May 01 CURRENT AFFAIRS 2024 APPSC

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (01-05-2024)

 

News at a Glance
Andhra Pradesh: Andhra Pradesh govt yet to release Rs 1,500 crore dues under Arogyasri scheme: ASHA
Land Titling Act of Andhra Pradesh
International Relations: G7 countries agree to end use of coal power by 2035
Kankesanthurai Port in Northern Sri Lanka
Sierra Madre in news
Polity and Governance: FSSAI to carry out ‘random testing’ after import bans on Indian spice brands
SC hearing on Article 31C
Awards and Honours: Alok Shukla wins Goldman Prize or ‘Green Nobel’ for Hasdeo Aranya campaign

 

Andhra Pradesh govt yet to release Rs 1,500 crore dues under Arogyasri scheme: ASHA

Source: Indian Express

https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/andhra-pradesh/2024/Apr/29/andhra-pradesh-govt-yet-to-release-rs-1500-crore-dues-under-arogyasri-scheme-asha

APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Inclusive Growth: Health and Education

Context: Andhra Pradesh government yet to release Rs 1,500 crore dues under Arogyasri scheme

Why in News

  • The representatives of the Andhra Pradesh Specialty Hospitals Association (ASHA) raised issue of the government’s negligence in paying funds related to Arogyasri, Employees Health Scheme (EHS), and other health schemes in the State.

Dr. YSR Aarogyasri Health Insurance Scheme

  • Government of Andhra Pradesh is implementing state sponsored Dr. YSR Aarogyasri Health Insurance Scheme.
  • Aarogyasri was a flagship healthcare program, introduced by Dr Y S Rajasekhar Reddy as Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh before the AP Re-organisation.
  • Aims:
    • To assist poor families from catastrophic health expenditure.
    • To provide Universal Health Coverage to BPL families.
  • The scheme is a unique PPP model in the field of Health Insurance, tailor made to the health needs of poor patients and provides end-to-end cashless services for identified diseases under secondary and tertiary care through a network of service providers from Government and private sector.
  • YSR Aarogyasri Health Care Trust-
    • In order to implement the scheme in a dynamic and hassle-free manner Government of AP established an Independent Trust “Dr.YSR Aarogyasri Health Care Trust”.
    • The State Government set up the Dr.YSR Aarogyasri Health Care Trust, under the chairmanship of the Honorable Chief Minister.
    • The Trust is administered by a Chief Executive Officer who is an IAS Officer.

Key Highlights of the Issue

  • The Andhra Pradesh government is not providing sufficient payments to private hospitals through the Aarogyasri scheme, and further aggravating the situation by delaying payments for more than six months.
  • Managing the hospitals has become burdensome as they have to invest in the beneficiary’s care.
  • Nearly Rs 1,500 crore of Arogyasri payments were yet to be released by the government and appealed to the authorities to release the arrears every 45 days.
  • The government made partial payments to hospitals, but they haven’t released any further funds regarding arrears.
  • The ASHA Secretary recommended that the incoming government consider implementing an insurance method similar to that during the launch of the Arogyasri scheme.

Employees Health Scheme(EHS)

  • The State Government of Andhra Pradesh has formulated a health scheme for its serving/retired employees and their dependent family members.
  • Aims: To avail cashless treatment at several empanelled hospitals across the state.
  • Dr YSR Aarogyasri Health Care Trust under supervision of the Government of Andhra Pradesh will implement the Employee Health Scheme (EHS).
  • The scheme covers Andhra Pradesh government employees, pensioners and their dependent family members who can avail cashless treatment at empanelled hospitals or Network Hospitals (NWH).

Beneficiaries Covered Under the EHS Scheme

    • The EHS covers state government employees and their dependents.
    • Under the EHS, serving and retired state government employees and their dependents are covered.
  • Beneficiaries Not Covered Under the EHS
    • Those covered under the Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS).
    • Railways, Road Transport Corporation, ESIS, Aarogya Sahayatha of Prohibition, Aarogya Bhadratha of Police Department and Excise Department.
    • Law officers such as public prosecutors, government pleaders, state counsels, state prosecutors and advocate generals.
    • Biological parents if adopted parents exist.
    • Casual and daily wage workers.
    • Independent children.
    • AIS officers and pensioners.

 

 CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to Aarogya Sree Yojana:

  1. The scheme is a PPP model in the field of Health Insurance.
  2. The scheme aims to provide Universal Health Coverage to BPL families.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A.      Only 1

B.      Only 2

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.      None of above

 

 

Answer 1 D

Explanation

  • Aarogyasri was a flagship healthcare program, introduced by Dr Y S Rajasekhar Reddy as Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh before the AP Re-organisation.
  • The scheme is a unique PPP model in the field of Health Insurance, tailor made to the health needs of poor patients and provides end-to-end cashless services for identified diseases under secondary and tertiary care through a network of service providers from Government and private sector. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Aims of the scheme:
  • To assist poor families from catastrophic health expenditure.
  • To provide Universal Health Coverage to BPL families.
  • Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • So, correct answer is option D.

 

 

Land Titling Act of Andhra Pradesh  in news

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/elections/andhra-pradesh-assembly/nda-government-brought-the-land-titling-act-alleges-revenue-minister/article68121008.ece#:~:text=Revenue%20Minister%20Dharmana%20Prasada%20Rao%20on%20Monday%20alleged%20that%20opposition,following%20the%20Union%20government%20guidelines

APPSC Relevance: Agrarian Crisis and land reforms

Context: The Land Titling Act is a legislation that governs the process of registering and establishing ownership rights over land.

Why in News

  • Andhra Pradesh Land Titling Act-2023 has the potential to curb land disputes and fraud and can provide complete confidence in ownership right.

Land Titling

  • Land titling is a form of land reform in which private individuals and families are given formal property rights for land which they have previously occupied informally or used on the basis of customary land tenure.

What is Land Titling Act of AP?

  • The Land Titling Act is a legislation that governs the process of registering and establishing ownership rights over land.
  • It provides a legal framework for the creation, transfer, and recognition of land titles.
  • The act aims to ensure transparency, accuracy, and security in land transactions and ownership.
  • A new law, the AP Land Titling Act 2023, has recently been enacted in Andhra Pradesh.

Features of Land Titling Act

  • Land Tilting Act establishes a register of immovable property rights, leading to the revision of revenue records in every village.
  • Under the authority of a special Chief Secretary-level officer, the AP Land Authority will be established, with the responsibility of registering land rights vested in a Land Titling Officer.
  • The Act maintains a title registry containing comprehensive details, including information on property inheritance and claims related to the house.

Land Reforms in Andhra Pradesh

  • The government had given sale rights over house sites to more than 35 lakh beneficiaries who were in possession of the sites for more than 10 years.
  • The land reforms initiated by the YSRCP government in the last four years would have a remarkable impact on the lives of people.
  • These apart, the government had given sale rights over assigned lands.
  • A total of 33.29 lakh acres have been assigned to 19.21 lakh beneficiaries.
  • Of the total extent, 27.41 lakh acres belonging to 15.21 lakh beneficiaries are eligible for sale rights at present

 

 CARE MCQ
Q2. Consider the following statements with regards to Land Titling Act:

  1. The Land Titling Act is a legislation that governs the process of registering and establishing ownership rights over land.
  2. Land Tilting Act establishes a register of movable assets and immovable property rights.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.      Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer 2 A

Explanation

  • The Land Titling Act is a legislation that governs the process of registering and establishing ownership rights over land.  Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Land Tilting Act establishes a register of immovable property rights, leading to the revision of revenue records in every village.
  • Under the authority of a special Chief Secretary-level officer, the AP Land Authority will be established, with the responsibility of registering land rights vested in a Land Titling Officer.
  • Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

·         Therefore, Option A is the correct answer.

 

G7 countries agree to end use of coal power by 2035

Source: The Hindu

https://www.ft.com/content/31de5c0d-6a10-4861-b797-94fac00a5f73

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (International Relations)

Context: G7 meeting puts timeline on deal made at COP28 summit, with allowance for fossil-fuel-reliant nations like Japan

Why in News

  • Recently, the UK minister for nuclear and renewables, said that Energy and climate ministers from the G7 group of industrialized nations have agreed to phase out by 2035 the use of coal power where the emissions have not been captured.

Key Highlights

  • Andrew Bowie, the UK minister for nuclear and renewables, described the agreement reached at G7 ministers meeting in Turin as “historic”.
  • The COP28 summit ended with a pledge to transition away from fossil fuels, and accelerate efforts towards the phase-down of so-called unabated coal power.

Objectives of the Efforts to End Coal Power Use

  • The final agreement could include leeway in the planned timeline to include the option of a date “consistent with keeping a limit of 1.5C temperature rise within reach, in line with countries’ net zero pathways”.
  • This would help countries heavily reliant on coal, such as Japan.
  • A move away from coal would “help accelerate the shift of investment from coal to clean technology in particular in Japan and more broadly in the whole Asian coal economy, including China and India.

Need of end Coal Power

  • Limiting temperature rises to 1.5 Celsius (2.7F) above pre-industrial levels, scientists have said, can prevent the most severe consequences of climate change.
  • Under new rules unveiled by the US last week, coal plants planning to stay open beyond 2039 will have to cut or capture 90 per cent of their carbon dioxide emissions by 2032.
  • The global capacity of coal-fired power stations grew by 2 per cent last year driven mainly by new plants in energy-hungry China, while there was a slowing in the pace of closures of plants in the EU countries and the US.

Response of Climate Activists

  • All the G7 industrialised nations apart from Japan had already committed to phasing out coal power domestically.
  • Countries that wished to demonstrate the ambition needed to limit warming to not more than 1.5C, a key threshold in the 2015 Paris climate agreement, should take a tougher stance.
  • The non-governmental organisation had called for the G7 to set an earlier 2030 phaseout date for power generation by coal, and a 2035 deadline for gas-fired supplies.

Significance of the Deal

  • The agreement is a further step in the direction indicated last year by the COP28 United Nations climate summit to reduce use of fossil fuels, of which coal is the most polluting.
  • G7 members were responsible for more than a fifth of global emissions in 2021, it said, but none were on track to meet their 2030 emission reduction targets.
  • The chair of the Alliance of Small Island States, those nations that are vulnerable to sea level rise and other climate extremes caused by global warming, urged rich countries to make bold emission cuts to avoid the worst of its effects.
  • Together the G7 makes up around 38 percent of the global economy and was responsible for 21 percent of total greenhouse gas emissions in 2021.
  • Not one member of the group is on track to meet existing emission reduction targets for 2030.
  • Climate watchers hope for more funds for adaptation to climate change.

About G7

  • The Group of Seven (G7) is an informal grouping of seven of the world’s advanced economies, including
    • Canada,
    • France,
    • Germany,
    • Italy,
    • Japan,
    • the United Kingdom, and
    • the United States,
    • European Union.
  • G-7 is an intergovernmental organization that meets periodically to address international economic and monetary issues.
  • The G-7 was formerly referred to as the G-8 until Russia was suspended from the group in 2014 after illegally annexing Crimea.
  • The G7 was founded following the 1973 OPEC oil embargo as a forum for the richest nations to discuss crises affecting the world economy.
  • G7 Summit: The G7 Summit is an international forum held annually for the leaders of the G7 member states of France, the United States, the United Kingdom, Germany, Japan, Italy, and Canada (in order of rotating presidency), and the European Union (EU).

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Which of the following are the members of G7?

1.       Germany

2.       Italy

3.       Russia

4.       Japan

5.       Spain

6.       France

 

Select correct code

 

A.      1,3,4,5

B.      1,2,4,6

C.      1,4,5

D.      All

 Q. In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20? (2020)

 

A.      Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey

B.      Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand

C.      Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam

D.      Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea

Ans: (A)

 

 

Answer 3- B

Explanation

  • The Group of Seven is a forum of seven leading industrial nations and democracies.
  • The Group of Seven (G7) is an informal forum of the seven leading industrialised nations and democracies: Germany, Canada, France, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, the United States of America and the European Union.
  • Russia was previously a member of G7(G8 at that time) but membership was suspended over Moscow’s annexation of Crimea and its interference in Ukraine.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

 

Kankesanthurai Port in Northern Sri Lanka

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-to-grant-full-renovation-cost-of-kankesanthurai-port-in-northern-sri-lanka/article68124493.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (International Relations)

Context: The Indian government has agreed to grant the entire estimated cost of the Kankesanthurai Port project.

Why in news

  • The Sri Lankan Cabinet has decided to renovate the Kankesanthurai Port in the Northern Province, with India agreeing to fund the entire project at a cost of USD 61.5 million.

About Kankesanthurai Port

  • Kankesanthurai colloquially known as KKS, is a port suburb, fishing division and resort hub of the Jaffna District, Northern Province, Sri Lanka.
  • The Kankesanthurai Port is situated in the northern region of Sri Lanka.
  • It is a port with an area of approximately 16 acres.
  • It is located at a distance of 104 km (56 nautical miles) from Karaikal Port in Puducherry.

Kankesanthurai Port Project

  • The Kankesanthurai Port Project implementation had been delayed as the Economic Value of Equity (EVE) estimated cost provided by consulting service agencies was higher than the relevant loan amount.
  • Therefore, further discussions have been held with the Government of India regarding the possibility of completing the project under the Public Private Partnership Method.
  • Thereafter, the approval for offering Project Management Consultant Services was given on December 18, 2019.
  • It was announced in March this year that the project’s full cost was USD 61.5 million.

Significance of Kankesanthurai Port

  • Considering the importance of the project, the Indian government has agreed to grant the entire estimated cost of the project.
  • The direct passenger ship service connecting Nagapattinam in Tamil Nadu to Kankesanthurai port near Jaffna covers a distance of 111 km (60 nautical miles) in approximately three and a half hours.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
 Q4. Consider the following pairs:

S.No. Port Country
1. Kankesanthurai Port Sri Lanka
2. Hambanthota Harbour Maldives
3. Trincomalee Harbour Philippines

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A.      1 and 2 only

B.      2 and 3 only

C.      1 only

D.      1,2 and 3

Q. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2015)

1. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.

2. It is an affiance meant for maritime security only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C.  Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

 

Answer 4 – C

Explanation

·         Kankesanthurai colloquially known as KKS, is a port suburb, fishing division and resort hub of the Jaffna District, Northern Province, Sri Lanka.

·         The port is located at a distance of 56 nautical miles from Karaikal Port, Puducherry.

·         The Port which was once under the control of the Sri Lanka Navy, served the nation during the turbulent period of the war. The Government, recognizing the immense potential of the Port, took a decision to transform it into a tourist port between India and Sri Lanka.

·         Sri Lanka has many important ports, including the largest port in the country, the Port of Colombo, and other major ports like Hambanthota Harbour, Trincomalee Harbour, and Galle Harbor.

·         Therefore, correct answer is option C.

 

 

Sierra Madre in news

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/sierra-madre-south-china-sea-phillipines-9297439/

UPSC Relevance: GS 2-International Relations, GS 3- Science and technology

Context: China, and Philippines, have long been making competing claims over regions of the South China Sea.

Why in News

  • Sierra Madre, an old ship, is fuelling China-Philippines tensions in South China Sea.

Background

  • In 1999, the Sierra Madre was left on the Second Thomas Shoal, which is a part of the mostly uninhabited Spratly islands in the South China Sea.
  • China has demanded the ship’s removal in the past – something the Philippines has rejected.
  • Countries such as China, the Philippines, Malaysia, Vietnam and Brunei Darussalam have long been making competing claims over regions of the South China Sea.
  • Of late, the Philippines and China in particular have clashed in the region, raising concerns about an escalation.
  • An important part of this equation is Sierra Madre, a World War II-era ship.
  • In the 1990s, the Philippines decided to bring this ship to the Second Thomas Shoal, a submerged reef located in the South China Sea.
  • The placement of the ship was deliberate, in order to further its territorial claims.
  • Since then, the Philippines has sent smaller boats to the ship for repairs, and sent supplies to the crew onboard.
  • Chinese coast guard and militia ships have repeatedly swarmed and collided with Philippine resupply vessels”.
  • China was also found to have increased the deployment of its ships and directed water cannons at Filipino boats during supply missions to the Sierra Madre.

 What is the Sierra Madre?

  • The 100 ft-long Sierra Madre was constructed in the US for World War II (1939-45) and commissioned in 1944 as a landing ship.
  • Subsequently, it was sent to Vietnam during the US participation in the Vietnam War (1954-75). In 1976, it was transferred to the Philippines, an ally of the US.
  • In 1999, it was left on the Second Thomas Shoal, which is a part of the mostly uninhabited Spratly islands.

China’s Demands

  • A few years ago, China had laid claims on the nearby Mischief Reef. The move was an attempt at halting further Chinese assertions.
  • China has since demanded the ship’s removal – something the Philippines has rejected.
  • However, for the Philippines, its removal would risk weakening its claims over the islands and Chinese presence being established.

What is the battle over Spratly islands?

  • All countries bordering the sea have certain rights to access marine resources.
  • An exclusive economic zone (EEZ) is an area of the ocean extending 200 nautical miles (370 km) beyond a nation’s territorial sea (12 nautical miles or 12 miles from the coast).
  • For decades, countries in the region have extended overlapping claims on the South China Sea, claiming ownership over islands located there – such as the Spratly islands and the Paracel islands.
  • Along with issues over sovereignty, the rich oil and gas reserves in the region and its rich fishing waters have also encouraged countries to lay their claims.
  • The disputes “gradually escalated under former Philippine President Benigno Aquino III and culminated in 2012 when China took effective control of the disputed Scarborough Shoal after a tense standoff.”
  • Under Xi Jinping rule, China has assumed a hardened stance on territorial claims and attempted aggressive posturing. It has claimed 90% of the South China Sea.
  • In 2016, an international tribunal in The Hague ruled in favour of the Philippines by noting China’s activities in the dispute.

Response of USA

  • Since 2022, under the presidency of Ferdinand ‘Bongbong’ Marcos Jr, the Philippines has also struck back against Chinese action in the region.
  • Last month, the Philippines summoned China’s deputy chief of mission in response to its naval forces’ “aggressive actions” against a resupply mission.
  • The US, which regards The Philippines as an important strategic ally, also voiced its support. In May 2023, the two countries also agreed on new guidelines to a defence treaty from 1951.
  • It originally said the parties recognised “that an armed attack in the Pacific Area on either of the Parties would be dangerous to its own peace and safety and each party agrees that it will act to meet the common dangers in accordance with its constitutional processes.”
  • This year too, when Marcos Jr met US President Joe Biden during a visit in early April, US Defense Secretary Lloyd Austin said Washington stood with Manila against “coercion.”

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q 5. ‘Sierra Madre’, recently in news, is related to which of the following:

A) large warships

B) electric vehicles

C) Aeroplanes

D) Disputed Ship used for World War II

Q. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2022)

  1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
  2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
  3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer D

 

 

Answer 5 D

Explanation

·         The 100 ft-long Sierra Madre was constructed in the US for World War II (1939-45) and commissioned in 1944 as a landing ship.

·         Subsequently, it was sent to Vietnam during the US participation in the Vietnam War (1954-75). In 1976, it was transferred to the Philippines, an ally of the US.

·         In 1999, the Sierra Madre was left on the Second Thomas Shoal, which is a part of the mostly uninhabited Spratly islands in the South China Sea.

·         China has demanded the ship’s removal in the past – something the Philippines has rejected.

·         Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

 

 

FSSAI to carry out ‘random testing’ after import bans on Indian spice brands

Source: Deccan Herald

https://www.deccanherald.com/india/fssai-to-carry-out-random-testing-after-import-bans-on-indian-spice-brands-3000203

UPSC Relevance: GS2- (Polity and Governance)

Context: Authorities in Singapore and Hong Kong imposed a ban on several spice-mixes of the two Indian brands.

Why in News

  • Popular spice brands MDH and Everest are reportedly being investigated by the food safety and standards authority of India (FSSAI).

What is the Issue?

  • The Singapore Food Agency had recalled one of the products exported by India to Singapore.
  • They took the action after a chemical called ethylene oxide used as a pesticide and fumigation agent was allegedly found to be above permissible levels in some spice mixes.
  • The European Union too found ethylene oxide contamination in Indian spices in the past.
  • MDH and Everest, masala brands that spices up kitchens across India–the world’s largest producer, consumer and exporter of spices–are now under scanner in overseas markets including the US, Hong Kong and Singapore.
  • Besides Hong Kong and Singapore, the US custom authorities have also rejected around 31% of the MDH products in the last six months.

Announcement by FSSAI

  • Some countries have decided to put an import-ban on some of the Indian brands of spices.
  • Following this the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) said it would carry out random testing of spices and culinary herbs this year along with four other types of food products.
  • The announcement from the apex food regulator comes weeks after authorities at Hong Kong asked the public not to consume and the trade market to stop selling some of the products manufactured by MDH and Everest.
  • Spice Surveillance is planned by FSSAI in 2024-25 for fruit and vegetables, salmonella in fish products, spice and culinary herbs, fortified rice and milk and milk products.

Key Insights provided by FSSAI

  • The FSSAI in its first statement since the controversy broke out, said in the last three years nearly a quarter of the samples it tested, was not in conformity with the regulatory standards.
  • In 2020-21 nearly 26% of samples failed the test followed by 23% in 2021-23 and 25% in 2022-23.
  • In the current fiscal, over four lakh samples have been tested by the FSSAI, but the final data is being collected.
  • Since 2018, the regulator carried out surveillance on several types of food items, including spices that were tested in 2022.
  • The FSSAI tested 3554 samples, but the outcome has not been released in the public domain.
  • A query to the food business regulator on the results has not elicited any response.
  • Other food items that the agency has tested in the past include milk and milk products, edible oil, jaggery, tea, pulses and fortified rice kernels.
  • There have also been surveys to find out the extent of trans-fat presence in day-to-day food.

Why are MDH, Everest under scanner?

  • Indian spice makers MDH and Everest have come under scanner after Hong Kong and Singapore banned their spices due to “quality concerns”.
  • The health authorities in Singapore and Hong Kong found cancer-causing pesticide “ethylene oxide” in these masalas above the acceptable limits.
  • The International Agency for Research on Cancer has identified ethylene oxide as a major carcinogen.
  • Foods containing pesticide residues are subject to stringent checks according to food safety regulations.

What is ethylene oxide?

  • Ethylene oxide is a flammable colourless gas with a sweet odour at room temperature.
  • It is used primarily to produce other chemicals, and in smaller amounts, it is used as a pesticide and a sterilising agent.
  • It is also used to make textiles, detergents, polyurethane foam, medicine, adhesives and solvents. Ethylene oxide is used as a fumigant for food spices to prevent microbial contamination, such as E coli and Salmonella.
  • The International Agency for Research on Cancer has pointed out that ethylene oxide has been classified as a Group 1 carcinogen, which means it has “enough evidence to conclude that it can cause cancer in humans”.
  • Those exposed to the chemical for a long time could face irritation of the eyes, skin, nose, throat and lungs, and damage to the brain and the nervous system.

Previous Rows

  • This isn’t the first time that these companies have made headlines for the wrong reasons.
  • In June 2023, the US Food and Drug Administration mandated the withdrawal of Everest’s Sambhar Masala and Garam Masala, along with Nestle’s Maggi Masala-ae-Magic from 11 states due to a positive test for Salmonella bacteria.
  • This bacterium is known to cause symptoms such as diarrhoea and nausea.
  • Similarly, in September 2019, the Food and Drug Association had requested MDH to recall its Sambhar Masala in Northern California due to contamination with Salmonella.

About FSSAI

  • The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has been established under Food Safety and Standards , 2006.
    • The act consolidates various acts & orders that have hitherto handled food related issues in various Ministries and Departments.
  • FSSAI has been created for laying down science based standards for articles of food and to regulate their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale and import to ensure availability of safe and wholesome food for human consumption.
  • The FSSAI has its headquarters at New Delhi. The authority also has four regional offices located in Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, and Chennai.
  • Founded: 5 September 2008
  • Founder: Anbumani Ramadoss
  • Headquarters: New Delhi
  • Parent Regulatory authority: Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. Consider the following statements regarding Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006

1.       It is a comprehensive legislation for the sector and subsumes the then existing acts and standards.

2.       Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for the implementation of the Act.

3.       It also provides for setting up of Food Safety Appellate tribunal for adjudication and trails under food standard offence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were: (UPSC Prelims 2018)

 

A.      Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium

B.      Sugar, salt, zinc and lead

C.      Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea

D.      Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium

 

Ans: (D)

 

 

 

 

Answer 6– D

Explanation –

·         Food Safety and Standards Act received the assent of the President on 23rd August, 2006 and came into effect on 5th August, 2011.

·         It is a comprehensive legislation for the sector and subsumes the then existing acts and standards like Prevention of Food Adulteration Act(PFA) of 1954 ,Fruit Products Order of 1955, Meat Food Products Order of 1973, Vegetable Oil Products (Control) Order of 1947, Edible Oils Packaging (Regulation)Order of 1988, Solvent Extracted Oil, De- Oiled Meal and Edible Flour (Control) Order of 1967, Milk and Milk Products Order of 1992 and also any order issued under the Essential Commodities Act, 1955 relating to food .

·         Hence, statement 1 is correct.

·         Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has been created under the Act. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for the implementation of the Act. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

·         The Act deals with the administrative mechanism at the state level. It also provides for setting up of Food Safety Appellate tribunal for adjudication and trails under food standard offence. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

·         The law also addresses contemporary challenges facing the sector like provisions related to Genetically Modified (GM) crops, functional food, international trade in food items etc.

  • Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

 

 SC hearing on Article 31C

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/article-31c-supreme-court-fundamental-right-private-property-9297379/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2- Polity and Governance

Context: Scope and Ambit of Article 31C of the Indian Constitution

Why in News

  • A nine-judge Bench of the Supreme Court led by Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud has decided recently to take up another issue of “radical constitutional consequence”: does Article 31C still exist?

Background

  • Article 31C protects laws enacted to ensure the “material resources of the community” are distributed to serve the common good (Article 39(b)) and that wealth and the means of production are not “concentrated” to the “common detriment” (Article 39(c)).
    • Article 39 of the Constitution lists certain directive principles of state policy, which are meant to be guiding principles for the enactment of laws, but are not directly enforceable in any court of law.
  • As per Article 31C, these particular directive principles (Articles 39(b) and 39(c)) cannot be challenged by invoking the right to equality (Article 14) or the rights under Article 19 (freedom of speech, right to assemble peacefully, etc).

Introduction of Article 31C

  • Article 31C was introduced by The Constitution (Twenty-fifth) Amendment Act, 1971.
  • The Statement of Objects and Reasons for the amendment specifically mentioned the “Bank Nationalisation Case” (Rustom Cavasjee Cooper vs Union Of India, 1970).
    • The Supreme Court stopped the Centre from acquiring control of 14 commercial banks by enacting The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1969.
  • An eleven-judge Bench struck the Act down by referring to the now-repealed Article 31(2).
    • which said that the government could not acquire any property for public purposes under any law unless the law fixes compensation for the property, or specifies the principles on which compensation will be based.
  • In the Bank Nationalization case, the court held that the ‘right to compensation’ was not appropriately ensured by the Banking Act.
  • Noting that the court could now question the adequacy of compensation and the principles used for determining compensation, the government, through the 25th Amendment sought to “surmount the difficulties placed in the way of giving effect to the Directive Principles of State Policy”.

Journey of Article 31C

  • The 25th amendment was challenged in the seminal Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) in which 13 judges held by a narrow 7-6 majority that the Constitution has a “basic structure” that cannot be altered, even by a constitutional amendment.
  • As a part of this verdict, the court struck down the last portion of Article 31C, i.e., the part that states “ and no law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be called in question in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such policy”.
  • This opened the door for the court to examine laws that had been enacted to further Articles 39(b) and 39(c), to determine whether the purpose of those laws actually lined up with the principles espoused in these provisions.
  • In 1976, Parliament enacted The Constitution (Forty-second) Amendment Act, which expanded the protection under Article 31C to “all or any of the principles laid down in Part IV of the Constitution”, under clause 4.
  • As a result, every single directive principle (Articles 36-51) was protected from challenges under Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution.

Minerva Mills v. Union of India

  • In 1980, in its judgment in Minerva Mills v. Union of India, the SC struck down clauses 4 and 5 of the amendment. The five-judge Bench held that Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution was limited, and it could not be used to remove these limitations and grant itself “unlimited” and “absolute” powers of amendment.
  • However, this ruling birthed a conundrum that the apex court must now address.

The ongoing case in SC

  • The court is hearing a challenge to Chapter VIII-A of the Maharashtra Housing and Area Development Act, 1976 (MHADA).
  • This chapter, introduced by an amendment in 1986, allows the government to acquire “cessed” properties in Mumbai at the request of the occupants.
  • Occupants of cessed properties are required to pay a cess to the Mumbai Building Repair and Reconstruction Board which oversees repair and restoration projects.
  • In 1991, the Property Owners’ Association in Mumbai challenged the 1986 amendment at the Bombay High Court. But the Bombay High Court upheld the amendment, citing the protection granted by Article 31C to laws enacted in furtherance of Article 39(b).
  • This decision was appealed at the SC in December 1992, where the question eventually became whether “material resources of the community” under Article 39(b) included private resources such as cessed properties.

Arguments in the SC

  • When the hearing finally began, the nine-judge Bench seemed to agree with the Centre’s submission that the case should be restricted to interpreting Article 39(b).
  • It’s very clear that the ambit of the reference to nine judges is squarely only on the content of 39(b),” according to reporting by the Supreme Court Observer.
  • The Bench stated that the question of whether Article 31C still lives following the Minerva Mills decision has to be decided to avoid “constitutional uncertainty”.
  • Senior Advocate argued that the original version of Article 31C was ‘substituted’ with the expanded version provided in the 42nd Amendment.
  • This means the older version of the provision ceased to exist once the Amendment came into force.
  • Therefore, when this new Article 31C was struck down in Minerva Mills, the older provision would not automatically be revived.
  • On the other hand, the Solicitor General argued that the doctrine of revival must apply in this case, and the post-Kesavananda Bharati position on Article 31C must be restored.
  • Justice Joseph held that the old collegium system for judge appointments would be revived once the 99th amendment (which introduced the National Judicial Appointments Commission) was struck down.

 

CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q7. Consider the following statements:

1.       Article 31C protects laws enacted to ensure the material resources of the community are not concentrated in limited section of society.

2.       Article 31C was introduced by The Constitution (Twenty-fifth) Amendment Act, 1971.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

A.      1 Only

B.      2 Only

C.      None

D.      Both

 

Q. Which one of the following categories of ‘Fundamental Rights incorporated against untouchability as a form of discrimination? (UPSC Prelims 2020)

(A) Right against Exploitation

(B) Right to Freedom

(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies

(D) Right to Equality

Answer – (D) 

 

 

 

Answer 7 D

Explanation

·         Article 31C was introduced by The Constitution (Twenty-fifth) Amendment Act, 1971. The Statement of Objects and Reasons for the amendment specifically mentioned the “Bank Nationalisation Case” (Rustom Cavasjee Cooper vs Union Of India, 1970).  Hence, statement 1 is correct.

·         Article 31C protects laws enacted to ensure the “material resources of the community” are distributed to serve the common good (Article 39(b)) and that wealth and the means of production are not “concentrated” to the “common detriment” (Article 39(c)).  Hence, statement 2 is correct.

·         Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

 

Alok Shukla wins Goldman Prize or ‘Green Nobel’ for Hasdeo Aranya campaign

Source: Down to Earth

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/alok-shukla-wins-goldman-prize-or-green-nobel-for-hasdeo-aranya-campaign-95874

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 3 (Ecology and Environment), Awards and Honours)

Context: Hasdeo movement which is a model for environmental justice in India was spearheaded by Alok Shukla.

Why in news

  • Alok Shukla has been awarded the 2024 Goldman Prize from Asia for his efforts to save the forests of Hasdeo Aranya in Chhattisgarh.

Key Highlights

  • Alok Shukla has been declared winner for his efforts to save the forests of Hasdeo Aranya in Chhattisgarh.
  • Alok Shukla led a successful community campaign that saved 445,000 acres of biodiversity-rich forests from 21 planned coal mines in the central Indian state of Chhattisgarh.
  • In July 2022, the government cancelled the 21 proposed coal mines in Hasdeo Aranya.
    • Hasdeo Aranya pristine forests are popularly known as the lungs of Chhattisgarh.
  • The Goldman Environmental Foundation recognised that the Hasdeo movement’s ability to successfully influence policy has made it a model for environmental justice in India and generated an unprecedented amount of national and regional solidarity.

About the Goldman Prize

  • The Prize recognizes individuals for sustained and significant efforts to protect and enhance the natural environment, often at great personal risk.
  • The Goldman Environmental Prize recognizes grassroots environmental heroes from roughly the world’s six inhabited continental regions:
    • Africa
    • Asia
    • Europe
    • Islands & Island Nations
    • North America
    • South & Central America
  • The Goldman Prize views “grassroots” leaders as those involved in local efforts, where positive change is created through community or citizen participation.
  • The Goldman Environmental Prize is also known as the Green Nobel Awards.

Goldman Environmental Foundation

  • The Goldman Environmental Foundation is a non-profit organisation that bestows the Goldman Environmental Prize on environmental activists from all around the world each year.
  • The organisation’s mission is to raise environmental awareness, encourage grassroots ecological activism, and inspire positive change in areas dealing with environmental difficulties.

What is Hasdeo Aranya?

  • Hasdeo Arand is a forest in the Indian state of Chhattisgarh in central India.
  • The forest is 170,000 hectares in area and is home to a diverse ecology and adivasi communities such as the Gonds.
  • It is on top of the Hasdeo Arand coalfield in the north of Chhattisgarh.
  • Hasdeo, spread across 657 square miles, is one of India’s most extensive contiguous forest tracts.
  • The ancient forests provide a critical tiger corridor linking neighboring sanctuaries and habitat for approximately 50 endangered Asian elephants.
  • They are also home to 25 endangered species, including leopards, sloth bears, grey wolves, striped hyenas; 92 bird species, such as white-eyed buzzard; and 167 rare and medicinal plant species.
  • Hasdeo’s forests are also a catchment area for the Hasdeo river, a tributary of the Mahanadi.
    • The river serves as the watershed for the Hasdeo Bango reservoir, irrigating 741,000 acres of farmland.

About Alok Shukla

  • Alok Shukla, 43, is a convenor with Chhattisgarh Bachao Andolan (the Save Chhattisgarh Movement), an informal alliance of grassroots movements.
  • He is a founding member of the Hasdeo Aranya Bachao Sangharsh Samiti.
CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q8. Consider the following statements:

1.       Alok Shukla has been declared winner of Goldman Environmental Prize for his efforts to save the forests of Hasdeo Aranya in Madhya Pradesh.

2.       The Goldman Environmental Prize is also known as the Green Nobel Awards.

3.       Hasdeo’s forests are a catchment area for the Godavari River.

Which among the following statement/s is/are correct?

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      3 only

D.      None

 

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: (UPSC Prelims 2021)

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are titles under the Article 18 (1) of the Constitution of India.

2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.

3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

[A] 1 and 2 only

[B] 2 and 3 only

[C] 1 and 3 only

[D] 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

 

Answer 8 A

Explanation

·         Alok Shukla has been declared winner for his efforts to save the forests of Hasdeo Aranya in Chhattisgarh. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

·         The Goldman Environmental Prize is also known as the Green Nobel Awards. The Prize recognizes individuals for sustained and significant efforts to protect and enhance the natural environment, often at great personal risk. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

·         Hasdeo’s forests are also a catchment area for the Hasdeo river, a tributary of the Mahanadi. The river serves as the watershed for the Hasdeo Bango reservoir, irrigating 741,000 acres of farmland. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

·         Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

 

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