Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (29-05-2024)
| News at a Glance |
| Andhra Pradesh: In a first, Vijayawada railway division lays WCMS crossing |
| Doctors detect rare HbDP anaemia in Palnadu |
| Polity and Governance: Why did the Supreme Court set aside the first EVM-based election in India? |
| Environment: The controversy over eucalyptus planting in Kerala |
| International: India offers $1 million aid to disaster-hit Papua New Guinea |
| Art and Culture: Hampi’s Virupaksha temple in news |
| Economy: RBI launches PRAVAAH, Retail Direct mobile app and FinTech Repository |
In a first, Vijayawada railway division lays WCMS crossing
Source: Indian Express
APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Science and Technology
Context: Weldable Cast Manganese Steel Crossings (WCMSC) can help track cope with the increased speed and Heavy Axle Load (HAL).
Why in News
- In a significant achievement, the Vijayawada division of South-Central Railways (SCR) has successfully laid a Weldable Cast Manganese Steel (WCMS) crossing at Vetapalem yard section for the first time.
Weldable Cast Manganese Steel (WCMS)
- The WCMS crossing was laid on the down line at Vetapalem yard in the busy Vijayawada- Gudur section very recently.
- The basic objective of using Weldable Cast Manganese Steel Crossings (WCMSC) is to modernise the Indian railway track to cope with the increased speed and Heavy Axle Load (HAL).
- The WCMS crossings are crucial in railway tracks at the junctions where two rails cross.
- They are designed to handle the increased speed and HAL characteristic of modern railways, ensuring the smooth transition of train wheels from one track to another.
Need for Weldable Cast Manganese Steel (WCMS)
- Currently, tracks are laid with Long Welded Rails (LWR) i.e., a single rail over a length of block section (station to station).
- The yards are being separated with fish-plated joints behind turn-outs due to the lack of joint-free technology till now.
- However, with the advancement in technology in the form of WCMS crossing, all ‘Long Welded Rails’ can be converted into ‘Continuously Welded rails’ including the yards/turnouts.
- With this, we can see joint free tracks in maximum length of division vis-a-vis, increasing safety standards.
- This shall improve the riding experience, and quality without any jerks combined with enhanced safety and speed, especially at points in the yard.
- Especially, in the 130 kmph speed sections, it is one of the major criterian for trains to continue their journey without any hassle.
- This WCMS crossing offers superior strength, durability, and resistance to wear and tear.
Significance of WCMS
- WCMS technology eliminates the need for traditional fishplates and joints, ensuring a seamless and smooth rail journey.
- The weldable cast manganese steel crossing will significantly enhance safety and reduce maintenance costs, benefiting both passengers and freight customers.”
- The successful implementation of this technology is a testament to the division’s dedication to modernisation and up gradation of rail infrastructure.
Railways in Andhra Pradesh
- South Coast Railway Zone (SCoR) has been announced as the newest railway zone of the Indian Railways and is headquartered at Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
- The South Central Railway (SCR) Zone achieved a milestone in infrastructural development with the completion and commissioning of a 20.3 km-long electrified third line between Karavadi and Surareddipalem in Andhra Pradesh.
- The newly completed section in Prakasam district is part of the Vijayawada-Gudur tripling and electrification project, marking a significant advancement in railway infrastructure in the state.
Union Railway Budget and the state
- Andhra Pradesh has been allocated a staggering amount of Rs 9,138 crore for the development of railways for the financial year 2024-25.
- Indian Railways has been allocated Rs 2,52,000 crore for the financial year 2024-25.
- The total investment for development of railways in Andhra Pradesh is Rs 68,059 crore.
- About 97% of track electrification has been completed in the State.
- Rail track of 246 km length is being laid in the region every year compared to just 70 km per year during 2009-14.
- To facilitate speedy road transportation, 709 railway over bridges and railway under bridges have been constructed.
- Over 109 One Station One Product stalls have been set up at the railway stations across the State.
- In all, 72 railway stations in AP are being upgraded as part of the Amrit Bharat Station scheme.
Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS)
- Prime Minister laid foundation stones for the redevelopment of 10 railway stations in Vijayawada division and 12 railway stations in Waltair division under the second phase of the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS) virtually on February 26, 2024.
- The 10 stations selected in the second edition of ABSS this year include Anaparthi, Bapatla, Chirala, Gudivada, Gunadala, Machilipatnam, Rayanapadu, Rajahmundry, Samalkot, and Elamanchili.
- Launched in August 2023 by the Prime Minister, ABSS envisages upgrading 1,275 stations across Indian Railways in two phases.
- In the first phase, 11 stations under Vijayawada Division were identified for redevelopment. And in the run-up to launch the 2nd phase, a total of 10 stations have been identified for redevelopment.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to railway intrastructure in Andhra Pradesh:
1. South Coast Railway Zone (SCoR) has been announced as the newest railway zone of the Indian Railways with headquarters at Visakhapatnam. 2. Vijayawada division of South-Central Railways (SCR) has successfully laid a Weldable Cast Manganese Steel (WCMS) crossing. 3. A number of stations in Andhra Pradesh are covered under Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS), which was launched in 2024. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1,2 and 3 |
| Answer 1 A
Explanation
|
Guntur doctors detect rare HbDP anaemia in Palnadu patients
Source: Deccan Chronicle
APPSC Relevance: Public Health
Context: Rare HbDP anaemia in Palnadu patients
Why in News
- Doctors from the Pathology department of Guntur Government General Hospital (GGH) have detected the rare haemoglobin D-Punjab (HbDP) variant in two patients from Palnadu region.
Key Highlights
- Guntur GGH superintendent Dr. Kiran Kumar disclosed that the two persons belong to Srirampuram Tanda in Takkellapadu mandal of Palnadu district.
- The rare combination of sickle cell haemoglobin has been found for the first time in this region.
- The superintendent said the rare haemoglobin variant is usually found in Punjab.
- It has now been detected in blood samples of people who are suffering from anaemia in Andhra Pradesh.
- HbDP can be cured with bone marrow and stem cell therapy.
What is Hb D-Punjab?
- Haemoglobin D-Punjab (Hb D-Punjab) is one of the haemoglobin variants.
- It is derived from a point mutation in the beta-globin gene and is prevalent in the Punjab region of India and Pakistan, as well as in northern China and North America.
- Hb D-Punjab can be inherited in heterozygous with normal haemoglobin A, causing no clinical or haematological alterations.
- It can also be inherited in homozygous, which is the rarest form, and is commonly not related to clinical symptoms.
- Haemoglobin is a protein in your red blood cells that carries oxygen from your lungs to the rest of your body.
- Hb D-Punjab is a special type of haemoglobin. It is different from the normal kind because of a tiny change in the instructions (genes) that tell your body how to make haemoglobin.
- Hb D-Punjab happens because one small part of the gene (the recipe) is different. This change happens in a gene called the beta-globin gene.
- The name D-Punjab comes from the fact that this type of haemoglobin was first found in people from the Punjab region.
The treatment
- Most people with Hb D-Punjab don’t need any special treatment.
- If anyone has anaemia or other problems, doctors can help you manage it, but for most, it is not a big deal.
- So, Hb D-Punjab is just a different type of haemoglobin that some people have.
- It’s interesting to learn about because it shows how tiny changes in our genes can make us all a bit different.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q2. Which of the following statements correctly describe the rare hemoglobin D-Punjab (HbDP) variant disease?
1. HbDP is a hemoglobin variant caused by a point mutation in the beta-globin gene. 2. There is no treatment available for the disease. Correct code: a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 and 2 d) None |
| Answer 2 A
Explanation
· Therefore, option A is the correct answer. |
Why did the Supreme Court set aside the First EVM-based Election in India?
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 – Polity and Governance
Context: On May 19, 1982, the ECI introduced EVMs in the Paravur Assembly constituency in Kerala.
Why in News
- The High Court upheld the ECI’s decision to use EVMs and refused to interfere with the results.
Background
- On May 19, 1982, the Election Commission of India (ECI) introduced Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in the Paravur Assembly constituency in Kerala.
- The machines were used in 50 out of 84 polling stations in the constituency.
- Though six contenders were in the fray, the principal competition was between A.C. Jose of Congress and N. Sivan Pillai of the Communist Party of India.
- Since the margin of victory was just 123 votes, Jose filed an election petition in the Kerala High Court questioning the use of the EVMs.
- The High Court upheld the ECI’s decision to use EVMs and refused to interfere with the results.
- However, when the matter was taken on appeal to the Supreme Court, a three-judge Bench comprising Justices Syed Murtaza Fazal Ali, A. Varadarajan and Ranganath Misra declared the use of EVMs as unauthorised and ordered re-polling in the 50 polling stations through ballot paper.
Supreme Court Observation
- The Supreme Court did so because the Representation of the People Act, 1951, as it stood then, did not contain a provision empowering the ECI to use EVMs.
- Further, the Centre too had specifically refused to grant sanction for the use of the machines to cast votes.
- The ECI had gone ahead and published a notification in the Kerala Gazette on May 13, 1982, for the use of the machines.
- Such a notification was issued in purported exercise of the powers conferred on the ECI under Article 324 of the Constitution.
Legislative Power of ECI
- The Bench held that Article 324 must be read in harmony with, and not in isolation of, Articles 325 to 329 of the Constitution.
- The Commission in the garb of passing orders for regulating the conduct of elections cannot take upon itself a purely legislative activity which has been reserved under the scheme of the Constitution only to the Parliament and the State legislatures.
- By no standards can it be said that the Commission is a third chamber in the legislative process within the scheme of the Constitution.
- Merely being a creature of the Constitution will not give it plenary and absolute power to legislate as it likes without reference to the law enacted by the legislatures.
- Taking a cue from Justice Krishna Iyer’s words in Mohinder Singh Gill versus Chief Election Commissioner (1978), the three-judge Bench concluded that Article 324 would operate only in areas left unoccupied by legislation even if the widest possible connotation was given to the language employed in the Article.
Will the term ‘ballot’ include EVMs?
- Examining whether the term ‘ballot’ would include EVMs too, the Supreme Court said: “It may be mentioned here that word ‘ballot’ has been derived from the word ‘ballota’ which existed at a time when there was no question of any system of a voting machine.
- Even in 1951 when the Act was passed or the Rules made, the system of voting by machine was not in vogue in this country.
- In these circumstances, we are constrained to hold that the word ‘ballot’ in its strict sense would not include voting by the use of voting machines.
- In the verdict delivered on March 5, 1984, the court had also expressed its displeasure over the Centre having taken a neutral stand before the judicial forum despite having refused sanction for the use of EVMs in 1982.
- It is rather unfortunate that the Union of India which is a party to this case has taken a very neutral stand by neither supporting nor opposing the direction given by the Commission.
EVM: The Machine and Components
- An EVM has two units — the control unit and the balloting unit. These are connected by a cable.
- The EVM’s control unit is with the presiding officer, also known as polling officer. The balloting unit is kept in the voting compartment, where people cast their votes. The balloting unit is usually covered on all sides for the voter’s privacy.
- At the voting booth, the polling officer verifies your identity and then presses the ballot button that enables you to vote.
- On the ballot unit are candidates’ names and symbols with blue buttons next to them. The voter has to press the button next to the name of the candidate of his/her choice.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. Electronic voting machines (EVMs) was introduced in the 1982 polling of the Paravur Assembly constituency in Ernakulam, Kerala. 2. Section 61A was incorporated into the Representation of the People Act, 1950 by Parliament in 1992.
Which of the statements provided above is/are correct?
A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 |
Q. Consider the following statements: (2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
Ans: (d) |
| Answer 3- C
Explanation: · The introduction of electronic voting machines (EVMs) in certain polling stations of the Paravur Assembly constituency in Ernakulam, Kerala during the 1982 election marked a significant milestone in India’s electoral history. So, Statement 1 is correct. · Following his defeat, Jose contested the election results in the Kerala High Court, contending that the existing electoral laws, namely the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, did not authorize the Election Commission to utilize EVMs. However, the High Court dismissed his petition. Statement 2 is correct. · Subsequently, Jose appealed to the Supreme Court, which in 1984 ordered a re-poll in the 50 affected polling stations using traditional ballot papers. In this re-poll, Jose emerged victorious and secured the seat. · In 1992, the Indian Parliament amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951 by introducing Section 61A and accompanying rules, thereby officially legitimizing the use of EVMs in elections. · Since 1998, the Election Commission (EC) has extensively employed EVMs in electoral processes. The newer generation of EVMs is equipped with Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) functionality, which generates a printed slip containing the candidate’s name, symbol, and serial number, providing an additional layer of transparency and verification. · Despite calls to abolish EVMs, the Supreme Court has consistently rejected such pleas. Instead, it has issued directives mandating the use of VVPAT to enhance the accuracy and fairness of EVM-based voting systems, a move initiated in 2013. |
The Controversy over Eucalyptus Planting in Kerala
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Ecology and Environment
Context: Environmentalists protest eucalyptus planting saying the move would adversely affect forests and heighten human-animal conflicts.
Why in News
- On May 20, the Kerala government amended its earlier order that allowed the Kerala Forest Development Corporation (KFDC) to plant eucalyptus trees, to limit permission to only cut exotic tree species from lands in the KFDC’s control.
What are KDFC and its Plantations?
- The Kerala Forest Development Corporation (KFDC) was established on January 24, 1975, as part of a dynamic production forestry enterprise.
- The corporation has around 7,000 hectares (ha) of plantations.
- The plantation working circle includes the following species: Eucalyptus grandis, Acacia auriculiformis, Acacia mangium, Acacia crassicarpa, Acacia pycnantha (also known as wattle), Alnus nepalensis, Casuarina equisetifolia, and Pinus patula.
- Eucalyptus plantations have a rotation age of nine years; Acacia Auriculiformis trees, 18 years; and Acacia mangium, seven years.
- At the end of each cycle, plantations approved by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate change are felled.
- Clear-felled plantations are planted with species listed in a management plan. Before planting, experts check for soil quality and consult with the Kerala Forest Research Institute.
- The KFDC website also said plantations of exotic species, including eucalyptus, would be converted to those of indigenous species once exotic flora has been felled so as to be more ecologically and environmentally friendly.
What was the issue with the order?
- In 2021, the State government had published an eco-restoration policy.
- Among other things, it sought to address what it called the “proliferation of invasive species that are not suitable for our environment” and the resulting “depletion of natural forests”.
- Such depletion, according to the policy, was in turn forcing wild animals to move to human-occupied land in search of food and thus increasing the prevalence of human-wildlife conflict.
- A recent study by the Kerala State Forest Protective Staff Organisation — an association of frontline forest officers — found replacing exotic plants in forested areas with the corresponding natural species could help ensure food for wild elephants at Chinnakanal in Munnar.
- The Chinnakkanal landscape is prime elephant habitat in the Munnar forest division, and is filled with eucalyptus trees.
- The policy also acknowledged that invasive species of plants as well as animals had rendered “serious damage to natural habitats and ecosystems” and that “eradicating such invasive species … is of high priority.”
- Environmental activists alleged following the State’s order contravened the policy’s aspirations and undermined efforts to beat back invasive species and mitigate human-animal conflicts.
What is Eco-Restoration?
- Kerala has around 27,000 ha under industrial plantations.
- Against the backdrop of climate change and the promise researchers have said trees offer to mitigate against its worsening, the Kerala government had decided to phase out plantations of eucalyptus, acacia, wattle, and pine by 2024 and replace them with natural forests.
- This process is called eco-restoration. Many of these areas are currently overwhelmed with invasive species.
- For example, in 2019, in the Marayoor Sandal Division in Idukki, the forest department initiated a project supported by the UNDP, the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development, and the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority.
- Some 108 hectares of exotic species were removed to allow natural grasses to flourish. The result: active water streams in the area were restored after a 30-year gap.
Kerala Forest Development Corporation (KFDC)
- The Kerala Forest Development Corporation (KFDC) is a government-owned entity established in 1975.
- It was established with the objective of promoting sustainable forest management practices and supporting the socioeconomic development of forest-dependent communities in the state of Kerala, India.
About Eucalyptus
- Eucalyptus or gum tree is a fast-growing evergreen tree that looks attractive all year round, thanks to its decorative foliage and bark.
- Its ornamental leaves are large, grey-green or blue-grey, and the main stems shed their bark to create an appealing patterned ‘snakeskin’ effect. Mature trees may also produce clusters of petal-less flowers in summer.
- Eucalyptus trees are native to Australia and are therefore suitable for growing in milder areas of UK. They’re tolerant of drought once established.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following statements with regards to Kerala Forest Development Corporation (KFDC):
I. Kerala Forest Development Corporation (KFDC) was established in the year 1975. II. Its primary objective is to promote sustainable forest management practices. III. KFDC engages in activities such as afforestation, timber harvesting, and ecotourism development. IV. KFDC primarily focuses on industrial logging and timber exportation. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) I and II b) II and III c) I, II, and III d) II, III, and IV
|
Q. Consider the following statements: (2023)
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’ 1. The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest. 2. Hunting is not allowed in such area. 3. People of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce 4. People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one b) Only two c) Only three d) All four Ans: (c)
|
| Answer 4– C
Explanation: · Kerala Forest Development Corporation (KFDC) was established in the year 1975. Hence Statement 1 is correct. · The primary objective of KFDC is to promote sustainable forest management practices. Hence Statement 2 is correct. · KFDC engages in various activities such as afforestation, timber harvesting, and ecotourism development to achieve its objectives. Hence Statement 3 is correct. · KFDC does not primarily focus on industrial logging and timber exportation; instead, it focuses on sustainable practices and community development. statement 4 is incorrect.
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India offers $1 million aid to Disaster-hit Papua New Guinea
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS-3 Disaster Management
Context: India offers $1 million aid to Disaster-hit Papua New Guinea
Why in News
- The Government of India has granted $1 million as immediate assistance for Papua New Guinea, which has been hit by a devastating flood and landslip that has so far killed 2,000 people.
Key Highlights
- Earlier Prime Minister Narendra Modi had conveyed his condolences and extended India’s support saying, deeply saddened by the loss of lives and damage caused by the devastating landslip in Papua New Guinea.
- Our heartfelt condolences to the affected families and prayers for speedy recovery of the injured. India is ready to offer all possible support and assistance.
- The situation in Papua New Guinea became serious on May 24 when a massive landslip buried nearly 2,000 people.
- India had earlier supported Papua New Guinea in 2018 when the country was rocked by an earthquake and subsequently in 2019 and 2023 when volcanic eruptions hit the country.
What is a landslide?
- A landslide is defined as the movement of a mass of rock, debris, or earth down a slope.
- Landslides are a type of mass wasting which denotes any down-slope movement of soil and rock under the direct influence of gravity.
- The term landslide encompasses five modes of slope movement: falls, topples, slides, spreads, and flows.
- These are further subdivided by the type of geologic material (bedrock, debris, or earth).
- Debris flows and rock falls are examples of common landslide types.
- Almost every landslide has multiple causes. Slope movement occurs when forces acting down-slope exceed the strength of the earth materials that compose the slope.
Causes of Landslides
- Causes include factors that increase the effects of down-slope forces and factors that contribute to low or reduced strength.
- Landslides can be initiated in slopes already on the verge of movement by rainfall, snowmelt, changes in water level, stream erosion, changes in ground water, earthquakes, volcanic activity, disturbance by human activities, or any combination of these factors.
- Earthquake shaking and other factors can also induce landslides underwater.
- These landslides are called submarine landslides. Submarine landslides sometimes cause tsunamis that damage coastal areas.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. Consider the following statements
Which of the following statements about landslides are correct? I. Landslides are the downward movement of soil, rock, and debris on a slope. II. Landslides can be triggered by factors such as heavy rainfall, earthquakes, and human activities. III. Landslides only occur in mountainous regions. IV. Landslides can cause significant damage to infrastructure and pose risks to human lives. Which of the above statements are correct? a) I and II b) II and IV c) I, II, and IV d) I, III, and IV |
Q. Consider the following statements: (2023)
1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. 2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (c) |
| Answer 5 C
Explanation · A landslide is a geological phenomenon characterized by the downward movement of a mass of soil, rock, and debris along a slope. · This movement can vary in speed and scale, ranging from slow, gradual displacement to rapid, catastrophic events. Landslides can be triggered by various factors such as heavy rainfall, earthquakes, volcanic activity, human activities. · Landslides involve the downward movement of soil, rock, and debris on a slope. Hence statement 1 is correct. · Landslides can indeed be triggered by factors such as heavy rainfall, earthquakes, and human activities. Hence statement 2 is correct. · Landslides can cause significant damage to infrastructure and pose risks to human lives. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. · Landslides can occur in various geographical settings, not just mountainous regions. Hence statement 4 is correct. · Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
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Hampi’s Virupaksha Temple in news
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS1- Art and Culture
Context: A nationally protected monument and a UNESCO World Heritage Site
Why in News
- Located at the historical site of Hampi, the Virupaksha temple’s pavilion or the saalu mantap was damaged, leading some conservationists to blame Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) officials for allegedly neglecting its protection and conservation.
What is the Virupaksha temple’s historical significance?
- ASI officials argued that the restoration work of the temple, including the pavilion, was already underway and the rains led to its pre-emptive collapse.
- A nationally protected monument and a UNESCO World Heritage Site, the temple is believed to have its origins in the 7th century.
- Despite legends about its origins going further back, the Virupaksha temple gained prominence and underwent extensive expansion in the 14th century during the Vijayanagara Empire (1336 to 1646).
- Founded by Harihara I of the Sangama dynasty, the Vijayanagara empire expanded from a strategic position on the banks of the Tungabhadra River to become one of the most powerful kingdoms of its time.
- The temple flourished under the patronage of the Vijayanagara rulers, who were great builders and patrons of art.
- It became a vital centre for the religious and cultural activities of its time.
- It is a prime example of Dravidian temple architecture, characterised by its grand gopurams (towering gateways), the shikhara towering over the sanctum sanctorum, its intricate carvings and pillared halls.
- Richly adorned with carvings and sculptures, the gopuram depicts various deities, mythological scenes and animals.
- The sanctum sanctorum houses the Shiva lingam, the main object of worship.
- UNESCO also recognised its uniqueness and categorised the Group of Monuments at Hampi as a World Heritage Site.
What caused the Virupaksha temple pavilion to collapse?
- The pavilion was constructed using stone pillars.
- The pillars’ condition has deteriorated because of natural phenomena such as rain over a long period.
- Only three metres of the 19-metre-long pavilion, consisting of four pillars, are damaged due to heavy rain.
- The entire pavilion was set for restoration and we were also aware that these pillars lacked strong foundations.
- However, as per our estimation, we thought the pillars would last at least for another four to five years.
- These stone pillars were subject to very heavy rains in the past and the foundation of the pavilion also lost its strength gradually, leading to the collapse.
How is the ASI restoring the Virupaksha temple?
- The ASI is responsible for 57 out of the 95 monuments in Hampi that are nationally protected, while the rest are under the state government’s control.
- Before beginning the restoration work, ASI digitally documented all the monuments under its control.
- The restoration work began in 2019, with the first phase completed between 2019-20 and the second phase completed between 2022-22.
- The pavilion was also supposed to be restored later on.
- A portion is damaged, the ASI is dismantling the entire pavilion and will undertake restoration work on a priority basis.
- The Hampi Circle of ASI constituted a committee of senior archaeologists, conservationists and engineers who will review and document the monuments to check the damage and restoration requirements.
- It was to protect the monuments and ensure the structures do not suffer further damage.
- The works will be classified as major or minor repairs, based on which their restoration will be done.
- A final report on the monument’s assessment and funds for restoration will be submitted to the Director General of ASI.
Challenges in restoring monuments
- ASI officials stated that issues related to funding, logistics and human resources are the key challenges they face while taking up restoration work.
- Rs 8 crore was granted in the last financial year by the Central government for the restoration of monuments in the Kalyan Karnataka region, stretching from Vijayanagar to Bidar.
- Further, the restoration of stone pillars requires the same type of stone used initially and is done through a traditional method, which is time-consuming.
- Das said restoring the dismantled pavilion will cost roughly Rs 50 lakhs and is expected to be completed in three to four months.
- The UNESCO website also noted broader concerns about the heritage site’s preservation.
- The Virupaksha temple is in constant worship, this has led to many additions and alterations to different parts of temple complex.
- Similarly, the haphazard growth of modern shops, restaurants in and around it and its bazaar that caters to religious and social tourists has impacted adversely on its setting as has the asphalting of the roads over the ancient pathway in front of the Virupaksha temple.
- The tensions between modern uses and protecting the fabric and setting of the ancient remains need to be managed with the utmost sensitivity.
Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
- ASI, under the Ministry of Culture, is the premier organisation for the archaeological research and protection of the cultural heritage of the nation.
- Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act, 1958 governs the functioning of ASI.
- It administers more than 3650 ancient monuments, archaeological sites and remains of national importance.
- Its activities include carrying out surveys of antiquarian remains, exploration and excavation of archaeological sites, conservation and maintenance of protected monuments etc.
- It was founded in 1861 by Alexander Cunningham- the first Director-General of ASI. Alexander Cunningham is also known as the “Father of Indian Archaeology”.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Consider the following statements:
I. The Virupaksha Temple is located in the UNESCO World Heritage Site of Hampi in the Indian state of Karnataka. II. It is dedicated to the Hindu deity Lord Virupaksha, an aspect of Lord Shiva. III. The temple complex dates back to the 7th century CE and has undergone several expansions and renovations over the centuries. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) I, II, and III b) II, III c) Only III d) Only II
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Q: The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022)
(1) Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines, (2) A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni, (3) Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code: (a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (c) |
| Answer 6 A
Explanation · The Virupaksha Temple is indeed located in the UNESCO World Heritage Site of Hampi in Karnataka. Hence Statement 1 is correct. · The temple is dedicated to Lord Virupaksha, an aspect of Lord Shiva. Hence Statement 2 is correct. · The temple complex does indeed date back to the 7th century CE and has undergone several expansions and renovations over the centuries, reflecting various architectural styles and historical periods. Hence Statement 3 is correct. · Therefore, option A is the correct answer. |
RBI launches PRAVAAH, Retail Direct mobile app and FinTech Repository
Source: Economic Times
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3- Banking Sector, Economy
Context: Dominance of India and China in Supply of Essential drugs to Europe
Why in news
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has launched three major initiatives to enhance regulatory processes, facilitate retail investment, and provide comprehensive data on the fintech sector.
Key Highlights
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched three major initiatives namely the PRAVAAH portal, RBI Retail Direct mobile application and FinTech Repository as earlier announced in April 2023, April 2024 and December 2023 respectively.
- The said initiatives, aimed at enhancing regulatory processes, facilitating retail investment, and providing comprehensive data on the fintech sector, were launched by Governor Shaktikanta Das in presence of several leaders from the industry.
- According to the central bank, the PRAVAAH portal (Platform for Regulatory Application, VAlidation and AutHorisation) is a secure, centralized web-based platform designed for individuals and entities to seek authorizations, licenses, or regulatory approvals from the RBI.
About PRAVAAH
- The PRAVAAH portal (Platform for Regulatory Application, VAlidation and AutHorisation) is a secure, centralized web-based platform designed for individuals and entities to seek authorizations, licenses, or regulatory approvals from the RBI.
- PRAVAAH is a secure and centralised web-based portal for any individual or entity to seek authorisation, license or regulatory approval on any reference made by it to the Reserve Bank.
- It features online application submission, status tracking, and timely decision-making, covering 60 different application forms across various regulatory and supervisory departments.
- The following are some of the key features available in the portal.
(i) Submit the application online on the portal;
(ii) Track and Monitor the status of the application/reference;
(iii) Respond to any clarification/query sought by the RBI in connection with the application/reference; and
(iv) Receive a decision from the Reserve Bank in a time bound manner.
FinTech Repository
- The FinTech Repository aims to capture essential information about FinTech entities, their activities, technology uses, etc.
- FinTechs, both regulated and unregulated, are encouraged to contribute to the repository.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q7. Which of the following statements correctly describe the PRAVAAH portal?
1. PRAVAAH stands for “Power Railways Availability and Efficiency Improvement”. 2. It is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Railways, Government of India. 3. The PRAVAAH portal aims to monitor and optimize energy consumption in Indian Railways. 4. The portal provides real-time data on train schedules and ticket availability. Code: a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 2 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 3 |
Q. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022)
1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. 2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. 3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans- b |
| Answer 7 B
Explanation · PRAVAAH stands for “Platform for Real-time Analysis of Vital Railways’ Assets and Help” and not “Power Railways Availability and Efficiency Improvement.” Statement I is incorrect. · The PRAVAAH portal is indeed an initiative launched by the Ministry of Railways, Government of India. Statement 2 is correct. · The main aim of the PRAVAAH portal is to monitor and optimize energy consumption in Indian Railways, making operations more efficient and sustainable. Statement 3 is correct. · While the PRAVAAH portal provides various functionalities related to railway operations and asset management, it does not specifically offer real-time data on train schedules and ticket availability. Statement 4 is incorrect. · Therefore, option B is the correct answer. |