Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (13-05-2024)
| News at a Glance |
| Telangana: State registers lower revenue receipts than projected during fiscal 2023-24 |
| Suneetha Narreddy awarded IDSA fellowship |
| Polity and Governance: Inter-Services Organisations Act notified |
| International Relations: India backs Palestine’s bid for full U.N. Membership |
| Science and Technology: ISRO successfully tests 3D-printed rocket engine |
| Economy: How is India streamlining the pharma sector? |
| Social Issues: Impact of Climate hazards on Women, Children |
State registers lower revenue receipts than projected during fiscal 2023-24
Source: The Hindu
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Economy of Telangana
Context: The State has achieved a revenue surplus of ₹1,636.8 crore although it was much lower compared to ₹4,881 crore revenue surplus projected for the year.
Why in News
- The State’s overall revenue receipts during the just-concluded financial year 2023-24 stood at ₹1.69 lakh crore, just 78.08% of the projected ₹2.16 lakh crore.
Key Highlights
- According to preliminary estimates, the tax revenue was ₹1.35 lakh crore, more than 10% lower than the projected ₹1.52 lakh crore.
- The overall revenue included borrowings and other liabilities to the tune of ₹49,440 crore, almost ₹11,000 crore higher than ₹38,234 crore of the budget estimates for the financial year.
- The fall in overall revenue receipts and tax receipts during the fiscal proved the assertion that the previous government had inflated revenues and the overall receipts could fall by close to ₹70,000 crore by the end of the fiscal.
- The quantum was, however, lesser at ₹49,000 crore, according to the provisional figures submitted to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
- On the revenue side, the State achieved more than 100% in State Excise duties, which stood at ₹20,298 crore against the projected ₹19,884 crore, non-tax revenue at ₹23,819 crore (₹22,808 crore) and the State’s share of Central taxes at ₹16,536 crore (₹14,528 crore).
Factors
- One of the major factors that resulted in lower revenues is the revenue in the form of grants in aid and contributions.
- While the budget estimates projected revenue of ₹41,259 crore under the head, the actual receipts were just ₹9,729 crore.
- Revenue through sales tax was on the downside at ₹29,989 crore against the budget estimate of ₹39,500 crore.
- The growth in revenue through Stamps and Registrations was also not up to the mark.
- Revenue through Stamps and Registration was projected at ₹18,500 crore for the fiscal, but the actual achievement stood at ₹14,295 crore by March-end.
- On the expenditure side, interest payments had exceeded the estimates by reaching ₹23,337 crore as against ₹22,407 crore projected for the fiscal, while expenditure on account of salaries or wages is higher at ₹38,911 crore (₹38,627 crore budget estimates).
- Expenditure on account of pensions was much higher at ₹16,841 crore, more than ₹2,000 crore higher than ₹13,024 crore projected in the budget estimates.
- The State has achieved a revenue surplus of ₹1,636.8 crore although it was much lower compared to ₹4,881 crore revenue surplus projected for the year.
Important terms
- Tax revenue: Tax revenue is the income gained by the government through taxation.
- Tax revenue forms a part of the Receipt Budget, which in turn is part of the Annual Financial Statement of the Union Budget. Tax revenue is the result of the application of a tax rate to a tax base.
- Grants-in-aid: Grants-in-aid are payments in the nature of assistance, donations or contributions made by one government to another government, body, institution or individual.
- Grants-in-aid are given by the Union Government to State Governments and/or Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Important statistics from State Budget 2024
- In the fiscal year 2023-24, the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Telangana showed an increase in current prices from Rs. 13,02,371 crores in 2022-23 to Rs. 14,49,708 crores.
- However, the economic growth rate exhibited a downward trend, declining from 14.7% to 11.3% during the same period.
- The growth rate at the national level, however, showed a sharper decline, falling from 16.1% to 8.9%.
- Consequently, Telangana’s state growth rate was higher by 2.4 percentage points compared to the India GDP growth rate.
- In the fiscal year 2023-24, Telangana’s economy demonstrated varied performances across its sub- sectors, influenced by a range of factors.
- The primary sector, particularly agriculture, experienced a notable decline.
- The secondary and tertiary sectors of Telangana’s economy also saw a decline in growth rates.
- Notable decreases were observed in sectors like electricity, gas, water supply, trade and repair services, hotels and restaurants, railways, and air transport.
- However, the manufacturing sector presented a contrasting trend, growing at 5.9% compared to just 1.3% in the previous year.
- Other sectors such as real estate, construction, and mining & quarrying also experienced higher growth rates in 2023-24 compared to the preceding year.
- The Per Capita Income based on the present day prices is expected to be Rs.3,43,297 in 2023-24, It was Rs.3,09,912 last year but the growth rate is decreased.
| CARE MCQ |
Q1. Consider the following Statements with regards to Telangana’s economy:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer 1 C
So, correct answer is option C.
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Suneetha Narreddy awarded IDSA fellowship
Source: The Hindu
TSPSC Relevance: Current events, Awards and Honours
Context: Fellow of IDSA (FIDSA) is a designation that recognizes individuals who have achieved professional excellence and provided significant service to the profession
Why in News
- Suneetha Narreddy of Apollo Hospitals was awarded fellowship by the Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA).
About IDSA
- The Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA) is a community of over 13,000 physicians, scientists and public health experts who specialize in infectious diseases.
- Mission of IDSA is to improve the health of individuals, communities, and society by promoting excellence in patient care, education, research, public health, and prevention relating to infectious diseases.
About Dr. Suneetha Narreddy
- Dr Suneetha Narreddy is a top Infectious Diseases Specialist in Hyderabad at Apollo Health City Jubilee Hills
- She is daughter of former minister YS Vivekananda Reddy.
- She works as the Infectious diseases consultant at the Appollo hospitals at Hyderabad.
- IDSA fellowship is a prestigious honour bestowed upon individuals who demonstrate excellence in combating infectious diseases.
Infectious diseases
- Infectious diseases are disorders caused by organisms — such as bacteria, viruses, fungi or parasites.
- Many organisms live in and on our bodies.
- They’re normally harmless or even helpful.
- But under certain conditions, some organisms may cause disease.
- Some infectious diseases can be passed from person to person.
- The Infectious Disease Biology Program of India aims to provide solutions to infectious diseases of global concern such as HIV/AIDS, tuberculosis (including MDR & XDR TB), vector borne diseases; emerging or re-emerging threats such as influenza, Japanese Encephalitis and antibiotic-resistant microbes in terms of therapeutics, diagnostics and preventive measures.
- Changing climatic conditions, particularly temperature and moisture variations following events such as extreme rainfall in some places and drought in others, will lead to a surge in the spread of vector-borne and infectious diseases across India, say scientists.
| CARE MCQ |
Q 2. Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Dr. Suneetha Narreddy?
Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. Only 1 and 2 B. Only 2 and 3 C. Only 1 and 3 D. 1,2 and 3 |
| Answer 2 B
Explanation
· Therefore, Option B is the correct answer. |
Inter-Services Organisations Act notified
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Polity and Governance)
Context: The Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Bill, 2023
Why in News
- The Government has notified the Inter-Services Organisations (ISOs) (Command, Control, and Discipline) Act through a Gazette notification to be enforced with effect from May 10, 2024.
What is Inter- Services?
- Inter-services organizations include soldiers from the Army, the Air Force and the Navy, like joint training institutes National Defence Academy, National Defence College (NDC), Defence Services Staff College (DSSC), and the Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC).
Rationale behind the Proposed law
- Armed forces personnel are governed by the provisions of three separate laws for the three services — the Air Force Act, 1950, the Army Act, 1950, and the Navy Act, 1957.
- Only an officer of the same service holds disciplinary powers over persons governed by the respective Act.
- As far as inter-services organizations are concerned, this directly impacts command, control and discipline.
- Since the commander-in-chief of a joint services command and the officer-in-command of any other inter-services organisation are not empowered with disciplinary powers.
- The existing framework is time-consuming and involves financial costs to move the personnel.
- Proceedings become even more cumbersome when the disciplinary or administrative proceedings arise from the same set of facts and circumstances but involve personnel belonging to different services.
- The proposed legislation aims to address these impediments to ensure discipline is maintained and targets faster disposal of cases.
Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Bill, 2023
- The bill was passed by both the Houses of Parliament during the Monsoon Session of 2023 and received the assent of the President on August 15, 2023.
- The Act empowers Commanders-in-Chief and Officers-in-Command of ISOs to exercise control over Service personnel, serving under them, for effective maintenance of discipline and administration, without disturbing the unique service conditions of each individual Service.
- The Act will empower the Heads of ISOs and pave the way for expeditious disposal of cases, avoid multiple proceedings and will be a step towards greater integration and jointness among the armed forces personnel.
- The Act comes ahead of the planned reorganization of the Indian military into integrated theatre commands.
- It is essentially an ‘enabling Act’ and does not propose any change in the existing Service Acts/Rules/Regulations which are time-tested and have withstood judicial scrutiny over the last six decades or more.
Key Provisions in the Bill
- The proposed legislation seeks to empower the central government to set up an inter-services organisation by notification.
- This can include a joint services command comprising units and personnel drawn from the three-armed forces and persons of other forces attached to such a body.
- The commander-in-chief or the officer-in-command will be the head.
- The superintendence of the inter-services organisation will be vested in the Central Government.
- All disciplinary and administrative powers in terms of personnel serving or attached to an existing or a future inter-services organisation will lie with the commander-in-chief, the officer-in-command, or any other officer specially empowered by the central government.
- While serving in or attached to an inter-services organisation, personnel will continue to be governed by their respective service Acts.
- The Centre can notify any force or part of it, which has been raised and maintained in India under the authority of the Government.
How will it affect the tri-services Theaterisation Plan?
- The Inter-Services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Bill’s introduction in Parliament has come amid deliberations on the theatre command system that looks to integrate the capabilities of the three services.
- Each of the theatre commands will have units of the Army, the Navy and the Air Force, as per the plan, which has the mandate of the government.
- All the units will work as a single entity looking after security challenges in a specified geographical territory under an operational commander.
- The Bill holds the potential to ensure better management of theatre commands once they are operationalised.
- The difference in the rules of the service Acts when it comes to justice delivery for the same offence, however, can emerge as a cause for concern.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following statements with regards to Inter-Services Organisations (ISOs) Act, 2023:
1. The Inter-Services Organisations (ISOs) Act received the assent of the President during the Monsoon Session of 2023. 2. All disciplinary and administrative powers in terms of personnel serving or attached to an existing or a future inter-services organisation will lie with the commander-in-chief. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. With reference to India, consider the following pairs: (UPSC Prelims 2023)
Action – The Act under which it is covered 1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms – The Official Secrets Act, 1923 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties – The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others – The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None Answer: (B)
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| Answer 3– B
Explanation – · The bill was passed by both the Houses of Parliament during the Monsoon Session of 2023 and received the assent of the President on August 15, 2023. Statement 1 is incorrect. · All disciplinary and administrative powers in terms of personnel serving or attached to an existing or a future inter-services organisation will lie with the commander-in-chief. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
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India backs Palestine’s bid for full U.N. Membership
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS 2- West Asia conflict, International Relations
Context: UN Membership, Palestine’s bid for full membership
Why in News
- India recently voted in favour of a draft U.N. General Assembly resolution that said Palestine is qualified and should be admitted as a full member of the United Nations.
Key Highlights
- The 193-member General Assembly met for an emergency special session where the Arab Group resolution ‘Admission of new Members to the United Nations’, in support of the State of Palestine’s full membership in the UN, was presented by the UAE, as Chair of the Arab Group.
- The resolution got 143 votes in favour, including by India, nine against and 25 abstentions.
- The UNGA hall broke into applause after the vote was cast.
- The resolution determined that “the State of Palestine is qualified for membership in the United Nations” in accordance with Article 4 of the Charter of the U.N. and should therefore be admitted to membership in the United Nations.
- It recommended that the Security Council “reconsider the matter favorably, in the light of this determination”.
- Palestine, in its capacity as an observer state, does not have the right to vote in the General Assembly or to put forward its candidature to U.N. organs.
India’s Recognition of Palestine
- India was the first non-Arab State to recognise the Palestine Liberation Organisation as the sole and legitimate representative of the Palestinian people in 1974.
- India was also one of the first countries to recognise the State of Palestine in 1988 and in 1996, Delhi opened its Representative Office to the Palestine Authority in Gaza, which was later shifted to Ramallah in 2003.
Rights and Privileges
- An annex to the resolution said the additional rights and privileges of participation of the State of Palestine will be effective as of the 79th session of the General Assembly that begins in September in 2024.
- These include
- the right to be seated among member states in alphabetical order;
- the right to make statements on behalf of a group, including among representatives of major groups;
- the right of members of the delegation of the State of Palestine to be elected as officers in the plenary and the Main Committees of the General Assembly and the right to full and effective participation in U.N. conferences and international conferences and meetings convened under the auspices of the General Assembly.
Member of the United Nations?
- Membership in the Organization is open to all peace-loving States that accept the obligations contained in the United Nations Charter and, in the judgment of the Organization, are able to carry out these obligations.
- States are admitted to membership in the United Nations by a decision of the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Which of the following rights are received by the nation with UN membership?
1. The right to be seated among member states in alphabetical order. 2. The right to make statements on behalf of a group. 3. The right of members of the delegation of the State of Palestine to be elected as officers in the plenary and the Main Committees of the General Assembly. 4. The right to full and effective participation in U.N. conferences and meetings convened under the auspices of the General Assembly. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1, 2, 3 B. 2, 3, 4 C. 1, 3, 4 D. 1,2,3,4
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Q. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2022)
Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: (D)
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| Answer 4– D
Explanation – · The 193-member General Assembly met for an emergency special session where the Arab Group resolution ‘Admission of new Members to the United Nations’, in support of the State of Palestine’s full membership in the UN, was presented by the UAE, as Chair of the Arab Group. · An annex to the resolution said the additional rights and privileges of participation of the State of Palestine will be effective as of the 79th session of the General Assembly that begins in September in 2024. o the right to be seated among member states in alphabetical order; o the right to make statements on behalf of a group, including among representatives of major groups; o the right of members of the delegation of the State of Palestine to be elected as officers in the plenary and the Main Committees of the General Assembly o the right to full and effective participation in U.N. conferences and international conferences and meetings convened under the auspices of the General Assembly.
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ISRO Successfully tests 3D-printed rocket engine
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Space Technology, Science and Technology
Context: The engine, PS4, which is used as the engine for the fourth stage of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), was redesigned by ISRO for production using 3D printing.
Why in News
- Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully tested a liquid rocket engine made with the help of additive manufacturing technology — commonly known as 3D printing.
What is 3D Printing?
- 3D printing is a process that uses computer-created design to make three-dimensional objects layer by layer.
- It is an additive process, in which layers of a material like plastic, composites or bio-materials are built up to construct objects that range in shape, size, rigidity, and colour.
How is 3D printing done?
- To carry out 3D printing, one needs a personal computer connected to a 3D printer.
- All they need to do is design a 3D model of the required object on computer-aid design (CAD) software and press ‘print’. The 3D printer does the rest of the job.
- 3D printers construct the desired object by using a layering method, which is the complete opposite of the subtractive manufacturing processes.
- 3D printers, on the other hand, build from the bottom up by piling on layer after layer until the object looks exactly like it was envisioned.
- The (3D) printer acts generally the same as a traditional inkjet printer in the direct 3D printing process, where a nozzle moves back and forth while dispensing a wax or plastic-like polymer layer-by-layer, waiting for that layer to dry, then adding the next level.
- It essentially adds hundreds or thousands of 2D prints on top of one another to make a three-dimensional object.
Why did ISRO use 3D printing to build the PS4 engine?
- The technology helped ISRO bring down the number of parts in the engine from 14 to a single piece.
- The space agency was able to eliminate 19 weld joints and saved 97% of raw material.
- It also reduced the overall production time by 60%.
National Strategy on Additive Manufacturing
- The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) formulated the National Strategy on Additive Manufacturing.
- The strategy aims to increase India’s share in global AM to 5% in the next three years.
- As per the strategy, by 2025, India will aim to achieve certain targets such as 50 India-specific technologies for material, machine, and software, 100 new startups for additive manufacturing, 500 new products, and jobs to at least 1 lakh new skilled workers.
- The primary focus of AM in the Aerospace and defence industries has remained on the customization of low-volume of parts and high-value-added products with complex geometries that can be manufactured quickly.
- AM still has slow build rates and needs to provide an efficient way to scale operations to produce a large volume of parts.
- Depending on the final product sought, additive manufacturing may take up to 3 hours to produce a shape that a traditional process could create in seconds.
- Rapid Prototyping, or RP, is an application used in additive manufacturing to create a model faster than the normal process.
- Rapid prototyping is the fast fabrication of a physical part, model or assembly using 3D computer-aided design (CAD).
- The creation of the part, model or assembly is usually completed using additive manufacturing, more commonly known as 3D printing.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to the National Strategy for Additive Manufacturing:
1. It aims to create 50 India-specific technologies for material, machine and software. 2. Through Additive Manufacturing, large volume production of high-value products with complex geometries can be made in a short span of time. 3. Rapid Prototyping is an application of Additive Manufacturing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 only D. 1 and 2 only |
Q. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2023)
1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. 3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct? A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None Ans: (C)
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| Answer 5 B
Explanation · The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) formulated the National Strategy on Additive Manufacturing. The strategy aims to increase India’s share in global AM to 5% in the next three years. · As per the strategy, by 2025, India will aim to achieve certain targets such as 50 India-specific technologies for material, machine, and software, 100 new startups for additive manufacturing, 500 new products, and jobs to at least 1 lakh new skilled workers. So, Statement 1 is correct. · The primary focus of AM in the Aerospace and defence industries has remained on the customization of low-volume of parts and high-value-added products with complex geometries that can be manufactured quickly. · AM still has slow build rates and needs to provide an efficient way to scale operations to produce a large volume of parts. Depending on the final product sought, additive manufacturing may take up to 3 hours to produce a shape that a traditional process could create in seconds. So, Statement 2 is not correct. · Rapid Prototyping, or RP, is an application used in additive manufacturing to create a model faster than the normal process. Rapid prototyping is the fast fabrication of a physical part, model or assembly using 3D computer-aided design (CAD). The creation of the part, model or assembly is usually completed using additive manufacturing, more commonly known as 3D printing. So, Statement 3 is correct. · Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
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Impact of Climate hazards on Women, Children
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2- Social Issues, GS 3– Climate change
Context: A study was conducted by the non-profit M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation (MSSRF) on climate change impact women and children
Why in News
- Titled “How does climate change impact women and children across Agro-ecological zones in India – A scoping study”, commissioned by the Ministry of Women and Child Development reveals the impact of climate hazards on women, children.
Key Findings
- The study identifies climate and health hotspots in order to specifically understand the impact of floods, cyclones and droughts on the health of women and children.
- The issue of climate-change impact on women and children is under-researched and often overlooked in policy formulation.
- In our scoping study we realised that up to 70% of Indian districts are at very high risk of floods, droughts, and cyclones.
- Women and children’s undernutrition, teenage pregnancy and domestic violence indicators in these hotspots are also very stark.
- Overall, 183 districts were vulnerable to hydro-meteorological disasters such as cyclones and floods while 349 districts witnessed drought.
- The study was able to generate certain spatial hotspots where high exposure to hydro-met hazards such as floods, cyclones and droughts significantly co-exists with a higher prevalence of poor health variables such as underweight women and child marriage.
- In northern areas of Bihar and Gujarat, the geospatial maps show hotspots where exposure to drought, flood, and cyclone co-exists with stunting and underweight children.
- In terms of women’s nutritional indicators too, these States need immediate attention, the study says.
- The northern parts of both States are flood-prone areas battered by heavy rainfall.
- The study also points out that the northern plains, including parts of Uttar Pradesh, have hotspots for stunting, while parts of north Maharashtra and south Madhya Pradesh are hotspots for underweight children.
- Children are 6% more likely to be stunted, 24% more likely to be underweight, experience 35% reduction in minimum diet diversity, and there is a 12% increase in likelihood of deaths if they are under five years of age and exposed to drought.
- The study further goes on to identify major hotspots in terms of impact on women and young girls in areas exposed to drought, floods and cyclones – northern Bihar and parts of Uttar Pradesh, southern West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh and parts of Telangana, eastern Maharashtra, parts of northern Madhya Pradesh and southern Uttar Pradesh.
Key Recommendations
- The climate change hotspots have been identified by spatio-temporal analysis encompassing 50 years of data on frequency and intensity of floods, cyclones and droughts and by using district-level climate vulnerability exposure scores published in 2021 by the Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW).
- For health indicators of women and children, mapping and statistical analysis had been conducted by using the fifth National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) which cites data of 2019-21.
- The study recognises that each hazard has different implications and it is difficult to attribute effects of sudden and short-term hazards like flood and cyclone on various parameters.
- Contrarily, slow and long-term hazards like droughts are likely to have more chronic and long-lasting effects.
- The document submitted to the Ministry states that the study’s limitations include reliance on secondary data sources, with limited empirical insights into the health aspects of women affected by climate change.
- The recommendation to the Ministry also states that there is a key gap in evidence, in order to understand differential factors behind children’s vulnerability to heatwaves and develop a systematic method to measure children’s exposure to heatwaves, and relatively less research attention has been paid to this area of inquiry, particularly in India.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. The Study titled “How does climate change impact women and children across Agro-ecological zones in India – A scoping study” was published by –
A. Ministry of Women and Child Development B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change C. Niti Aayog D. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare |
Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2023)
Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Ans-: (B) |
| Answer 6 A
Explanation · The Study Commissioned by the Ministry of Women and Child Development reveals the impact of climate hazards on women, children. Titled “How does climate change impact women and children across Agro-ecological zones in India – A scoping study”. · A study by M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation says children exposed to climate hazards are more likely to be stunted, underweight, and more vulnerable to early pregnancies. · Therefore, option A is the correct answer. |
How is India streamlining the pharma sector?
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3- Pharma Industry, Economy
Context: India and Pharmaceutical Industry
Why in news
- India’s drug regulator, the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO), has withdrawn powers delegated to State licensing authorities to issue NOCs (no objection certificates) for manufacture of unapproved, banned or new drugs for export purposes.
What is India’s role in the pharma market?
- India ranks third worldwide as a producer of drugs and pharmaceuticals by volume, exporting to around 200 countries/territories.
- The Indian pharmaceutical industry supplies 62% of the global demand for vaccines and is a leading supplier of DPT (diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus), BCG (Bacillus Calmette-Guérin, used primarily against tuberculosis), and measles vaccines.
- At least 70% of WHO’s vaccines (as per the essential immunization schedule) are sourced from India, the Centre had noted in a submission in Parliament.
What will be the impact?
- India is a key player in the international generic medicine market and any change in policy has a direct impact on manufacturers and importers, say industry insiders.
- The centralizing of the licensing authority is significant, they point out, because according to a study conducted by the Department of Pharmaceuticals, India needs to get ready to take advantage of drug sales worth $251 billion going off-patent this coming decade.
- In the years between 2022 and 2030, the pharmaceutical sector in India will undergo landmark changes as several drugs are expected to go off-patent and provide an opportunity for the entry of generic products.
- Expiry of patents is very promising for the Indian generic drug market as it is expected to expand and grow further with inclusion of these new drugs.
- With ongoing developments, India has started focusing on self-reliance at a large scale.
- Hence, it is imperative to identify these drugs beforehand, draft and implement strategies which help in their timely entry into the market by promoting generic drug manufacturing.
What are the Challenges?
- India is dealing with several challenges, including tackling intellectual property rights, lack of research and development etc.
- The study points out that understanding the political, economic, sociocultural, technological, environmental, and legal factors is vital for assessing the opportunities and challenges in the pharmaceutical market in India.
- The industry must adapt to changes in these external factors, navigate regulatory requirements, leverage technology advancements, and align their strategies with the evolving needs of the pharmaceutical industry to succeed in the global market.
- This will result in the efficiency of the overall process along with bolstering pharma exports to key international markets.
- It will help to bring uniformity in protocols, and achieve the target of reaching $450 billion by 2047.
What about the quality of manufacturing?
- Indian government cracks down on 18 drug companies for poor quality manufacturing’, noted that the Indian government had cancelled the licences of over 10 pharmaceutical companies as part of a crackdown on poor quality manufacturing.
- The action last March came after an inspection of 76 drug firms across 20 States.
- The government is also understood to have given notices to a further 26 companies for not complying with good manufacturing processes.
- The Indian pharmaceutical industry has an estimated 10,500 companies, with drug exports having more than doubled in the past decade.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q7. Consider the following statements:
1. Globally, India is the fourth largest provider of generic drugs after EU, US and China. 2. The Indian Pharmaceutical industry is currently ranked third in pharmaceutical production by volume. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
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Q. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? (UPSC Prelims 2019)
(1) Genetic predisposition of some people. (2) Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases. (3) Using antibiotics in livestock farming. (4) Multiple chronic diseases in some people. Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 only C. 1,3 and 4 D. 2,3 and 4 Ans: D
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| Answer 7 D
Explanation · India is the world’s largest generic drug provider, with a reputation for producing low-cost vaccines and generic medications. · India is the world’s largest provider of generic pharmaceuticals, accounting for 20% of total supply by volume and over 60% of global immunisation demand. Hence Statement 1 incorrect · The Indian pharmaceutical sector is currently rated third in pharmaceutical output by volume, having evolved over time into a robust business with a CAGR of 9.43% over the last nine years, and 14th in value. Hence Statement 2 correct · Therefore, option D is the correct answer. |