Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (15-05-2024)
| News at a Glance |
| Andhra Pradesh: Andhra Pradesh government to appoint 2,379 future skills experts in schools |
| Legislative council of Andhra Pradesh sat for an average of 13 days in 2023 |
| Ecology and Environment: Ivory, rhino horn trafficking has declined but global problems persist: UN report |
| Economy: India VIX Index in news |
| Internal Security: Govt. extends ban imposed on LTTE for five years |
| Advocates cannot be held liable under Consumer Protection Act: SC |
| Internal Security: Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre blocks more than 1,000 Skype IDs |
Andhra Pradesh government to appoint 2,379 future skills experts in schools
Source: The New Indian Express
APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Skill development, Education, Economy of Telangana
Context: The initiative aims to equip students with the necessary skills to compete globally in embracing technology and future opportunities
Why in News
- The Principal Secretary of the School Education Department, Andhra Pradesh revealed that a total of 2,379 future skills experts will be selected and deployed in 7,094 government high schools across the State by June 12.
Key Highlights
- The initiative of future skills experts in schools, aims to equip students with the necessary skills to compete globally in embracing technology and future opportunities.
- Fourth-year engineering students will be chosen as the future skills experts to enhance digital teaching and learning in government high schools.
- Regional Joint Directors (RJDs) and District Education Officers (DEOs) have been instructed to collaborate with principals of respective colleges for the selection process.
- Informing that the mapping between engineering colleges and government high schools has been completed, the Principal Secretary said instructions have been issued regarding the duties of these experts.
- Each expert will be assigned to three schools from the academic year 2024-25 to cultivate academic skills among students and provide guidance.
Performance and selection of future skills experts
- Regarding the performance and selection of future skills experts, reports from students should be reviewed by DEOs by May 21 and the top three candidates at the State and district levels should be selected.
- The DEOs are mandated to forward the information of the selected experts to the mission director by May 22.
- On May 27, a virtual meeting will be held with the 26 future skills experts selected by the state selection committee, one from each district. RJDs and DEOs have been instructed to coordinate with college principals by May 31.
- The selected future skills experts assigned to teach 8th-grade students will be provided with an e-book containing basic concepts of the three-year engineering course for assessment.
- They will conduct an online test on June 10 to finalise the future experts.
Education in Andhra Pradesh
- As per the 2011 census of India, Andhra Pradesh (post reorganisation) has an overall literacy rate of 67.35% (males 74.77%, females 59.96%), significantly lower than the overall national average of 74.04%.
- Among the Indian states and union territories, it stands at 32nd position.
- There were a total of 29,859,982 literates: 16,549,514 males and 13,310,468 females. In terms of district-wise literates, united East Godavari has the most with 3,348,077 and united Vizianagaram has the least with 1,238,388.
- The government also implements fee reimbursement scheme for the economically backward sections of the state.
- The School Education Department of Andhra Pradesh, the largest department of the state, manages and regulates schools in various districts of the state.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q1. Consider the following statements:
1. Fourth-year engineering students will be chosen as the future skills experts to be deployed in government high schools across the Andhra Pradesh State. 2. As per the 2011 census of India, Andhra Pradesh (post reorganisation) has an overall literacy rate significantly higher than the overall national average. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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| Answer 1 A
· The Principal Secretary of the School Education Department, Andhra Pradesh revealed that a total of 2,379 future skills experts will be selected and deployed in 7,094 government high schools across the State by June 12. · The initiative of future skills experts in schools, aims to equip students with the necessary skills to compete globally in embracing technology and future opportunities. · Fourth-year engineering students will be chosen as the future skills experts to enhance digital teaching and learning in government high schools. Hence Statement 1 is correct. · As per the 2011 census of India, Andhra Pradesh (post reorganisation) has an overall literacy rate of 67.35% (males 74.77%, females 59.96%), significantly lower than the overall national average of 74.04%. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect. So, correct answer is option A. |
Legislative council of Andhra Pradesh sat for an average of 13 days in 2023
Source: The Times of India
APPSC Relevance: Legislature of Andhra Pradesh
Context: The ‘Annual Review of State Laws 2023’ report.
Why in News
- Legislative council of Andhra Pradesh sat for an average of 13 days in 2023
Key highlights
- Six states – Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh – have both legislative assembly and legislative council functioning.
- In 2023, the legislative councils met for 26 days on an average, whereas Telangana and AP councils sat far below the average at 10 and 13 days respectively in the entire year.
- Also, council sessions often overlap with the assembly sessions.
- The ‘Annual Review of State Laws 2023’ report also observed that legislators have three basic responsibilities – debating and passing bills, scrutinising and approving govt budgets and holding the govt responsible.
About Legislative Councils
- The State Legislative Council, or Vidhan Parishad, or Saasana Mandali is the upper house in those states of India that have a bicameral state legislature; the lower house being the State Legislative Assembly. Its establishment is defined in Article 169 of the Constitution of India.
- Only 6 out of 28 states have a Legislative Council. These are Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh.
- No union territory has a legislative council.
Qualification and tenure
- Members of a State Legislative Council (MLC) must be a citizen of India, at least 30 years old, mentally sound, not an insolvent, and must be an enrolled voter of the state.
- A member may not be a Member of Parliament and Member of the State Legislative Assembly at the same time.
- A member must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any state.
- The tenure of the MLCs are six years. One-third of the members of State Legislative Council retire after every two years.
- This arrangement parallels that for the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament of India.
Creation, abolition and roles of State Legislative Councils
- According to the Article 169 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament of India can create or abolish the State Legislative Council of a state if that state’s legislature passes a resolution for that with a special majority.
- The existence of a State Legislative Council has proven politically controversial.
- A number of states that have had their Legislative Council abolished have subsequently requested its re-establishment; conversely, proposals for the re-establishment of the Legislative Council for a state have also met with opposition.
- Proposals for abolition or re-establishment of a state’s Legislative Council require confirmation by the Parliament of India.
- The Constitution of India gives limited power to the State Legislative Council.
- The State Legislative Council can neither form or dissolve a state government.
- The State Legislative Council also have no role in the passing of money bills.
- But some of the powers it has is that the chairman and Deputy Chairman of the State Legislative Council enjoy the same status of Cabinet Ministers in the state.
Andhra Pradesh Legislative Council
- The Andhra Pradesh Legislative Council or Āndhra Pradēś Śāsana Maṇḍali is the upper house of the bicameral legislature of the Indian state, Andhra Pradesh.
- It is situated in the state Legislative capital of Amaravati comprising a total of 58 seats.
- The Sasana Mandali has been in existence in two spells – from 1958 to 1985, and from 2007 continuing till today.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q 2. Which of the following pairs of states have Legislative Councils?
1. Punjab and Himachal Pradesh 2. Uttar Pradesh and Telangana 3. Bihar and Andhra Pradesh 4. Maharashtra and Karnataka
Correct Code: A. Only 1 and 2 B. Only 1, 2 and 3 C. Only 1 and 4 D. Only 2,3 and 4 |
| Answer 2 D
Explanation · The Andhra Pradesh Legislative Council or Āndhra Pradēś Śāsana Maṇḍali is the upper house of the bicameral legislature of the Indian state, Andhra Pradesh. · It is situated in the state Legislative capital of Amaravati comprising a total of 58 seats. · Six states – Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh – have both legislative assembly and legislative council functioning. · Therefore, Option B is the correct answer. |
Ivory, rhino horn trafficking has declined but global problems persist: UN report
Source: The Indian Express
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/un-report-ivory-rhino-horn-trafficking-decline-9328116/
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 Conservation of flora and fauna, Ecology and Environment
Context: Elephant ivory and rhinoceros horn trafficking has shown a decline globally, however, there is no clear reduction in wildlife trafficking.
Why in News
- United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), launched third edition of the United Nations’ World Wildlife Crime Report in Vienna.
Key Highlights
- The report by UNODC said that over the past decade, poaching, seizure levels and market prices have “declined solidly” for ivory and rhino horn.
- The report analysed global data and trends in wildlife trafficking from the period 2015-2021 and found that seizures of wild animals and plant species were recorded in 162 countries.
- These involved 4,000 plant and animal species and 3,250 of those were protected under the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), a global treaty. The treaty regulates trade in animals and plants based on the level of threats they face.
- Elephants, crocodilian species, corals, carnivores, snakes, turtles, rosewood, pangolins, turtles and tortoises and bivalve molluscs were the animal and plant species that figured most commonly in seizures made of wildlife and their body parts.
- In terms of broad markets, rhinos, pangolins and elephants were the top three traded wildlife species. In plants, cedars, rosewoods and agarwood were high in demand.
- In cases of certain plants and animals, like orchids, for instance, the rarity of species is a driving force behind the trade.
Drivers behind wildlife and plant trafficking
- Key among the drivers behind wildlife and plant trafficking were reasons such as food, medicine, animal collection, pet trade and making fashion products and adornments out of body parts.
- The report noted that each category of demand comprises its own set of trade dynamics.
- For instance, the report pointed out, the factors that affect demand for python skins for fashion trends are different from those that affect demand for its meat or pet trade.
India
- India too has seen a spate of wildlife seizures at airports, seaports and land borders, especially in states such as Mizoram and Manipur.
- The Department of Revenue Intelligence seized 1,652 mammals, birds, reptiles and amphibian species in 2022-23, as per the Smuggling in India Report 2022-23.
- About 40 per cent of the seizures were classified as threatened or near threatened species
- Wildlife crime control expert and Chief Executive Officer of Wildlife Trust of India Jose Louies said that India is witnessing a shift in illegal trade as the demand for live animals, especially exotic ones as pets, is on the rise.
Use of Internet
- The involvement of educated people on both, demand and supply sides, is seen, Louies said, citing the use of the internet to carry out such trade.
- The traditional definition of a wildlife trafficker is changing.
- There are people buying, selling and bartering animals on the internet.
- The exotic pets can also turn invasive and pose a threat to our local ecosystems and wildlife.
- This poses a threat to our local ecosystems and species.
- The UN report, too, noted that among the harms of illegal wildlife trade are issues such as biodiversity degradation, the threat of extinction and the threat of invasive species taking over local habitats.
United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime
- The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is a United Nations office that was established in 1997 as the Office for Drug Control and Crime Prevention by combining the United Nations International Drug Control Program (UNDCP) and the Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Division in the United Nations Office at Vienna, adopting the current name in 2002.
- The agency’s focus is the trafficking and abuse of illicit drugs, crime prevention and criminal justice, international terrorism, and political corruption. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. Wildlife seizures at land borders, has declined in north eastern states in India. 2. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) was established in 1997. 3. Headquarters of UNODC is located in Geneva. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 only
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Q. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): (UPSC Prelims 2017)
Which of the given statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (B)
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| Answer 3– D
Explanation – · India has seen a spate of wildlife seizures at airports, seaports and land borders, especially in states such as Mizoram and Manipur. · The Department of Revenue Intelligence seized 1,652 mammals, birds, reptiles and amphibian species in 2022-23, as per the Smuggling in India Report 2022-23. · Statement 1 is incorrect. · The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is a United Nations office that was established in 1997 as the Office for Drug Control and Crime Prevention by combining the United Nations International Drug Control Program (UNDCP) and the Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Division in the United Nations Office at Vienna, adopting the current name in 2002. · Hence, Statement 2 is correct, but statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. |
India VIX Index in news
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Capital Market, Indian Economy
Context: Currently, the fear among the market players is coming from the outcome of the ongoing Lok Sabha elections.
Why in News
- India VIX, which is an indicator of the market’s expectation of volatility over the near term, surged past the 21 mark on May 14.
What is the Volatility Index?
- The Volatility Index, VIX or the Fear Index, is a measure of the market’s expectation of volatility over the near term.
- Volatility is often described as the ‘rate and magnitude of changes in prices’ and in finance often referred to as risk.
- Usually, during periods of market volatility, the market moves steeply up or down and the volatility index tends to rise.
- As volatility subsides, the Volatility Index declines.
- The Volatility Index is a measure of the amount by which an underlying index is expected to fluctuate in the near term, (calculated as annualised volatility, denoted in percentage e.g. 20 per cent) based on the order book of the underlying index options.
- The Chicago Board of Options Exchange (CBOE) was the first to introduce the volatility index for the US markets in 1993 based on S&P 100 Index option prices. In 2003, the methodology was revised and the new volatility index was based on S&P 500 Index options.
- Since its inception, it has become an indicator of how market practitioners think about volatility. Investors use it to gauge market volatility and base their investment decisions accordingly.
India VIX
- India VIX is a volatility index computed by the NSE based on the order book of NIFTY Options. For this, the best bid-ask quotes of near and next-month NIFTY options contracts, which are traded on the F&O segment of NSE are used.
- India VIX indicates the investor’s perception of the market’s volatility in the near term i.e. it depicts the expected market volatility over the next 30 calendar days.
- The higher the India VIX values, the higher the expected volatility and vice versa, as per NSE.
- ‘VIX’ is a trademark of the CBOE, and Standard & Poor’s has granted a license to NSE, with permission from the CBOE, to use such a mark in the name of the India VIX and for purposes relating to the India VIX.
Reasons for surge of India VIX
- In May so far, the India VIX has risen by around 53 per cent to above 20.
- The volatility seen in the benchmark equity indices was amid concerns over the results of the ongoing elections, set to be declared on June 4.
- Heavy selling by foreign portfolio investors, who have dumped Rs 18,375 crore (till May 13) of Indian equities, have also led to the fall in the domestic market.
- A high number indicates participants are getting more cautious and expect volatility as the event unfolds.
- India VIX reflects the expected volatility and typically rises ahead of events like elections that could have a major impact on the market’s trajectory. As expectations of outcome keep changing, VIX also keeps rising,
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following statements:
I. India VIX is a volatility index computed by the Bombay Stock Exchange. II. The Chicago Board of Options Exchange (CBOE) was the first to introduce the volatility index for the US markets Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct |
Q3. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (UPSC Prelims 2023)
Ans: (D)
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| Answer 4– D
Explanation – · India VIX is a volatility index computed by the NSE based on the order book of NIFTY Options. For this, the best bid-ask quotes of near and next-month NIFTY options contracts, which are traded on the F&O segment of NSE are used. · So, statement I is incorrect. · The Chicago Board of Options Exchange (CBOE) was the first to introduce the volatility index for the US markets in 1993 based on S&P 100 Index option prices. In 2003, the methodology was revised and the new volatility index was based on S&P 500 Index options. · So, statement 2 is correct.
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Govt. extends ban imposed on LTTE for five years
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Internal Security
Context: The MHA declared the LTTE an unlawful association under the anti-terror law, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act.
Why in News
- The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has extended the ban on the Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) for another five years as the group “continues to foster a separatist tendency amongst the masses” in India, and particularly in Tamil Nadu,”.
Key Highlights
- The MHA declared the LTTE an unlawful association under the anti-terror law, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act.
- The Ministry said “LTTE sympathisers living abroad continue to spread anti-India propaganda among Tamils, holding the Government of India responsible for the defeat of the LTTE, which, if not checked, is likely to develop a sense of hate among Tamil populace towards the Central government and the Indian Constitution.”
- The LTTE was last banned on May 14, 2019. A UAPA tribunal upheld the ban on November 21, 2019.
- The MHA said that even after its military defeat in May 2009 in Sri Lanka, the LTTE has not abandoned the concept of ‘Eelam’ and has been clandestinely working towards the ‘Eelam’ cause by undertaking fund-raising and propaganda activities and the remnant LTTE leaders or cadres had also initiated efforts to regroup the scattered activists and resurrect the outfit locally and internationally.
Threat to India
- The Home Ministry said that cases under the UAPA have been registered against the LTTE, pro-LTTE groups or elements since it was banned in 2019 “which indicate that the LTTE and its remnant cadres, followers and supporters are involved in various criminal activities, including smuggling of illegal drugs, arms for furtherance of the objective of the LTTE.”
- It said the Central government is of the opinion that “LTTE continues to pose a threat to and is detrimental to the sovereignty and territorial integrity of India as also to the public order” and due to its strong “anti-India posture” it is necessary to declare the group as an unlawful association with immediate effect.
Strategic significance
- The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act is an Indian law aimed at prevention of unlawful activities associations in India.
- Its main objective was to make powers available for dealing with activities directed against the integrity and sovereignty of India.
- The most recent amendment of the law, the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019 (UAPA 2019) has made it possible for the Union Government to designate individuals as terrorists without following any formal judicial process.
- UAPA is also known as the “Anti-terror law”.
LTTE
- The Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) was a Tamil militant organization that was based in the northern and eastern Sri Lanka.
- The LTTE fought to create an independent Tamil state called Tamil Eelam in the northeast of the island in response to violent persecution and discriminatory policies against Sri Lankan Tamils by the Sinhalese-dominated Sri Lankan Government.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. Consider the following pairs:
(Acts) : (Year) 1. Prevention of Terrorism Act : 2002 2. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act: 2007 3. Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act: 1958 Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. All |
Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2023)
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence. How many of the above statements are correct? A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None Answer: (A)
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| Answer 5 B
Explanation · The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002 (POTA) was an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2002, with the objective of strengthening anti-terrorism operations. The Act was enacted due to several terrorist attacks that were being carried out in India and especially in response to the attack on the Parliament. So, pair 1 is correct. · The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act is an Indian law aimed at prevention of unlawful activities associations in India. Its main objective was to make powers available for dealing with activities directed against the integrity and sovereignty of India. UAPA was passed in 1967. So, pair 2 is incorrect. · Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA), 1958 is an act of the Parliament of India that grants special powers to the Indian Armed Forces to maintain public order in “disturbed areas”. So, pair 3 is correct. · Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
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Advocates cannot be held liable under Consumer Protection Act: SC
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2- Acts, Judiciary
Context: Bar Council of India, Delhi High Court Bar Association and Bar of Indian Lawyers, and other individuals challenged a 2007 verdict of the NCDRC.
Why in News
- The Supreme Court held that advocates are not liable for deficiency of services under the Consumer Protection Act 1986 and cannot be sued for poor service before consumer courts.
Key Findings
- A Bench of Justices Bela M. Trivedi and Pankaj Mithal said the legal profession is sui generis (unique) and the nature of work is specialised and cannot be compared with other professions.
- “Advocates have to respect client’s autonomy, not entitled to make concessions without express instructions from client and transgress authority. Considerable amount of direct control is with client of advocate.
- This strengthens our opinion that contract is of personal service and excluded from definition of service under Consumer Protection Act,” the Bench said.
- The judgement came on plea filed by bar bodies, such as Bar Council of India, Delhi High Court Bar Association and Bar of Indian Lawyers, and other individuals challenging a 2007 verdict of the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), which has ruled that advocates and their services come under the purview of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
Consumer Protection Act, 1986
- The Consumer Protection Bill, 1986 seeks to provide for better protection of the interests of consumers and for the purpose, to make provision for the establishment of Consumer councils and other authorities for the settlement of consumer disputes and for matter connected therewith.
Key features of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986
- Definitions: The Act defines important terms such as “consumer,” “complaint,” “deficiency,” “goods,” and “services,” among others, to provide clarity and ensure consistent interpretation.
- Consumer Rights: The Act recognizes six fundamental consumer rights, namely the right to safety, right to be informed, right to choose, right to be heard, right to seek redressal, and right to consumer education.
- Consumer Forums: The Act establishes consumer forums at the district, state, and national levels, known as District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum, State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, and National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, respectively. These forums provide a speedy and cost-effective resolution mechanism for consumer disputes.
- Jurisdiction: The Act specifies the jurisdiction of consumer forums based on the value of the goods or services involved in the complaint. Consumers can approach the appropriate forum based on the prescribed jurisdiction.
- Complaint Filing: The Act outlines the process for filing a consumer complaint. Consumers can file complaints with the respective consumer forum either in person or through an authorized representative.
- Remedies: The Act provides various remedies to consumers, including compensation for loss or injury suffered, replacement of defective goods, removal of defects in goods, refund of the price paid, and discontinuation of unfair trade practices.
- Product Liability: The Act introduced the concept of product liability, holding manufacturers, sellers, and service providers liable for any harm caused to consumers due to defective products or services.
- Penalties: The Act prescribes penalties for non-compliance with its provisions.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Which of the following statements is incorrect with regards to Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
A. Consumer Protection Act, 1986 recognizes six fundamental consumer right. B. The Supreme Court held that advocates are liable for deficiency of services under the Consumer Protection Act 1986 and can be sued for poor service before consumer courts. C. The Act introduced the concept of product liability, holding manufacturers, sellers, and service providers liable for any harm caused to consumers D. The Act specifies the jurisdiction of consumer forums based on the value of the goods or services involved in the complaint. |
Q. Consider the following organization/bodies in India: (UPSC Prelims 2023)
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies? A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four Answer: (A)
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| Answer 6 B
Explanation · The Supreme Court held that advocates are not liable for deficiency of services under the Consumer Protection Act 1986 and cannot be sued for poor service before consumer courts. Hence Statement B is incorrect · The Consumer Protection Bill, 1986 seeks to provide for better protection of the interests of consumers. · The Act recognizes six fundamental consumer rights, namely the right to safety, right to be informed, right to choose, right to be heard, right to seek redressal, and right to consumer education. Hence Statement A is correct · The Act introduced the concept of product liability, holding manufacturers, sellers, and service providers liable for any harm caused to consumers due to defective products or services. Hence Statement C is correct · The Act specifies the jurisdiction of consumer forums based on the value of the goods or services involved in the complaint. Consumers can approach the appropriate forum based on the prescribed jurisdiction. Therefore, Statement D is correct |
Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre blocks more than 1,000 Skype IDs
Source: The Hindu
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indian-cyber-crime-coordination-centre-blocks-more-than-1000-skype-ids/article68174483.ece
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3- Cybercrime
Context: Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) is facilitating blocking of SIM cards, Mobile devices and Mule accounts used by such fraudsters.
Why in news
- The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C), in collaboration with Microsoft, on May 14, has blocked more than 1,000 Skype IDs involved in blackmail, extortion and “Digital Arrests” by cyber criminals.
Key Highlights
- The cyber criminals posed as officials of police, Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), Narcotics Department, Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Enforcement Directorate and other Law Enforcement Agencies.
- I4C is facilitating blocking of SIM cards, Mobile devices and Mule accounts used by such fraudsters.
- I4C is also providing inputs and technical support to Police Authorities of States/UTs for identifying and investigating the cases.
- I4C has also blocked more than 1,000 Skype IDs involved in such activities, in collaboration with Microsoft.
Cyber Scams
- Commonly known as the ‘parcel scam’, the cyber criminals call victims informing about a parcel addressed to them which contains contraband items like illegal goods, drugs, or fake passports, among others.
- In other cases, cyber fraudsters call to convey that a near or dear one of the victim has been found to be involved in a crime or an accident and is in their custody.
Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)
- Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C) was established by MHA, in New Delhi to provide a framework and eco-system for Law Enforcement Agencies (LEAs) for dealing with Cybercrime in a coordinated and comprehensive manner.
- I4C focuses on tackling all the issues related to Cybercrime for the citizens, which includes improving coordination between various Law Enforcement Agencies and the stakeholders, driving change in India’s overall capability to tackle Cybercrime and to improve citizen satisfaction levels.
- Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre scheme was approved on 05th October 2018.
- Since its roll out, it has worked towards enhancing the nation’s collective capability to tackle cybercrimes and develop effective coordination among the Law Enforcement Agencies.
- The I4C was dedicated to the Nation on 10th January 2020 by Hon’ble Home Minister.
Objectives of I4C
- To act as a nodal point to curb Cybercrime in the country.
- To strengthen the fight against Cybercrime committed against women and children.
- Facilitate easy filing Cybercrime related complaints and identifying Cybercrime trends and patterns.
- To act as an early warning system for Law Enforcement Agencies for proactive Cybercrime prevention and detection.
- Awareness creation among public about preventing Cybercrime.
- Assist States/UTs in capacity building of Police Officers, Public Prosecutors and Judicial Officers in the area of cyber forensic, investigation, cyber hygiene, cyber-criminology, etc.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q7. Consider the following statements with regards to Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C):
1. Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C) is an initiative of the Defence Ministry to deal with cybercrime in the country in a coordinated and comprehensive manner. 2. The I4C was dedicated to the Nation on 10th January 2020 3. I4C does not provides inputs and technical support to Police Authorities of States/UTs for identifying and investigating the cases. Which of the above is incorrect? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. None
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Q. In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (UPSC Prelims 2020)
1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer 2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so 3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion 4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third-party files a suit. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 4 only B. 1, 3 and 4 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans- B
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| Answer 7 C
Explanation · Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C) was established by MHA, in New Delhi to provide a framework and eco-system for Law Enforcement Agencies (LEAs) for dealing with Cybercrime in a coordinated and comprehensive manner. · Hence Statement 1 incorrect · Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre scheme was approved on 05th October 2018. · Since its roll out, it has worked towards enhancing the nation’s collective capability to tackle cybercrimes and develop effective coordination among the Law Enforcement Agencies. · The I4C was dedicated to the Nation on 10th January 2020 by Hon’ble Home Minister. · Hence Statement 2 correct · I4C is providing inputs and technical support to Police Authorities of States/UTs for identifying and investigating the cases. · I4C has also blocked more than 1,000 Skype IDs involved in such activities, in collaboration with Microsoft. So, statement 3 is incorrect. · Therefore, option C is the correct answer. |