May 31 CURRENT AFFAIRS 2024 APPSC

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (31-05-2024)

 

News at a Glance
Andhra Pradesh:  Andhra Pradesh inches towards SDG target, brings down MMR to 45
Chitti initiative to prevent child marriages
Science and Technology: Space startup Agnikul Cosmos flies world’s first 3D-printed rocket engine
Economy: RBI annual report 2023-24: Central bank sees real GDP growth at 7% in FY25
International Relations: India assumes chair of Colombo Process for 2024-26
Ecology and Environment: AZA Summit underway in Zambia
Awards: Major Radhika Sen receive UN gender advocate award

 

Andhra Pradesh inches towards SDG target, brings down MMR to 45

Source: Indian Express

https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/andhra-pradesh/2024/May/31/andhra-pradesh-achieves-sdg-target-brings-down-mmr-to-45

APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Sustainable Development Goal, Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR)

Context: Andhra Pradesh successfully brought down Under-5 Mortality Rate, inching closer to SDG target.

Why in News

  • Andhra Pradesh has successfully achieved the Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) target of reducing Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) to below 70 per 1,00,000 live births by 2030.

MMR in Andhra Pradesh

  • The Andhra Pradesh State is nearing the SDG target of achieving an Under-5 Mortality Rate of 25 per 1,000 live births, with the current rate standing at 27.
  • Andhra Pradesh stands at fourth position with MMR at 45 per 1,00,000 live births, whereas India’s MMR is 97.
  • The State has reported 362 maternal deaths with the highest being reported from Kakinada (27), Alluri Sitarama Raju (25), Anantapur (23), and Eluru (23) districts.
  • The maternal deaths are attributed to hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, postpartum haemorrhage and sepsis.
  • Among the reported MMR cases, 26 per cent were antenatal deaths and 74 per cent were postnatal, reinforcing the postnatal period as critical, Krishna Babu added.
  • Among all maternal deaths, 32 per cent of deaths occurred within 48 hrs of delivery, 43 per cent occurred within the second day to 42 days, and 26 per cent occurred in the antenatal period.

Other Key Findings

  • Eluru, Anakapalli, and Vizianagaram districts have reported more than the State average of maternal deaths, while Konaseema, Nellore, and Nandyal districts have reported very low maternal deaths, raising the concerns of under-reporting.
  • The highest number of Cesarian (C-section) surgeries were recorded at private hospitals in erstwhile districts like Prakasam, Nellore, Kurnool, Krishna, Kadapa, and East Godavari with more than 70 per cent of total C-section deliveries in the State.
  • Moreover, districts like Prakasam, East Godavari, Kurnool, Vizianagaram, and Srikakulam have elective C-sections in more than 70 per cent of total c-sections.

Significance of Reduced MMR in Andhra Pradesh

  • Andhra Pradesh is on a transformative healthcare journey, aiming to reduce the Under-5 Mortality Rate (U5MR) in alignment with its commitment to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) of 25 per 1,000 live births by 2030.
  • The latest SRS bulletin (2020), the U5MR in the State has decreased from 31 per 1,000 live births in 2019 to 27 per 1,000 live births in 2020.
  • The State has identified the burden of Early Neonatal Mortality and Neonatal Mortality, to address the challenge.
  • The State has adopted a multifaceted approach by strengthening antenatal care, intranatal care, and immediate postnatal care and improving newborn health facilities.
  • This development has led to a notable decrease in SNCU mortality rates, from 12.3 per cent in 2018-19 to 6.3 per cent in 2023-24, indicating a marked improvement in the quality of care for newborns.

74% of MMR cases are postnatal, 26% antenatal

  • Special Chief Secretary MT Krishna Babu attributed the maternal deaths to hypertensive disorders of pregnancy, postpartum haemorrhage and sepsis.
  • Among the reported MMR cases, 26 per cent were antenatal deaths and 74 per cent were postnatal, reinforcing the postnatal period as critical.
  • Further elaborating, he said among all maternal deaths, 32 per cent of deaths occurred within 48 hrs of delivery, 43 per cent occurred within the second day to 42 days, and 26 per cent occurred in the antenatal period.

What is Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR)?

  • The maternal mortality ratio (MMR) is defined as the number of maternal deaths during a given time period per 100,000 live births during the same time period.
  • It depicts the risk of maternal death relative to the number of live births and essentially captures the risk of death in a single pregnancy or a single live birth.
  • The maternal mortality ratio can be calculated by dividing recorded (or estimated) maternal deaths by total recorded (or estimated) live births in the same period and multiplying by 100,000.

 

 CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to Mortality Rates:

1.       Maternal Mortality Rate(MMR) is calculated by dividing the number of maternal deaths by the number of live births and multiplying by 100,000.

2.       Andhra Pradesh state has achieved Sustainable Development Goal target completely with regards to Under-5 Mortality Rate.

3.       Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) provides insights into the health status of women during pregnancy and childbirth.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.      Only 1 Statement

B.      Only 2 Statements

C.      Only 3 Statements

D.      None

 

Answer 1 B

Explanation

  • Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) is calculated by dividing the number of maternal deaths by the number of live births and then multiplying by 100,000 to obtain the rate per 100,000 live births. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The Andhra Pradesh State is nearing the SDG target of achieving an Under-5 Mortality Rate of 25 per 1,000 live births, with the current rate standing at 27. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • MMR does provide insights into the health status of women during pregnancy and childbirth. It serves as a crucial indicator of the quality of maternal healthcare services and access to healthcare facilities. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • So, correct answer is option B.

 

 

Chitti initiative to prevent child marriages in Paderu

Source: Indian Express

https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/andhra-pradesh/2024/May/31/chitti-initiative-to-prevent-child-marriages-in-paderu

APPSC Relevance: Initiatives to control social evils like Child marriages

Context: Despite the involvement of police, Mahila police, ICDS staff, and VROs, child marriages persist.

Why in News

  • ‘Chitti,’ Initiative is in news in Andhra Pradesh as it aims to prevent child marriages and safeguard child rights.

About Chitti Initiative

  • A concerted effort named ‘Chitti,’ was led by Paderu Sub Collector P. Dhatri Reddy, aims at preventing child marriages and safeguarding child rights.
  • Tracking school dropouts is another critical aspect of ‘Chitti.’
  • The authorities have compiled a list of last year’s dropouts in Chintapalle and Madugula Mandals and are actively following up to understand their circumstances and encourage them to return to school.
  • The absence from school for more than 7 to 8 days will trigger an alert to track and support the child.
  • This approach is currently being implemented in 11 mandals in Paderu.
  • To further bridge the aspirational gap, the upcoming ‘Go Girls Campaign’ will conduct school-wide workshops, educating girls about various career options after Class X and Intermediate.
  • Another plan includes establishing Bal Panchayats within schools and encouraging children to participate in governance and decision-making.
  • The fight against child marriages and child labour is far from over in Alluri Sitarama Raju district, but with initiatives like ‘Chitti,’ there is hope that the cycle can be broken and the future of these young girls safeguarded.

Challenges

  • Despite the involvement of police, Mahila police, ICDS staff, and VROs, child marriages persist.
  • There is a significant information gap, and many are afraid to report these incidents.
  • In one case, an Anganwadi worker who reported a child marriage now fears returning to the village due to backlash from the community.
  • To address this, a control room at the Sub Collector Office now allows anonymous reporting via text, WhatsApp, or phone calls.
  • This system highlights its effectiveness and emphasises educating girls about available opportunities.

Steps taken by central govt

  • The Central Government has enacted ‘the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006’ (PCMA) in order to curb child marriages and to take punitive actions against those associated with child marriages.
  • Section 16 of Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA) authorises the State Government to appoint for the whole State, or such part there of as may be specified, an officer or officers to be known as the ‘Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPO)’ having jurisdiction over the area or areas specified in the notification.
  • This section also specifies the functions to be discharged by CMPOs.
  • These authorities function under the respective State Governments/ UT Administrations. As such, implementation of the provisions of the Act lies with them.

Child Marriages in AP

  • Andhra Pradesh has stood top among the five southern States in underage marriages (below 18 years) among women aged 20-24 years.
  • It has recorded the highest rate of 29.3% in underage marriages as per the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5).
  • Kerala has registered the lowest rate of 6.3%.
  • The rate of underage marriages in AP has declined to 29.3% in NFHS-5, compared to 33% in NFHS-4.
  • As per AP State Commission for Protection of Child Rights (APSCPCR) Chairman, illiteracy, poverty, migration, parents’ ill-health and broken families are the reasons for the prevalence of child marriages in the States.

 

 CARE MCQ
Q2. Consider the following statements with regards to Chitti initiative:

  1. Chitti initiative was started by Kailash Satyarthi foundation to prevent child marriages and safeguarding child rights in Andhra Pradesh.
  2. Tracking school dropouts is a critical aspect of ‘Chitti initiative.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.      1 and 2

B.      1 only

C.      None

D.      Only 2

 

Answer 2 D

Explanation

  • A concerted effort named ‘Chitti,’ was led by Paderu Sub Collector P. Dhatri Reddy, aims at preventing child marriages and safeguarding child rights. This approach is currently being implemented in 11 mandals in Paderu. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Tracking school dropouts is a critical aspect of ‘Chitti.’ The authorities have compiled a list of last year’s dropouts in Chintapalle and Madugula Mandals and are actively following up to understand their circumstances and encourage them to return to school.
  • The absence from school for more than 7 to 8 days will trigger an alert to track and support the child. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

·         Therefore, Option D is the correct answer.

 

Space startup Agnikul Cosmos fly’s world’s first 3D-printed rocket engine

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/agnikul-carries-out-successful-sub-orbital-launch-of-agnibaan-rocket-9360673/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Space Technology, Science and Technology)

Context: Agnikul achieves “a major milestone, as the first-ever controlled flight of a semi-cryogenic liquid engine realized through additive manufacturing”.

Why in News

  • Indian space startup Agnikul Cosmos successfully launched its first sub-orbital test vehicle powered by the world’s first single-piece 3D-printed rocket engine, after calling off its launch at least four times previously.

About Agnibaan SOrTeD

  • Agnibaan SOrTeD is a suborbital technological demonstrator of the Agnibaan launch vehicle, manufactured by Indian space startup Agnikul Cosmos.
  • Agnibaan SOrTeD (Sub-Orbital Technology Demonstrator) lifted off in a mission of many firsts.
  • While it is the second launch by a private startup in India, it is the first to use a private launchpad that the company has set up at the country’s only operational spaceport at Sriharikota.

Agnilet Engine and launch Vehicle

  • The SOrTeD mission is a single-stage launch vehicle demonstration that is powered by a semi-cryogenic engine called the Agnilet.
  • The 6.2-meter-tall vehicle has an elliptical nose cone at the top to protect the package from harsh conditions during the flight.
  • The launch vehicle, developed by the IIT Madras-incubated startup, also demonstrated India’s first semi-cryogenic engine.
  • The launch vehicle has been designed to launch from its mobile launchpad, called Dhanush, from any location.
  • The engine—called Agnilet—uses sub-cooled oxygen as fuel. Cryogenic engines, such as the one used in the upper stages of India’s heaviest launch vehicle, LVM3, use gases liquified at extremely low temperatures as fuel.

Significance of the Mission

  • The mission was designed to reach a height of about 8 kilometres before splashing into the sea.
  • The company hopes to conduct its first orbital launch, which will be able to carry satellites to an orbit around the Earth by the end of the financial.
  • They hope to provide regular launched in the next calendar year.
  • The other private launch provider Skyroot, which achieved its first sub-orbital launch in 2022, is also likely to undertake its first orbital launch this year.

What is 3D Printing?

  • 3D printing is also known as additive manufacturing which uses materials such as plastics and metals
  • to convert products envisaged on computer-aided design to real three-dimensional items.
  • It is the opposite of subtractive manufacturing which is cutting out/hollowing out a piece of metal

or plastic with, for instance, a milling machine.

  • 3D printing traditionally has been used for prototyping and has a lot of scope in making artificial limbs,

stents, dental crowns, parts of automobiles and consumer goods, among others.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the following statements:

1. Agnibaan SOrTeD is developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

2. It serves as a platform for testing new technologies related to sub-orbital flight.

3. Agnibaan SOrTeD is capable of carrying small payloads for scientific experiments.

4. It is intended to compete with orbital launch vehicles developed by other space agencies.

 

Choose the correct Options:

A. 2, and 3 only

B. 2, 3, and 4 only

C. 3, and 4 only

D. All statements are incorrect

Q. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (2018)

1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed

mainly to launch communication satellites.

2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as

viewed from a particular location on Earth.

3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket

motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Ans: (a)

 

Answer 3- A

Explanation:

·         Agnibaan SOrTeD is developed by Chennai-based space startup AgniKul Cosmos not ISRO. So, Statement 1 is incorrect.

·         Agnibaan SOrTeD is designed as a technology demonstrator to test and validate various technologies relevant to sub-orbital flight missions. So, Statement 2 is correct.

·         Agnibaan SOrTeD can accommodate small payloads to conduct scientific experiments during its sub-orbital missions. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

·         Agnibaan SOrTeD is primarily focused on sub-orbital missions and is not intended to directly compete with orbital launch vehicles. Its purpose is to demonstrate India’s capabilities in sub-orbital flight and technological advancements in that domain. Hence Statement 4 is incorrect.

·         Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

 

RBI annual report 2023-24: Central bank sees real GDP growth at 7% in FY25

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/gdp-growth-robust-on-back-of-healthy-balance-sheets-of-banks-corporates-rbi/article68231465.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Banking Sector, Economic growth, Economy

Context:  RBI’s annual report 2023-24 adds that geopolitical tensions, geoeconomic fragmentation, global financial market volatility, international commodity price movements and erratic weather developments pose downside risks to the growth outlook

Why in News

  • Indian economy is likely to grow at 7% in the current fiscal year starting April, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) said in its annual report released on May 30.

Key Highlights

  • The Indian economy expanded at a robust pace in 2023-24 (April 2023 to March 2024 financial year), with real GDP growth accelerating to 7.6% from 7.0% in the previous year – the third successive year of 7% or above growth.
  • The real GDP growth for 2024-25 is projected at 7.0% with risks evenly balanced.
  • India’s GDP growth is robust on the back of solid investment demand which is supported by healthy balance sheets of banks and corporates, the government’s focus on capital expenditure and prudent monetary, regulatory and fiscal policies.
  • The Reserve Bank’s Annual Report for 2023-24 said that the Indian economy is navigating the drag from an adverse global macroeconomic and financial environment.

Significance of the Contribution

  • Indian economy is well-placed to step up growth trajectory over the next decade in an environment of macroeconomic and financial stability.
  • As headline inflation eases towards the target, it will spur consumption demand especially in rural areas.
  • It further said the external sector’s strength and buffers in the form of foreign exchange reserves will insulate domestic economic activity from global spillovers.
  • The report, however, added that geopolitical tensions, geoeconomic fragmentation, global financial market volatility, international commodity price movements and erratic weather developments pose downside risks to the growth outlook and upside risks to the inflation outlook.

Challenges in front of Indian Economy

  • The RBI emphasised that the Indian economy would have to navigate challenges posed by rapid adoption of AI/ML (artificial intelligence/machine learning) technologies as well as recurrent climate shocks.
  • The annual report is a statutory report of RBI’s central board of directors.
  • The report covers the working and functions of the Reserve Bank of India for the April 2023-March 2024 period.

Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

  • Gross domestic product (GDP) is the total monetary or market value of all the finished goods and services produced within a country’s borders in a specific time period.
  • As a broad measure of overall domestic production, it functions as a comprehensive scorecard of a given country’s economic health.
  • Gross domestic product (GDP) is the most common measure for the size of an economy, and it measures the value of total final output of goods and services produced by that economy in a certain period of time.

Headline and Core Inflation

  • Headline inflation refers to the change in value of all goods in the basket.
  • Core inflation excludes food and fuel items from headline inflation.
  • Since the prices of fuel and food items tend to fluctuate and create ‘noise’ in inflation computation, core inflation is less volatile than headline inflation.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements with regards to Core inflation:

1.       Core inflation takes into consideration price increases for food and energy.

2.       When core inflation rises, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) increases its key policy rates to suck excess liquidity from the market.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. With reference to Indian economy, demand-pull inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following? (2021)

1.       Expansionary policies

2.       Fiscal stimulus

3.       Inflation-indexing of wages

4.       Higher purchasing power

5.       Rising interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

Ans: (a)

 

Answer 4– B

Explanation:

·         Core inflation is a measure of inflation that leaves out goods with unstable prices, such as food and energy.

·         Core inflation is a measure of inflation that does not include goods with fluctuating prices, such as food and energy. Since the prices of other goods and services do not change as frequently as those of food and fuel, increases in their costs may be perceived as being more permanent in character overall. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

·         Core inflation is a constant concern for central banks worldwide, including the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Central banks raise their key policy rates in response to increases in core inflation in order to drain excess liquidity from the market, and vice versa. As a result, it is the recommended instrument for defining long-term policy.  Hence Statement 2 is correct.

  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

 

India assumes chair of Colombo Process for 2024-26

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-assumes-chair-of-colombo-process-for-2024-26-9359983/

UPSC Relevance: GS 2- Multilateral organisations, International Relations

Context: India has become chair of regional grouping Colombo Process for the first time since its inception in 2003.

Why in News

  • The International Organisation for Migration (IOM), in its World Migration Report 2024 said that in 2022, India, Mexico, China, the Philippines and France were the top five remittance recipient countries.

Colombo Process

  • The Colombo Process is a regional consultative forum comprising 12 member states of Asia.
  • It includes 12 member states of Asia (countries of origin of migrant workers): Afghanistan, Bangladesh, China, India, Indonesia, Nepal, Pakistan, the Philippines, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Vietnam.
  • Promoting safe, orderly and legal migration. India assumed the Chair of Colombo Process for 2024-26, for the first time since its inception.
  • Colombo Process is a Regional Consultative Process of migrant worker origin countries from South and SE Asia.
  • It serves as a forum for exchange of best practices on overseas employment.

Working of  Colombo Process

  • The Colombo Process – also known as the Regional Consultative Process on the Management of Overseas Employment and Contractual Labour for Countries of Origin in Asia – was established in 2003.
  • It was launched during a ministerial consultation held in Colombo, Sri Lanka, hence the name.
  • It brings together South and Southeast Asian labour-sending countries in a member state-driven, non-binding regional consultative process on migration to facilitate dialogue and cooperation on issues of common interest and concerns relating to labour mobility.
  • It provides an important platform for consultations on the management of overseas employment and contractual labour.
  • The Process is non-binding and decision-making is by consensus.
  • The Process is coordinated through permanent missions of member states at the United Nations in Geneva. India has been member of Colombo Process since its inception in 2003.

Significance of Colombo Process

  • The Colombo Process aims to provide a forum for Asian labour-sending countries to meet the following objectives:
    • share experiences,
    • lessons learned and best practices on overseas employment and contractual labour;
    • consult on issues faced by overseas workers, and labour sending and receiving states, and offers practical solutions for the well-being of overseas workers, particularly the vulnerable overseas workers;
    • optimise development benefits from organised overseas employment, and enhance dialogue with countries of destination;
    • review and monitor the implementation of the ministerial recommendations and identify further steps for action.

Necessity to form such a platform

  • According to the IOM, some three million Asian workers (men and women) leave their countries each year to work overseas.
  • A large proportion of these workers (from South and Southeast Asia) head for the Gulf countries while some others move to North America, Europe and other Asian countries.
  • India, it needs to be noted here, is a key labour-sending country to countries particularly in the Gulf.
  • As Asian overseas worker populations grow in numbers and diversify in terms of destination and source countries, their impact is increasingly felt regionally and internationally.
  • Overall numbers of Asian overseas workers are likely to increase due to declining working populations in many industrialised economies, combined with continued need for skilled/low-skilled workers.
  • The IOM further states that countries of origin are increasingly engaged in protecting their overseas workers from exploitative practices in recruitment and employment, in providing them with appropriate services before departure and during their stay overseas, as well as in assisting them in their return and reintegration back home.

What are the priority areas of the Colombo Process?

  • The Colombo Process addresses five thematic priority areas and while also incorporating four crosscutting themes into these priority areas.
  • The thematic priority areas are skills and qualification recognition processes, fostering ethical recruitment practices, pre-departure orientation and empowerment, promoting cheaper, faster and safer transfer of remittances, and labour market analysis.
  • The crosscutting themes are migrant health, operationalisation of the migration-related elements of the UN’s Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), promotion of equality for women migrant workers and consular support for migrant workers.

Objectives

  • Share experiences, lessons learned and best practices in labour migration management
  • Consult on issues faced by migrants, countries of origin and countries of destination, and propose practical solutions for the well-being of overseas workers
  • Optimize development benefits from organized overseas employment and enhance dialogues with countries of destination
  • Review and monitor the implementation of the recommendations and identify further steps of action.

 

 CARE MCQ  
Q5. Consider the following statements

1.       The Colombo Process was established in 2003.

2.       Its membership primarily consists of Asian countries.

3.       The main objective of the Colombo Process is to address challenges related to irregular migration.

4.       The Colombo Process operates under the auspices of the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) Only 2, 3, 4

(c) Only 1, 3 and 4

(d) Only 1 and 2

 

Q. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements: (2022)

1.  It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.

2.  It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year

3.  It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Ans: (a)

 

Answer 5 D

Explanation

·         The Colombo Process was indeed established in 2003 as a regional consultative process on the management of overseas employment and contractual labor for countries of origin in Asia. Hence statement 1 is correct.

·         The Colombo Process consists of member countries from Asia, particularly focusing on labor-sending countries in the region. Hence statement 2 is correct.

·         While the Colombo Process does address migration-related issues, its main objective is to promote and facilitate dialogue and cooperation among member countries on issues related to contractual labor migration, rather than specifically focusing on irregular migration. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

·         The Colombo Process operates independently as an intergovernmental forum. Although it collaborates with various international organizations, it is not under the direct auspices of the United Nations. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

·         Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

 

 

KAZA Summit underway in Zambia

Source: Down To Earth

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/africa/kaza-summit-underway-in-zambia-96405

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2- Ecology and Environment, International Relations

Context: Members states of the world’s largest transnational conservation initiative meet to review progress and strategise way forward

Why in News

  • More than 400 delegates are gathered in Livingstone, Zambia, for the inaugural Kavango-Zambezi (KAZA) Trans-Frontier Conservation Area (TFCA) summit where countries are reviewing its progress and charting its future.

Key Highlights

  • Delegates from Angola, Botswana, Namibia, Zambia and Zimbabwe, the five countries that make up the KAZA-TFCA conservation region, joined wildlife, conservation and tourism experts for the five-day event that started with the technical teams detailing the health of this vast rangeland most populated by wildlife in the world.
  • The summit is running under the theme: “Leveraging KAZA’s natural capital and cultural heritage resources as catalysts for inclusive socio-economic development of the eco-region.”

About KAZA Region

  • The KAZA region, a 520,000-square kilometre wetland paradise straddling these five southern African nations that have common international borders along the Okavango and Zambezi river basins, is home to a high concentration of wildlife species, including the largest elephant population.
  • The KAZA states signed a Memorandum of Understanding in 2006 resulting in the KAZA Treaty of 2011 followed by its immediate implementation.
  • The KAZA-FTCA area is a partnership centred around “a common vision to conserve biodiversity at scale through promoting integrated transboundary management and to market the landscape biodiversity using nature-based tourism as the engine for rural economic growth and development.
  • The meeting of the technical teams will be followed by ministerial meetings culminating in the meeting of the presidents of the five countries who are expected to re-affirm their commitment to the initiative.

Kavango-Zambezi (KAZA) Trans-Frontier Conservation Area (TFCA) summit

  • The summit is running under the theme: “Leveraging KAZA’s natural capital and cultural heritage resources as catalysts for inclusive socio-economic development of the eco-region.”
  • The KAZA TFCA is enormous, larger than Germany and Austria combined and nearly twice as large as the United Kingdom.
  • It lies in the Kavango and Zambezi river basins where Angola, Botswana, Namibia, Zambia and Zimbabwe converge.
  • Jewels in the crown of this spectacular array of protected areas are the 15,000 km2 Okavango Delta, an explosion of green and blue in parched landscape – the world’s largest inland delta, and the awe inspiring tumbling cataracts of the Victoria Falls, a World Heritage Site and one of the seven natural wonders of the world.

Significance of the Summit

  • The summit’s primary objective is to assess the progress made in establishing and developing the KAZA-TFCA since its inception.
  • The key objective is to review and track the progress of the Memorandum of Understanding done in 2016 and the implementation of the KAZA Treaty done in 2011.
  • The summit also seeks to get renewed commitment from the current leaders of the member countries.
  • The aim of the meeting is to make KAZA the best managed conservation area in the world.
  • About 70 per cent of KAZA land is under conversation made up of 103 wildlife management areas and 85 forest reserves.
  • Within it are also three World Heritage sites namely the Victoria Falls on the Zambezi River which makes the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe and the Okavango Delta and the Tsodilo Hills both in Botswana.
  • The summit comes in the aftermath of a 2022 first ever combined KAZA elephant census which found that the pachyderms’ populations in the area are stable. The aerial census results, published last year, put the combined elephant population in the conservation area at nearly 230,000. KAZA elephant aerial survey coordinator, Darren Potgieter, is participating at the summit where he is expected to contribute in the panel discussion on technical aspects of wildlife conservation.

Dominant issues

  • The summit, which was originally scheduled to take place in 2020, was mooted when the leaders of Botswana, Zimbabwe, Namibia and Zambia met in March 2019 for the Kasane Elephant Summit in Botswana to deliberate on their common problem of the growing burden of elephant overpopulation, was however postponed indefinitely due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • As a result, the topic of elephant numbers is expected to dominate the meeting.
  • Particularly emotive are two issues: the move by many Western countries to enact laws that ban the importation of wildlife hunting trophies into their territories as well as the continued refusal by the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) to allow these southern African countries to trade in elephant products.
  • Also expected to take centre-stage at the summit is the effect of climate change on the region’s conservation initiative.
  • The region is currently experiencing its most severe drought in three decades following poor rains that scientists have attributed to the El Nino phenomenon.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. Which countries are part of the Kavango-Zambezi (KAZA) Trans-Frontier Conservation Area?

a) Zambia, Tanzania, and Angola

b) Namibia, Botswana, and Zimbabwe

c) Kenya, Uganda, and Rwanda

d) South Africa, Lesotho, and Swaziland

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC)(2017)

  1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
  2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

 

Answer 6 B

Explanation

·         The Kavango-Zambezi (KAZA) Trans-Frontier Conservation Area is a conservation initiative that spans across multiple countries in Southern Africa.

·         The countries that are part of the KAZA TFCA are Namibia, Botswana, and Zimbabwe.

·         This vast conservation area aims to promote ecological connectivity and biodiversity conservation by allowing wildlife to move freely across national borders, thus ensuring the preservation of critical habitats and wildlife populations in the region.

·         While Zambia and Angola are neighboring countries in the region, they are not part of the KAZA TFCA.

·         Therefore, option B is the correct answer.  

 

Major Radhika Sen to receive UN gender advocate award

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/major-radhika-sen-indian-woman-peacekeeper-9358834/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 2- United Nations,  Awards

Context: Major Sen is the second Indian peacekeeper to receive this award, following Major Suman Gawani, who was honored in 2019 for her service with the UN mission in South Sudan.

Why in news

  • Major Radhika Sen is set to receive the UN Military Gender Advocate of the Year Award on May 30, coinciding with the International Day of UN Peacekeepers.

About Major Radhika Sen

  • Major Radhika Sen was born in Himachal Pradesh in 1993.
  • She is the second Indian peacekeeper to receive this award, after Major Suman Gawani, who was honoured in 2019 for her service with the UN mission in South Sudan.
  • Sen joined the United Nations Organization Stabilization Mission in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (MONUSCO) from March 2023 to April 2024.
  • She served as the commander of MONUSCO’s engagement platoon for the Indian Rapid Deployment Battalion (INDRDB), according to a UN press release.
  • Gender-sensitive peacekeeping is everyone’s business, not just us women. Peace begins with all of us in our beautiful diversity.

UN Military Gender Advocate of the Year Award

  • UN Military Gender Advocate of the Year Award was established in 2016.
  • It recognises the dedication of individual military peacekeepers in promoting gender equality across peacekeeping missions.
  • It aligns with the principles of UN Security Council Resolution 1325 on women, peace, and security.
  • The awardee is chosen from candidates nominated by force commanders and heads of missions from all peace operations, according to UN peacekeeping.

UN Peacekeeping

  • UN Peacekeeping is a vital tool employed by the United Nations to help countries navigate the path from conflict to peace.
  • It involves the deployment of military, police, and civilian personnel to regions affected by conflicts or political instability.
  • The primary objective of UN Peacekeeping is to facilitate peace and security, protect civilians, and support the restoration of stable governance structures.
  • It brings together the UN General Assembly, the UN Security Council, the Secretariat, troop and police contributors and the host governments in a combined effort to maintain international peace and security.
  • The first UN peacekeeping mission was established in May 1948, when the UN Security Council authorized the deployment of UN military observers to the Middle East to form the United Nations Truce Supervision Organization (UNTSO) to monitor the Armistice Agreement between Israel and its Arab neighbours.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q7.  Consider the following statements with regards to UN Peacekeeping Forces:

1.       UN Peacekeeping Forces are composed solely of military personnel.

2.       The UN Peacekeeping Force can only be deployed with the consent of the parties involved in a conflict.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

(a) 1, 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 only

(d) None

Q. The Security Council of UN consists of 5 permanent members, and the remaining 10 members are elected by the General Assembly for a term of (2009)

(a) 1 year

(b) 2 years

(c) 3 years

(d) 5 years

Ans: (b)

 

Answer 7 B

Explanation

·         UN Peacekeeping Forces are not solely composed of military personnel.

·         They often include civilian personnel, such as police officers, political experts, human rights observers, and other civilian experts, depending on the specific mission’s requirements. Hence Statement 1 incorrect.

·         One of the fundamental principles of UN peacekeeping is the consent of the parties involved in a conflict.

·         The deployment of UN Peacekeeping Forces requires the consent of the host country or parties to the conflict, as stipulated in the UN Charter.

·         This consent ensures the legitimacy of the peacekeeping operation and helps facilitate cooperation among all parties to achieve peace and stability. Hence, Statement 2 correct.

·         Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

 

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