UPSC CARE 1st July 2025 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – Care (01-07-2025)

News at a Glance

International Relations: QUAD Nations Launch First-Ever ‘At Sea Observer Mission’

Polity and Governance: Reasons of ECI de-listing political parties

Nationwide expansion of Atal Bhujal Yojana to tackle groundwater crisis

Environment and Ecology: New addition of species to India’s fauna and flora during 2024

Defence: India to fast-track 52 military satellites for better surveillance at borders

Public Health: Risk of unsafe contaminated cancer drugs

QUAD Nations Launch First-Ever ‘At Sea Observer Mission’
Source: PIB

https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2140932

UPSC Relevance: GS-2 International Relations

Context: QUAD -Wilmington Declaration

Why in News

The ‘QUAD at Sea Ship Observer Mission’, launched under the Wilmington Declaration, is the first operational cross-embarkation initiative by the Coast Guards of India, US, Japan, and Australia.

Introduction

• In a significant move to deepen maritime security collaboration and interoperability, the Coast Guards of India, Japan, the United States, and Australia—the member nations of the QUAD grouping—have launched the first-ever ‘QUAD at Sea Ship Observer Mission’ under the Wilmington Declaration.
• This cross-embarkation initiative marks a landmark in operational cooperation among QUAD countries, reinforcing their shared commitment to a Free, Open, Inclusive, and Rules-Based Indo-Pacific.

Background: QUAD and the Wilmington Declaration

• QUAD (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue): A strategic forum comprising India, the US, Japan, and Australia, focused on ensuring peace, stability, and democratic values in the Indo-Pacific region.
• Wilmington Declaration (2023): A landmark document signed by QUAD Coast Guard chiefs during a meeting in Wilmington, USA. It emphasized enhancing operational-level cooperation among the respective maritime security agencies.

About the Mission

• ‘QUAD at Sea Ship Observer Mission’ involves two officers, including women officers, from each QUAD country boarding the US Coast Guard Cutter (USCGC) Stratton, which is currently on its way to Guam.
• The cross-embarkation model aims to:
  • Promote interoperability between the Coast Guards.
  • Enhance situational awareness and operational coordination.
  • Foster domain awareness in critical sea lanes.

Significance of the Mission

1. Strengthening Maritime Security in the Indo-Pacific

• The Indo-Pacific is a vital geostrategic region but is also prone to:
  • Maritime piracy
  • Illegal fishing
  • Smuggling
  • Transnational crime
• The joint mission strengthens surveillance, patrolling capabilities, and maritime law enforcement.

2. Operationalizing QUAD Vision

• The mission actualizes the vision laid out during the QUAD Leaders’ Summit (September 2024), where maritime cooperation was identified as a key pillar.
• Reflects a shift from dialogue-based engagement to operational-level collaboration.

3. Gender Inclusion

• Deployment of women officers underlines the QUAD’s commitment to gender inclusivity and leadership in maritime security roles.

India’s Role and Strategic Alignment

1. SAGAR Vision

• India’s participation is aligned with its SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) doctrine, which emphasizes:
  • Collective maritime security
  • Regional collaboration
  • Blue economy promotion

2. Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI)

• The mission supports India’s IPOI pillars, particularly:
  • Maritime Security
  • Capacity Building
  • Maritime Ecology and Resource Sharing

3. Capacity Building & Humanitarian Outreach

• Cross-training and experience-sharing enhance search and rescue (SAR), disaster response, and humanitarian assistance capabilities.

Future Implications

1. Institutionalization of QUAD Maritime Cooperation

• Lays the groundwork for a ‘QUAD Coast Guard Handshake’—an institutional framework for:
  • Joint exercises
  • Standard operating procedures (SOPs)
  • Crisis response coordination

2. Countering China’s Maritime Assertiveness

• Without naming any country, the mission indirectly enhances collective deterrence against unilateral or aggressive actions in the Indo-Pacific.

3. Model for Regional Maritime Partnerships

• Sets a precedent for inclusive multilateral maritime engagements, possibly inviting partnerships with ASEAN, France, or the UK in the future.

Conclusion

• The ‘QUAD at Sea Ship Observer Mission’ represents a paradigm shift in QUAD collaboration, transforming it from a primarily diplomatic forum into an operational maritime partnership.
• It reinforces India’s strategic priorities, enhances regional security architecture, and lays the foundation for a resilient, rules-based maritime order in the Indo-Pacific.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q1. With reference to the ‘QUAD at Sea Ship Observer Mission’, consider the following statements: It is the first-ever cross-embarkation initiative involving the navies of QUAD countries. The mission was launched under the Wilmington Declaration. It aims to enhance interoperability and domain awareness among QUAD Coast Guards. India’s participation aligns with its SAGAR and Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) vision. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.   With reference to the ‘Trans-Pacific Partnership’, consider the following statements: (2016)  It is an agreement among all the Pacific Rim countries except China and Russia. It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime security only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: D

Answer 1- B Explanation Statement 1 is Incorrect – The ‘QUAD at Sea Ship Observer Mission’ involves the Coast Guards of the four QUAD countries (India, USA, Japan, and Australia), not their naval forces. The officers are embarked on the US Coast Guard Cutter (USCGC) Stratton, highlighting cooperation at the maritime law enforcement level rather than military/naval operations. Statement 2 is Correct – The mission was launched under the Wilmington Declaration, which was signed by the Coast Guard chiefs of the four QUAD countries. It laid the foundation for greater operational-level coordination in maritime security among the QUAD nations. Statement 3 is Correct – A key objective of the mission is to enhance interoperability, domain awareness, and joint operational coordination among the participating Coast Guards. This is crucial for addressing maritime challenges in the Indo-Pacific, such as piracy, trafficking, and illegal fishing. Statement 4 is Correct – India’s participation aligns with its strategic maritime doctrine of SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) and its leadership in the Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI). Both frameworks emphasize regional cooperation, maritime security, and capacity building. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Reasons of ECI de-listing political parties

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/why-is-the-eci-de-listing-political-parties-explained/article69752812.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance

Context: Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs)

Why in News

The Election Commission of India has initiated the de-listing of 345 Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) that have neither contested elections in the last six years nor have a verifiable physical address.

Introduction

• In a major clean-up operation, the Election Commission of India (ECI) has initiated the process to de-list 345 Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) that have neither contested elections in the past six years nor have a verifiable office address.
• This step follows growing concerns over the misuse of tax exemptions and electoral benefits by inactive or non-existent political parties, often referred to as ‘letter pad parties.

What are Registered Political Parties?

Constitutional and Legal Basis

• The right to form associations, including political parties, is a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(c) of the Indian Constitution.
• Political parties are essentially voluntary associations formed to participate in electoral processes and represent political interests.

Registration under the Representation of the People Act, 1951

• Section 29A of the RP Act, 1951 governs the registration of political parties.
• A party seeking registration must submit:
  • A copy of its memorandum or constitution within 30 days of formation.
  • A declaration of allegiance to the Constitution of India, including commitment to socialism, secularism, democracy, and national unity and integrity.
  • Provisions for internal democracy including periodic elections for party posts.

Upon verification of these conditions, the ECI registers such parties as Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs).

Benefits Enjoyed by RUPPs

Once registered, RUPPs receive several benefits:

1. Tax Exemptions:
   • Donations received are exempted from income tax under Section 13A of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
2. Election Symbol:
   • They are eligible for a common symbol if they contest general elections to the Lok Sabha or State Assemblies.
3. Campaign Privileges:
   • Can nominate 20 star campaigners whose expenses are excluded from candidates’ individual expenditure limits.

Mandatory Compliance by RUPPs

To retain their privileges, RUPPs are required to:

• Maintain a record of individual donors contributing more than ₹20,000 per financial year.
• Submit these details annually to the ECI under Section 29C of the RP Act.
• Accept donations above ₹2,000 only via cheque or bank transfer, as per the Income Tax Act, 1961.

Failure to comply results in:

• Loss of income tax exemption
• Restrictions on using a common election symbol

Issues with the Existing Framework

Proliferation of ‘Letter Pad’ Parties

• As of May 2025, there are over 2,800 RUPPs, but only ~750 contested the 2024 General Elections.
• The remaining are often termed ‘letter pad parties’, existing only on paper but enjoying tax exemptions and other electoral benefits.

No Explicit Power to De-register

• The ECI lacks statutory authority under the RP Act to de-register parties that:
  • Don’t contest elections,
  • Fail to hold internal elections,
  • Do not submit annual returns.
• In Indian National Congress v. Institute of Social Welfare (2002), the Supreme Court ruled that the ECI can only de-register political parties under exceptional circumstances, such as:
  • Registration obtained by fraud.
  • Cessation of allegiance to the Indian Constitution.
  • Declared unlawful by the Government.

Recent ECI Actions

Delisting and Classification of RUPPs

• The March 2024 ECI notification (updated till May 2025) identifies:
  • 281 de-listed parties: Found non-existent at their registered address.
  • 217 inactive parties: Have not updated office-bearer details since 2014.

These parties:

• Lose the right to use a common election symbol
• May forfeit tax benefits under the Income Tax Act.

Current Exercise: 345 RUPPs Identified

• These parties have not contested elections since 2019 and have no physical address.
• The ECI has directed Chief Electoral Officers in various States/UTs to issue show-cause notices to these RUPPs before delisting.

Reforms Needed

Amendments to Allow De-registration

• The Law Commission (255th Report, 2015) recommended:
  • Empowering ECI to de-register parties that do not contest elections for 10 consecutive years.
• The ECI in its 2016 memorandum on electoral reforms echoed this recommendation.
• An amendment to the RP Act is required to legally empower ECI for such action.

Strengthening Inner-Party Democracy

• A significant number of parties do not hold internal elections or follow democratic processes.
• The Law Commission (170th and 255th reports) recommended:
  • Amending the RP Act to enforce internal democracy, including:
    • Regular party elections
    • Transparent candidate selection
    • Intra-party dispute resolution mechanisms

Separation of Powers Concern

• While internal democracy is crucial, involving an independent constitutional authority like the ECI directly in party functioning may be problematic.
• Therefore, clear legislative backing with specific guidelines and limitations is necessary.

Conclusion

• The ECI’s step to delist inactive and non-existent RUPPs is a welcome move in enhancing the credibility, transparency, and accountability of the Indian electoral system.
• However, to institutionalize such measures, the Representation of the People Act must be amended to grant explicit powers to the ECI and ensure that political parties operate with democratic values and transparency.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q2. With reference to Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) in India, consider the following statements: RUPPs are entitled to income tax exemption under Section 13A of the Income Tax Act, 1961. The Election Commission of India has the explicit power under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to de-register a political party for not contesting elections. Political parties seeking registration must declare allegiance to the Constitution and democratic principles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. Consider the following statements: (2017) The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Ans: (d)

Answer 2- A Explanation Statement 1 is Correct – RUPPs enjoy income tax exemption on donations received under Section 13A of the Income Tax Act, 1961, provided they comply with disclosure norms such as reporting donors who contribute more than ₹20,000 annually. Statement 2 is Incorrect – The Election Commission of India (ECI) does not have explicit power under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to de-register political parties for failing to contest elections or for non-compliance with internal functioning. The Supreme Court (2002) clarified that de-registration is only permissible in exceptional cases such as fraud or anti-Constitutional activities. Statement 3 is Correct – Under Section 29A of the RP Act, 1951, political parties seeking registration must submit a memorandum declaring allegiance to the Constitution of India, including adherence to the principles of democracy, secularism, and national unity. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

 

Nationwide expansion of Atal Bhujal Yojana to tackle groundwater crisis

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-pushes-for-nationwide-expansion-of-atal-bhujal-yojana-to-tackle-groundwater-crisis/article69756156.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance

Context: Atal Bhujal Yojana (Atal Jal)

Why in News

The Centre has proposed scaling up the Atal Bhujal Yojana nationwide, citing its success in improving community-led groundwater management.

Introduction

• On June 30, 2025, the eighth meeting of the National Level Steering Committee (NLSC) of the Atal Bhujal Yojana was held in New Delhi, chaired by Debashree Mukherjee, Secretary, Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation.
• The meeting underlined the need to scale up the scheme nationwide, citing its success in empowering communities, promoting water conservation, and addressing climate-induced water stress.

What is Atal Bhujal Yojana (Atal Jal)?

• Launched: December 25, 2019
• Duration: 5 years (2020-2025)
• Implemented by: Ministry of Jal Shakti
• Funded by: 50:50 partnership between the Government of India and the World Bank
• Budget: ₹6,000 crore
• Coverage: Initially launched in 7 states – Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh
• Focus: Sustainable groundwater management through community participation

Objectives of the Scheme

1. Promote community-led groundwater management.
2. Encourage gram panchayats to undertake water budgeting.
3. Improve data-driven decision making in water planning.
4. Shift agricultural practices towards water-efficient crops.
5. Enable long-term behavioral change in groundwater usage.

Key Outcomes and Successes

1. Empowerment of Local Communities

• The scheme is credited with turning local communities into “central actors” in managing groundwater.
• Villages like Ismailpur in Haryana used high-frequency groundwater data to guide agricultural and water decisions.

2. Women’s Participation

• A third-party assessment by the Quality Council of India (QCI) highlighted increased participation of women in water management activities and decision-making.

3. Shift Towards Water-Efficient Agriculture

• Farmers adopted water-saving practices and less water-intensive crops, helping to reduce groundwater extraction and improve long-term sustainability.

4. Behavioral and Socio-economic Impact

• Enhanced local knowledge of hydrogeology and water budgeting.
• Increased community ownership has led to better maintenance and operation of water infrastructure.
• Socio-economic benefits like improved agricultural yields and reduced input costs.

Need for National Scaling

Urgency in Climate Context

• Secretary Debashree Mukherjee emphasized the worsening impact of climate change on the water cycle, necessitating urgent reforms in groundwater governance.
• She proposed making water budgeting mandatory in all gram panchayats.

Operational Recommendations

• Development of long-term operation and maintenance (O&M) plans for water infrastructure.
• Replication of successful pilot models in other villages and states.
• Strengthening capacity-building and knowledge-sharing across regions.

Role of the World Bank

• The World Bank has supported the scheme through financial assistance and technical guidance.
• It acknowledged the scheme’s positive impacts, while also pointing out areas for improvement, such as:
  • Expanding data availability and integration.
  • Strengthening institutional capacity at grassroots levels.

Challenges Identified

1. Underutilisation of Funds
   • A Parliamentary Panel flagged concerns over poor fund utilisation in water-related projects, including Atal Jal.
   • It recommended more efficient financial planning and implementation mechanisms.
2. Need for Institutional Strengthening
   • Local institutions need further training in data usage, hydrogeological mapping, and community mobilisation.

Way Forward

1. Mainstreaming Atal Jal Model Nationally
   • States must integrate Atal Jal’s community-led and data-based principles into state-level water policies.
2. Strengthen Panchayat-Level Capacities
   • Introduce training programs on water budgeting, hydrogeology, and irrigation practices.
3. Encourage Cross-State Learning
   • Promote replication of best practices through inter-state collaboration and workshops.
4. Leverage Technology
   • Use of IoT, remote sensing, and AI for real-time monitoring of groundwater and rainfall patterns.
5. Policy Integration
   • Convergence with other schemes like Jal Jeevan Mission, MGNREGA, and PM Krishi Sinchai Yojana for resource pooling and holistic implementation.

Conclusion

• The Atal Bhujal Yojana has emerged as a model for participatory, sustainable groundwater management.
• Its expansion nationwide could play a transformative role in addressing India’s looming groundwater crisis, particularly in the backdrop of climate change, population pressure, and agricultural stress.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Atal Bhujal Yojana: It is a Central Sector Scheme funded entirely by the Government of India. It promotes community participation in sustainable groundwater management. The scheme is implemented in all Indian states and union territories. It is supported by the World Bank. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 1, 2, and 4 only D. 2, 3, and 4 only

Q.      Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? (2013) Arsenic Sorbitol Fluoride Formaldehyde Uranium Select the correct answer using the codes given below.  a) 1 and 3 only b) 2, 4 and 5 only c) 1, 3 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Ans: C

Answer 3- B Explanation Statement 1 is Incorrect – Atal Bhujal Yojana is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, not a Central Sector Scheme. It is jointly funded in a 50:50 ratio by the Government of India and the World Bank, not entirely by the Centre. Statement 2 is Correct – The scheme aims to improve community-based groundwater management by encouraging participation of gram panchayats and local stakeholders in preparing water budgets and water security plans. Statement 3 is Incorrect – Atal Jal is not implemented nationwide. It was initially launched in 7 water-stressed states: Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. Statement 4 is Correct – The scheme is supported by the World Bank, which provides both financial assistance and technical expertise for implementation and capacity building. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

 

New addition of species to India’s fauna and flora during 2024

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/india-added-683-species-to-its-fauna-433-taxa-to-its-flora-in-2024/article69756342.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3 Environment and Ecology

Context: India’s fauna and flora

Why in News?

In 2024, India added 683 faunal and 433 floral taxa to its biodiversity database, with Kerala recording the highest number of discoveries in both categories.

Introduction

• India added a total of 683 new taxa to its faunal database and 433 taxa to its floral database in the year 2024, reflecting the country’s rich and dynamic biodiversity.
• These additions were officially announced by the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Bhupender Yadav, in Kolkata on June 30, 2025.

Faunal Discoveries (Animal Species)

Total Additions

• Total faunal discoveries: 683
  • 459 new species
  • 224 new records (species found elsewhere but recorded in India for the first time)

State-wise Highlights

1. Kerala recorded the highest number of faunal discoveries:
   • 101 total (80 new species and 21 new records)
2. Karnataka followed with:
   • 82 discoveries (68 new species and 14 new records)
3. Tamil Nadu reported:
   • 63 discoveries (50 new species and 13 new records)

In the eastern and northeastern regions:

• Arunachal Pradesh recorded 72 discoveries (42 new species and 30 new records)
• Meghalaya had 42 discoveries (25 new species and 17 new records)
• West Bengal reported 56 discoveries (25 new species and 31 new records)

From the Andaman and Nicobar Islands:

• A total of 43 faunal discoveries were made (14 new species and 29 new records)

Noteworthy Faunal Discoveries

• Two new genera and thirty-seven new species of reptiles were discovered.
• Five new species of amphibians were also recorded.
• Among the significant reptilian discoveries:
  • Dravidoseps gouensis, a new genus of skink.
  • Anguiculus dicaprioi, a snake species in the Colubridae family, named after Hollywood actor Leonardo DiCaprio.

Floral Discoveries (Plant Species)

Total Additions

• Total taxa of flora added: 433
  • 410 new species
  • 23 infra-specific taxa (subspecies, varieties, etc.)

State-wise Highlights

1. Kerala led in floral discoveries with 58 taxa.
2. Maharashtra followed with 45 discoveries.
3. Uttarakhand recorded 40 new plant taxa.

Classification of Plant Discoveries (2024)

• 154 species of angiosperms (flowering plants)
• 4 pteridophytes (ferns and their allies)
• 15 bryophytes (mosses and liverworts)
• 63 lichens
• 156 fungi
• 32 algae
• 9 microbial species

The Western Ghats and North-Eastern India, which are designated biodiversity hotspots, contributed to 35 percent of all plant discoveries in 2024.

Noteworthy Floral Discoveries

Several new plant species discovered are of high value in horticulture, agriculture, medicine, and ornamental use. These include wild relatives of:

• Begonia
• Impatiens (balsams)
• Legumes
• Zingibers
• Orchids

Significant orchid discoveries include:

• Bulbophyllum gopalianum
• Coelogyne tripurensis
• Gastrodia indica
• Gastrodia sikkimensis

National Biodiversity Statistics (as of 2024)

• Faunal species and subspecies recorded: 1,05,244
• Floral species recorded: 56,177, including:
  • Angiosperms
  • Gymnosperms
  • Pteridophytes
  • Bryophytes
  • Fungi
  • Algae
  • Lichens

Institutional Contributions

• The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) publishes Animal Discoveries every year and is the country’s apex institution for faunal research and taxonomy.
• The Botanical Survey of India (BSI) publishes Plant Discoveries annually and is the lead institution for plant taxonomy and conservation.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q4. With reference to the biodiversity discoveries in India in 2024, consider the following statements: India added more new faunal taxa than floral taxa in 2024. Kerala recorded the highest number of both faunal and floral discoveries in the country. India accounts for about 8 percent of the world’s known biodiversity despite having only 2.4 percent of the global land area. Which of the statements given above are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3

Q.    Consider the following statements: (2024) Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?  Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I Statement -I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct Answer: (c)

Answer – 4 – D Explanation  Statement 1 is Correct – India added 683 taxa of fauna and 433 taxa of flora in 2024, showing a higher number of faunal additions. This includes new species and newly recorded species in India. Statement 2 is Correct – Kerala recorded the highest number of discoveries in both categories: 101 faunal taxa (80 new species and 21 new records) and 58 floral taxa, making it the leading state in biodiversity documentation in 2024. Statement 3 is Correct – India, while covering only 2.4 percent of the Earth’s land area, hosts approximately 8 percent of the world’s recorded biodiversity, placing it among the 17 megadiverse countries globally. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

India to fast-track 52 military satellites for better surveillance at borders

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/india-to-fast-track-new-military-satellites-for-better-surveillance-at-borders/article69755996.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3 Defence

Context: AI-enabled surveillance satellites

Why in News?

India to launch 52 AI-enabled surveillance satellites under SBS-III programme to enhance all-weather, 24×7 border and maritime monitoring, post-Operation Sindoor.

Introduction

• In response to operational learnings during Operation Sindoor, the Union government has decided to fast-track the launch of 52 new surveillance satellites, aiming to bolster precision, real-time intelligence, and round-the-clock surveillance of India’s coastlines and land borders.
• This move marks a significant step in enhancing India’s space-based defence capabilities, particularly amidst regional challenges posed by Pakistan and China.

Key Highlights

• Operation Sindoor exposed critical needs for more precise and timely surveillance for effective defence operations.
• The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS), led by PM Narendra Modi, approved $3.2 billion in October 2024 for the SBS-III (Space-Based Surveillance – III) programme.
• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will build and launch 21 satellites, while private companies will handle the development of the remaining 31 satellites.
• The newly launched satellite system will be operated by the Defence Space Agency (DSA).

Significance of the SBS-III Programme

1. Next-Generation Surveillance Capability

• These satellites will be equipped with advanced radar imaging systems, providing all-weather, day-and-night surveillance.
• It enables high-resolution tracking of drones, missile trajectories, troop movements, and potential incursions, particularly along the India-Pakistan and India-China borders.

2. Artificial Intelligence Integration

• Satellites under SBS-III will utilize AI and machine learning algorithms for automated threat detection, target identification, and real-time data processing, thereby reducing human latency in strategic decisions.

3. Public-Private Collaboration

• A major milestone in India’s Atmanirbhar Bharat vision, this is one of the largest defence collaborations involving private industry in the space sector.
• It will foster innovation, accelerate timelines, and reduce over-dependence on ISRO alone.

4. Enhanced Maritime Domain Awareness

• These satellites will ensure better monitoring of the Indian Ocean Region (IOR), crucial for tracking suspicious ship movements, piracy, and strategic Chinese maritime activities.

Defence Space Agency (DSA): The Key Operator

• Established in 2019, the DSA is responsible for coordinating space warfare operations.
• It acts as the interface between ISRO, DRDO, and the three armed forces.
• With the operationalisation of SBS-III satellites, DSA will gain unprecedented situational awareness and targeting precision.

Lessons from Operation Sindoor

• Satellite-based surveillance during the operation offered vital intelligence, such as:
  • Drone and missile movement tracking
  • Target impact verification
  • Enemy mobilisation monitoring
• India’s indigenous Cartosat and RISAT (Radar Imaging Satellite) played a critical role.
• Meanwhile, intelligence reports suggested China’s satellite support to Pakistan, revealing the urgency for India’s independent space capability.

Strategic Implications

1. Geopolitical Leverage

• The new system will reduce dependency on foreign commercial or allied intelligence sources, making India more strategically autonomous.

2. Deterrence & Preparedness

• Persistent satellite coverage can act as a deterrent to adversaries contemplating stealth-based incursions or missile strikes.
• Real-time response capability improves decision-making during emergencies.

3. Support for a Future Military Space Doctrine

• The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) has confirmed that India is formulating a ‘Military Space Doctrine’, to be released in the coming three months.
• The doctrine is likely to define rules of engagement, surveillance protocols, and space-warfare norms.

Conclusion

• The SBS-III programme, fast-tracked in the aftermath of Operation Sindoor, represents a strategic leap in India’s defence preparedness, technological advancement, and self-reliance in space.
• With AI-enabled next-gen satellites, strong inter-agency coordination, and a clear geopolitical focus, India is poised to transform its surveillance and defence infrastructure.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q5. With reference to India’s SBS-III programme, consider the following statements: It aims to launch 52 surveillance satellites using next-generation radar imaging technology. The entire programme will be implemented solely by ISRO. The satellites will be operated by the Defence Space Agency (DSA). Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Q.  With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018) PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 only Ans: (a)

Answer – 5 – C Explanation  Statement 1 is Correct – The SBS-III (Space-Based Surveillance-III) programme involves the launch of 52 dedicated surveillance satellites. These satellites will be equipped with next-generation radar imaging systems to provide all-weather, day-and-night surveillance over land and maritime borders. Statement 2 is Incorrect – While ISRO will develop and launch the first 21 satellites, the remaining 31 will be manufactured by private companies. Thus, implementation is not solely by ISRO, but a collaborative effort under public-private partnership. Statement 3 is Correct – The operation of these satellites will be overseen by the Defence Space Agency (DSA), which is responsible for coordinating India’s military space assets and operations. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

Risk of unsafe contaminated cancer drugs

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/how-do-unsafe-cancer-drugs-reach-patients-explained/article69756908.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 Public health

Context: Substandard and contaminated cancer drugs investigation

Why in News

A global investigation revealed that substandard and contaminated cancer drugs from some manufacturers are being exported to over 100 countries.

Introduction

• A recent investigative report has brought to light a disturbing revelation: substandard or contaminated cancer drugs have been shipped to over 100 countries, including low- and middle-income nations.
• These drugs, which should be lifesaving, are instead placing already vulnerable cancer patients at risk.
• The issue highlights deep gaps in global pharmaceutical regulation, oversight, and quality assurance, particularly in the developing world.

The Journey of a Cancer Drug

Before reaching the patient, a cancer drug undertakes a complex multi-stage journey:

1. Raw Material Sourcing – Often from different global locations.
2. Manufacturing – Involves mixing, processing, and formulating active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs).
3. Packaging and Storage – Temperature, humidity, and hygiene must be strictly controlled.
4. Transport and Distribution – Involves domestic and international transit.
5. Dispensing and Use – Final handling in hospitals and pharmacies.

Each stage requires meticulous quality control, as even minor lapses — such as temperature variations, humidity exposure, or contamination — can degrade the drug or make it toxic.

Risks in Manufacturing

One of the most critical phases in the drug supply chain is manufacturing, where contamination can have lethal consequences:

• Sterility: Cancer drugs must be sterile, especially injectable forms like chemotherapy.
• Cleanroom Protocols: Even air movement caused by a technician’s movement can spread bacteria in sterile environments.
• Contaminants: Can enter through improperly cleaned equipment, non-filtered water, or staff without proper sanitization.
• Unforgiving Process: Any deviation — inadequate testing of raw ingredients or substandard hygiene — can turn medicine into poison.

Case Studies: Real-World Consequences

Numerous instances illustrate how substandard drugs have harmed patients:

• 2019 (Saudi Arabia): Five children developed fever and one died after taking an Indian-manufactured drug.
• 2019 (Colombia): Four children died and over 100 fell ill from a contaminated cancer drug.
• 2022 (Yemen): Ten children died after receiving methotrexate contaminated with deadly bacteria.
• 2023 (Brazil): A dozen poor-quality brands of childhood cancer drugs were identified.

These examples reflect systemic weaknesses in pharmaceutical regulation and supply chain monitoring.

Regulatory Practices in Developed Nations

In nations like the United Kingdom, regulatory mechanisms are robust and multi-layered:

• Double Testing: Drugs are tested at the manufacturing site and again upon import.
• Quality Checks: 20 different quality markers are evaluated.
• Qualified Experts: Only licensed professionals (e.g., Royal Society of Chemistry members) verify batches.
• Regulatory Inspections: Carried out by agencies like the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA), both domestically and internationally.

Such mechanisms help prevent substandard drugs from reaching patients, making them a global gold standard.

Challenges in Low- and Middle-Income Countries (LMICs)

Countries such as Nepal, Nigeria, and many sub-Saharan nations face formidable challenges:

• Lack of Testing Infrastructure
• Scarcity of Qualified Inspectors
• Porous Borders and Smuggling
• Limited Regulatory Capacity
• Corruption in Procurement and Imports

In many such nations, there is no effective way to trace, test, or verify drug quality, making them vulnerable to contaminated or counterfeit products.

WHO’s Role in Ensuring Drug Safety

The World Health Organization (WHO) has established multiple mechanisms to improve drug safety globally:

1. Rapid Alert System

• Issues global warnings about dangerous drugs after incidents occur.
• Limitation: Reactive, not preventive.

2. Global Benchmarking Tool (GBT)

• Assesses and rates national regulatory systems (Scale 1–4).
• As of 2023, 70% of countries were rated Level 1 or 2, indicating poor capacity.

3. Essential Medicines List (EML)

• Lists the most vital and effective medicines.
• Helps countries prioritize monitoring and procurement.

4. Prequalification Program

• Lists WHO-inspected and certified laboratories, drugs, and APIs.
• Facilitates safe procurement by national governments.

5. Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) Certification

• Ensures medicines are consistently manufactured and quality-controlled.
• Recognized in over 100 countries.

6. Certificate of Pharmaceutical Products (CoPP)

• A “passport” that proves a drug is approved in the exporting country.
• Limitation: Even CoPP-certified drugs can fail quality tests.

Example: In a 2024 study, 84 cancer drugs exported from India to Nigeria — all holding valid CoPPs — were tested. All 84 failed.

Implications for Public Health

• Delayed or Failed Treatments: Cancer patients depend on timely, effective therapy. Poor-quality drugs compromise this.
• Mortality Risks: Toxic or contaminated drugs can directly cause deaths.
• Loss of Trust: Erodes public confidence in health systems.
• Strain on Global Health Equity: LMICs disproportionately suffer despite WHO mechanisms, widening health disparities.

Way Forward: Strengthening Drug Safety Globally

a) Capacity Building in LMICs

• Strengthen national regulatory authorities.
• Establish WHO-standard laboratories in all regions.

b) Global Drug Tracking Systems: Use digital systems (e.g., blockchain, QR codes) to track every stage of a drug’s journey.

c) Stricter Export Regulations: Exporting countries must enforce rigorous testing and transparency for drugs sent abroad.

d) International Collaboration: Joint inspections, data sharing, and enforcement mechanisms among countries.

e) Public-Private Partnerships: Collaborations to fund quality control labs, train regulators, and ensure clean manufacturing.

Conclusion

• The issue of substandard cancer drugs is a stark reminder of the inequities and vulnerabilities in global health systems.
• While institutions like the WHO and regulatory bodies in developed nations have made progress, a unified international effort is essential to ensure that lifesaving drugs don’t become silent killers.
• Strengthening regulatory capacities, especially in low-income countries, must be a global priority, not just a regional concern.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Certificate of Pharmaceutical Products (CoPP): It is issued by the importing country to verify the quality of drugs. It serves as proof that the drug is approved and manufactured according to international standards in the exporting country. WHO mandates that every drug in the Essential Medicines List must carry a CoPP. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

Q.  With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements: (2021)  Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (c)

Answer – 6 – B Explanation  Statement 1 is Incorrect – The Certificate of Pharmaceutical Products (CoPP) is issued by the exporting country, not the importing country. It certifies that a drug is authorized for sale in the exporting country and has been manufactured in compliance with internationally accepted standards, typically under WHO Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP). Statement 2 is Correct – The CoPP acts as a kind of passport for medicines, providing assurance to the importing country that the product is approved, regulated, and manufactured to quality standards in the exporting country. It supports global trade in pharmaceuticals, especially for countries with weaker regulatory systems. Statement 3 is Incorrect – While the WHO Essential Medicines List (EML) helps countries prioritize key medicines, it does not mandate that all listed drugs must carry a CoPP. CoPPs are primarily used in regulatory and procurement contexts but are not compulsory for EML inclusion. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.