Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (09-05-2024)
| News at a Glance |
| Telangana: HC sets aside Lokayukta orders to GHMC |
| Operational glitches in Gouravelli project CCTVs raise NGT concerns |
| International Relations: India received over $111 billion in remittances in 2022 |
| India contributes $5,00,000 to U.N. Counter-Terrorism Trust Fund |
| Science and Technology: FLiRT- new COVID-19 variant threatening US |
| Economy: India-Australia trade deal and Child Labour Issue |
| India, China dominates Europe’s supply of essential drugs |
| Important Days: World Thalassaemia Day 2024 |
HC sets aside Lokayukta orders to GHMC
Source: Deccan Chronicle
https://www.deccanchronicle.com/nation/politics/hc-sets-aside-lokayukta-orders-to-ghmc-893077
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Polity, Governance, Society
Context: High Court on the Telangana Lokayukta
Why in news
- The Telangana High Court criticised the Telangana Lokayukta for issuing orders beyond its jurisdiction.
Key Highlights
- The Bench stated that while the provisions of the Telangana Lokayukta Act, 1983 allow for the investigation of administrative actions taken by public servants, including omissions, commissions, and failures to act, the Act does not authorize the Lokayukta to order the removal of alleged illegal constructions or clear road encroachments.
- The Lokayukta’s directive to GHMC stemmed from a complaint regarding illegal encroachments and constructions on the land in question.
- The property owner contested the orders, claiming that the land originally belonged to him and that GHMC authorities had seized it without compensating him for road widening, in violation of a status quo order.
- The court, refraining from commenting on the legality of the constructions and encroachments, emphasised that the Lokayukta lacked the jurisdiction to issue such orders and subsequently quashed them.
What is Lokayukta?
- The Lokayukta is an authority at state level which deals with corruption and mal-admistration complaints made by the general public.
- This authority is constituted for a quicker redressal of public grievances.
- Lokayukta is an anti-corruption authority or ombudsman which investigates and address complaints of corruption and misconduct against public servants, including government officials and elected representatives, at the state level and tasked with speedy redressal of public grievances.
- The most prominent features of the Institution of Lokayukta in this State are:
- i) Independence from Executive Control;
- ii) Informal procedure and easy accessibility to complaints; and
- iii) Almost free and prompt services to the citizens.
Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
- The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, is a central legislation that provides for the establishment of a Lokpal at the national level and Lokayuktas at the state level to inquire into allegations of corruption against public functionaries.
- However, not all states have implemented this act, and some states continue to operate under their own state-specific laws regarding the Lokayukta.
Telangana Lokayuktas
- Telangana Lokayukta is the parliamentary ombudsman formed by the erstwhile of Andhra Pradesh under the Andhra Pradesh Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act, 83 and adapted by Telangana after getting bifurcated from Andhra Pradesh.
- The institution was designed to as a high level statutory functionary for the state of Telangana for addressing the public complaints against the state government officials and its administration and is independent of the governing political and public administration.
- The Act became Law from 1 November’83. The passage of Lokpal and Lokayukta’s Act, 2013 in Parliament had become law from January 16, 2014 and had mandated every state in India to appoint its Lokayukta within a year of its passing.
High Court for the State of Telangana
- The Telangana High Court is the High Court for the Indian state of Telangana. Founded by the 7th Nizam Mir Osman Ali Khan,
- Initially, it was set up as High Court of Hyderabad for the then Princely State of Hyderabad Deccan and later renamed High Court of Andhra Pradesh, as it was set up on 5 November 1956 under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
- The Andhra Pradesh High Court was renamed as High Court of Judicature at Hyderabad in view of the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh state.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q1. Which of the following are considered as part of the executive branch of a State Government?
1. Governor 2. Chief Minister 3. State Council of Ministers 4. Advocate General of State 5. Lokayukta Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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| Answer 1: A
The government is based on the separation of powers and consists of three organs such as the Legislature, Executive and the Judiciary. The State Executive is the part of the state government which enforces the law and is responsible for the administration of the state. Statement 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct: The State Executive is made up of the following: 1) Governor – Governor is the nominal head of a state. 2) Chief Minister – The Chief Minister is the most powerful functionary at the State Government level and is the executive head of the state. 3) Council of Ministers – It is responsible for being the senior decision-making body of the executive branch. It is chaired by the Chief Minister and consists of the heads of each of the executive government ministries. 4) Advocate General of the State – He is the highest law officer in the state.
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Operational glitches in Gouravelli project CCTVs raise NGT concerns
Source: Indian Express
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Telangana River projects and environmental concerns
Context: Gouravelli project in Siddipet, Godavari River Management Board (GRMB), National Green Tribunal.
Why in news
- The CCTV cameras installed at Gouravelli project in Siddipet were found non-functional, raising concerns for the Godavari River Management Board (GRMB) as they had to face the wrath of the National Green Tribunal.
Key highlights:
- The NGT while hearing the case directed the GRMB to install CCTV cameras at the project site to ensure no construction activities, until the case before NGT attains finality.
- In compliance with NGT orders, GRMB installed seven CCTV cameras atop the embankment to oversee project activities, aiming to halt construction until the case’s resolution. However, during an inspection certain defects in the functioning of some CCTV cameras were brought to the notice of project authorities to rectify them.
- “Subsequently, the receiving of data from many cameras stopped for the past few months.
- Despite several reminders by the member-secretary through phone, informing project officials in person during any direct meetings, the officials concerned were yet to initiate any action to proper functioning of CCTV cameras, the letter said.
- As the final hearing of the case is scheduled on July 4, necessary priority action must be taken immediately to ensure that the issues in CCTV cameras are resolved soon,” the GRMB said in the letter.
Gouravelli project in Siddipet
- Gouravelli project in Siddipet is Located at Gudatipally in Akkannapet mandal of Siddipet,.
- The project now boasts an impressive storage capacity of 8.23 TMCft.
- The water for Gouravelli will be sourced from Mid Manair, passing through the Thotapally Reservoir before traveling another 8 km through a link canal to Narlapur.
- The Irrigation department has excavated a 12 km-long tunnel from Narlapur to Regonda, where a pump house has been constructed to lift the water into the reservoir.
- Three lift pumps, each with a capacity of 132 MW have been installed by the Irrigation department.
- These pumps will lift the water 126 metres from the Regonda pump house and release it into Gouravelli.
Godavari River Management Board (GRMB)
- Godavari River Management Board (GRMB) was constituted by the Central Government as an autonomous body under the administrative control of the Central Government
- In exercise of the powers conferred by Sub-sections (1), (4) and (5) of the Section 85 of Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation the Act, 2014, the Central Government constituted Godavari River Management Board Vide Ministry of Water Resources, RD & GR Gazette Notification – S.O. 1403(E), dated the 28th May, 2014 for the administration, regulation, maintenance and operation of such projects, as may be notified by the Central Government from time to time and became effective on 2nd June 2014.
- The Headquarter of GRMB is located at Hyderabad.
- All the posts of GRMB Secretariat are to be filled on deputation basis from Staff/Officers of Central Government/State Government of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
National Green Tribunal (NGT)
- The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body in India that deals with expeditious disposal of cases related to environmental protection and other natural resources.
- It was set up under the National Green Tribunal Act in 2010. India is the third country in the world, after Australia and New Zealand, to set up a statutory body for environmental protection.
- The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is formed in 2010 under National Green Tribunal Act as a statutory body to deal with the cases related to environmental issues and speedy implementation of decisions relating to it.
- The Tribunal has a mandate to dispose of applications and petitions within a period of six months.
- The National Green Tribunal is responsible in giving many prominent decisions, such as declaring the plying of diesel vehicles of over fifteen years old on the roads of Delhi as illegal in efforts to prevent air pollution. The tribunal in a separate order cancelled the clearance of coal blocks in the forests of Hasdeo-Arand situated in Chhattisgarh state.
| CARE MCQ |
Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Green Tribunal Act of 2010 :
How many statements given above is/are correct ? A. Only one statement B. Only two statements C. Only three statements D. All four statements |
| Answer 2 C
Explanation
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India received over $111 billion in remittances in 2022
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS- 2 International Report, International Relations, GS-3- Economy
Context: India received over $111 billion in remittances
Why in News
- The International Organisation for Migration (IOM), in its World Migration Report 2024 said that in 2022, India, Mexico, China, the Philippines and France were the top five remittance recipient countries.
World Migration Report 2024
- The International Organisation for Migration (IOM) recently launched its World Migration Report 2024.
- Since 2000, IOM has been producing its flagship world migration reports every two years.
- The World Migration Report aims to help dispel myths, provide critical insights, and inspire meaningful action in addressing the challenges and opportunities of human mobility.
Experience of Other Countries
- In 2022, India, Mexico, China, the Philippines and France were the top five remittance recipient countries.
- India received over USD 111 billion in remittances in 2022, the largest in the world.
- Mexico was the second-largest remittance recipient in 2022, a position it also held in 2021 after overtaking China.
- The Central American country is estimated to have received more than USD 61 billion in 2022, while China received about USD 51 billion.
- China is also an important destination for international students, especially those from the Republic of Korea, Thailand, Pakistan and India.
- The contraction of remittance flows to China has been attributed to multiple factors, including demographic shifts that have resulted in the shrinking of the working age population and the country’s zero-COVID policy, which prevented people from travelling abroad for work.
- A very large number of migrant workers from the subregion, Southern Asia receives some of the largest inflows of remittances globally.
- Three countries in Southern Asia – India, Pakistan and Bangladesh, rank among the top ten recipients of international remittances in the world.
- Pakistan and Bangladesh were the sixth and eighth largest international remittance recipients in 2022, receiving nearly USD 30 billion and USD 21.5 billion respectively.
- Migrants continue to comprise high proportions of the total populations in many Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) States.
- The Gulf States remain significant destinations for migrant workers from around the world, and the 2022 football World Cup further underscored the importance of migrant labour to the subregion as well as rights violations.
- The report further said that countries in Asia are the origins of the largest number of internationally mobile students in the world.
- The US is the largest destination country for international mobile students in the world (more than 833,000),
- followed by the UK (nearly 601,000), Australia (around 378,000), Germany (over 376,000) and Canada (nearly 318,000).
- The report said that there are more female than male international migrants in destination countries in Europe and Northern America, such as the US, Canada, France, Spain and Italy, but also in India.
- Countries with a significantly high proportion of male emigrants include India, Bangladesh and Pakistan.
Key Findings on India
- India has become the first country to reach and even surpass the USD 100 billion mark.
- India was the top country receiving remittances in 2010 (USD 53.48 billion), 2015 (USS 68.91 billion), and 2020 (USD 83.15 billion), with the remittances crossing the USD 100 billion mark to reach USD 111.22 billion in 2022.
- India is also the origin of the largest number of international migrants in the world, with large diasporas living in countries such as the United Arab Emirates, the United States and Saudi Arabia.
- India came in 13th as the destination country for immigrants, with 4.48 million.
- India – United Arab Emirates, India – US, India – Saudi Arabia and Bangladesh – India was among the top 10 international country-to-country migration corridors, the report said.
- India has a slightly higher share of female immigrants than males.
Impact of Pandemic on Migration
- The report noted that the impact of the pandemic has been severe on both internal and international Indian emigrant workers, particularly low-skilled emigrants on short-term contracts, migrants working within the informal economy and undocumented workers.
- Loss of jobs along with wage theft and lack of social security during the pandemic has plunged many Indian migrants into deep debt and insecurity.
- The pandemic has had an overwhelming effect on internal labour migration patterns and has reshaped work in both rural and urban areas.
- There has been a decline of almost 10 per cent in blue-collar workforce mobility towards cities, which has drastically cut the labour supply for major industries.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following statements
1. China is the largest receiver of remittance in 2022. 2. The South Asia receives some of the largest inflows of remittances globally. 3. There are more male than female international migrants in destination countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1, 2 and 3 B. Only 2 and 3 C. Only 1 and 3 D. Only 2
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Q. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis? (UPSC Prelims 2019)
1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector. 2. Increasing government expenditure 3. Remittances from Indians abroad.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 only D. 1,2 and 3 only Ans – B
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| Answer 3 D
Explanation · In 2022, India, Mexico, China, the Philippines and France were the top five remittance recipient countries. India received over USD 111 billion in remittances in 2022, the largest in the world. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. · It noted that with a very large number of migrant workers from the subregion, Southern Asia receives some of the largest inflows of remittances globally. Hence statement 2 is correct. · World Migration Report 2024 said that there are more female than male international migrants in destination countries in Europe and Northern America, such as the US, Canada, France, Spain and Italy, but also in India. · Hence statement 3 is incorrect. · Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
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India contributes $5,00,000 to U.N. Counter-Terrorism Trust Fund
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS 2- (United Nations, International Relations), GS 3 (Terrorism, Internal Security)
Context: India’s contribution to UN Counter-Terrorism Trust Fund
Why in News
- India has contributed $500,000 to the U.N. Counter-Terrorism Trust Fund, underscoring its unwavering commitment to support multilateral efforts in the global fight against the scourge of terrorism.
Key Highlights
- India’s Permanent Representative to the United Nations Ambassador Ruchira Kamboj handed over the U.N. Counter-Terrorism Trust Fund (CTTF) Contribution to Under Secretary General, United Nations Office of Counter-Terrorism (UNOCT).
- The statement said India’s contribution would support UNOCT’s global programmes — mainly Countering Financing of Terrorism (CFT) and Countering Terrorist Travel Programme (CTTP).
- They are aimed at building capacities of the member states of eastern and southern Africa to combat the critical issues of financing of terrorism and prevent the movement and travel of terrorists.
Indian Contribution
- Since 2018, India has also been actively supporting programmes combating the threat of terrorism.
- With its current contribution, India’s cumulative financial support to the trust fund now stands at $2.55 million.
- Addressing the issue of the growing threat of terrorism in Africa has been one of the counter-terrorism priorities of India for the past few years.
Significance of the Contribution
- India places great significance on the mandate and the work undertaken by the United Nations Office of Counter-Terrorism in building the capacity of member states to effectively deal with the threat of terrorism.
- The latest contribution reaffirms India’s unwavering commitment to supporting multilateral efforts led by the United Nations in the global fight against the scourge of terrorism.
- The contribution is a testament to India’s commitment to international cooperation on countering terrorism.
About United Nations Office of Counter-Terrorism (UNOCT)
- The United Nations Office of Counter-Terrorism (UNOCT) was approved in a resolution on 15 June 2017, with the consensus of the 193-nation UN General Assembly.
- The creation of the office was also welcomed by Secretary-General of the United Nations António Guterres’ initiative to transfer relevant functions out of the United Nations Department of Political Affairs (DPA) to the new United Nations Office of Counter-Terrorism.
United Nations Countering Terrorist Travel
- The United Nations Countering Terrorist Travel Programme is a flagship global initiative of the United Nations Office of Counter-Terrorism (UNOCT).
- It assists beneficiary Member States in building their capabilities to detect and counter-terrorists and serious crimes by using Advance Passenger Information (API) and Passenger Name Record (PNR) data.
UN Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy
- The UN General Assembly adopted by consensus the UN Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy on 8 September 2006.
- The strategy is a unique global instrument to enhance national, regional and international efforts to counter terrorism.
- The General Assembly reviews the Strategy every two years, making it a living document attuned to Member States’ counter-terrorism priorities.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following Statements:
1. The United Nations Countering Terrorist Travel Programme is a flagship global initiative of the UNICEF. 2. The UN General Assembly adopted the UN Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy in 2006. 3. Countering Financing of Terrorism (CFT) and Countering Terrorist Travel Programme (CTTP) are two global programmes of UNOCT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 2 and 3 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3
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Q. Hand-in-Hand 2007’ a joint anti-terrorism military training was held by the officers of the Indian Army and officers of Army of which one of the following countries? (2008)
A. China B. Japan C. Russia D. USA
Ans: (A) |
| Answer 4 – A
Explanation: · The United Nations Countering Terrorist Travel Programme is a flagship global initiative of the United Nations Office of Counter-Terrorism (UNOCT). Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. · The UN General Assembly adopted by consensus the UN Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy on 8 September 2006. Hence Statement 2 is correct. · UNOCT’s global programmes — mainly Countering Financing of Terrorism (CFT) and Countering Terrorist Travel Programme (CTTP) are aimed at building capacities of the member states of eastern and southern Africa to combat the critical issues of financing of terrorism and prevent the movement and travel of terrorists. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
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FLiRT- new COVID-19 variant threatening US
Source: Hindustan Times
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Health), GS 3 (Science and Technology)
Context: The CDC reports a rise in FLiRT COVID-19 variants across the US with the KP.2 strain leading.
Why in News
- The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) have found that there is an unfamiliar set of COVID-19 variants spreading across the US, which they collectively called FLiRT.
Key Highlights
- The COVID-19 cycle spins again with new variants in circulation. KP.2 and KP1.1, dubbed ‘FLiRT’ variants, are descendants of the Omicron JN.1 which spread globally over the winter last year.
- FLiRT cases have also soared in the U.K., South Korea and New Zealand, renewing fears of a fresh COVID-19 wave.
- The Indian SARS-CoV-2 Genomics Consortium (INSACOG) has detected 238 cases of KP.2 and 30 cases of KP1.1 circulating in India, as of May 6.
- 2, the more dominant strain of the two, in particular, is believed to leap past immunity built up from vaccines and previous infections.
What are the FLiRT variants?
- 2 and KP1.1 sub lineages are descendants of the JN.1 variant of the SARS-CoV-2 virus with two new added spike mutations.
- They are nicknamed the FLiRT group of variants (labelled so because of their technical names, F being replaced by L at position 456, and R supplanted by T at position 346).
- The acronym indicates two specific mutations, which when occur together, end up conferring greater invasive properties to the virus.
- Think of KP.2 (also called JN.1.11.1.2) as the ‘great-grandson’ of JN.1, which was classified as a Variant of Interest last December.
- Between the two, KP.2 is reported to be more prevalent across countries.
- The main variants circulating globally as of May 2024, arranged in the order of their prevalence, are KP.2, JN.1 and KP1.1.
Symptoms of FLiRT
- The symptoms of FLiRT variant closely resemble those of JN.1.
- Fever or chills
- Persistent cough
- Sore throat
- Nasal congestion or runny nose
- Headache
- Muscle aches
- Difficulty breathing
- Fatigue
- New loss of taste or smell
- Mental fog (feeling less alert and focused)
- Gastrointestinal issues (such as upset stomach, mild diarrhea, vomiting)
The CDC emphasizes that this list is not exhaustive and that symptoms can vary among individuals and may evolve with new variants.
How FLiRT transmits?
- This variant spreads via respiratory droplets of the person to others, or touching infected surfaces such as faucets, furniture, elevator buttons, kitchen countertops, or coming in close contact with the person who is sick with this variant.
KP.2 in India
- Per INSACOG, KP.2 has been detected predominantly in Maharashtra, Odisha, Goa and West Bengal; KP1.1 in West Bengal, Maharashtra and Gujarat; KP.3 in Uttarakhand.
- This is not to say that the variants are not circulating in other regions, but the proactive tracking in these states have identified JN.1’s descendants.
Are FLiRT variants riskier than JN.1?
- 2 was able to escape the immune protection derived not only from the most updated vaccine but also from the breakthrough infection with JN.1 afterwards.
- 2 has profound immune evasive properties.
- Even among people who got the JN.1 infection after the vaccination, their immune response could be surmounted by KP.2.
- The research, published on the pre-print server bioRxiv, showed the reproduction number of KP.2 (Re) may be 1.22 times higher than the Re for JN.1.
Blood bank study reveals true incidence of Long COVID
- In India, experts have also detected a new surge of cases since early April, with approximately one in six tests turning positive, compared to zero in March.
- With limited testing however, the exact prevalence and geographic spread is unknown.
- It is too early to say if all the new COVID-19 cases or hospitalisations are due to KP.2 or KP1.1 in India.
- Although immunisation with up-to-date SARS-CoV-2 vaccine produces antibodies recognising JN.1, experience from India and elsewhere indicates vaccination done earlier is still effective in preventing severe COVID-19 from newer variants.
- Health bodies such as IDSA have sounded the need for updating vaccines with more recent variants.
- The European Medicine Agency also recently recommended “updating COVID-19 vaccines to target the new variant JN.1” before another round of vaccinations is undertaken.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. Consider the following statements:
1. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique helps in making many copies of a small amount of DNA. 2. DNA molecule is first cooled to break it up into two strands followed by heating with primers so that they bind to the DNA. 3. RT-PCR diagnosis used for COVID-19 employs (NAAT) method. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
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Q. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why? (UPSC Prelims 2019)
(1) It is used in developing gene silencing therapies. (2) It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer. (3) It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies. (4) It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to virtual pathogens. Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. 1 and 4 only Ans: A |
| Answer 5- B
Explanation: · Polymerase chain reaction (PCR), is also known as “molecular photocopying,” is a fast and inexpensive technique used to “amplify” – copy – small segments of DNA. Because significant amounts of a sample of DNA are necessary for molecular and genetic analyses, studies of isolated pieces of DNA are nearly impossible without PCR amplification. · Once amplified, the DNA produced by PCR can be used in many different laboratory procedures. PCR is also valuable in a number of laboratory and clinical techniques, including DNA fingerprinting, detection of bacteria or viruses (particularly AIDS), and diagnosis of genetic disorders. So, Statement 1 is correct. · The steps in PCR are: 1. To amplify a segment of DNA using PCR, the sample is first heated so the DNA denatures, or separates into two pieces of single-stranded DNA. 2. Primers are added and the DNA is cooled so that they bind to the DNA. 3. Next, an enzyme called “Taq polymerase” synthesizes – builds – two new strands of DNA, using the original strands as templates. 4. This process results in the duplication of the original DNA, with each of the new molecules containing one old and one new strand of DNA. · The cycle of denaturing and synthesizing new DNA is repeated as many as 30 or 40 times, leading to more than one billion exact copies of the original DNA segment. · The entire cycling process of PCR is automated and can be completed in just a few hours. It is directed by a machine called a thermocycler, which is programmed to alter the temperature of the reaction every few minutes to allow DNA denaturing and synthesis. Heating is followed by cooling, So, Statement 2 is not correct. · A Nucleic Acid Amplification Test, or NAAT, is a type of viral diagnostic test for SARS-CoV-2, which causes COVID-19. NAATs for SARS-CoV-2 specifically identify the RNA (ribonucleic acid) sequences that comprise the virus’s genetic material. Amplifying those nucleic acids enables NAATs to detect very small amounts of SARS-CoV-2 RNA in a specimen, making these tests highly sensitive for diagnosing COVID-19. · NAATs can use many different methods to amplify nucleic acids and detect the virus, including but not limited to: o Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) o Nicking endonuclease amplification reaction (NEAR) o Transcription mediated amplification (TMA) o Loop-mediated isothermal amplification (LAMP) o Helicase-dependent amplification (HDA) o Clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats (CRISPR) o Strand displacement amplification (SDA) · Hence Statement 3 is correct. · Therefore, option B is the correct answer. |
India-Australia trade deal and Child Labour Issue
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2- International Relations, GS 3- Bilateral Trade Agreement
Context: India and Australia are in the middle of negotiations for a broad basing an Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) into a more comprehensive pact.
Why in News
- Australian parliamentary committee in its report submitted to its lawmakers has raised concerns over child labour in India.
Key Highlights
- The Australian parliamentary committee report stated that the India-Australia trade deal, signed in 2022, was at cross-purposes with Canberra’s policy priorities.
- The Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) bilateral trade deal could lead to an increase in goods imports with lower environmental and labour standards.
- The parliamentary report tabled that Australia’s trade agreement with India does not recognise international labour rights.
- It also suggests to the government to not enter into trade agreements with countries that violate international labour rights and for deals to include a labour chapter that aligns with commitments made to International Labour Organization (ILO) core convention.
- Australia’s Joint Standing Committee on Trade and Investment Growth also questioned the absence of labour or human rights provisions in the China-led Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) trade deal where Australia is a member. Notably, India is not part of RCEP.
Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA)
- The Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) was signed by the centre-right government led by former Australian PM Scott Morrison.
- The deal saw the elimination of duties on 96 per cent of value of Indian exports to Australia that included exports from a range of labour-intensive sectors.
- India’s total exports to Australia in FY24 stood close to $8 billion, 15 per cent higher compared to the previous financial year.
Counter Arguments on Labour Standards
- The report added that some trade agreements have operated in conflict with Australian government policy priorities by enabling lower labour and manufacturing standards, with reduced environmental standards.
- However, trade economists have pointed out that incorporation of international labour standards in trade agreements is in fact a protectionist measure in the guise of humanitarian concerns.
- In 2022, the Centre for WTO Studies, in a report by RV Anuradha and Nimisha Singh Dutta, had argued that the immediate imposition of international labour standards would lead to reduction in the total economic welfare worldwide in developing nations as well as developed nations.
- While countries which strengthen their core labour standards can increase economic growth and efficiency by raising skill levels in the workforce and by creating an environment which encourages innovation and higher productivity, there is no evidence to suggest that countries with low core labour standards enjoy a better export performance.
Child Labour In India
- India is home to about 1.01 crore working children between the age of five and fourteen years, as per 2011 census.
- As per an Indian parliamentary standing committee report, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra, employ over half of India’s child labour.
- Child workers might have actually increased in urban areas across all sectors and age categories due to the economic woes brought about by the Covid-19 induced crises.
International Provisions to curb the practice of Child Labour
- The International Convention on the Rights of the Child (ICRC) recognises the right of every child to be protected from economic exploitation and from performing work that is hazardous or harmful to their health and development or that interferes with their education.
- The most concrete international agreements on combating child labour are the conventions of the International Labour Organisation (ILO) concerning the minimum age for the admission to employment (138) and on the prohibition and immediate action for the elimination of the worst forms of child labour (182).
- The UN Guiding Principles for Business and Human Rights (also known as the ‘Ruggie Principles’) contain the most important international guidelines on the role businesses are expected to play in eliminating child labour.
National Provisions to curb the practice of Child Labour
- Article 24 of the Constitution: No child below the age fourteen years shall be employed in work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.
- National Policy on Child Labour (1987): It focuses more on rehabilitation of children working in hazardous occupations and processes, rather than on prevention.
- Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act 2015: It includes the working child in the category of children in need of care and protection, without any limitation of age or type of occupation.
- The Right to Education Act, 2009 has made it mandatory for the state to ensure that all children aged 6 to 14 years are in school and receive free education.
- Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour (PENCIL) Portal 2017:
- It is an electronic platform that aims at involving Centre, State, District, Governments, civil society and the general public in achieving the target of child labour free society.
- It has been launched for the effective implementation of Child Labour Act and National Child Labour Project (NCLP) Scheme.
What is the FTA ratification process in India?
- India’s FTA ratification process is fairly simple. The department of commerce holds multiple rounds of inter-ministerial and stakeholder meetings before the FTA text is finalised.
- Thereafter, the department seeks approval of the Union Cabinet and it does not need a nod from Parliament.
- What is the FTA ratification process in developed countries?
- Most developed nations such as the United States (US), United Kingdom (UK), Australia and the European Union (EU) need to seek Parliamentary approval. This results in greater scrutiny of FTAs in these nations as compared to India. As a result, these countries take longer to ratify the deal.
- For instance, the India-Australia ECTA was signed in April 2022, but kicked in from December 29, 2022. This is because of elections as well as the time taken to seek Parliamentary approval.
What are the FTAs currently being negotiated by India?
- India is actively engaging in FTA negotiations with the EU, UK, Oman, Sri Lanka, Australia (for a comprehensive trade deal) and Peru.
- India and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA) signed a trade deal earlier in March 2024. It needs to be ratified by the Parliaments of Switzerland, Iceland, Norway, and Liechtenstein.
- Pacts with Mauritius, United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Australia were signed between 2021 and 2022.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Which of the following articles/initiatives have a bearing on Child labour?
1. ILO Resolution 138 2. ILO Resolution 182 3. Article 24 of Indian Constitution 4. Ruggie principles 5. PENCIL Portal Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1, 2, 3 only B. 2, 3, 5 only C. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 5 |
Q. International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to: (UPSC Prelims 2018)
A. Child Labour B. Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change C. Regulation of food prices and food security D. Gender parity at the workplace
Ans: (A) |
| Answer 6 D
Explanation · The most concrete international agreements on combating child labour are the conventions of the International Labour Organisation (ILO) concerning the minimum age for the admission to employment (138) and on the prohibition and immediate action for the elimination of the worst forms of child labour (182). Hence Statement 1 and 2 is correct. · Article 24 of the Constitution: No child below the age fourteen years shall be employed in work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment. Hence Statement 3 is correct. · The UN Guiding Principles for Business and Human Rights (also known as the ‘Ruggie Principles’) contain the most important international guidelines on the role businesses are expected to play in eliminating child labour. Hence Statement 4 is correct. · Platform for Effective Enforcement for No Child Labour (PENCIL) Portal 2017 is an electronic platform that aims at involving Centre, State, District, Governments, civil society and the general public in achieving the target of child labour free society. It has been launched for the effective implementation of Child Labour Act and National Child Labour Project (NCLP) Scheme. Hence Statement 5 is correct. · Therefore, option D is the correct answer. |
India, China dominates Europe’s supply of essential drugs
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3- International Trade, Indian Economy
Context: Dominance of India and China in Supply of Essential drugs (those that satisfy the priority health care needs of a population) to Europe.
Why in news
China and India have emerged as a major supplier of pharmaceutical products (Essential medicines) to Europe.
Key Highlights
- Europe’s huge shortage of medical masks during the coronavirus pandemic has laid bare the continent’s vulnerability to ensuring a steady supply of basic medicinal products.
- In 2020, the European Parliament stated in a report that public health could be a “geopolitical weapon that can bring down an entire continent.”
- The European Union has since attempted to identify the types of medicines it can only source from outside the bloc, notably from China.
Germany’s National Pharma Strategy
- As part of efforts to boost the domestic pharmaceutical industry, the German government adopted a strategy paper in December 2023 identifying three key areas to be strengthened.
- The first goals include unbureaucratic approvals for clinical trials with medicinal products.
- Secondly, easier access to health data for research purposes.
- And finally, incentives for setting up more manufacturing sites in the country.
- Germany is still a major player in the global pharma market and home to leading companies such as Bayer, Boehringer Ingelheim and Merck Group.
- However, they are strong in the market for innovative, patented medications but weak in the generics market.
- The German government’s strategy to boost domestic investments with subsidies was criticized badly.
Concerns With Dominance
- Establishing a precise pharmaceutical database is where the problem already begins. Information on the manufacturers of chemicals and other downstream ingredients are “well-kept trade secrets.
- It’s critical for manufacturers to keep market advantages secret from competitors, especially in the generics sector.
- Generics are pharmaceutical drugs that contain the same chemical substance as a drug that was formerly protected by chemical patents.
- The success of generic drug makers depends on low prices, which means that supply chains are often “very complex.
- There was massive investment in those factories that could produce at the lowest costs — first for the domestic market, and then the surplus output was exported.
Arguments Against
- In the summer of last year, the German parliament adopted legislation aimed at incentivizing the German pharma industry to reshore production or at least stop relocating abroad, with higher drug prices.
- The law was also a result of drug shortages and supply bottlenecks that had emerged during the global pandemic and the Russian invasion of Ukraine.
- It is a major healthcare policy change because Germany had sought to keep public health costs as low as possible until last year.
- Previously, drugmakers were forced to offer statutory health insurance companies their medications at capped prices.
- So prices were fixed for about 80% of medications, including generic drugs, meaning that only the most cost-effective drug firms could make a profit.
- Under the new legislation, insurance companies’ drug tenders for specific active ingredients and off-patent medications must also award contracts to a European company.
China’s Dominance
- The higher drug prices are inevitable if Europe wants more security. But production in Europe will never be as cheap as in Asia.
- The German pharma industry, in particular, would suffer from “excessive bureaucracy, skilled labor shortages, high energy costs, and crumbling infrastructure.”
- The Chinese drugmakers, by contrast, benefit from lower labor and energy costs and cost-free land allowances from the government when they establish production facilities.
- Moreover, they don’t have to comply with environmental regulations as strict as those in Europe.
Pharmaceutical Industry in India
- The pharmaceutical industry in India is expected to reach $65 Bn by 2024 and to $130 Bn by 2030.
- India is a major exporter of Pharmaceuticals, with over 200+ countries served by Indian pharma exports.
- India supplies over 50% of Africa’s requirement for generics, ~40% of generic demand in the US and ~25% of all medicine in the UK.
- India also accounts for ~60% of global vaccine demand, and is a leading supplier of DPT, BCG and Measles vaccines.
- It played a vital role in vaccinating 2.2 billion Indians and providing over 290 million vaccine doses to more than 100 countries through the ‘Vaccine Maitri’ initiative.
- The industry also worked tirelessly to develop medicines, testing kits, and treatments for COVID-19.
- This showed its dedication, flexibility, and enormous potential. Therefore, our Pharmaceutical Industry is known as “Pharmacy of The World”.
Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme
- The Indian pharmaceuticals market is supported by the following Production Linked Incentive Schemes to boost domestic manufacturing capacity, including high-value products across the global supply chain.
- PLI Scheme for Key Starting Materials (KSMs)/Drug Intermediates (DIs) and Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs) (PLI 1.0) – Under the PLI scheme for Bulk Drugs, the objective is to boost domestic production of 41 select critical bulk drugs in the country.
- Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Pharmaceuticals d (PLI 2.0) – Under the PLI scheme for Pharmaceuticals, 55 applicants have been selected, including 20 Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q7. Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Pharmaceutical sector:
1. Globally, India is the largest provider of generic drugs. 2. The Indian Pharmaceutical industry is currently ranked third in pharmaceutical production by volume. 3. Indian pharmaceutical sector supplies over 50% of global demand for various vaccines. 4. India is the largest exporter of medical goods in the world. Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 3 and 4 only
|
Q. Consider, the following statements : (UPSC Prelims 2023)
Statement-I : India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Ans: (D) |
| Answer 7 A
Explanation · India is the world’s largest generic drug provider, with a reputation for producing low-cost vaccines and generic medications. · India is the world’s largest provider of generic pharmaceuticals, accounting for 20% of total supply by volume and over 60% of global immunisation demand. Hence Statement 1 is correct. · The Indian pharmaceutical sector is currently rated third in pharmaceutical output by volume, having evolved over time into a robust business with a CAGR of 9.43% over the last nine years, and 14th in value. Hence Statement 2 is correct. · Indian pharmaceutical companies currently supply more than 80% of the antiretroviral medications used worldwide to combat AIDS. · India is appropriately renowned as the “pharmacy of the world” because of the low cost and great quality of its pharmaceuticals. Hence Statement 3 is correct. · In 2022, the top exporters of Pharmaceutical products were Germany ($125B), Switzerland ($93.8B), United States ($90B), Ireland ($83.5B), and Belgium ($73.5B). · Indian pharmaceuticals are exported to over 200 nations around the world, with the United States being the primary market. Hence Statement 4 is incorrect. · Therefore, option A is the correct answer. |
World Thalassaemia Day 2024
Source: Hindustan Times
UPSC Relevance: GS 2- Public Health, GS 3- Genetic Disorders
Context: World Thalassaemia Day 2024
Why in News
- World Thalassaemia Day is observed on May 8 to raise awareness around the genetic disorder, and support those who have it.
About World Thalassaemia Day
- World Thalassaemia Day aims to raise awareness around this genetic disorder, and support those who are struggling with it and their caregivers, support research for its cure, and busting myths around the disease.
History of World Thalassaemia Day
- In the year 1994, World Thalassaemia Day was first established by Founder of Thalassemia International Federation (TIF) Panos Englezos in the memory of his son George, who died of Thalassemia.
- The day was created to make efforts to fight the disease, remember those who lost their lives to it, and find a cure for it.
- Thalassemia awareness also gained momentum through the efforts of patient support groups, healthcare professionals, and advocacy organizations around the world.
- These groups aimed to highlight the challenges faced by individuals living with thalassemia and their families, including the need for regular blood transfusions, iron chelation therapy, and access to quality healthcare.
What is Thalassaemia?
- Thalassemia is a genetic disorder characterized by insufficient haemoglobin production, leading to a shortage of red blood cells and, consequently, anaemia.
- Person with thalassemia major have to undergo repeated transfusion.
- He can have increased susceptibility to various infections, hepatomegaly splenomegaly, bone issues and other health complications, including organ failure
- Thalassemia can be of different types, but majorly can be alpha or beta.
Diagnosis of Thalassaemia
- Diagnostic tests, such as haemoglobin electrophoresis and DNA analysis, confirm thalassemia types and severity.
- Prenatal diagnosis by CVS/ Amniocentesis can help understand the status in womb. Preimplantation genetic testing {PGT (M)}, where embryos can be screened and the healthy embryo can be implanted.
- Early detection through the Hb HPLC blood test is crucial in managing thalassemia and securing the future well-being of generations to come.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q8. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Thalassemia is a genetic disorder characterized by insufficient haemoglobin production. Statement II: Prenatal diagnosis of Thalassemia is not possible. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1 C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
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Q. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2021)
1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg. 2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father.
Which of the statements given above is’/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: A |
| Answer 8– C
Explanation – · Thalassemia is a genetic disorder characterized by insufficient haemoglobin production, leading to a shortage of red blood cells and, consequently, anaemia. Hence, statement I is correct. · Prenatal diagnosis of Thalassemia can be done by CVS/ Amniocentesis which can help understand the status in womb. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
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