May 06 CURRENT AFFAIRS 2024 APPSC

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (06-05-2024)

 

News at a Glance
Andhra Pradesh:  97 per cent pensions disbursed in two days
Steps taken to tackle water scarcity in Andhra Pradesh
Science and Technology: China launches lunar probe mission to collect samples for first time from far side of moon
Mammalian transmission of H5N1 outbreak
Polity and Governance: India slips in World Press Freedom Index
Article 361 in news
International Relations: Nepal’s NPR100 currency Note and Kalapani border dispute

 

97 per cent pensions disbursed in two days

Source: The Hindu

https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/andhra-pradesh/2024/May/03/andhra-pradesh-97-per-cent-pensions-disbursed-in-two-days

APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Social welfare administration

Context: Andhra Pradesh Govt credits amount into 48L accounts, distributes 15 lakh pensions at doorstep

Why in News

  • Andhra Pradesh government has disbursed pension amount in 48 lakh pension accounts.

Key Highlights

  • In a press release, Principal Secretary (Panchayat Raj and Rural Development) said that the State government has released an amount of Rs 1,945.39 crore for the disbursement of social welfare pensions to 65,49,864 pensioners in the State.
  • The pension distribution started on May 1 and as of date, 63,31,470 pensions (96.67%) have been disbursed.
  • According to him, as many as 15,13,752 pensions (91.34%) have been disbursed out of 16,57,361 at the doorsteps of beneficiaries, while, 48,17,718 pensions (98.47%) have been disbursed out of 48,92,503 into the bank accounts of pensioners through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
  • The required funds for the failed transactions will be made available to the respective village/ward secretariats on May 3 and door-to-door disbursement will take place on May 4.

YSR Pension Kanuka

  • “YSR Pension Kanuka” is a Social Security Scheme by the Panchayat Raj & Rural Development Department, Govt. of Andhra Pradesh.
  • The objective of this scheme is to ameliorate the hardships of the poor and vulnerable sections of society particularly the old and infirm, widows, and persons with disability to secure a dignified life.
  • In 2019, the department enhanced the pension amount of Old Age Pension (OAP), Widow, Weavers, Toddy Tappers, Fishermen, Single Women, Traditional Cobblers, and PLHIV (ART Pensions) categories to ₹ 2,250/-, Disabled Pensions to ₹ 3,000/-, CKDU/Dialysis Pensions to ₹ 10,000/-.
  • It also reduced the age for Old Age Pensioners (OAP) from 65 to 60 years.
  • The Eligibility Criteria have been revised so that the benefit of pension shall be reached all sections of the needy people.

 

 CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following Statements with regards to YSR Pension Kanuka:

  1. YSR Pension Kanuka is a Social Security Scheme by the Panchayat Raj & Rural Development Department, Govt. of Andhra Pradesh.
  2. The objective of this scheme is to provide equal pension amount to Old Age Pension (OAP), Widow, Weavers, Fishermen, Single Women, and Disabled persons.
  3. The scheme has reduced the age for Old Age Pensioners (OAP) from 65 to 55 years.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.      Only 1

B.      Only 2

C.      Only 3

D.      None

 

 

Answer 1 A

Explanation

·         YSR Pension Kanuka is a Social Security Scheme by the Panchayat Raj & Rural Development Department, Govt. of Andhra Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is correct.

·         The objective of this scheme is to ameliorate the hardships of the poor and vulnerable sections of society particularly the old and infirm, widows, and persons with disability to secure a dignified life.

·         In 2019, the department enhanced the pension amount of Old Age Pension (OAP), Widow, Weavers, Toddy Tappers, Fishermen, Single Women, Traditional Cobblers, and PLHIV (ART Pensions ) categories to ₹ 2,250/-, Disabled Pensions to ₹ 3,000/-, CKDU/Dialysis Pensions to ₹ 10,000/-. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

·         The Eligibility Criteria have been revised so that the benefit of pension shall be reached all sections of the needy people. It also reduced the age for Old Age Pensioners (OAP) from 65 to 60 years. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. So, correct answer is option A.

 

 

Steps taken to tackle water scarcity in Andhra Pradesh

Source: Indian Express

https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/andhra-pradesh/2024/May/04/steps-taken-to-tackle-water-scarcity-in-andhra-pradesh

APPSC Relevance: Socio-economic schemes

Context: Jal Jeevan Mission and water scarcity in Andhra Pradesh.

Why in News

  • AP Chief Secretary directed the officials to take steps to avoid drinking water scarcity.

Key Highlights

  • The Chief Secretary asked them to supply water through tankers for the impacted areas till June.
  • He also suggested the officials take up works under the Jal Jeevan Mission with the approval of the Chief Electoral Officer after the completion of elections in the State.
  • The officials of Panchayat Raj and Rural Development (PR&RD) and Municipal Administration departments at the State Secretariat said that there should be no scarcity of drinking water in rural and urban areas.
  • Taking stock of the summer storage tanks filled with the water released from canals recently, he also enquired about the groundwater levels in different parts of the State.

Jal Jeevan Mission

  • Jal Jeevan Mission, is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India.
  • Har Ghar Jal is a scheme initiated by the Ministry of Jal Shakti of Government of India under Jal Jeevan Mission in 2019.
  • It aims to provide 55 litres of tap water to every rural household per capita per day regularly on long term basis by 2024.
  • Objective:
    • To implement source sustainability measures as mandatory elements, such as recharge and reuse through grey water management, water conservation, rain water harvesting.
  • The Jal Jeevan Mission will be based on a community approach to water and will include extensive Information, Education and communication as a key component of the mission.

 

 CARE MCQ

 

Q2. Consider the following statements with regards to Jal Jeevan Mission:

  1. Jal Jeevan Mission is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India.
  2. Har Ghar Jal is a scheme initiated by the Ministry of Jal Shakti of Government of India under Jal Jeevan Mission in 2019.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.      1 and 2

B.      1 only

C.      None

D.      Only 2

 

Answer 2 C

Explanation

  • Jal Jeevan Mission, is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
  • Har Ghar Jal is a scheme initiated by the Ministry of Jal Shakti of Government of India under Jal Jeevan Mission in 2019. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
  • It aims to provide 55 litres of tap water to every rural household per capita per day regularly on long term basis by 2024.

·         Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.

 

China launches lunar probe mission to collect samples for first time from far side of moon

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/china-launches-lunar-probe-mission-to-collect-samples-for-first-time-from-far-side-of-moon/article68135303.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Space Technology, Science and Technology)

Context: Launch of China’s Chang’e-6 mission

Why in News

  • China recently launched a lunar probe mission to collect samples for the first time from the far side of the moon and bring them to Earth for scientific studies.

Chang’e-6 mission

  • China has successfully launched its historic Chang’e-6 mission which is a 53-day-long mission.
  • Chang’e 6 consists of four components:
    • an orbiter,
    • a lander,
    • an ascender and
    • a re-entry module
  • The scientific instruments from France, Italy and the European Space Agency/Sweden will be on board the lander of the Chang’e-6 mission and a Pakistani payload on the orbiter.
  • The lunar probe was carried by a Long March-5 Y8 rocket which blasted off from the Wenchang Space Launch Site on the coast of China’s southern island province of Hainan.
  • The spacecraft lifted off from the Wenchang Satellite Launch Center in China’s southern province of Hainan.
  • It will land in the southern portion of the Apollo crater, located within the South Pole-Aitken (SPA) basin on the lunar far side.

Objective

  • The Chang’e-6 mission is tasked with collecting and then returning samples from the moon’s far side to Earth.
  • This is the first endeavour of its kind in the history of human lunar exploration.
  • After reaching the Moon’s orbit, the mission’s orbiter will circle the natural satellite while its lander will descend into the 2,500-kilometre-wide South Pole-Aitken basin on the lunar surface.
  • After collecting dust and rocks on the moon, the ascender will transport the samples to the lunar orbiter for transfer to the re-entry module, which will carry them back to Earth.

Significance of the Mission

  • The spacecraft will be the first to launch from the far side of the moon with rocks and soil samples that could reveal new insights about not just the formation of the Moon, but also the Solar System.
  • The mission is poised to make breakthroughs in key technologies, such as automatic sample collection, take-off and ascent from the far side of the moon.
  • Meanwhile, the probe will carry out scientific exploration of the landing zone.
  • A major space power, China in the past successfully launched unmanned missions to the moon which included landing a rover. China has also sent a rover to Mars.
  • Earlier, China announced plans for a manned lunar landing by 2030.

What is Far Side of the Moon?

  • The far side of the Moon, also known as the dark side.
  • It is the hemisphere of the Moon that permanently faces away from Earth.
  • It was first observed by the Soviet Luna 3 spacecraft in 1959.
  • This region of the Moon is of increasing scientific interest for several reasons.
  • The far side of the Moon has some of the most ancient and deepest impact basins in the solar system, dating back to just a few hundred million years after the formation of the Earth-moon system.
  • Studying these geological formations could provide valuable insights into the early bombardment history of the inner solar system, which also impacted the Earth during its formative years.

Why explore the far side of the Moon?

  • The Moon’s far side is often referred to as the dark side because it cannot be seen from the Earth, not because it does not catch the Sun’s rays.
  • The Moon is tidally locked with the Earth and therefore, we see only one side of the Moon, also known as the near side.
  • The far side has been under the spotlight in recent years as it is very different from the near side.
  • It has a thicker crust, more craters and fewer maria, or plains where lava once flowed.
  • Examining the samples from the far side can help scientists solve mysteries about the origin and evolution of the Moon.
  • The far side of the Moon blocks all electromagnetic noise from human activity on Earth, making it an ideal location for radio telescopes.
  • Astronomers have called for radio silence in this region to preserve its pristine radio-quiet environment for scientific observations.

Importance of Studying Far Side of Moon

  • The Moon’s far side is a candidate location for future lunar bases and research outposts.
  • Its unique geological features and radio-quiet environment make it an attractive destination for long-term exploration and scientific research.
  • However, more data is needed to assess the stability and strength of the lunar soil in this region to support the development of such facilities.

India’s Mission on Lunar Missions

  • India became the first country to land near the little-explored lunar south pole region last year when its Chandrayaan-3’s lander, carrying the Pragyaan rover successfully landed there.
  • Chandrayaan-1
    • It is India’s first mission to the Moon, was launched on October 22, 2008 from Sriharikota spaceport in Andhra Pradesh.
    • The spacecraft, carrying 11 scientific instruments built in India, the USA, the UK, Germany, Sweden and Bulgaria, orbited around the Moon at a height of 100 km from the lunar surface for chemical, mineralogical and photo-geologic mapping of the Moon.
    • After the successful completion of all the major mission objectives, the orbit was raised to 200 km in May 2009.
  • Chandrayaan-2
    • It comprising an orbiter, lander and rover, was successfully launched on July 22, 2019.
    • The objectives of the country’s second mission to the Moon were scientific studies by payloads onboard the orbiter, and technology demonstration of soft landing and roving on the lunar surface.
    • Most of the components of technology demonstration, including the launch, orbital critical manoeuvres, lander separation, de-boost and rough braking phase were successfully accomplished.
  • Chandrayaan-3
    • Chandrayaan-3 is a follow-on mission to Chandrayaan-2 to demonstrate end-to-end capability in safe landing and roving on the lunar surface. It consists of Lander and Rover configuration.
    • It will be launched by LVM3 from SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota.
    • The propulsion module has Spectro-polarimetry of Habitable Planet Earth (SHAPE) payload to study the spectral and Polari metric measurements of Earth from the lunar orbit.
    • The mission objectives of Chandrayaan-3 are:
      • To demonstrate Safe and Soft Landing on Lunar Surface
      • To demonstrate Rover roving on the moon and
      • To conduct in-situ scientific experiments.

India-China Space rivalry

  • India and China have heavily invested in their respective space programs since the 1960s, with both countries vying to become a leading space power.
  • According to the “Military Balance” report released in February by the International Institute of Strategic Studies, China operates 245 military satellites, compared to India’s 26.
  • China also has a reusable spacecraft and counter-space technology, the London-based think tank found.
  • Chinese Space Program
    • The Chinese space program is run by the China National Space Administration (CNSA), a civilian agency focused on defense-related technology.
    • China’s manned space program is the China Manned Space Engineering Office (CMSEO).
    • The People’s Republic of China (PRC) sent astronauts into space for the first time in 2003 and has since conducted several other manned missions.
    • The Chinese Manned Space Agency has been a source of great national pride for the Chinese Communist Party (CCP), with President Xi Jinping closely associating himself with the program’s success.
    • China has also developed a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) that rivals the American Global Positioning System (GPS).
    • China has also rapidly expanded its arsenal of space technology for military purposes, including anti-satellite (ASAT) technologies. Many Chinese satellites are directly run by the People’s Liberation Army (PLA), which some American national security analysts fear could pose a security risk.

Indian Space Program

  • India’s national space program is made up of the civilian Space Research Organization (ISRO) and the military Defense Space Agency (DSA).
  • The DSA oversees India’s ASAT technology, which the Indian space program demonstrated with a successful test in 2019.
  • The founding of the DSA in 2018 has shifted India’s space focus towards military applications.
  • India has also seen a rise in space technology companies and currently contains over 140 space tech start-ups. In June 2020, Indian PM Narendra Modi publicly pushed for private sector involvement in space technology.
  • In 2022, Indian space start-ups garnered around $120 million in private investments, with investments predicted to increase in the coming years.
  • India’s space sector has also benefited from US tensions with Russia and China, which are major providers of satellite launches that geopolitical tensions have closed off to American customers.
  • A 2021 report from the American intelligence community labeled China’s space program a major security concern. NASA also plans to retire the International Space Station in 2031; China’s Tiangong space station remaining in orbit would allow the PRC significant influence in space, a major concern for the US intelligence community.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. How many pairs given are correctly matched?

Mission Country
1. Chandrayaan-3  India
2. Chang’e-6  China
3. Mars Express  Japan
4. Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) India

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. Only one pair

B. Only two pairs

C. Only three pairs

D. All four pairs

 

Q. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2018)

  1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
  2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
  3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.      1 only

B.      2 and 3

C.      1 and 2

D.      3 only

 

Ans: (A)

 

 

Answer 3- C

Explanation

·         India became the first country to land near the little-explored lunar south pole region last year when its Chandrayaan-3’s lander, carrying the Pragyaan rover successfully landed there. Pair 1 is correct

·         China has successfully launched its historic Chang’e-6 mission which is a 53-day-long mission. The scientific instruments from France, Italy and the European Space Agency/Sweden will be on board the lander of the Chang’e-6 mission and a Pakistani payload on the orbiter.  Pair 2 is correct

  • Mars Express is the European Space Agency‘s first planetary mission. Pair 3 is incorrect
  • Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) also known as Mangalyaan Mission is the cynosure of many of the technological breakthroughs achieved by ISRO in the Space domain. Pair 4 is correct

·          Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

 

Mammalian transmission of H5N1 outbreak

Source: The Print

https://theprint.in/defence/china-builds-road-through-shaksgam-valley-in-pakistan-occupied-kashmir-india-registers-protest/2066706/?amp

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3- Science and Technology, Viral diseases

Context: H5N1 is a type of influenza virus that causes a highly infectious, severe respiratory disease in birds called avian influenza.

Why in News

  • Avian Influenza A H5N1 started in one cattle herd in Texas and quickly grown to 36 herds across nine states in the U.S. With wider testing of cattle herds ongoing, this number is likely to go up significantly.

Key Highlights

  • Two avian Influenza H5N1 lineages have been spreading across the world.
  • The Influenza A H5N1 lineage 2.3.4.4.b that emerged in 2022 spread across all continents except Australia, affecting and decimating several avian species.
  • The outbreak has pushed many avian species to the verge of extinction and has spilled over to over a hundred mammalian species to date.

Case of H5N1 influenza in US

  • A total of seven cats have been documented to be infected in the cattle farms.
  • Unlike cattle, cats infected with the virus exhibited severe symptoms, including neurological ones.
  • While there’s one documented case of a human with mild symptoms who had close contact with infected animals, the risk appears low.
  • A survey in affected regions in the U.S. found traces of the genetic material of the virus in nearly 20% of grocery milk samples using PCR testing, although further studies also confirmed the absence of live virus in the samples.
  • However, this survey also suggests that the outbreak might be more widespread than reported cases.
  • Despite this finding, pasteurization, a standard milk treatment effectively destroys live viruses thus the public health risk is minimal.

Genomes and Insights

  • Despite controversy surrounding limited metadata, the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) has provided a large tranche of genomic data for the virus following the outbreak which has offered valuable insights into the outbreak.
  • Most significantly, the data suggests that the virus had a single point of introduction in late 2023, and a potential undetected spread among cattle.
  • A number of mammalian adaptation mutations have been identified in the genomes, consistent with the wider spread in cattle.
  • The data also hints at the possibility of reverse spillover events which differs from previous avian-to-mammalian transmissions.

What is H5N1?

  • H5N1 is a type of influenza virus that causes a highly infectious, severe respiratory disease in birds called avian influenza.
  • Human cases of H5N1 avian influenza occur occasionally, but it is difficult to transmit the infection from person to person.

Concern about H5N1 influenza?

  • H5N1 infection in humans can cause severe disease and has a high mortality rate.
  • If the H5N1 virus were to change and become easily transmissible from person to person while retaining its capacity to cause severe disease, the consequences for public health could be very serious.
  • Influenza viruses constantly undergo genetic changes.
  • It would be a cause for concern, should the H5N1 virus become more easily transmissible among humans.

Situation in India

  • India has seen avian influenza outbreaks in poultry this year across four states, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and more recently in Kerala, and Jharkhand.
  • These outbreaks have largely been limited to poultry. However, the genome sequences from these outbreaks are not yet available in the public domain and therefore the lineages of the infecting virus are not known.

Challenges

  • Firstly, the route of mammalian transmission among cattle herds is unclear, while speculations for this include contaminated feed, milking equipment, or even airborne transmission.
  • Secondly, the question of how the virus evaded detection among cattle populations remains open.
  • Finally, the potential of reverse spillover events from cattle to poultry, as suggested by the genomic data, necessitates further research to assess the risk of transmission to humans and develop appropriate mitigation strategies.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following Statements:

1.       H5N1 is a type of influenza virus that causes a severe respiratory disease in birds called avian influenza.

2.       H5N1 infection in humans can cause less severe disease and has a low mortality rate.

3.       Influenza viruses cannot undergo genetic changes.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.      1 only

B.      2 and 3 only

C.      3 only

D.     1, 2, 3 only

Q. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (UPSC Prelims 2019)

A.      Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.

B.      Hepatitis B. unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.

C.      Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses arc several times more than those infected with HIV.

D.      Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.

Ans: (B)

 

 

 

 

Answer 4 A

Explanation

·         H5N1 is a type of influenza virus that causes a highly infectious, severe respiratory disease in birds called avian influenza (or “bird flu”). Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

·         H5N1 infection in humans can cause severe disease and has a high mortality rate. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

·         Influenza viruses constantly undergo genetic changes. It would be a cause for concern, should the H5N1 virus become more easily transmissible among humans. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

·         Therefore, option A is the correct answer.  

 

India slips in World Press Freedom Index

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-press-freedom-score-falls-says-reporters-sans-frontieres/article68136062.ece#:~:text=India%27s%20score%20in%20the%20World,by%20journalists%20in%20180%20jurisdictions

UPSC Relevance: GS2- Polity and Governance

Context: India slips in World Press Freedom Index

Why in News

  • India’s ranking in the 2023 World Press Freedom Index has slipped to 161 out of 180 countries, according to the latest report released by global media watchdog Reporters Without Borders (RSF).

Key Highlights

  • India’s score in the World Press Freedom Index fell over the last year, from 36.62 to 31.28, according to Reporters Without Borders (RSF for Reporters sans Frontières). In 2022, India was ranked at 150.
  • India’s rank improved from 161 in 2023 to 159 in 2024, but this was because other countries had slipped in their rankings.
  • In comparison, Pakistan has fared better when it comes to media freedom as it was placed at 150, an improvement from last year’s 157th rank.
  • Sri Lanka also made significant improvement on the index, ranking 135th this year as against 146th in 2022
  • Norway, Ireland and Denmark occupied the top three positions in press freedom, while Vietnam, China and North Korea constituted the bottom three.

World Press Freedom Index

  • The World Press Freedom Index (WPFI) is an annual ranking of countries compiled and published by Reporters Without Borders (RSF).
  • Reporters Without Borders (RSF) is an international NGO whose self-proclaimed aim is to defend and promote media freedom.
  • Headquartered in Paris, it has consultative status with the United Nations.
  • The objective of the World Press Freedom Index is to compare the level of press freedom enjoyed by journalists and media in 180 countries and territories in the previous calendar year.

What is Press Freedom?

  • RSF defines press freedom as “the ability of journalists as individuals and collectives to select, produce, and disseminate news in the public interest independent of political, economic, legal, and social interference and in the absence of threats to their physical and mental safety.”

Concerns arise

  • The Indian Women’s Press Corps, the Press Club of India, and the Press Association released a joint statement voicing their concern over the country’s dip in the index.
  • The indices of press freedom have worsened in several countries, including India, according to the latest RSF report.
  • For developing democracies in the Global South where deep pockets of inequities exist, the media’s role cannot be understated.
  • Likewise the constraints on press freedom due to hostile working conditions like contractorisation have to also be challenged.
  • Insecure working conditions can never contribute to a free press.
  • Press freedom around the world is being threatened by the very people who should be its guarantors — political authorities.
  • The press freedom questionnaire covers five categories — political context, legal framework, economic context, sociocultural context and security.
  • Scores for India dropped (worsened) in all but the security indicator.
  • India’s media has fallen into an ‘unofficial state of emergency’ since 2014 and engineered a spectacular rapprochement between the ruling party and the big families dominating the media.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Consider the following statements:

1.       India’s score in the World Press Freedom Index has been significantly improved over last few years.

2.  The World Press Freedom Index (WPFI) is an annual ranking of countries published by UNESCO.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index? (UPSC Prelims 2019)

(A) Maintenance of law and order

(B) Paying taxes

(C) Registering property

(D) Dealing with construction permits

Ans – A

 

 

Answer 5– D

Explanation –

·         India’s score in the World Press Freedom Index fell over the last year, from 36.62 to 31.28, according to Reporters Without Borders (RSF for Reporters sans Frontières). In 2022, India was ranked at 150. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

·         The World Press Freedom Index (WPFI) is an annual ranking of countries compiled and published by Reporters Without Borders (RSF). Reporters Without Borders (RSF) is an international NGO whose self-proclaimed aim is to defend and promote media freedom. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

 

Article 361 in news

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/law-and-order-is-a-state-subject-sc-says-as-west-bengal-complains-of-cbis-unilateral-investigations/article68132160.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 2- Polity and Governance

Context: Sexual Harassment Complaint Against West Bengal Governor: How Article 361 Provides Immunity?

Why in news

  • Even as a complaint has been filed in Kolkata against West Bengal Governor C V Ananda Bose, Constitutional immunity bars the police under article 361 from naming the Governor as an accused or even investigating the case.

Background

  • A woman employee of Raj Bhavan since 2019 has accused West Bengal Governor C V Ananda Bose of  sexual harassment.
  • The Mamata Banerjee-led party has accused Bose of disrespecting Raj Bhavan.
  • Meanwhile, the governor has banned the police from accessing the Raj Bhavan under the “guise of conducting unauthorised, illegitimate, sham and motivated “investigation” to placate political bosses during elections, escalating the conflict with the state administration.

What is Article 361?

  • Article 361 of the Constitution that deals with immunity to the President and the Governors states that they “shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.
  • The provision also has two crucial sub-clauses:
    • that no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be initiated or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during the term of his office.
    • No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President, or the Governor of a State, shall be issued from any court during his term of office.
  • The Constitution contemplates a complete bar against prosecuting the Governor. He cannot be named an accused.
  • The police can act only after the Governor ceases to be in office, which is when either the Governor resigns or he no longer enjoys the confidence of the President.

Supreme Court Rulings

  • In the landmark 2006 ruling in Rameshwar Prasad v Union of India, that outlined the immunity enjoyed by the Governor “even on allegation of personal malafides,” the Supreme Court held that “the position in law, is that the Governor enjoys complete immunity.”
    • Governor is not answerable to any Court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties,” the Court said. The ruling is indeed not for criminal complaints but for exercising discretionary constitutional powers.
  • In 2017, the Supreme Court allowed fresh charges of criminal conspiracy against BJP leaders L K Advani, Murli Manohar Joshi, Uma Bharti in the 1992 demolition of the Babri Masjid. However, the trial did not take place for former UP Chief Minister Kalyan Singh since he was then the Governor of Rajasthan.
  • In 2017, then Meghalaya Governor V Shanmuganathan, following a nudge from the Centre, resigned after allegations of sexual harassment levelled by Raj Bhavan staff. In 2009, then Andhra Pradesh Governor N D Tiwari also resigned “on health grounds” following an alleged sex scandal in Raj Bhavan.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q 6.  According to Article 361 of the Constitution of India, a criminal proceeding cannot be instituted in a court against the ______ during his term of office.

A.      Prime Minister

B.      Vice-President

C.      Governor

D.      Chief Minister

Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2018)

  1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
  2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.      Neither 1 nor 2

Answer – (C)   

 

 

Answer 6. C

Explanation

·         According to Article 361 of the Constitution of India, a criminal proceeding cannot be instituted in a court against the Governor during his term of office.

·         The President or Governor, while in the office is not personally responsible for any court for the exercise and execution of their powers.

·         Article 361 makes it clear that any court, tribunal or entity appointed or appointed by any House of Parliament to investigate a complaint pursuant to Article 61 can bring the President’s conduct under investigation.

·         Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

 

Nepal’s NPR100 currency Note and Kalapani border dispute

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/rs-100-nepal-currency-note-to-have-new-map-that-includes-lipulekh-limpiyadhura-and-kalapani/article68139191.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS 2- India-Nepal relations, Bilateral Relations

Context: Kalapani Border dispute between India and Nepal

Why in News

  • Nepal announced the printing of a new NPR100 currency note with a map that shows the controversial territories of Lipulekh, Limpiyadhura and Kalapani.

Nepal’s NPR100 currency Note Issue

  • The Nepal cabinet approved to re-design the Banknote of NPR 100 and replace the old map printed in the background of the Bank note.
  • The currency note also shows the controversial territories of Lipulekh, Limpiyadhura and Kalapani, which Nepal has long claimed as its territories that were illegitimately occupied by India after the 1962 border war with China.
  • India reacted sharply, calling it a “unilateral act” and terming as “untenable” the “artificial enlargement” of the territorial claims by Nepal.
  • Contesting Nepal’s decision, External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar said that New Delhi’s position is very clear adding that Kathmandu unilaterally took some measures on their side.
  • He also said that while both countries were having talks on boundary matters, by doing something unilaterally, Nepal is not going to change the on-ground reality.

Kalapani border dispute

  • The dispute over Kalapani, which lies on the easternmost corner of Uttarakhand’s Pithoragarh district, between Nepal and India was revived in November 2019 when India published a revised political map showing the newly created Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and
  • Both India and Nepal lay claim to Kalapani. The map showed Kalapani as part of Pithoragarh district.
  • Nepal protested immediately and drew attention to the lingering issue.
  • On May 8, India inaugurated the Darchula-Lipulekh pass link road, cutting across the Kalapani area which is used by Indian pilgrims to Kailash Mansarovar.
  • Nepal hit back by summoning the Indian Ambassador to Nepal, Vinay Mohan Kwatra, to convey a formal protest.

Where is Kalapani located?

  • Kalapani is a region located in the easternmost corner of Uttarakhand’s Pithoragarh district.
  • It shares a border on the north with the Tibet Autonomous Region of China and Nepal in the east and south.
  • The region resembles a slice of cake wedged in between Limpiyadhura, Lipulekh and Kalapani.
  • The area is in India’s control but Nepal claims the region because of historical and cartographic reasons.
  • The area is the largest territorial dispute between Nepal and India consisting of at least 37,000 hectares of land in the High Himalayas.

What is the cause of the dispute?

  • The Kalapani region derives its name from the river Kali.
  • Nepal’s claims to the region is based on this river as it became the marker of the boundary of the kingdom of Nepal following the Treaty of Sugauli signed between the Gurkha rulers of Kathmandu and the East India Company.
  • The treaty was ratified in 1816. According to the treaty, Nepal lost the regions of Kumaon-Garhwal in the west and Sikkim in the east.
  • According to the treaty, the British rulers recognised Nepal’s right to the region that fell to the east of the river Kali. Here lies the historic origin of the dispute.
  • Nepal claims that a land mass, high in the mountains that falls to the east of the entire stretch starting from Limpiyadhura downwards, is theirs.
  • India on the other hand says the border begins at Kalapani which India says is where the river begins.
  • The dispute is mainly because of the varying interpretation of the origin of the river and its various tributaries that slice through the mountains.
  • While Nepal’s claim of the territory east of Kali is based on the Limpiyadhura origin, India says the river actually takes the name Kali near Kalapani.

Why is Lipulekh pass important?

  • The region juts into the Himalayas and is connected to the other side of the mountain range through the Lipulekh pass, which has been used for centuries by Hindu and Buddhist pilgrims and tourists on their way to Kailash Mansarovar.
  • The nearby markets have been used by various mountain communities.
  • The Himalayas have several passes that connect the Gangetic region with the Tibetan plateau but Lipulekh is strategically located as it is nearest to the heart of the Indian state or the National Capital Region and can be of particular concern in case of an armed conflict with China.

What are Nepal’s claims regarding Lipulekh pass?

  • The importance of Himalayan passes with the Tibetan plateau was amply highlighted in the 1962 war.
  • During that war, Chinese forces used the pass of Se La in Tawang and reached the Brahmaputra plains in the east.
  • The military defeat in the east clearly demonstrated that weakly guarded passes were a major vulnerability of Indian military preparedness against China.
  • In comparison to Se La which was somewhat fortified, Lipulekh was vulnerable.

Politics of Kalapani

  • While the origin of the dispute goes back to the early 19th century, politically it emerged as a contentious issue between India and Nepal after the two countries signed the Treaty of Mahakali in 1996.
  • This is when the Nepalese government was forced to take up the issue given the pressure from rising Nepali nationalism.
  • The two countries had formed the Joint Technical Boundary Committee in 1981 to resolve the dispute. Though the committee managed to resolve a large part of the dispute, they failed to reach a final settlement.
  • Eventually, the issue was referred to the foreign secretaries of the two countries and they have been trying to find a resolution to the dispute.

What is the current position?

  • Nepal has published a revised official map incorporating the territory from the Limpiyadhura source of the Kali to Kalapani and Lipulekh pass in the northeast of the triangular region as its territory.
  • The Cabinet led by Prime Minister K.P. Sharma Oli registered a constitution amendment motion to grant constitutional status to the map.
  • Indian observers say this move makes any future solution on the Kalapani issue nearly impossible as a constitutional guarantee will make Kathmandu’s position inflexible.
  • Nepal shares a border of over 1,850 km with five Indian States — Sikkim, West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q 7.  Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Nepal shares a border of over 1,850 km with five Indian States.

Statement II: Treaty of Sugauli was signed between the Gurkha rulers of Kathmandu and Mughal King, Jahangir.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1

C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Q. Community sometimes mentioned in the news in the affairs of : (UPSC Prelims 2016)

1.  Kurd : Bangladesh

2.  Madhesi : Nepal

3.  Rohingya : Myanmar

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

Answer: (C)

 

 

 

Answer 7 C

Explanation

·         Nepal shares a border of over 1,850 km with five Indian States — Sikkim, West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand. So, statement I is correct.

·         Treaty of Sugauli was signed between the Gurkha rulers of Kathmandu and the East India Company.

·         The treaty was ratified in 1816. So, statement II is incorrect. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

 

 

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