Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (30-05-2024)
News at a Glance |
Andhra Pradesh: Farmers in Andhra Pradesh dread plummeting water levels in reservoirs ahead of kharif |
First Russian company sets foot in Sri City |
Science and Technology: India successfully test-fires Rudra air-to-surface missile from SU-30MKI |
IIT-Bombay, TCS to build India’s first Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager |
Polity and Governance: Conference on ‘Bharatiya Languages and India as One Linguistic Area’ launched at CIIL |
Schemes: An overview of the AMRUT scheme |
International: Instability and chaos in Haiti |
Farmers in Andhra Pradesh dread plummeting water levels in reservoirs ahead of kharif
Source: The Hindu
APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Agriculture in Andhra Pradesh
Context: Water stored in Godavari, Krishna, Penna, and other river basins reservoirs is less this year.
Why in News
- Even as farmers gear up for kharif operations, plummeting water levels to near-dead storage levels in the reservoirs across the State remain their major cause of concern.
Key Highlights
- According to official information, the water available in the Godavari, Krishna, Penna, and other river basins is a mere 226.92 TMC as against the gross capacity of Full Reservoir Level (FRL) of 983.49 TMC.
- In comparison, the water available in the reservoirs on May 28, 2023, was 413.3 TMC.
- Given this situation, the farmers worry that the kharif operations will be delayed if the water is not released in time.
- The Andhra Pradesh Rytu Sangham State president G. Eswaraiah said that the State government has not taken adequate steps to store the surplus water.
- The water was released into seas from rivers Krishna and Godavari. Now, the farmers were worried about the water release for kharif operations.
- Water should be released from Prakasam Barrage to take up kharif operations as the onset of the monsoon is likely in the first week of June.
- The farmers have already begun tilling in some parts of the State.
- The farmers of the Krishna Delta would benefit from the early release of water for kharif as they can raise three crops a year.
- The government has to take necessary steps to release water in time in the Godavari Delta and other areas as well.
- The total storage capacity of various major and medium reservoirs constructed on River Krishna is 589.67 TMC but the current storage is only 160.17 TMC as compared to last year’s 226.8 TMC on the same date of May 28.
Pulichintala
- Pulichintala is the main source of the Krishna Delta and is designed to store 45.77 TMC of water at 175 feet.
- The current level of water at the project is 95.14 feet.
- The water levels at KL Rao Sagar Pulichintala Project, popularly known as Pulichintala, have plummeted to 95 ft while the dead storage level is 119.23 ft.
Prakasam
- The water available at the Prakasam Barrage, constructed on the River Krishna downstream of Pulichintala, is 2.47 TMC, while the gross storage capacity is 3.07 TMC.
- According to Water Resources Department (WRD) officials, the FRL here is 72.6 feet, while the present level is 54.7 5 feet.
Srisailam
- The Srisailam project has almost reached dead storage, with the current storage at 32.15 TMC as against the total storage capacity of 215.81 TMC.
- The water stored at Nagarjuna Sagar Project is 123 TMC, while the dead storage is 112.18 TMC.
- The water cannot be released from the Srisailam project even for drinking purposes unless there are inflows and the reservoir is filled.
- The water cannot be released to the Nagarjuna Sagar Project and Pulichintala Project, which are located downstream of Srisailam.
Arthur Cotton Barrage
- The water available at Sir Arthur Cotton Barrage, constructed across the River Godavari, is 2.93 TMC.
- The dead storage at this Barrage is 1.2 TMC. While the FRL is 44.75 TMC, the current level is 10.9 ft.
- The water levels at other reservoirs, such as Tandava, Brahmasagar, Gundlakamma, Thotapalli Regulator, Gotta, Somasila, etc., are close to the dead storage levels.
About Godavari River
- The Godavari is India’s second longest river after the Ganga. Its source is in Trimbakeshwar, Maharashtra.
- It flows east for 1,465 kilometres, draining the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Karnataka, ultimately emptying into the Bay of Bengal through its extensive network of tributaries.
- The river has a religious significance, it is also known as the Vridha Ganga.
- The major tributaries of the river are classified as the left bank tributaries which include the Purna, Pranhita, Indravati and Sabari River and the right bank tributaries are Pravara, Manjira, Manair.
About Krishna River
- Krishna River rises in Maharashtra in the Western Ghats range near the town of Mahabaleshwar, not far from the coast of the Arabian Sea.
- It flows east to Wai and then in a generally southeasterly direction past Sangli to the border of Karnataka state.
- There the river turns east and flows in an irregular course across north-central Karnataka and then to the southeast and into southwestern Telangana state.
- It then veers southeast and then northeast, forming a portion of the border with Andhra Pradesh state.
- Turning east it flows into Andhra Pradesh to its delta head at Vijayawada, and from there flows southeast and then south until it enters the Bay of Bengal.
Other Water Bodies
- Telugu Ganga Canal: Also known as the Handri-Neeva Sujala Sravanthi (HNSS) canal, it is a major irrigation canal that diverts water from the Srisailam Reservoir to drought-prone areas in Rayalaseema region of Andhra Pradesh.
- Veligonda Project: This project involves the construction of a reservoir across the Paleru River in Andhra Pradesh, aimed at providing irrigation water to drought-prone areas in Prakasam and Nellore districts.
- Nagarjuna Sagar Reservoir: Located on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, the Nagarjuna Sagar Reservoir is one of the largest dams in India. It serves irrigation needs and also generates hydroelectric power.
- Pulichintala Project: Situated on the Krishna River, the Pulichintala Project is a multipurpose irrigation project that provides water for agriculture and drinking purposes in Andhra Pradesh.
- Polavaram Project: The Polavaram Project is a major irrigation and hydropower project on the Godavari River. Once completed, it is expected to benefit the agriculture sector in Andhra Pradesh significantly.
- Prakasam Barrage: Located on the Krishna River in Vijayawada, the Prakasam Barrage serves as a regulator for water flow and also facilitates navigation and transportation.
- Krishna Eastern Delta System: This irrigation system utilizes water from the Krishna River to irrigate agricultural lands in the eastern delta region of Andhra Pradesh.
CARE MCQ |
Q1. The Krishna Godavari River system plays a crucial role in the agricultural sector of which Indian states?
1. Telangana 2. Tamil Nadu 3. Andhra Pradesh 4. Karnataka 5. Kerala Code: a) 2 and 5 only b) 3 and 4 only c) 1, 3, and 4 only d) 2, 3, and 4 only |
Answer 1 C
Explanation
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First Russian company sets foot in Sri City
Source: The Hindu
APPSC Relevance: Current Events, Industries in Andhra Pradesh
Context: KuibyshevAzot plant set up in three acres with an initial outlay of ₹95 crore
Why in News
- KuibyshevAzot Engineering Plastics India Private Limited has become the first company from Russia to set foot in the Sri City industrial zone in Tirupati district.
Key Highlights
- Russian Consul General in Chennai Oleg N. Avdeev inaugurated the plant of KuibyshevAzot Engineering Plastics India Private Limited in Sri City.
- The new state-of-the-art facility established in a three-acre plot with an initial outlay of ₹95 crore is set to employ over 50 technicians, with plans to expand the workforce. With its clientele including Tata, Mahindra, Maruti Suzuki, Siemens, Schneider, Godrej etc., the company plans an initial annual production capacity of 15,000 tonnes.
- It was the fourth company in the engineering plastics sector the Sri City, which is home to automotive, electrical, electronics and consumer goods sectors.
About Sri City industrial zone
- Sri City is a rapidly developing industrial zone located in the state of Andhra Pradesh, India. Here are some key points about Sri City:
- Sri City is strategically situated in the Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh, near the border with Tamil Nadu.
- It is approximately 55 kilometers from Chennai, the capital city of Tamil Nadu, and about 70 kilometers from Tirupati, a prominent pilgrimage destination.
- Sri City was established as an Integrated Business City in 2008 with the vision of creating a world-class industrial park that attracts domestic and international investments.
- Sri City boasts state-of-the-art infrastructure and modern amenities to support industrial and commercial operations.
- It features well-planned industrial estates, commercial zones, residential areas, and social infrastructure such as schools, hospitals, and recreational facilities.
- It has attracted investments from leading domestic and international companies, making it one of the largest industrial clusters in South India.
- Special Economic Zone (SEZ): Sri City operates as a Special Economic Zone, offering various incentives and benefits to businesses operating within its premises.
- Sri City is well-connected by road, rail, and air. It is situated along the National Highway 16 (NH16) and is easily accessible from major cities such as Chennai, Bengaluru, and Hyderabad.
CARE MCQ
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Q2. Which of the following statements about Sri City are correct?
Code: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) All of the above |
Answer 2 B
Explanation
· Sri City operates as a Special Economic Zone (SEZ), offering various incentives and benefits to businesses operating within its premises. These incentives include tax exemptions, duty-free imports and exports, streamlined regulatory processes, and infrastructure support. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
· Therefore, option B is the correct answer. |
India successfully test-fires Rudra air-to-surface missile from SU-30MKI
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3- Defence Technology, Science and Technology
Context: RudraM-II is an indigenously-developed solid-propelled air-launched missile system meant for air-to-surface role to neutralise several types of enemy assets.
Why in News
- The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) on May 29 successfully flight tested the RudraM-II air-to-surface missile from a Su-30 MKI jet off Odisha coast at around 1130 hours.
Key Highlights
- The Defence Ministry said the flight-testing of the RudraM-II missile met all the trial objectives.
- The flight-test met all the trial objectives, validating the propulsion system and control & guidance algorithm.
- The performance of the missile has been validated from the flight data captured by range tracking instruments like electro-optical systems, radar and telemetry stations deployed by integrated test range, Chandipur at various locations, including the on-board ship.
- Defence Minister Rajnath Singh congratulated the DRDO, the IAF and the industry on the successful test-flight of RudraM-II.
- The flight test conducted off the coast of Odisha at around 11:30 am met all the trial objectives, validating the propulsion system and control and guidance algorithm.
- The flight data captured by range tracking instruments like electro-optical systems, radar and telemetry stations deployed by Integrated Test Range, Chandipur at various locations, including the onboard ship, validated the performance.
About RudraM-II
- RudraM-II is an indigenously-developed solid-propelled air-launched missile system meant for air-to-surface role to neutralise several types of enemy assets.
- They have been developed by the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) for the Indian Air Force (IAF).
- A number of state-of-the-art indigenous technologies developed by various DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) laboratories have been incorporated in the missile system.
- The missiles are meant for suppression of enemy air defences (SEAD) from long stand-off ranges, which in turn will enable IAF strike aircraft to carry out bombing missions without hindrance.
Features of RudraM-II
- RudraM-II is an indigenously developed solid-propelled air-launched missile system that can neutralise many types of enemy assets.
- It incorporates many state-of-the-art indigenous technologies developed by DRDO.
- The RudraM-II is an indigenously developed air-to-surface anti-radiation missile.
- The RudraM series are being developed by the DRDO as new-generation anti-radiation missiles (NGARMs) for destroying a variety of enemy surveillance, communication, radars, and command and control centers on the ground.
Significance of RudraM-II
- RudraM-II is an indigenously developed solid-propelled air-launched missile system.
- It is an air-to-surface missile that is meant to neutralise various types of enemy assets.
- The RudraM missiles are India’s first indigenous anti-radiation missiles.
- The performance of the missile has been validated from the flight data captured by range tracking instruments like electro-optical systems, radar and telemetry stations deployed by Integrated Test Range, Chandipur at various locations, including the on-board ship.
RudraM-II Air-to-Surface missile
- According to the Ministry of Defence, RudraM-II is an indigenously developed solid-propelled air-launched missile system.
- It’s a Air-to-Surface missile which can neutralise many types of assets of India’s enemies.
- Several state-of-the-art indigenous technologies developed by various DRDO laboratories have been incorporated into this missile system.
RudraM-I
- The Rudram-1 was a new generation anti-radiation missile (ARMs) developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- ARMs are designed to seek and destroy the enemy defence systems including radar, communication assets and other radio frequency sources.
- The RudraM-I was test-fired four years ago by the Indian Air Force at the integrated test range in Odisha’s Balasore.
- The defence ministry at the time said the RudraM-I hit the radiation target with “pin-point accuracy.”
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q3. Rudra is an advanced air-to-surface missile system utilized by military forces. Which of the following statements correctly describe the Rudra missile system?
1. Rudra is primarily designed for air-to-air combat scenarios. 2. It is equipped with advanced target acquisition and tracking capabilities. 3. Rudra missiles are launched from ground-based platforms. 4. The Rudra missile system has a high degree of accuracy in hitting its targets. Correct code: a) 2 and 3 b) 1 and 4 c) 2 and 4 d) 1 and 3
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Q. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018)
(a) An Israeli radar system (b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme (c) An American anti-missile system (d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea.
Ans: (c)
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Answer 3-C
Explanation: · Rudra is not designed for air-to-air combat scenarios; it is specifically an air-to-surface missile system. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. · Rudra is equipped with advanced target acquisition and tracking capabilities, enabling it to precisely locate and engage its targets. targets. Hence statement 2 is correct. · Rudra missiles are not launched from ground-based platforms; they are typically launched from aircraft or drones. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. · The Rudra missile system is known for its high degree of accuracy in hitting its intended. Hence statement 4 is correct. · Therefore, option C is the correct answer. |
IIT-Bombay, TCS to build India’s first Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS-3- Quant Computing, Science and Technology
Context: The Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager, an advanced sensing tool for semiconductor chip imaging, will help reduce the chances of chip failures and improve the efficiency of electronic devices.
Why in News
- The Indian Institute of Technology Bombay (IIT-Bombay) has entered a strategic partnership with Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) to develop India’s first Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager.
Features of Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager
- Over the next two years, experts from TCS will work with Dr. Kasturi Saha, Associate Professor in the Department of Electrical Engineering of IIT Bombay, to develop the quantum imaging platform in the PQuest Lab.
- Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager is a advanced sensing tool will hold the potential to unlock new levels of precision in the examination of semiconductor chips, reduce chip failures and improve the energy efficiency of electronic devices.
- This platform will enable better quality control of semiconductor chips, thereby improving product reliability, safety, and energy efficiency of electrical devices.
- Semiconductor chips are essential to all modern electronic devices, making them smart and efficient.
- With the ability to process data and complete tasks, these chips act as the brains of devices across industries such as communications, computing, healthcare, military systems, transportation and clean energy.
Significance
- PQuest group at IIT-Bombay is excited to collaborate with TCS on developing a quantum imaging platform for the non-destructive examination of chips, leveraging our extensive expertise in quantum sensing to drive innovation.
- The Second Quantum Revolution is progressing at an unprecedented speed, making it imperative to pool our resources and expertise to build cutting-edge capabilities in sensing, computing, and communication technologies.
- This initiative will have a transformative impact on various industries and society, with applications ranging from electronics to healthcare, and beyond.
Collaboration with industry
- The collaboration between TCS and IIT-Bombay is aligned with the National Quantum Mission — an initiative by the Government of India to position the nation as a global quantum technology leader.
- This collaboration aims to develop a quantum imaging platform for the non-destructive examination of chips.
Wide applications of Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager
- As semiconductors continue to shrink in size, traditional sensing methods lack the precision and capabilities to detect anomalies in chips.
- The Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager can image magnetic fields, enabling a non-invasive and non-destructive mapping of semiconductor chips, much like an MRI at a hospital.
- It uses the defects in a diamond’s structure, known as Nitrogen-Vacancy (NV) centres, together with the other hardware and software for detecting and characterizing anomalies in semiconductor chips.
- The diagnostic capabilities will have significant implications for failure analysis, device development, and various optimisation processes.
- With its advanced capabilities to identify chip defects such as current leakages and enable visualisation of three-dimensional charge flow in multi-layer chips, Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager is a leap forward in semiconductor imaging.
- It will have wide applications in microelectronics, biological, and geological imaging, and fine-scale imaging of magnetic fields, among others.
- This project builds on TCS and IIT-Bombay’s dynamic partnership since the 1990s, spanning joint research projects, collaborative education programs, internships, faculty development programs, and more.
- IIT-Bombay was the first institute to be signed as an academic partner for TCS’ Co-Innovation Network, a platform driving industry-academia collaboration for pioneering solutions.
Quantum Computing
- Quantum Technology is based on the principles of Quantum mechanics, that was developed in the early 20th century to describe nature in the small — at the scale of atoms and elementary particles.
- The first phase of this revolutionary technology has provided the foundations of our understanding of the physical world, including the interaction of light and matter, and led to ubiquitous inventions such as lasers and semiconductor transistors.
- However, despite a century of research, the quantum world still remains mysterious and far removed from our experiences based on everyday life.
- Thereby, a second revolution is currently underway with the goal of putting properties of quantum mechanics in the realms of computing.
- Conventional computers process information in ‘bits’ or 1s and 0s, following classical physics under which our computers can process a ‘1’ or a ‘0’ at a time.
- Quantum computers compute in ‘qubits’ (or quantum bits). They exploit the properties of quantum mechanics, the science that governs how matter behaves on the atomic scale.
- In this scheme of things, processors can be a 1 and a 0 simultaneously, a state called quantum superposition.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q4. The Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager is a cutting-edge technology in the field of:
1. Quantum computing 2. Medical imaging 3. Diamond synthesis 4. Environmental monitoring Correct Code: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 4 d) 2 and 4 |
Q. Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned? (2022)
(a) Cloud Services (b) Quantum Computing (c) Visible Light Communication Technologies (d) Wireless Communication Technologies
Ans: (b) |
Answer 4 D
Explanation · The Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager is a groundbreaking technology used in medical imaging and environmental monitoring. · It utilizes quantum properties to detect magnetic fields with exceptional sensitivity, making it valuable for both medical diagnostics and environmental sensing applications. · Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
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Conference on ‘Bharatiya Languages and India as One Linguistic Area’ launched at CIIL
Source: the Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS2- Polity and Governance
Context: Bhasha Sangam is an initiative of the Ministry of Education under Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat
Why in News
- A two-day conference on ‘Bharatiya Languages and India as One Linguistic Area’ being organised by Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL).
Key highlights
- Shailendra Mohan, Director, CIIL, who inaugurated the conference, also unveiled the Bharatiya Bhasha Parivar portal (parivar.ciil.org).
- It marks a significant milestone in linguistic exploration.
About Bharatiya Bhasha Parivar portal
- The Bharatiya Bhasha Parivar initiative focusing on 22 scheduled languages, signifies just the beginning of a broader endeavour and added that plans are under way to incorporate more languages, ensuring a comprehensive representation of India’s linguistic diversity.
- The portal currently hosts the grammatical features and vocabulary, including words and phrases, of 22 Scheduled Indian languages.
- The Bharatiya Bhasha Parivar portal aligns with the vision of fostering linguistic understanding and cultural appreciation among students and researchers nationwide.
- The Bharatiya Bhasha Parivar initiative aligns with the major objectives of the CIIL established to coordinate the development of Indian languages by promoting unity through scientific studies.
- The initiative aims to identify commonalities among these languages, thereby reinforcing the concept of Bharat as a unified nation.
Other Initiatives- Bhasha Sangam
- Bhasha Sangam is an initiative of the Ministry of Education under Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat, to teach basic sentences of everyday usage in 22 Indian languages (Eighth Schedule languages).
- It is developed by the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT).
- The idea is that people should acquire basic conversational skills in an Indian language other than their mother tongue.
- It is available on DIKSHA, ePathshala and through 22 booklets.
Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat
- It was launched in 2015 to promote engagement amongst the people of different States/UTs so as to enhance mutual understanding and bonding between people of diverse cultures, thereby securing stronger unity and integrity of India.
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Education.
- Every State and UT in the country would be paired with another State/UT for a time period, during which they would carry out a structured engagement with one another in the spheres of language, literature, cuisine, festivals, cultural events, tourism etc.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q5. Consider the following statements:
1. Bhasha Sangam is an initiative of the Ministry of Education under Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat. 2. The Bharatiya Bhasha Parivar portal currently hosts the grammatical features and vocabulary, including words and phrases, of 22 Scheduled Indian languages. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 both b) 2 only c) 1 only d) None |
Q. Consider the following statements: (2018)
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher’s education institutions are directly under the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only Ans- b |
Answer 5– A
Explanation: · Bhasha Sangam is an initiative of the Ministry of Education under Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat, to teach basic sentences of everyday usage in 22 Indian languages (Eighth Schedule languages). Hence, Statement 1 is correct. · The Bharatiya Bhasha Parivar initiative focusing on 22 scheduled languages, signifies just the beginning of a broader endeavour and added that plans are under way to incorporate more languages, ensuring a comprehensive representation of India’s linguistic diversity. The portal currently hosts the grammatical features and vocabulary, including words and phrases, of 22 Scheduled Indian languages. Statement 2 is correct · Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
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An overview of the AMRUT scheme
Source: The Hindu
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/an-overview-of-the-amrut-scheme-explained/article68230075.ece
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2- Polity and Governance, Important schemes
Context: AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) scheme
Why in News
- The World Bank estimates that around $840 billion is required to fund the bare minimum urban infrastructure over the next 15 years.
What is the AMRUT scheme?
- The AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) scheme was a flagship programme launched by the NDA-1 government in June 2015, with its 2.0 version launched on October 1, 2021.
- The AMRUT scheme was drawn to cover 500 cities and towns with a population of over one lakh with notified municipalities.
- Some of the challenges in infrastructure development with respect to water, mobility, and pollution were to be met by this scheme with some financial assistance from the Centre and the rest of the share mobilised by both States and respective cities.
- The purpose of the AMRUT mission was to
- ensure that every household has access to a tap with assured supply of water and a sewerage connection
- increase the value of cities by developing greenery and well-maintained open spaces such as parks and
- reduce pollution by switching to public transport or constructing facilities for non-motorised transport.
- The total outlay for AMRUT was ₹50,000 crore for five years from FY 2015-16 to FY 2019-20.
- AMRUT 2.0 was aimed at making cities ‘water secure’ and providing functional water tap connections to all households in all statutory towns.
- Ambitious targets were set up such as providing 100% sewage management in 500 AMRUT cities.
- The total outlay for AMRUT 2.0 is ₹2,99,000 crore, with the Central outlay being ₹76,760 crore for five years, and the rest of the amount to be mobilised by the States and cities.
How much money has been utilised?
- The AMRUT dashboard shows that as of May 19, 2024, a sum of ₹83,357 crore has been dispersed so far.
- This amount has been utilised to provide a total of 58,66,237 tap connections, and 37,49,467 sewerage connections.
- A total of 2,411 parks have been developed, and 62,78,571 LED lights have been replaced. These works include the contributions made by States and cities.
Need for AMRUT Mission
- It is estimated that about 2,00,000 people die every year due to inadequate water, sanitation and hygiene.
- In 2016, the disease burden due to unsafe water and sanitation per person was 40 times higher in India than in China.
- This has not improved much. Huge amounts of waste water and little treatment enhances the vulnerability and incidence of diseases.
- The 150 reservoirs monitored by the central government, which supplies water for drinking and irrigation, and are the country’s key source of hydro-electricity, were filled to just 40% of its capacity a few weeks ago.
- Around 21 major cities are going to run out of ground water. In a NITI Aayog report it was stated that 40% of India’s population will have no access to drinking water by 2030.
- Nearly 31% of urban Indian households do not have piped water; 67.3% are not connected to a piped sewerage discharge system; and average water supply per person in urban India is 69.25 litres/day, whereas the required amount is 135 litres.
- Additionally, air quality in AMRUT cities and in other large urban settlements continue to worsen.
- A National Clean Air Programme was launched by the central government in 2019, as AMRUT 2.0 focused only on water and sewerage and because the air quality concerns of AMRUT 1.0 were far from addressed.
Concerns Associated with AMRUT Scheme
- The basic fundamental of the scheme was erroneously constructed. Instead of a holistic approach, it took on a project-oriented attitude.
- AMRUT was made for cities with no participation from the cities. It was quite mechanical in design, with hardly any organic participation of the elected city governments, and driven by mostly private interests.
- The project was owned by bureaucrats, parastatals, and large technology-based companies.
- Similarly, the State level high powered committee is headed by the chief secretary with a private nexus of consultants and professionals.
- Peoples’ representatives are completely missing, in violation of the 74th constitutional amendment.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q6. Consider the following statements
1. The AMRUT mission requires participating states to undertake certain governance reforms, including the introduction of e-governance and strengthening of municipal finance systems. 2. The AMRUT mission provides 100% funding support from the central government for the implementation of projects in selected cities. Which of the following options is correct with regards to statements? a) Both statements are true. b) Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false. c) Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true. d) Both statements are false. |
Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017? (2017)
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade. 2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country. 3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade. Select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 2 and 3 only Answer: (b) |
Answer 6 C
Explanation · The AMRUT mission indeed requires participating states to undertake certain governance reforms, but it does not specifically mandate the introduction of e-governance or strengthening of municipal finance systems. · However, it does require states to undertake reforms related to improving urban governance, such as the enactment of reforms for setting up municipal cadres, devolving funds and functions, and improving transparency and accountability. · So, while governance reforms are part of the mission, the specific mention of e-governance and municipal finance systems in Statement 1 is incorrect. · The AMRUT mission does provide 100% funding support from the central government for the implementation of projects in selected cities. · This means that the central government bears the entire cost of the projects approved under the mission, relieving the burden on the state and urban local bodies. Therefore, Statement 2 is correct. · Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
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Instability and chaos persist in Haiti
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2- International Relations
Context: Resignation of former Prime Minister Ariel Henry
Why in news
- Following a three-month forced shutdown, Haiti’s main international airport in Port-au-Prince reopened, sparking hopes for shipment of essential products.
Key Highlights
- A gang violence persists in the capital, though most of the gangs’ demands have been addressed.
- Meanwhile, after months of delay due to legal obstacles and violence, an advance team of the Kenyan special forces police landed in Haiti to combat the instability.
What is being done for stability?
- After Prime Minister Ariel Henry’s resignation on April 24, the formation of a Council with seven members was the first major development.
- The Council has been tasked with restoring order in Haiti, setting the agenda of a new Cabinet, forming a national security council, and appointing an electoral commission to help conduct polls.
- It enjoys the backing of the Caribbean countries and the U.S. Caricom, a Caribbean trade bloc which helped form the council, said that the installation of the “politically inclusive council signals the possibility of a new beginning for Haiti.”
- While Finance Minister Michel Patrick Boisvert was appointed as interim Prime Minister, on April 30, former Minister Fritz Bélizaire was chosen for the post by the Council.
What is the situation at present?
- Though there is a Council, there is also a divide. During its first task of choosing a Prime Minister, four of the seven voting members chose Mr. Bélizaire.
- This decision to appoint the little-known official was taken without consulting the rest of the council or holding a formal vote.
- This divide has reportedly strengthened worries of the Council using its position to further its own corrupt needs, following a pattern consistent with previous political officials in Haiti.
- Moreover, gang violence continues. The insufficiently armed national police are still unable to counter the violence.
- Gang violence has become a part of daily life in Haiti over the last two decades, enabled by a weakened security apparatus, lack of effective law enforcement and widespread impunity.
- In the first three months of 2024, as per UN estimates, more than one person was killed due to gang violence every hour.
Why does gang violence continue?
- One of the driving forces behind gang violence was the continued control exercised by Mr. Henry, and it was expected that his resignation would allow for a semblance of peace and stability.
- However, not only has the violence continued (though there has been a reduction), there are new concerns.
- In May, UNICEF’s Representative in Haiti, Bruno Maes, noted that the health system is on the verge of collapse as it is faced with violence, mass displacement, dangerous epidemic and increasing malnutrition.
- About 1.6 million of the 4.4 million in Haiti face emergency levels of food insecurity, and the expected arrival of the monsoons will bring with it waterborne diseases such as cholera.
Way Forward
- There are three specific challenges for Haiti. First, the divide within the transitional Council underscores the inherently fragile political landscape of the country.
- A rocky start may set the tone for the rest of its decisions and the country’s faith in it.
- Second, the persistent threat posed by armed gangs continues to loom large over Haiti, perpetuating a cycle of violence and insecurity that hampers efforts to restore law and order.
- Gangs have warned of more violence if they are not given a seat at the table with the Council, and if their demand for amnesty for their crimes is not granted.
- Third, the deployment of a UN-backed security mission, comprised of Kenyan police forces, has sparked controversy and raised concerns about potential violation of human rights.
- While the mission aims to bolster efforts to combat gang violence and restore stability, there are fears that it may inadvertently exacerbate tensions and contribute to human rights abuses.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q7. Consider the following statements with regards to Haiti:
1. Haiti is situated in the Caribbean region. 2. The country has coastlines along both the Caribbean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 2 only (d) None |
Q. Turkey is located between (2014)
(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea (b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea (c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea (d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea Ans: (b) |
Answer 7 B
Explanation · Haiti is indeed situated in the Caribbean region. It occupies the western portion of the island of Hispaniola, which is located in the Caribbean Sea. So, Statement 1 is correct. · While Haiti does have a coastline along the Caribbean Sea, it does not have a coastline along the Atlantic Ocean. The Dominican Republic, which shares the island of Hispaniola with Haiti, has coastlines along both the Caribbean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean. So, Statement 2 is incorrect. · Therefore, option B is the correct answer. |