May 10 CURRENT AFFAIRS 2024 TSPSC

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (10-05-2024)

 

News at a Glance
Telangana: TSCHE to revise norms to prevent misuse of funds for conferences
 GHMC persists with vulnerable indigenous trees
Polity and Governance: Reservation within Constitutional bounds
Niti Aayog report finds ‘huge gap’ in cancer screening at Ayushman centres
Science and Technology: NASA creating a standard time for the moon
A new biocontrol agent to manage ‘foot rot’ disease in Basmati crop
How the Widal test is clouding India’s sense of its typhoid problem?
Economy: India overtook Japan to become world’s 3rd largest solar power generator in 2023

 

TSCHE to revise norms to prevent misuse of funds for conferences

Source: New Indian Express

https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/telangana/2024/May/10/tsche-to-revise-norms-to-prevent-misuse-of-funds-for-conferences

TSPSC Syllabus Relevance:  Higher Education in Telangana, Role of government in education

Context:  Telangana State Council of Higher Education (TSCHE) in news

Why in news

  • The Telangana State Council of Higher Education (TSCHE) is set to revise guidelines for providing financial assistance to universities and colleges for conducting national and international conferences, seminars or symposiums.

Key Highlights

  • A committee constituted by the TSCHE has discussed and reviewed the existing guidelines set for providing financial assistance for academic conferences and seminars.
  • The council observed that universities and colleges were availing funds in the name of international and national conferences and seminars.
  • The TSCHE grants financial assistance of Rs 50,000 and up to Rs 1 lakh for national and international conferences, respectively.
  • The committee, in its latest meeting, discussed what a national and international conference.
  • It also made it mandatory for the proposed designated speaker by the university to be in attendance at the event.

Telangana State Council of Higher Education (TSCHE)

  • The Telangana State Council of Higher Education (TSCHE) came into existence by the Order of the State Government of Telangana by adopting the APSCHE Act 16 of 1988 as per the provisions of the AP Reorganization ACT 2014.
  • The Telangana State Council of Higher Education is primarily a coordinating body between the University Grants Commission (UGC), the State Government and the Universities.
  • It is the general duty of the Council to coordinate and determine standards in institutions of Higher Education, Research, Scientific and Technical Institutions in accordance with the guidelines issued by the University Grants Commission from time to time.
  • The Act 16 of 1988 envisages three distinct functions

(a) Planning and Coordination,

(b) Academic Functions and

(c) Advisory Functions.

 

 

 

 CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to Telangana State Council of Higher Education (TSCHE):

  1. TSCHE came into existence by adopting the APSCHE Act 16 of 1988 as per the provisions of the AP Reorganization ACT 2014.
  2. TSCHE is primarily a coordinating body between the University Grants Commission (UGC), the Telangana Government and the Universities.
  3. It is the general duty of the Council to coordinate and determine standards in institutions of Higher Education, Research, etc.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1, 2 and 3

D) Only 2

 

Answer 1 C

Explanation

  • The Telangana State Council of Higher Education (TSCHE) came into existence by the Order of the State Government of Telangana by adopting the APSCHE Act 16 of 1988 as per the provisions of the AP Reorganization ACT 2014. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Telangana State Council of Higher Education is primarily a coordinating body between the University Grants Commission (UGC), the State Government and the Universities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

·        It is the general duty of the Council to coordinate and determine standards in institutions of Higher Education, Research, Scientific and Technical Institutions in accordance with the guidelines issued by the University Grants Commission from time to time. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

·         So, correct answer is option C.

 

 

GHMC persists with vulnerable indigenous trees

Source: Indian Express

https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/telangana/2024/May/10/ghmc-persists-with-vulnerable-indigenous-trees

TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Flora and Fauna of Telangana, environment and economy

Context: Reports suggest the species like Peltophorum and Gulmohar are preferred by government agencies for their quick growth and low maintenance.

Why in News

  • Heavy rains resulted in the uprooting of over 200 trees, primarily Peltophorum pterocarpum (Konda Chinta) and Delonix regia (Royal Poinciana or Gulmohar trees).

Key Highlights

  • Although plans existed to replace Peltophorum and Delonix regia with more resilient species like Tamarindus indica (tamarind), Azadirachta indica (neem), Pongamia and others under the previous Telangana government’s ‘Haritha Haram’ programme, these proposals were shelved.
  • Reports suggest that the GHMC prioritises species like Peltophorum and Gulmohar for their quick growth and low maintenance.

About Haritha Haram Program

  • Haritha Haram is a flagship programme of the Government of Telangana, India, aimed at increasing the green cover in the state.
  • The name Haritha Haram means “green garland” in Telugu, the official language of Telangana.
  • The main objective of the Haritha Haram programme is to increase the green cover of the state from the existing 24% to 33% by planting and nurturing millions of saplings every year.
  • The programme also aims to create awareness among the public about the importance of preserving and protecting the environment.
  • The program was launched by Telangana Chief Minister Kalvakuntla Chandrashekar Rao on 3 July 2015.
  • It is one of the Telangana Flagship programmes to rejuvenate degraded forests, protecting these forests from threats such as smuggling, encroachment, fire and grazing.
  • It adopted intensive soil and moisture conservation measures based on a watershed approach.

Significant Features

  • The eligibility criteria for Haritha Haram program vary based on the type of participant.
  • Individuals: Any individual who wishes to participate in the program can do so by volunteering for tree plantation drives organized by the government or by planting saplings on their own. There are no specific eligibility criteria for individuals.
  • NGOs: Non-governmental organizations (NGOs) working in the field of environmental conservation can participate in the program by partnering with the government. The NGOs should be registered and actively involved in environmental conservation activities.
  • Educational institutions: Schools, colleges, and universities can participate in the program by organizing tree plantation drives on their campuses or by adopting a nearby forest area. The educational institution should have the necessary infrastructure and resources to undertake such activities.
  • Government Departments: Various government departments such as the forest department, municipal corporation, and public works department can participate in the program by taking up plantation activities in their respective areas of operation.
  • Corporates: Companies can participate in the program by partnering with the government or by organizing tree plantation drives in their corporate social responsibility (CSR) activities. The companies should have a valid CSR policy and should be actively involved in environmental conservation activities.

 

 

CARE MCQ
Q2. Consider the following Statements:

  1. Haritha Haram is a flagship program launched by Telangana Chief Minister in 2015.
  2. Corporates cannot participate in the Haritha Haram programme as it is a government regulated program for conservation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.      1 only

B.     2 only

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.     None

 

 

Answer 2 A

Explanation

  • Haritha Haram is a flagship programme of the Government of Telangana, India, aimed at increasing the green cover in the state. The program was launched by Telangana Chief Minister Kalvakuntla Chandrashekar Rao on 3 July 2015. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The main objective of the Haritha Haram programme is to increase the green cover of the state from the existing 24% to 33% by planting and nurturing millions of saplings every year.
  • Companies can participate in the program by partnering with the government or by organizing tree plantation drives in their corporate social responsibility (CSR) activities. The companies should have a valid CSR policy and should be actively involved in environmental conservation activities.
  • Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • So, correct answer is option A

 

 

Reservation within Constitutional bounds

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/reservation-within-constitutional-bounds/article68157106.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS2- Polity and Governance

Context: Reservation and Affirmative Action

Why in News

A political slugfest has emerged over the reservation issues with the ruling party making outlandish remarks about the Opposition demand for caste census by linking it to religion. The Opposition, meanwhile, had raised concern over the ruling party’s position on reservation, despite the latter’s explicit denial of any change in policy.

What is ‘Affirmative Action’?

  • Affirmative action is a policy initiative in which a person’s nationality, sex, religion, and caste are taken into account by a company or a government organisation to extend employment or education opportunities.
  • By initiatives like these, the government plans to increase opportunities provided to underprivileged citizens.

Constitution and affirmative Action

  • The Constitution aims to secure social justice while guaranteeing equality as a fundamental right.
  • Articles 15 and 16 guarantee equality to all citizens in any action by the state (including admissions to educational institutions) and public employment respectively.
  • To achieve social justice, they also enable the state to make special provisions for the advancement of OBC, SC and ST. OBC is a collective term to classify socially and educationally backward castes.
  • Many States also classify certain castes as the Most Backward Classes (MBC). The reservation percentages vary from State to State.

Supreme Court Observation

  • In the Indra Sawhney case (1992), the Supreme Court upheld the 27% reservation for OBC. It opined that caste is a determinant of class in the Indian context and backwardness cannot be determined solely on economic criteria.
  • However, to uphold the basic structure of equality, it fixed a cap of 50% for reservations unless there were exceptional circumstances.
  • The reservation of OBC (27%), SC (15%) and ST (7.5%) resulted in a total reservation of 49.5%. The court also provided for excluding the creamy layer from OBC with an income limit currently at ₹8 lakhs per annum.
  • Children of parents, either of whom entered the government service (Centre or State) as Group A/Class I officers and children of parents, both of whom entered as Group B/Class II officers are also excluded.
  • In the Janhit Abhiyan case (2022), the court by a majority of 3:2 upheld the constitutional validity of the EWS reservation. It held that economic criteria could be a basis for reservation.

Affirmative Action- Global Examples

  • In the U.S., there is ‘affirmative action’ that consists of government-approved and voluntary private programs granting special consideration to racial minorities like African-American and Latin-American.
  • In the Fair admissions vs Harvard case (2023), the U.S. Supreme Court, however, ruled that race-based affirmative action programs in college admissions violate the equal protection clause of the U.S. Constitution.
  • In the U.K., the law enables voluntary ‘positive action’ which allows employers to combat under-representation of disadvantaged groups.
  • France does not have any affirmative action based on race or ethnicity. It provides educational measures designed to increase opportunities for low-income students.

Current Debate

  • The Constituent assembly that framed our Constitution was against reservation solely based on religion.
  • The Constitution guarantees the prohibition of discrimination only based on religion under Articles 15 and 16.
  • However, it is pertinent to note that sub-categorisation for Muslims within the OBC quota has been present in Karnataka since 1995.
  • The four per cent sub-categorisation for Muslims introduced in 1995 by the H. D. Deve Gowda-led government was removed by the previous government led by Basavaraj Bommai. This was redistributed amongst the OBC in the Hindu community.
  • However, after observation by the court in the case challenging this order, the status quo continues. Muslim and Christian communities who are socially and educationally backward are provided reservations under the OBC/MBC category.
  • There is also sub-categorisation within the OBC/MBC quota for Muslim communities in States like Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
  • This is because the term used in the Constitution is ‘socially and educationally backward classes’ and could encompass backward communities from all religions.
  • It is only for being a member of a SC, ‘The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) order, 1950’ specifies that the person should profess only Hinduism, Sikhism or Buddhism.
  • There is no such requirement for being a member of a ST.

Commissions

  • Rohini Commission was set up to provide recommendations on sub-categorisation amongst OBC castes.
  • The government has constituted a commission headed by former CJI K. G. Balakrishnan to study the question of extending SC reservation to Dalits who have converted to religions other than Sikhism and Buddhism.

Way Forward

  • Reservation is affirmative action meant to balance the historical discrimination faced by OBC, SC and ST communities.
  • Though the findings of the report are yet to be made public, it has been estimated that 97% of reserved jobs and seats in educational institutions have been garnered by just around 25% of the OBC castes/sub-castes at the central level.
  • Close to 1,000 of around 2,600 communities under the OBC category had zero representation in jobs and educational institutes.
  • While sub-categorisation has been implemented in 11 different States, it has not been carried out at the central level.
  • A similar issue of concentration of reservation benefits persists in the SC and ST categories. There is no exclusion based on the ‘creamy layer’ for these communities.
  • The Dalit Christians and Muslims also suffer from considerable discrimination and lack of opportunities.
  • Increasing the reservation limit beyond 50%, sub-categorisation among reserved categories, introducing appropriate creamy layers for SC and ST, and extending SC reservations to Dalit Christians and Muslims are matters that are sensitive with their set of pros and cons.
  • There must be effort nevertheless to deliberate on these matters and frame suitable policies such that the benefits of reservation progressively reach the extremely marginalized sections.
  • The aim should be towards the continuous pursuit of social justice while maintaining a harmonious balance with equality guaranteed in the Constitution.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. With reference to affirmative action for special sections, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The State governments can make provisions to restrict employment on the basis of language.
  2. As per the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, up to 10% of the seats may be reserved for economically weaker sections for admission in educational institutions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2

D.     Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: (UPSC Prelims 2023)

1.      The National Commission for Backward Classes

2.      The National Human Rights Commission

3.      The National Law Commission

4.      The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above constitutional bodies?

 

A.     Only one

B.     Only two

C.      Only three

D.     All four

 

Ans: (A)

 

Answer 3– C

Explanation –

·        The State governments can make provisions to restrict employment on the basis of language. In Maharashtra, anyone who has lived in the state for 15 years or more is eligible for government jobs, only if they are fluent in Marathi.

·        West Bengal also conducts a language test for certain posts though in general West Bengal has no reservation for locals in government jobs. In Meghalaya, Khasis, Jaintias and Garos have a combined 80% reservation for locals while Arunachal Pradesh reserves 80% of their government jobs for locals. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

·        As per the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2018, Article 15 (6) is added to provide reservations to economically weaker sections for admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, other than the minority educational institutions referred to in clause (1) of Article 30.

·        The amendment aims to provide reservation to those who do not fall in 15 (5) and 15(4) (effectively, SCs, STs, and OBCs). Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

 

Niti Aayog report finds ‘huge gap’ in cancer screening at Ayushman centres

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/niti-aayog-report-finds-huge-gap-in-cancer-screening-at-ayushman-centres-9319273/

UPSC Relevance: GS 2- Niti Aayog, Public Health

Context: Ayushman Bharat Yojana, Role of Niti Aayog

Why in News

  • According to a report from 13 states prepared by NITI Aayog, there is a huge gap when it comes to cancer screening at the Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs).

Key Highlights

  • This report was prepared by Niti Aayog’s Health and Family Welfare vertical in June last year.
  • Niti Aayog has decided to conduct a fresh “evaluation” of the HWCs – in March this year, it issued a Request for Proposal (RFP), inviting proposals from national and international firms for this.

Ayushman Bharat Scheme

  • Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) popularly known as Ayushman Bharat Yojana Scheme is the flagship scheme by the Government of India
  • It is a flagship scheme of Government of India, was launched as recommended by the National Health Policy 2017, to achieve the vision of Universal Health Coverage (UHC).
  • Additionally, the scheme offers cashless hospitalisation services through the Ayushman Bharat Yojana e-card which you can use to get healthcare services at any of the empanelled hospitals across the country.
  • Beneficiaries of the scheme can avail hospitalisation for necessary treatment by showing their PMJAY e-card.
  • The flagship Ayushman Bharat Scheme envisaged the Rs 5-lakh insurance cover and upgrade of primary health centres to Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs).
  • These would offer annual screening for those 30 years or older for Non-Communicable Diseases: hypertension, diabetes, and three of the most common cancers in India — oral, breast and cervical.

PMJAY Rural

  • The scheme covers all beneficiaries who fall under at least one of below six deprivation categories and automatically includes destitute, manual scavenger families, living through alms, primitive tribal group, bonded labourers:
    • Households with only one room with Kucha walls and roof.
    • No adult member in the age group between 16 and 59 years.
    • No adult male member in the age group between 16 and 59 years.
    • Disabled member and no-abled bodied member in the household.
    • SC and ST
    • Landless households and major sources of income are through manual casual labour.

PMJAY Urban

  • Under the scheme, urban households are categorized based on occupation. Below are 11 occupational categories of workers who are eligible for the Ayushman Bharat Yojana Scheme:
    • Beggar
    • Domestic worker
    • Ragpicker
    • Cobbler/Street Vendor/Hawker/Other service providers on the street.
    • Plumber/Construction Worker/Mason/Painter/Labour/Welder/Security Guard/Coolie
    • Sweeper/Mali/Sanitation Worker
    • Artisan/Handicrafts Worker/Tailor/Home-based Worker
    • Driver/Transport Worker/Conductor/Cart or Rickshaw Pullers/Helper to Drivers or Conductors
    • Shop Workers/Peon in Small Establishment/Assistant/Helper/Attendant/Delivery Assistant/Waiter
    • Mechanic/Electrician/Repair Worker/Assembler
    • Chowkidar/Washer-man

Features of Ayushman Bharat Yojana Scheme

  • The Ayushman Bharat Yojana scheme, also known as PMJAY.
  • It is one of the world’s largest health insurance schemes financed by the government of India.
  • Coverage of Rs.5 lakh per family per annum for secondary and tertiary care across public and private hospitals.
  • Approximately 50 crore beneficiaries (over 10 crore poor and vulnerable entitled families) are eligible for the scheme.
  • Cashless hospitalisation.
  • Covers up to 3 days of pre-hospitalisation expenses such as medicines and diagnostics.
  • Covers up to 15 days of post-hospitalisation expenses which include medicines and diagnostics.
  • No restriction on the family size, gender or age.
  • Can avail services across the country at any of the empanelled public and private hospitals.
  • All pre-existing conditions covered from day one.

Ayushman Bharat and lack of Cancer Screenings

  • The gaps in cancer screening are significant in view of the government’s focus on prevention and detection of cancer at an early stage.
  • When contacted, an official declined to comment but said that the gap is attributable to “low levels of awareness,” and “lack of capacities.”
  • As per official protocol, there are three distinct methods of screening for the three cancers: oral visual examination for oral cancer; visual inspection with acetic acid for cervical cancer and clinical breast examination (CBE) for breast cancer for the people in the age-group 30-65 years.
  • Under the Ayushman upgrade, Auxiliary Nurse and Midwife (ANMs) at the HWCs were meant to be trained in these three screening methods. Also planned was the training of Medical Officers and Staff nurses.
  • These require intensive training and careful monitoring to sharpen the screening skills. This hasn’t happened to the extent that was expected.
  • Screening for breast cancer is being administered by educating beneficiaries to undertake self-examination. Provision for screening of cervical cancer is yet to be operationalized.
  • Screening for oral cancer is performed on a case-by-case basis, depending on tobacco consumption habits or any other visible symptoms. Presently, suboptimal cancer screening activities are a huge gap.
  • The report also flagged that although NCD screening was underway at most facilities, yearly screening was still largely absent.
  • The NITI Aayog teams also found that the HWC staff had limited or no knowledge of the fact that the screening for hypertension and diabetes needed to be done on an annual basis.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following pairs:

             Schemes                     Objectives

1. PM Jan Dhan Yojana: To provide health

Insurance Coverage of

Rs.5 lakh per family per

annum

2. KUSUM :                     Encourage farmers to

generate income by

selling surplus power to

the grid

3. SRISTI Scheme        : Incentivise installation of

rooftop solar power plant

4. Atal Jyoti Yojana       : Illuminate dark regions

through establishment of

solar street lights

How many pairs given above are correctly

matched?

A.     Only one pair

B.     Only two pairs

C.      Only three pairs

D.     All four pairs

Q. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2018)

1.      It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

2.      It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.

3.      It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A.     1 and 3 only

B.     2 only

C.      2 and 3 only

D.     1, 2 and 3

Ans- C

 

 

 

Answer 4 D

Explanation

·        The Ayushman Bharat Yojana scheme, also known as PMJAY. It is one of the world’s largest health insurance schemes financed by the government of India. Coverage of Rs.5 lakh per family per annum for secondary and tertiary care across public and private hospitals.  Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

·        KUSUM is a scheme launched by the Government of India to promote the use of solar power by farmers. The scheme is intended to empower farmers to become self-sufficient in meeting their energy needs, and to help reduce the country’s dependence on fossil fuels. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

·        SRISTI is Sustainable Rooftop Implementation for Solar Transfiguration of India. It is a type of scheme that will offer with financial incentive to the beneficiary for installing Solar power plant rooftop projects within the country. The incentives will be offered by the central government. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.

·        Atal Jyoti Yojana (Atal Jyoti Scheme) is a scheme launched by the government of India. The scheme aims to improve the power supply situation in rural areas and reduce transmission and distribution losses through the use of smart metering and energy-efficient technologies. Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.

·        Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

 

 

NASA creating a standard time for the moon

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/why-is-nasa-allotting-a-standard-time-for-the-moon/article68131522.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Space Technology, Science and Technology)

Context: In September 2025, NASA’s four-member Artemis crew is scheduled to fly around the moon in preparation for the space agency’s mission to land on the moon again

Why in News

  • To boost scientific missions, the White House Office of Science and Technology Policy (OSTP) on April 2, directed NASA, to establish a Coordinated Lunar Time (LTC) to standardise cislunar operations with the universal time followed on Earth.

Key Highlights

  • Roping in federal departments like the U.S. Departments of Commerce, Defense, State, and Transportation, the White House has set a deadline of December 31, 2026, for NASA and its international partners to deliver a strategy to implement LTC.
  • The project falls under the current administration’s National Cislunar Science and Technology Strategy.
  • NASA has been directed to engage with the 39 nations who have signed the Artemis Accords for this project.
  • It is expected to present its consideration of the LTC by December 31, 2024 as part of its Moon-to-Mars Architecture Concept Review cycle.

Need of Standard Time for the Moon

  • A consistent definition of time among operators in space is critical to successful space situational awareness capabilities, navigation, and communications.
  • Time appears to pass more slowly where gravity is stronger, like near celestial bodies.
  • As a result, the length of a second on Earth is different to an observer under different gravitational conditions, such as on the moon.
  • The LTC will be the standard to measure cislunar operations — space activities between the moon and Earth — with Coordinated Universal Time (UTC), the global time used to regulate time on Earth.
  • The UTC was designed as a way to accommodate the difference between solar time and atomic time, and is kept within 0.9 seconds of solar time to follow Earth’s rotation variations and within an exact number of seconds of the TAI.
  • Currently, moon missions follow the time of the country which operates the spacecraft, while the International Space station (ISS) runs on the UTC. However, a standardised time for space and the moon is not followed.

What is Coordinated Lunar Time (LTC)?

  • In 2023, the European Space Agency (ESA) launched a project called ‘Moonlight’ to design satellites for astronauts and robotic explorers, which will be used to support NASA’s moon mission ‘Artemis.’
  • While working on the project, questions arose on setting a single time zone for the moon and how to go about it.
  • On Earth, we use a 24-hour day based on the planet’s rotation. However, the moon rotates much more slowly – every 29.5 Earth days.
  • Due to its slow rotation, it would be practical to have less than Earth’s 24 time zones — ideally, a single time zone for the moon would be natural.
  • The idea for the UTC was formulated in the 1960s.
  • Atomic clocks — devices that measure time based on the vibration of atoms — are known for their extreme accuracy in measuring time.
  • Meanwhile, solar time, calculated by measuring the rotation of Earth on its axis relative to the Sun, is variable in nature.
  • A weighted average of hundreds of atomic clocks produces the International Atomic Time (TAI).

Celestial Time Standardization policy by USA

  • The White House’s Celestial Time Standardization policy seeks to assign a time standard to each celestial body and its surrounding space environment.
  • It focuses on the lunar surface and missions operating in cislunar space.
  • It outlines the four features such a time standard must possess:
    • Traceability to UTC: Lunar Time is analogous to Terrestrial Time on Earth. Similar to Terrestrial Time, Lunar Time may be set through an ensemble of clocks on the moon. This time standard, i.e., LTC may directly employ or distribute the UTC offsets required to maintain both local time and UTC time within tolerance limits.
    • Scalability beyond the Earth-Moon system: Conversion of LTC to UTC for operations involving interactions with Earth will be possible by using the above approach to set the LTC. This approach is also extensible to space environments beyond the Earth-Moon system (for example, for Mars).
    • Accuracy for precision navigation and science: The LTC will give users in cislunar space a reference time standard near the gravitational environment in which they operate. Space assets can synchronise with each other with precision for navigation.
    • Resilience to loss of contact with Earth: The reference time – LTC – must survive independently when contact to Earth is lost. Unlike Earth, the moon will have only one time zone and daylight saving will be unnecessary.

Significance of LTC

  • Previous moon missions involved astronauts visiting the lunar surface, completing their work and flying home.
  • However, with space agencies across the world aiming to establish a permanent human presence on the moon, LTC is required.
  • The pressing need for LTC is due to the plan to create a dedicated global satellite navigation system (GNSS) for the moon by 2030.
  • This system will function similar to how the Global positioning system (GPS) and other navigation networks work on Earth.
  • Moon missions of various agencies will need an official lunar time to communicate with Earth-based stations and each other.

Importance of Studying Far Side of Moon

  • The Moon’s far side is a candidate location for future lunar bases and research outposts.
  • Its unique geological features and radio-quiet environment make it an attractive destination for long-term exploration and scientific research.
  • However, more data is needed to assess the stability and strength of the lunar soil in this region to support the development of such facilities.

Issues in defining and implementing LTC

  • The process of defining lunar time is complicated by the effect of the moon’s gravitational pull.
  • As per special relativity theory, due to the weaker gravitational pull of the moon, a clock on the moon would run faster than one on Earth.
  • A clock’s speed would also change depending on its position on the lunar surface, because of the moon’s rotation.
  • Any clock on the moon would gain 56 microseconds over 24 hours. At least three master clocks which tick at the moon’s natural pace must be installed.
  • The output of these three clocks coupled with an algorithm is expected to generate a more accurate time standard.
  • Each lunar day lasts as long as 29.5 Earth days. With the Artemis Programme aiming for a lunar landing as early as 2026, it needs to consider how to adapt to this challenge for a long-duration stay.
  • Most participants agreed on “a common lunar reference time,” but debated if a single organization should set and maintain time on the moon.
  • Apart from the US, several countries have lunar ambitions. China has stated that it will put its astronauts on the moon by 2030, while India plans to land in 2040.
  • In January, Japan became the fifth country to land a spacecraft on the moon, after the US, Russia, India and China. However, India is the only one to land a spacecraft near the lunar south pole.

About White House Office of Science and Technology Policy (OSTP)

  • The Office of Science and Technology Policy (OSTP) is a department of the United States government, part of the Executive Office of the President (EOP).
  • It was established by the United States Congress on May 11, 1976, with a broad mandate to advise the President on the effects of science and technology on domestic and international affairs.
  • The director of this office is traditionally colloquially known as the Science Advisor to the President.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Which of the following is/are responsible for the occurrence of solar and lunar eclipses?

1. Revolution of the moon around the

2. The proximity between the moon and the Earth.

3. The relative apparent size of the Sun and the moon.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

A.     1 and 2 only

B.     2 and 3 only

C.      1 and 3 only

D.     1, 2 and 3

Q. “The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft”. The experiment in question refers to (UPSC Prelims 2020)

A.     Voyager

B.     New Horizons

C.      LISA Pathfinder

D.     Evolved LISA

Ans: (D)

 

 

Answer 5- D

Explanation

  • The inclination of the moon’s orbit to the plane of the earth’s ecliptic is 5 degrees. Because of this minor inclination difference, they appear to be in the nearly same plane, which helps to form an eclipse (to shield the other object). So, Statement 1 is correct.
  • The Proximity (the state of being near to somebody/something in distance or time) between the Earth and the moon is such that the shadow of one can hide the other object leading to the formation of the eclipse and thus is the responsible factor for the occurrence of Solar and Lunar eclipses. So, Statement 2 is correct.
  • This apparent (appears to be) size of the sun and moon (which appears to be quite similar) through which one’s shadow can shield the other completely, one of the factors for forming an eclipse. So, Statement 3 is correct.

·         Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

 

A new biocontrol agent to manage ‘foot rot’ disease in Basmati crop

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/biocontrol-agent-to-manage-foot-rot-disease-in-basmati-crop-9318082/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3- Biotechnology, Science and Technology

Context: Ludhiana’s Punjab Agricultural University has come up with biocontrol agent to combat ‘foot rot’ disease, prevalent in Basmati rice varieties.

Why in News

  • The Punjab Agricultural University (PAU), Ludhiana, has developed biocontrol agent Trichoderma asperellum (2% WP), and registered it with the Central Insecticides Board and Registration Committee (CIBRC).

What is Foot Rot?

  • Foot rot is a fungal disease that affects Basmati rice crops particularly at the seedling stage, though it might also cause infection after transplantation in case infected seedlings are transplanted.
    • Rice is cultivated in two stages. Seeds are first sown in a nursery bed, where they sprout and grow into seedlings, which are then transplanted into a well-puddled and prepared field.
  • It is caused by the fungus Fusarium verticillioides, a soil-seed borne pathogen which spreads the infection through the root of the plant, and eventually leads to the colonization of the stem base.
  • Infected seedlings first turn pale yellow, then elongate and dry up, and eventually (usually) die.
  • To prevent the disease from occurring and spreading, farmers resort to early seedling treatment, try and use disease-free seeds, and destroy infected seedlings.

Issues

  • Timely seed nursery management is crucial — experts recommend seed sowing in the first fortnight of June, and transplantation in July.
  • Sowing in May often leads to problems as the month’s high temperatures are favourable to the disease.
  • Fields where the nursery is being set up must also be well-drained, with proper irrigation, to avoid the spread of foot rot.

Current management practices

  • Currently, seedlings are treated with Trichoderma harzianum before sowing and transplantation.
  • Seeds are also treated with fungicides such as Sprint 75 WS before sowing.
  • These are the chemical treatments which are harmful for the soil, and can be toxic for consumers of the rice.
  • The fungicide carbendazim is already banned in Punjab because it leaves behind high residues.

Trichoderma Asperellum to Tackle Foot Rot

  • Trichoderma asperellum is eco-friendly.
  • This biocontrol agent offers a non-chemical alternative to traditional pesticides, aiding in disease management while minimising environmental harm.
  • The prevalence of foot rot in the Basmati crop reduces yields and threatens the state’s export prospects.
  • In some cases, farmers need to uproot their entire transplanted seedlings.
  • The use of Trichoderma Asperellum showed “excellent results” during the experimental phase, as a means to combat foot rot “without leaving harmful residues on the crop” and “compromising environmental safety.
  • The challenge now is to ensure the distribution of this agent among farmers, agri-experts point out.
  • This would be a major development in Punjab, which, along with Haryana, accounts for more than 70% of India’s basmati exports.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. Trichoderma Asperellum, recently in news, is associated with which of the following diseases?

A.     Black knot

B.     Foot Rot

C.      Aster yellows

D.     Crown gall

Q. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of (UPSC Prelims 2022)

A.     clonal propagation of crop plants.

B.     developing genetically modified crop plants.

C.      production of plant growth substances.

D.     production of biofertilizers.

Ans: (B)

 

 

Answer 6 B

Explanation

·        Foot rot is a fungal disease that affects Basmati rice crops particularly at the seedling stage, though it might also cause infection after transplantation in case infected seedlings are transplanted.

·        Foot rot is a highly contagious disease affecting the interdigital (between the toes) tissue of ruminants. It is one of the most common causes of lameness in cattle and sheep and can result in serious economic loss.

·        Therefore, option B is the correct answer.  

 

How the Widal Test is clouding India’s sense of its typhoid problem?

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/widal-test-overuse-typhoid-antimicrobial-resistance-health-expenses/article68152863.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Science and technology)

Context: Widal test and its negative impact

Why in News

  • The typhoid test is a rapid blood test called the Widal test. The subsequent treatment usually consists of tablets, typically in urban areas, or injections in rural ones.

Key Highlights

  • As Per the World Health Organisation, 90 lakh people are diagnosed worldwide with typhoid every year and 1.1 lakh die of it.
  • A small 2023 study reported the burden to be 576-1173 cases per 100,000 child-years (one child year is one child being followed up for one year) in urban areas and 35 per 100,000 child years in rural Pune.

About Typhoid

  • Typhoid spreads through contaminated food and water.
  • It is caused by Salmonella typhiand other related bacteria.
  • Also known as enteric fever, it presents with a high fever, stomach pain, weakness, and other symptoms like nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea or constipation, and a rash.
  • Some people, called carriers, may remain symptom-free and shed the bacteria in their stool for several months to years.
  • These symptoms mimic those of malaria, dengue, influenza, and typhus, to name a few, each with different treatment modalities.
  • If left untreated, typhoid can be life-threatening.

How is typhoid fever diagnosed?

  • The gold standard for diagnosing typhoid is to isolate the bacteria from a patient’s blood or bone marrow and grow them in the lab.
  • Stool and urine samples can also yield the same but with lower sensitivity.
  • However, performing culture tests in smaller clinical settings presents practical problems. Cultures are time-consuming and skill- and resource-intensive.
  • Prior antibiotic treatment can also affect the results of cultures — a common issue due to the indiscriminate use of antibiotics in India.
  • Some PCR-based molecular methods are known to be better but are limited by cost;
    • the need for specialised infrastructure and skilled personnel; and
    • the inability to retrieve live bacteria for further tests.

Widal Test in India

  • In India, clinicians use the Widal test extensively to diagnose typhoid in both public and private sectors.
  • As with other infections, our immune system produces antibodies in the blood against the bacteria, causing enteric fever.
  • The Widal test rapidly detects and quantifies these antibodies.
  • It’s a point-of-care test and doesn’t need special skills or infrastructure.
  • Developed in the late 1800s by a French physician, it is no longer used in many countries because of its flaws.

Why is the Widal test inappropriate?

  • A single positive Widal test report doesn’t necessarily mean a typhoid infection is present, and a negative report doesn’t confirm the disease’s absence.
  • To diagnose an active infection, clinicians must test at least two serum samples taken at least 7-14 days apart, so that they may detect a change in concentrations of the antibodies.
  • But getting two samples is rarely feasible and time-consuming.
  • In areas with high and continuous typhoid burden, certain levels of antibodies against the bacteria may already be present in the blood.
  • Without knowing the baseline cut-off, it isn’t possible to correctly interpret the test.
  • A related issue is that different manufacturers of the test specify different cut-off values in their kits’ user manuals.
  • The reagents used in the Widal test to reveal the presence of various antibodies can cross-react with antibodies produced against infections by other bacteria, viruses or parasites, or even in typhoid-vaccinated individuals, leading to false positives.
  • Prior antibiotic therapy can also affect antibody levels and yield a false negative.

Consequences of the Widal Test

  • Because of the Widal test’s propensity for erroneous results, the actual burden of typhoid in India remains obfuscated.
  • A lack of awareness of the proper time at which to collect a blood sample, along with a lack of standardisation of kits and poor quality-control compound the problem.
  • Further, a single test costs a couple hundred rupees. Patients in many States have also reported being charged Rs 500 to Rs 4,000 per dose of antibiotic injections by local healthcare providers following a typhoid diagnosis based on a single Widal test.
  • Patients in both urban and rural areas have reported selling assets to receive these antibiotics.
  • The irrational use of antibiotics is a major cause of antimicrobial resistance (AMR). Bacteria have also been known to be able to transmit AMR between strains and species, and they are not limited by geographical borders. This is why the threat of AMR in one country represents the threat of AMR everywhere.
  • Some strains of Salmonella are also resistant to multiple drugs. Continued irrational use of the Widal test, which facilitates unnecessary use of antibiotics, will therefore only make it more and more difficult to control this preventable disease while adding to the financial woes of the patients already suffering.

What do we need instead of the Widal Test?

  • To discover better point-of-care tests that can replace the Widal test.
  • Clinicians can consider using best-practice heuristics that provide a rational diagnosis and subsequent treatment options based on the regional data of effective antibiotics available against the bacteria.
  • These options should be coupled with ensuring adequate and safe food and water and functional sanitation to address the disease’s root cause.
  • Healthcare workers can benefit from a ‘hub and spoke’ model, with sample collection sites at the periphery and district hospitals and medical colleges as the hubs that process samples.
  • The latter facilities could also serve as research centers that generate regional prevalence and susceptibility data.
  • Better surveillance is needed to stay on top of the AMR caused by the overuse of the Widal test.
  • The Indian Council for Medical Research publishes an annual report highlighting the typhoid bacteria’s resistance patterns.
  • Finally, as typhoid also has symptom-free carriers, constant environmental vigilance and data-sharing are imperative.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q7.  Consider the following statements:

1.      Widal Test is a rapid blood test used for the diagnosis of the AIDS disease.

2.      Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhiand other related bacteria.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.     1 and 2 only

B.     2 only

C.      1 only

D.     None

Q. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? (2019)

1.      Genetic predisposition of some people

2.      Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases

3.      Using antibiotics in livestock farming

4.      Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A.     1 and 2

B.     2 and 3 only

C.      1, 3 and 4

D.     2, 3 and 4

Ans: (B)

 

 

Answer 7 – B

Explanation

  • The typhoid test is a rapid blood test called the Widal test. The subsequent treatment usually consists of tablets, typically in urban areas, or injections in rural ones. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

·        Typhoid spreads through contaminated food and water. It is caused by Salmonella typhiand other related bacteria. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

 

India overtook Japan to become world’s 3rd largest solar power generator in 2023

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/business/india-3rd-largest-solar-power-generator-2023-9316657/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 3- Economy, Ecology and Environment

Context: India become world’s 3rd largest solar power generator in 2023

Why in news

  • Rapid solar energy deployment in India pushed the country past Japan to become the world’s third-largest solar power generator in 2023, according to a new report.

Key Highlights

  • The report by global energy think tank Ember said India ranked ninth in solar energy deployment in 2015.
  • Solar produced a record 5.5 per cent of global electricity in 2023.
  • In line with the global trend, India generated 5.8 per cent of its electricity from solar last year, as reported in Ember’s “Global Electricity Review”.

Position of India in 2023

  • India saw the world’s fourth-largest increase in solar generation in 2023 (+18 terawatt hour or TWh), behind China (+156 TWh), the United States (+33 TWh) and Brazil (+22 TWh).
  • Together, the top four solar growth countries accounted for 75 per cent of growth in 2023.
  • The global solar generation in 2023 was more than six times larger than in 2015.
  • Solar’s contribution to electricity generation in India increased from 0.5 per cent in 2015 to 5.8 per cent in 2023.
  • According to the International Energy Agency’s (IEA) “Net Zero Emissions” scenario, solar would increase to 22 percent of global electricity generation by 2030.

Significance for India

  • India is one of the few countries planning to triple renewable capacity by 2030.
  • Annual capacity additions need to significantly increase for India to meet this capacity target.
  • With electricity generation accounting for nearly half of India’s annual carbon dioxide emissions, accelerating the transition to cleaner generation sources is imperative for the country to meet both its developmental and climate goals.
  • As part of its national plan to fight climate change, India has committed to achieving 50 per cent cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy resources by 2030.
  • At the United Nations’ COP28 climate change conference in December last year, world leaders arrived at a historic agreement to triple the global renewable energy capacity by 2030.
  • The IEA says tripling the global RE capacity and doubling energy efficiency are crucial to limiting the average temperature rise to 1.5 degrees Celsius, a political target set in 2015 to prevent further worsening of climate impacts.

Related Initiatives

  • Solar Park Scheme: The Solar Park Scheme plans to build a number of solar parks, each with a capacity of nearly 500 MW, across several states.
  • Rooftop Solar Scheme: The Rooftop Solar Scheme aims to harness solar power by installing solar panels on the roof of houses.
  • National Solar Mission: It is a major initiative of the Government of India and State Governments to promote ecologically sustainable growth while addressing India’s energy security challenge.
  • SRISTI Scheme: Sustainable rooftop implementation of Solar transfiguration of India (SRISTI) scheme to promote rooftop solar power projects in India.
  • International Solar Alliance: International Solar Alliance is an action-oriented, member-driven, collaborative platform for increased deployment of solar energy technologies.
  • Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM): The PM-KUSUM scheme was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) to support installation of off-grid solar pumps in rural areas and reduce dependence on grid, in grid-connected areas.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q8.  Consider the following statements:

Statement I: “National solar mission” aims the development of large-scale and rooftop solar projects and trading of solar power.

Statement II: Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) is a company under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy to facilitate the implementation of the National Solar Mission (NSM).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

 

Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2016)

1.      The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.

2.      The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.     1 only

B.     2 only

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.     Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (A)

 

Answer 8 D

Explanation

·        The objective of the National Solar Mission is to establish India as a global leader in solar energy by creating the policy conditions for its diffusion across the country as quickly as possible.

·        To create an enabling policy framework for the deployment of 20,000 MW of solar power by 2022.  The target will principally comprise of 40 GW Rooftop and 60 GW through Large and Medium Scale Grid Connected Solar Power Projects.

·        So, Statement I is not correct.

·        Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) is a Central Public Sector Undertaking (CPSU) under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), set up on 20th September 2011 to facilitate the implementation of the National Solar Mission (NSM) and achievement of targets set therein.

·        It is the only CPSU dedicated to the renewable energy sector.

·        So, Statement II is correct.

·        Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

 

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