes The detailed and precise spatial data on buildings will be valuable for urban and rural planning, especially for housing, sanitation, and infrastructure development.
Enhanced Disaster Management and Governance Geotagged building data linked to population information can be crucial during natural calamities, allowing precise impact assessment and targeted relief distribution.
Long-Term Data Reusability The geotagged data will serve as a reliable reference for future socio-economic surveys and policymaking, avoiding duplication of effort.

Challenges and Concerns

Digital Divide: Reliance on smartphones and GPS may face challenges in remote areas with poor connectivity.
Training: Enumerators must be adequately trained to use the digital application and GPS functionality.
Data Privacy: Adequate safeguards must be ensured to protect sensitive location-based data.

Conclusion

The geotagging of buildings during the Census 2027 marks a paradigm shift in India’s data collection process, moving from traditional hand-drawn maps to a precision-driven, technology-enabled system.
It promises to enhance the accuracy, efficiency, and utility of Census data, making it a strong tool for evidence-based policymaking. However, its successful implementation will require meticulous planning, robust technology infrastructure, and efficient field-level execution.

CARE MCQ

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the geotagging of buildings in Census 2027:

Geotagging will assign latitude-longitude coordinates to buildings using Geographic Information System (GIS) technology.
Geotagging will be carried out during the Population Enumeration phase of the Census.
It will help in real-time monitoring of fieldwork and improve disaster management planning.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 3- B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Geotagging refers to marking the latitude-longitude coordinates of each building using GIS technology during the Census, giving every building a unique spatial identity.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Geotagging will be carried out during the Houselisting Operations (HLO) phase of the Census, not during the Population Enumeration phase.
Statement 3 is correct: Geotagging will enable real-time monitoring of the progress of field functionaries and will also help in disaster management by providing accurate data on building locations linked to demographic data.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. In the context of space technology, what is “Bhuvan”, recently in the news? (2010)

(a) A mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting the distance education in India
(b) The name given to the next Moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayaan-II
(c) A geoportal of ISRO with 3D imaging capabilities of India
(d) A space telescope developed by India

Ans: C

India-Sri Lanka Fisheries Dispute and Katchatheevu Issue

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations

Context: India Sri Lanka Relations

Why in News?

The India-Sri Lanka fisheries dispute arises from illegal Indian bottom trawling in Sri Lankan waters and long-standing misunderstandings over Katchatheevu island.

Introduction

India’s foreign policy has historically been guided by the principles of Panchsheel, the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM), and the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC).
More recently, the Neighbourhood First Policy has underscored India’s focus on strengthening ties with its immediate neighbors, especially Sri Lanka.
However, longstanding unresolved issues — notably the fisheries crisis in the Palk Strait and the sovereignty dispute over Katchatheevu island — continue to strain bilateral relations.
During Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to Colombo in April 2025, both India and Sri Lanka revisited these sensitive matters. Mr. Modi emphasized a humane approach to the fisheries issue, seeking a balance between livelihoods and environmental conservation.

Historical and Legal Context

The Palk Strait: A Shared Heritage

Fishermen from Tamil Nadu (India) and Northern Sri Lanka have fished the Palk Strait for centuries. This narrow waterway links the two nations and is rich in marine resources. However, the situation has deteriorated due to Indian mechanized bottom trawlers fishing in Sri Lankan waters, which causes environmental damage and triggers diplomatic tensions.

Katchatheevu Island

Katchatheevu is a tiny uninhabited islet located in the Palk Strait. The 1974 India-Sri Lanka Maritime Boundary Treaty placed it under Sri Lankan jurisdiction, legally binding under international law (principle of pacta sunt servanda). Contrary to popular narratives, historical records show that Sri Lanka administered the islet since colonial times.
Thus, sovereignty over Katchatheevu is a legally settled matter, not subject to renegotiation.

The Fisheries Dispute: Livelihood vs. Conservation

Ecological Damage and Social Conflict
- Sri Lanka banned bottom trawling in 2017 due to its destructive impact on marine ecosystems. Despite this, hundreds of Indian trawlers continue operating in Sri Lankan waters. This has led to:
  - Coral bed destruction
  - Shrimp habitat loss
  - Decline in fish stocks
- Moreover, artisanal fishers from Tamil Nadu, who rely on traditional, sustainable fishing methods, are particularly affected. Their near-shore resources have depleted, forcing them to venture into contested waters, exacerbating tensions.
Distinct Conflict within Tamil Communities
- The core conflict is not merely territorial but also intra-community:
  - Business-oriented trawler operators seek profit at the expense of sustainability.
  - Small-scale artisanal fishers depend on fishing for subsistence and deserve protection.
- A sustainable resolution requires distinguishing between these two groups and promoting fair access to resources.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Pathways for Resolution

Dialogue and Cooperative Measures

Fishermen’s Dialogue: Indian and Sri Lankan fisher organizations should engage in direct dialogue to determine equitable access, regulated quotas, and specific fishing seasons.
Community Sensitisation: Prominent voices from Tamil Nadu and Sri Lanka should highlight the shared hardships of fishermen, emphasizing their victimhood rather than villainy. Historical compassion towards Tamil refugees during Sri Lanka’s civil war serves as a foundation of goodwill.

Legal and International Precedents

The Minquiers and Ecrehos Case (1953) and the Rann of Kutch Arbitration (1968) reinforce that administrative control and historic practice play a major role in determining sovereignty.
UNCLOS Article 123 mandates cooperation in semi-enclosed seas like Palk Bay and Gulf of Mannar, making joint management obligatory, not optional.

International Models

The Baltic Sea Fisheries Convention shows how equitable quota sharing and joint resource management work successfully. India and Sri Lanka could adopt a similar framework, including:
Joint research stations (e.g., in Katchatheevu)
Defined quotas on fishing days and catch
Promotion of deep-sea fishing in India’s Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) to reduce near-shore pressure

Towards a Harmonious Neighbourhood Policy

India and Sri Lanka share not only geographical proximity but also deep cultural, religious, and civilizational ties. The Neighbourhood First Policy stresses solving such disputes via legal, non-populist, and cooperative mechanisms.
Key approaches include:
- Retaining mutual trust and upholding treaty obligations
- Encouraging State-level engagement between Tamil Nadu and Sri Lanka’s Northern Provincial Council
Promoting people-to-people interactions to counteract media distortions
The Katchatheevu issue should not distract from the real problem — the need for cooperative and sustainable fisheries management.

Conclusion

The fisheries dispute and Katchatheevu controversy between India and Sri Lanka are emblematic of broader challenges in regional diplomacy.

CARE MCQ

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Sri Lanka fisheries dispute and Katchatheevu issue:

The 1974 India-Sri Lanka Maritime Boundary Treaty placed Katchatheevu island under Indian jurisdiction.
Bottom trawling is banned by Sri Lanka since 2017 due to its ecological impact.
The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) promotes cooperation in semi-enclosed seas such as the Palk Bay and Gulf of Mannar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 4- B

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The 1974 India-Sri Lanka Maritime Boundary Treaty placed Katchatheevu island under Sri Lankan jurisdiction, not Indian. This treaty is legally binding under international law.
Statement 2 is correct: Sri Lanka banned bottom trawling in 2017 to protect coral beds, shrimp habitats, and fish stocks from destructive practices.
Statement 3 is correct: The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS, Article 123) promotes cooperation in semi-enclosed seas like Palk Bay and Gulf of Mannar, encouraging joint resource management and sustainable practices.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Consider the following statements: (2020)

The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade.
“Textile and textile articles” constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh.
In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Tri-Service All-Women Team to Circumnavigate Globe on IASV Triveni

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Defence

Context: Indian Armed Forces’ all-women sailing team

Why in News?

An all-women tri-service team of the Indian Armed Forces will circumnavigate the globe aboard the indigenously-built IASV Triveni, promoting Nari Shakti, Atmanirbhar Bharat, and India’s maritime diplomacy.

Introduction

In a historic first, the Indian Armed Forces are launching an all-women sailing expedition to circumnavigate the globe aboard the Indian Army Sailing Vessel (IASV) Triveni.
Set to commence on September 11, 2025, this expedition highlights the growing role of Nari Shakti (women power) in uniform and showcases the synergy among India’s tri-services – Army, Navy, and Air Force.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Significance of the Expedition

Strategic & Symbolic Importance: The expedition is not just a maritime journey but a demonstration of India’s capabilities in integrating women officers into challenging missions, promoting Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India), and strengthening diplomatic ties globally.
Global Diplomatic Outreach: Visits to foreign ports (Australia, New Zealand, Argentina, South Africa) offer opportunities to engage with the Indian diaspora and enhance India’s soft power diplomacy.

About the Team and Training

Composition:
- 10 Women officers in total:
- 5 from the Army
- 1 from the Navy
- 4 from the Air Force
Expedition Leader: Lieutenant Colonel Anuja Varudkar (21 years of service experience) emphasized the synergy between tri-services, integrating their specialized skill sets to accomplish this milestone mission.
Technical Officer: Squadron Leader Shraddha Raju, with 11 years of experience working on Sukhoi-30 aircraft, representing the Air Force, highlighted the pride of being a forerunner in this expedition.
Training Program:
- Duration: 2.5 years of intense preparatory training.
- Key areas covered:
- Navigation
- Communication
- Scuba Diving
- Basic Medical Aid and First Aid
- Crisis Management
- Fatigue Management
- Weather Readings
- Mechanical Work
Preliminary Expedition: A training voyage covering 10,000 nautical miles in Seychelles helped the team gain practical sailing and crisis-handling experience.

Details of the Expedition

Distance & Duration:
- Total Distance: 21,600 nautical miles
- Estimated Time: 8 to 9 months
- Return to Mumbai scheduled by May 2026
Route Highlights:
- Crossing the equator twice
- Rounding the Three Great Capes:
- Cape Leeuwin (Australia)
- Cape Horn (South America)
- Cape of Good Hope (South Africa)
Most Challenging Segment:
Drake Passage: Known for extremely rough seas and strong currents, it presents the biggest challenge to the team.

IASV Triveni – The Vessel

Design and Manufacturing: Indigenous construction by Indian Naval Dockyard in Puducherry, supporting the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
- Size: 50-foot yacht
Capabilities:
- Modern navigation systems
- Advanced communication equipment
Prior Performance: Already logged 10,000 nautical miles in training voyages, proving its robustness and readiness for global circumnavigation.

Diplomatic and Strategic Impact

Engagement with Indian Diaspora: Navy Constructor Lt. Commander Priyanka Gusain emphasized that the expedition will meet Indian diaspora in foreign countries, thus promoting cultural diplomacy and strengthening bilateral ties.
Women Empowerment in Defense Forces: The expedition stands as a shining example of empowering women officers and integrating them into demanding operational roles traditionally dominated by men.
International Image: By undertaking such a challenging, high-visibility expedition, India demonstrates its growing maritime capabilities, technological self-reliance, and commitment to global engagement.

Conclusion

The IASV Triveni circumnavigation expedition symbolizes a convergence of technical excellence, strategic foresight, and gender empowerment within India’s Armed Forces. It will not only set a precedent for future tri-service collaborative missions but will also strengthen India’s international standing in naval diplomacy.

CARE MCQ

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the IASV Triveni circumnavigation expedition:

It is the first-ever joint tri-service all-women sailing expedition by the Indian Armed Forces.
The vessel was built indigenously in Goa as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
The expedition will cross the equator twice and round Cape Horn, Cape Leeuwin, and Cape of Good Hope.
The total distance to be covered is approximately 21,600 nautical miles, with a planned duration of 8 to 9 months.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 3, and 4 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer 5- A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: It is indeed the first-ever joint tri-service all-women sailing expedition by the Indian Armed Forces, aiming to showcase Nari Shakti and tri-service synergy.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The IASV Triveni was built indigenously in Puducherry, not Goa, as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
Statement 3 is correct: The expedition will cross the equator twice and round the three Great Capes — Cape Leeuwin (Australia), Cape Horn (South America), and Cape of Good Hope (South Africa).
Statement 4 is correct: The total distance to be covered is approximately 21,600 nautical miles, with a planned duration of 8 to 9 months, including foreign port visits and return to Mumbai by May 2026.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (2016)

Amphibious warfare ship
Nuclear-powered submarine
Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

Ans: (c)

India Licenses First Indigenous Multi-Stage Malaria Vaccine for Commercialisation

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS2 Public Health

Context: Multi-stage malaria vaccine

Why in News?

India has licensed pharmaceutical companies for the manufacturing and commercialisation of its first indigenous multi-stage malaria vaccine developed by ICMR to tackle malaria transmission effectively.

Introduction

India has recently taken a major step in the fight against malaria by licensing Indian Immunologicals Limited, Techinvention Lifecare Private Limited, Panacea Biotec Limited, Biological E Limited, and Zydus Lifesciences Limited for the manufacturing and commercialisation of the country’s first indigenous multi-stage malaria vaccine.
This vaccine has been developed by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) in collaboration with its partner institutions, marking a significant achievement in India’s public health and biotechnological advancement.

About the Vaccine

The vaccine, named AdFalciVax, is a recombinant chimeric multi-stage malaria vaccine targeting Plasmodium falciparum, the deadliest malaria parasite species affecting humans.
Its unique mechanism involves targeting the parasite before it enters the bloodstream, thereby not only preventing individual infection but also reducing the potential for community transmission.
Key Features:
- Affordable & Scalable: Designed to be cost-effective for large-scale public health deployment.
- Stable at Room Temperature: Retains effectiveness for over 9 months at room temperature, eliminating cold chain dependency.
- Multi-Stage Approach: Acts at multiple points in the parasite lifecycle for enhanced efficacy.
This makes it a significant breakthrough, especially for regions with limited infrastructure.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Development Process

The vaccine development was led by ICMR-Regional Medical Research Centre, Bhubaneswar (ICMR-RMRCBB), which holds the technical expertise in producing the vaccine using Lactococcus lactis as a platform organism. The pre-clinical validation involved collaboration with:
- ICMR-National Institute of Malaria Research (ICMR-NIMR)
- National Institute of Immunology (NII), New Delhi
These institutes worked jointly to validate the vaccine’s safety, immunogenicity, and potential for commercial production. The research followed a strict scientific protocol, ensuring that the technology meets both regulatory and public health requirements.

Technology Transfer & Commercialisation

To accelerate the vaccine’s availability for public use, ICMR issued an Expression of Interest (EoI) inviting eligible organizations, pharmaceutical companies, and manufacturers to participate in the Transfer of Technology (ToT) process.
The goal is to facilitate large-scale commercial production of the vaccine, thereby enabling mass immunization and reducing the malaria burden at a national and regional level.
The involvement of multiple pharmaceutical companies ensures competition, potential price regulation, and widespread availability.

Malaria Burden in India

Malaria remains a major public health challenge in India, with the following concerning statistics:

India accounts for 1.4% of global malaria cases.
It accounts for 0.9% of global malaria deaths, which is 52% of all malaria deaths outside sub-Saharan Africa.
Within the Southeast Asia region, India accounts for 66% of malaria cases.

High-Risk Areas:

Around 95% of India’s population lives in malaria-endemic zones.
80% of malaria cases are concentrated in tribal, hilly, and remote regions, which are often difficult to access due to poor infrastructure.
The vaccine is thus expected to play a critical role in addressing malaria in these vulnerable areas.

Significance of Indigenous Vaccine Development

Self-Reliance in Health Security: Reduces dependence on imported malaria vaccines and improves India’s standing in biotechnological research.
Cost Efficiency: Indigenous production allows for affordable pricing, especially vital for government immunization programs.
Public Health Impact: A stable, scalable, and long-lasting vaccine helps address transmission challenges in hard-to-reach areas without reliance on cold chains.

Way Forward

The next steps involve:
Clinical Trials: Regulatory approvals and human clinical trials to establish safety and efficacy.
Large-Scale Production: Once successful, large-scale production and distribution through government immunization programs.
Public Awareness Campaigns: Educating the public and health workers on the vaccine’s benefits and administration protocols.
Monitoring & Evaluation: Post-marketing surveillance to monitor vaccine effectiveness and adverse effects, if any.

Conclusion

The licensing of the first indigenous multi-stage malaria vaccine by India marks a historic milestone in the battle against one of the most persistent public health challenges.
Through a collaborative approach involving research institutes, the pharmaceutical industry, and government agencies, India is poised to achieve significant progress toward malaria elimination.

CARE MCQ

Q6. The indigenous multi-stage malaria vaccine recently developed by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) primarily targets which of the following stages of the Plasmodium falciparum lifecycle?

A) Liver-stage parasites only
B) Blood-stage parasites only
C) Mosquito-stage parasites only
D) Parasite before entering the bloodstream (pre-blood stage)

Answer 6- D

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The indigenous multi-stage malaria vaccine (AdFalciVax) is designed to act before the parasite enters the bloodstream, thus preventing infection at an early stage.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The vaccine does not target only the liver stage or only the blood stage; instead, it targets the parasite in the pre-blood stage, which is crucial to prevent its entry into the human bloodstream and block transmission.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The vaccine is not specifically targeting the mosquito-stage of the parasite lifecycle; rather, its focus is on the parasite within the human host before it causes infection.
Statement 4 is correct: The main public health objective of this vaccine is to minimise human infection and community transmission of Plasmodium falciparum, which accounts for the deadliest form of malaria in India.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine? (2010)

(a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium
(b) Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection
(c) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria
(d) Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host

Ans: (b)