Indian History Grand Test

Indian History Grand Test

05-03-2026

Indian History Grand Test 1

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1) Match the following Achaemenian rulers with their contributions or actions related to India:

Column A (Ruler)	Column B (Action in India)
1. Cyrus	A. Annexed Punjab and Sindh and made it the 20th Satrapy
2. Xerxes	B. Deployed Indian infantry and cavalry to fight against Greece
3. Darius I	C. Captured the Gandhara region
4. Darius III	D. Enlisted Indian soldiers to fight against Alexander the Great

1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A

1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C

1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B

1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D

Explanation:

Iranian Invasions:

Cyrus (558 – 530 B.C) the Great was the greatest conqueror of the Achaemenian Empire. He was the first conqueror who led an expedition and entered into India. He captured the Gandhara region. (1-C)
Darius I (522 – 486 B.C.) the grandson of Cyrus, conquered the Indus valley in 518 B.C. and annexed the Punjab and Sindh(3-A). This region became the 20th Satrapy of his empire. It was the most fertile and populous province of the Achaemenian Empire. Darius sent a naval expedition under Skylas to explore the Indus.
Xerxes (465-456 B.C.) utilized his Indian province to strengthen his position. He deployed Indian infantry and cavalry to Greece(2-B) to fight his opponents. But they retreated after Xerxes faced a defeat in Greece. After this failure, the Achaemenians could not follow a forward policy in India. However, the Indian province was still under their control.
Darius III enlisted Indian soldiers to fight against Alexander(4-D) in 330 B.C. It is evident that the control of Persians slackened on the eve of Alexander’s invasion of India.

Source: Ancient History by RS SHARMA

Topic: Iranian Invasion

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2) Consider the following statements regarding Alexander’s invasion of India:

The practice of military governorship was first introduced in India by Alexander.
Alexander’s invasion paved the way for direct contact between India and Greece.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: During and after Alexander’s invasion of northwestern India in the 4th century BCE, his generals and successors, especially the Seleucids, introduced the practice of military governorship. These governors or satraps were responsible for administration, tax collection, and maintaining order — a new model of governance in the Indian subcontinent.
Statement 2 is correct: Alexander’s invasion marked the beginning of direct Indo-Greek contact, which facilitated cultural, economic, and diplomatic exchanges between India and Greece. This influence continued under the Indo-Greek kingdoms that emerged in later centuries.

Source: Ancient History by RS SHARMA

Topic: Alexander Invasion

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3) Consider the following pairs related to the Mauryan Administration:

Amatyas – In charge of district administration
Gopa – Superior official in village administration
Nagarika – Head of urban administration
Rajukas – Officials overseeing subordinate courts

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Amatyas: District Level: Subordinate courts were overseen by officials known as ‘Amatyas.’(Incorrect)
Gopa: ✅ They were responsible for overseeing village-level officials and were superior village functionaries.
Nagarika: ✅ The Nagarika was in charge of urban administration, responsible for maintaining law and order, sanitation, and tax collection in cities.
Rajukas: They were high-ranking officials who assisted in district-level administration under the Mauryan Empire. (Incorrect)

Hence, two pairs are correct, reflecting the well-organized administrative structure of the Mauryan Empire.

Source: Ancient History by RS SHARMA

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4) Consider the following statements regarding Pana coins:

Pana coins were used in the Gupta Empire.
Pana coins were made of gold.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Pana coins were primarily used during the Mauryan Empire, not the Gupta period.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Pana coins were made of silver, not gold.
Therefore, both statements are incorrect, making option C the correct answer.

Source: Ancient History by RS SHARMA

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5) Consider the following statements regarding Kautilya’s Arthashastra:

It places morality higher than political expediency.
It argues the case for a fully-centralised government for the empire.
It deals with problems of administration as well as laws of property and crime.
It includes sections on the government of the state and diplomatic relations with other states.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect. The Arthashastra prioritizes political expediency and statecraft over morality, adopting a pragmatic and realistic approach to governance.
Statement 2: Correct. It advocates for a fully-centralized administrative system, with the king at the centre of governance.
Statement 3: Correct. It addresses issues of internal administration, laws of property, crime, and punishment.
Statement 4: Correct. It includes sections on the structure of government and diplomatic relations (foreign policy), especially in the context of mandala theory (circle of kings).

Thus, three out of four statements are correct.

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6) Match the following Thera monks with the regions they were sent to during Ashoka’s Dhamma missions:

Column A (Thera Monk)	Column B (Place of Mission)
1. Sona Thera	A. Kashmir and Gandhara
2. Mahinda Thera	B. Tambapannidipa (Sri Lanka)
3. Majjhantika Thera	C. Suvanna Bhumi (Burma)
4. Mahadeva Thera	D. Mahisamandala (Mysore)
5. Maha Rakkhita Thera	E. Yonakaloka (Ancient Greece)

1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-E, 5-D

1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-E, 5-D

1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D, 5-E

1-D, 2-E, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B

Explanation:

Emperor Ashoka sent elder monks (Theras) to different parts of the world to spread Buddha’s Dhamma and Vinaya. These missions were instrumental in spreading Buddhism beyond India and had cultural and civilisational impact.

Here is the complete list based on your input:

Thera Monk	Region of Mission
Majjhantika Thera	Kashmir and Gandhara region (now parts of Kashmir, Afghanistan, NW Pakistan)
Mahadeva Thera	Mahisamandala, corresponding to modern-day Mysore (Karnataka)
Rakkhita Thera	Vanavasi, in South India
Yonaka Dhamma Rakkitha	Aparantaka, modern northern Gujarat region
Mahadhamma Rakkhita	Maharattha, around the source of the Godavari in Maharashtra
Maha Rakkhita Thera	Yonakaloka, referring to ancient Greece
Majjhima Thera	Himavanta Padesa Bhaga, the Himalayan region
Sona and Uttara Theras	Suvanna Bhumi, identified with Burma (Myanmar) and parts of Southeast Asia
Mahinda Thera	Tambapannidipa, present-day Sri Lanka

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7) Match the following Major Rock Edicts of Ashoka with their key messages:

Column A (Rock Edict)	Column B (Content)
1. First Edict	A. Sound of Dhamma
2. Second Edict	B. Care for man and animals
3. Third Edict	C. Generosity to Brahmins
4. Fourth Edict	D. Prohibits animal slaughter
5. Fifth Edict	E. Slave rights and humane treatment

1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A, 5-E

1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-E, 5-B

1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-E, 5-A

1-E, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C, 5-D

Explanation:

First Rock Edict (1-D): Prohibits animal slaughter, reflecting Ashoka’s commitment to non-violence and compassion.
Second Rock Edict (2-B): Emphasizes care for man and animals, including planting of medicinal herbs and digging wells.
Third Rock Edict (3-C): Promotes generosity to Brahmins and other religious sects.
Fourth Rock Edict (4-A): Refers to the sound of Dhamma, spreading the moral code across his empire.
Fifth Rock Edict (5-E): Highlights slave rights, instructing humane treatment of prisoners and slaves.

Major Rock Edicts – Important Messages

Edict Number	Content
I	Prohibits animal slaughter
II	Care for man and animals
III	Generosity to Brahmins
IV	Sound of Dhamma
V	Rights of slaves
VI	Welfare measures
VII	Tolerance for all religions
VIII	Ashoka’s first visit to Bodh Gaya
IX	Condemns popular ceremonies
X	Disapproves individual’s desire for glory
XI	Elaboration on Dhamma
XII	Religious tolerance and respectful criticism
XIII	Ashoka’s victory and remorse after Kalinga war
XIV	Engraving of inscriptions across the empire

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8) Consider the following pairs regarding the locations of Ashoka’s Major Rock Edicts:

Major Rock Edict Site	Given Location
1. Sannati	Andhra Pradesh
2. Yerragudi	Karnataka
3. Mansehra	Gujarat
4. Girnar	Pakistan

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

None

Explanation:

Below is the correct matching of Ashoka’s Major Rock Edict locations:

Actual Site	Correct Location
Sannati	Karnataka (❌ Given: Andhra Pradesh)
Yerragudi	Andhra Pradesh (❌ Given: Karnataka)
Mansehra	Pakistan (❌ Given: Gujarat)
Girnar	Gujarat (❌given: Pakistan)

Full list of Major Rock Edict Sites of Ashoka:

Site	Present Location
Kandahar	Afghanistan
Shahbazgarhi	Pakistan
Mansehra	Pakistan
Yerragudi	Andhra Pradesh
Sannati	Karnataka
Girnar	Gujarat
Sopara	Maharashtra
Dhauli	Odisha
Jaugada	Odisha
Khalsi	Uttarakhand

Minor Rock Edicts of Ashoka

Minor Rock Edicts	Location/Place
Bahapur	South Delhi
Gujarra	Madhya Pradesh
Saru Maru/ Panguraria	Madhya Pradesh
Udegolam	Karnataka
Nittur	Karnataka
Maski	Karnataka
Siddapur	Karnataka
Brahmagiri	Karnataka
Jatinga-Rameshwara	Karnataka
Palkigundu and Gavimath	Karnataka
Rajula Mandagiri	Andhra Pradesh
Yerragudi	Andhra Pradesh
Sasaram / Sahasram	Bihar
Rupnath	Madhya Pradesh
Bairat	Rajasthan
Calcutta/Bairat	Rajasthan
Ahraura	Uttar Pradesh
Ratampurwa	Bihar

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9) Arrange the following foreign travellers to India in chronological order of their visit (earliest to latest):

Fa-Hien
Hieun-Tsang
Megasthenes
I-Tsing

Select the correct chronological order using the codes given below:

3 – 1 – 2 – 4

1 – 3 – 2 – 4

3 – 2 – 1 – 4

1 – 2 – 3 – 4

Explanation:

Megasthenes: Greek ambassador of Seleucus I to the court of Chandragupta Maurya, visited in the 4th century BCE.
Fa-Hien: Chinese Buddhist monk, came during the reign of Chandragupta II (Gupta Empire) in the 5th century CE.
Hieun-Tsang: Another Chinese monk who visited during Harshavardhana’s reign, in the 7th century CE.
I-Tsing: Also a Chinese monk, arrived in India in the late 7th century CE, after Hieun-Tsang.
Hence, the correct chronological order is:
Megasthenes → Fa-Hien → Hieun-Tsang → I-Tsing

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10) The stone statue of Yakshini in the form of a beautiful woman, noted for its Maurya polish, was found in which of the following places?

Sanchi

Didarganj

Sarnath

Ujjain

Explanation:

The famous Didarganj Yakshini statue was discovered near the Ganga riverbank in Didarganj, Patna (Bihar).
It is celebrated for its highly polished surface, known as the Mauryan polish, which is a hallmark of Mauryan art.
The statue is considered one of the finest early examples of stone sculpture in India, dating back to the Mauryan period (3rd century BCE).

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11) The term “Mahakshatrapa” in ancient Indian history is related to:

Chief priest in Vedic rituals

Feudal landlord under the Gupta Empire

Military governor under the Kushana Empire

Revenue officer in the Mauryan administration

Explanation:

During the Kushana period, the empire was divided into provinces, each governed by a Mahakshatrapa (literally, “Great Satrap”).
A Mahakshatrapa was a military governor, often assisted by a Kshatrapa (satrap), reflecting a Persian influence in administrative titles.
These titles were also later seen under the Western Kshatrapas in western India.
This system was part of a decentralized governance structure used to manage distant provinces efficiently.

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12) Consider the following pairs:

Literary Work	Author
1. Gathasaptasati	Hala (Satavahana king)
2. Brihatkatha	Somadeva
3. Lilavati	Kutuhala
4. Suhrullekha	Nagarjuna

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

Only one pair

Only two pairs

Only three pairs

All four pairs

Explanation:

Gathasaptasati – Hala: Correct. Gathasaptasati is a collection of over 700 Prakrit verses. It is attributed to King Hala, a ruler of the Satavahana dynasty. This work reflects the socio-cultural life of early centuries CE, particularly themes of love and romance.
Brihatkatha – Somadeva: Incorrect. Brihatkatha was originally written by Gunadhya in the now-lost Paishachi language. Somadeva is known for Kathasaritsagara, which is a Sanskrit adaptation based on the Brihatkatha, not the original author. Hence, this pair is mismatched.
Lilavati – Kutuhala: Correct. Lilavati, attributed to Kutuhala, is a notable literary-scientific text during the Satavahana period, though it should not be confused with the later work “Lilavati” by Bhaskaracharya. This Lilavati by Kutuhala deals with astrology and related subjects.
Suhrullekha – Nagarjuna: Correct. Acharya Nagarjuna, a prominent Mahayana Buddhist philosopher, is credited with authoring Suhrullekha (“Letter to a Friend”) addressed to a Satavahana king, likely Yajnasri Satakarni. He also compiled other philosophical and alchemical works such as Prajnaparamita and Rasaratnakara.

Source: Dr.B.R. Ambedkar Open University

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13) In the Satavahana administration, a special official was entrusted with the responsibility of constructing caves and related infrastructure for monks. This official played a key role in promoting religious patronage and public works.
The above description is about which one of the following officials?

Mahamatra

Uparakshita

Lekhaka

Pattikapalaka

Explanation:

Uparakshita:
- A designated official during the Satavahana period, assigned to supervise the construction of caves and other structures for monastic communities, especially Buddhists.
Mahamatra: In charge of departments and general administrative duties.
Lekhaka: Responsible for recording and registering official documents.
Pattikapalaka: Director of archives and record-keeping.

Source: Dr.B.R. Ambedkar Open University

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14) Consider the following statements:

By 2nd century BC, megalithic people began wet paddy cultivation in fertile river basins.
Dakshinapatha was important for trade in southern gold and gems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Only 1

Only 2

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct. By the 2nd century BC, under the influence of northern traders and religious groups, megalithic people transitioned into fertile plains and adopted wet paddy cultivation.
Statement 2: Correct. The Dakshinapatha was a major trade route valued by the north for accessing southern resources like gold, pearls, and precious stones.

Source: R S Sharma

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15) Consider the following information:

Kingdom	Capital	Symbol
1. Cheras	Vanchi	Bow and arrow
2. Cholas	Uraiyur	Lion
3. Pandyas	Madurai	Two Fish

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Cheras – Vanchi / Karur – Bow and arrow → \Correct
- Capital: Vanchi (Karur)
- Symbol: Bow and arrow
Cholas – Uraiyur / Puhar – Lion → Incorrect
- Capital: Uraiyur/Puhar is correct
- Symbol: It was Tiger, not Lion
Pandyas – Madurai – Two Fish → Correct
- Capital: Madurai
- Symbol: Two Fish

Source: Source: R S Sharma (The Dawn of History in the Deep South)

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16) Consider the following statements about Kanishka:

He convened the Fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalavana near Srinagar.
He patronized both the Gandhara and Mathura schools of art.
He shifted his capital to Kaushambi in Uttar Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: He convened the Fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalavana (identified with modern-day Harwan near Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir). This council was significant as it led to the division of Buddhism into two major sects – Hinayana and Mahayana.
Statement 2 is correct: Kanishka was a great patron of art and culture. He supported the development of both the Gandhara school (influenced by Greco-Roman styles) and the Mathura school (indigenous Indian style), both of which flourished during his reign.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Kanishka did not shift his capital to Kaushambi. His capital was Purushpura, which is present-day Peshawar in Pakistan. While cities like Kaushambi and Varanasi were part of his empire, they were not his capitals.

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17) Consider the following metals:

1. Gold

2. Silver

3. Copper

4. Iron

How many of the above were actually used by the Harappan people?

Only one

Only three

All four

Explanation:

• Gold ✅ – Used for making beads, armlets, needles, and ornaments. Likely sourced from Himalayan rivers and South India.

• Silver ✅ – Widely used, even more than gold, for ornaments and dishes; possibly imported from Mesopotamia.

• Copper ✅ – Used for making tools and weapons (axes, chisels, knives, etc.); obtained mainly from Khetri in Rajasthan.

• Iron ❌ – Not known to the Harappans, as the civilization existed during the Bronze Age, before the widespread use of iron.

• Thus, only three metals (gold, silver, and copper) were used by the Harappans.

Answer: (C) Only three

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18) The term “Rupaka” in the context of ancient Indian history refers to:

A gold coin issued by the Guptas

A land revenue official during the Mauryan period

A silver coin issued during the Gupta period

A title given to provincial governors under the Guptas

Explanation:

• Rupaka was the silver coin issued by the Guptas, modeled after the Saka coins of Ujjain, weighing around 32–36 grains.

• The gold coins of the Guptas were called Dinars.

• While these coins were in circulation, Fa-Hien noted that cowries were also commonly used for smaller transactions during the Gupta period.

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19) Consider the following:

Archaeological Site	State	Description
1. Dholavira	Gujarat	Harappan site with water management
2. Sarnath	Bihar	Buddha’s first sermon
3. Mahabalipuram	Tamil Nadu	Pallava-era rock-cut temples
4. Nalanda	Bihar	Ancient Buddhist university

Which of the above rows is/are correctly matched?

1, 2 and 3

1, 3 and 4

2, 3 and 4

1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Dholavira – Gujarat: Correct. Dholavira is one of the major urban centers of the Indus Valley Civilization located in present-day Kutch district of Gujarat. It is known for its advanced water management system, unique town planning, and large reservoirs.
Sarnath – Bihar: Incorrect. Sarnath is located near Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh, not Bihar. It is the site where Gautama Buddha delivered his first sermon after attaining enlightenment, making it a major Buddhist pilgrimage site.
Mahabalipuram – Tamil Nadu: Correct. Also called Mamallapuram, this UNESCO World Heritage Site is known for its rock-cut shore temples, created under the Pallava dynasty. The site features monolithic rathas (chariots), cave sanctuaries, and reliefs.
Nalanda – Bihar: Correct. Nalanda was an ancient center of Buddhist learning and monastic education, active from the 5th to 12th centuries CE. It attracted students from various countries and is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Source: India’s Ancient Past – R.S. Sharma

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20) With reference to the early Aryans and the Rig Veda, consider the following statements:

The term Sindhu is frequently mentioned in the Rig Veda as a revered river.
The Rig Veda is composed in Sanskrit but includes Dravidian and Munda-origin words.
Books I to V of the Rig Veda are considered the earliest sections.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct. The Sindhu (Indus) is referred to as a river par excellence and is repeatedly mentioned in the Rig Veda.
Statement 2: Correct. Though written in Sanskrit, the Rig Veda contains words of Dravidian and Munda origin, likely from Harappan influence.
Statement 3: Incorrect. Books II to VII are considered the earliest, while Books I and X were added later.
The earliest Aryans lived in regions including eastern Afghanistan, North-West Frontier Province, Punjab, and parts of western Uttar Pradesh.
The Rig Veda mentions rivers like Kubha (Kabul River) and the Indus (Sindhu) with its five tributaries.
The Sindhu (Indus) is the most frequently mentioned river, termed the river par excellence of the Aryans.
The Sarasvati River, called naditama (best of rivers), is identified with the Ghaggar–Hakra in Haryana and Rajasthan, but its Rig Vedic features match the Avestan river Harakhwati (modern Helmand in south Afghanistan).
The area where the Aryans settled in India is known as the Land of the Seven Rivers (Sapta Sindhava).
The term arya appears 36 times in the Rig Veda, denoting a cultural-linguistic community speaking the Indo-Aryan language.
The Rig Veda is the earliest Indo-European text, composed in Sanskrit, with influence from Munda and Dravidian languages, likely through interaction with Harappan culture.
It is a collection of hymns and prayers dedicated to gods like Agni, Indra, Mitra, and Varuna, composed by families of sages.
The text consists of ten mandalas (books):
- Books II to VII are the oldest.
- Books I and X are considered later additions.
The Rig Veda shares many features with the Avesta, including common deities and social classifications, highlighting shared Indo-Iranian heritage.

Source: India’s Ancient Past – R.S. Sharma, Chapter 12 – Age of Rigveda

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21) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Indra was the warlord and rain god in Rig Veda with the highest number of hymns.

Statement-II: Agni, with the second-highest number of hymns, acted as a mediator between gods and people.

Which one of the following is correct?

Both statements are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Both statements are correct but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

Statement-I is correct. Indra is the most celebrated god in Rig Veda, known as Purandara and associated with war and rain, with 250 hymns.
Statement-II is correct. Agni, with 200 hymns, served as the intermediary, carrying offerings to the gods.
Religions often arise from people’s surroundings; the Aryans personified natural forces like rain, sun, moon, rivers, and mountains.
These forces were seen as living beings with human or animal traits and were worshipped as deities in the Rig Veda.
The Rig Veda contains numerous hymns composed by poets from various families in honour of these deities.
Indra is the most important deity in the Rig Veda:
- Known as Purandara (destroyer of forts or dwellings).
- Regarded as a warlord and the god of rain.
- Credited with leading Aryans to victory over demons.
- 250 hymns are dedicated to him.
Agni (fire god) holds the second position:
- 200 hymns are devoted to him.
- Fire was essential for burning forests, cooking, and rituals.
- Served as an intermediary between humans and gods, carrying offerings as smoke to the heavens.
- Fire worship was also central in Iranian religion.
Varuna is the god of water and cosmic order:
- Believed to uphold natural law (Rta).
- All events in the world were seen as reflections of Varuna’s will.
Soma is the god of plants and associated with an intoxicating ritual drink:
- Hymns in the Rig Veda describe the preparation of Soma, though the plant remains unidentified.
Maruts represent the storm gods and often accompany Indra in battle.
The Sarasvati River is also personified and worshipped as a powerful goddess in many hymns.
Vedic deities represent natural elements but are given human qualities and activities, showing a blend of nature worship and anthropomorphism.

Source: India’s Ancient Past – R.S. Sharma, Chapter 12 – Age of Rigveda

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22) “My friend, if a person does not accept a present what will happen to it?… I do not accept your abuse.” – This teaching was given by whom?

Gautama Buddha

Vardhamana Mahavira

Makkhali Gosala

Adi Shankaracharya

Explanation:

This compassionate and philosophical response is attributed to Gautama Buddha, who emphasized self-control, non-retaliation, and inner peace. He used this metaphor to teach about the power of not reacting to anger or abuse, illustrating the principle of non-attachment and mindfulness.

Source: India’s Ancient Past – R.S. Sharma, Chapter 14 – Jainism and Buddhism

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23) Consider the following related to the teachings of Gautama Buddha:

Right Observation
Right Determination
Right Concern
Right Action
Right Awareness

How many of the above were part of the Ashtangika Marga (Eightfold Path) of Gautama Buddha?

Only two

Only three

Only four

All Five

Explanation:

Gautama Buddha recommended the Eightfold Path (Ashtangika Marga) to eliminate human misery and suffering.
This path is described in Buddhist texts dating to around the 3rd century BCE.

The Eightfold Path includes:

1. Right Observation (Samyak Drishti) – Understanding the truth of life and the Four Noble Truths
2. Right Determination (Samyak Sankalpa) – Commitment to self-improvement and renunciation of harmful intentions
3. Right Speech (Samyak Vacha) – Avoiding false, harmful, or divisive speech
4. Right Action (Samyak Karmanta) – Behaving ethically and morally
5. Right Livelihood (Samyak Ajiva) – Earning a living in a righteous way, without causing harm
6. Right Effort (Samyak Vyayama) – Persisting in the development of good mental states
7. Right Awareness (Samyak Smriti) – Being fully aware of body, mind, feelings, and thoughts
8. Right Concern (Samyak Samadhi) – Developing deep concentration and mental focus through meditation

Source: India’s Ancient Past – R.S. Sharma, Chapter 14 – Jainism and Buddhism

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24) Consider the following pairs regarding Buddhist Councils and their Chairmen:

Buddhist Council	Chairman
1. First Council	Mahakassapa
2. Second Council	Sabakami
3. Third Council	Mogaliputta Tissa
4. Fourth Council	Vasumitra

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

1st Council – Mahakassapa → Held at Rajgriha, convened by Ajatashatru (Haryanka dynasty)
2nd Council – Sabakami → Held at Vaishali, convened by Kalashoka (Shisunaga dynasty)
3rd Council – Mogaliputta Tissa → Held at Pataliputra, convened by Ashoka (Mauryan dynasty)
4th Council – Vasumitra → Held at Kundalavana, Kashmir, convened by Kanishka (Kushana dynasty)

Buddhist Council	Location		Convened by	Chairman	Key Outcome
1st Council		Rajgriha	Ajatashatru (Haryanka)	Mahakassapa	Compilation of Vinaya Pitaka (by Upali) and Sutta Pitaka (by Ananda)
2nd Council		Vaishali	Kalashoka (Shisunaga)	Sabakami	Buddhism split into Sthaviravadin & Mahasanghika
3rd Council		Pataliputra	Ashoka (Mauryan)	Mogaliputta Tissa	Compilation of Abhidhamma Pitaka
4th Council		Kundalavana, Kashmir	Kanishka (Kushana)	Vasumitra (with Ashvaghosha assisting)	Emergence of Hinayana & Mahayana sects

Source: India’s Ancient Past – R.S. Sharma, Chapter 14 – Jainism and Buddhism

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25) Consider the following statements regarding the Nyaya Sutra and its contributions to Indian philosophy:

The Nyaya Sutra recognizes four valid means (pramanas) of knowledge: perception, inference, comparison, and testimony.
The Nyaya Sutra was composed before the emergence of Samkhya philosophy and Upanishadic idealism.
The pramanas mentioned in the Nyaya Sutra were exclusively used in theological debates and had no role in legal or practical disputes.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Nyaya Sutra, compiled around AD 400, is one of the foundational texts of Indian logic and epistemology. It identifies four pramanas (means of knowledge)—Perception (Pratyaksha), Inference (Anumana), Comparison (Upamana), and Testimony (Shabda). These became essential tools not only for philosophical argumentation but also for determining the truth or falsity of claims.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Samkhya philosophy, attributed to Kapila, is generally dated around 580 BC, and the Upanishads, containing the core of Indian idealistic and spiritual thought, emerged even earlier, beginning around 700 BC. In contrast, the Nyaya Sutra is dated to a much later period, around the 4th–5th century AD, and thus did not precede these systems. Instead, it developed after these traditions had already gained prominence, contributing a more structured approach to logic and reasoning.
Statement 3 is incorrect: While theological debates certainly employed Nyaya logic, the use of pramanas went far beyond just religious argumentation. The four-fold method of reasoning was practically applied in areas such as land disputes, property division, and judicial arguments.
Source: India’s Ancient Past, RS Sharma – Chapter: Developments in Philosophy

Your score is

Indian History Grand Test 2

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1) Consider the following theories about the origin of the Pallavas:

They were equated with the Parthians who ruled western India.
They were a branch of the Brahmin royal dynasty of the Vakatakas.
They descended from a Chola prince and a Naga princess from the island of Manipallavam.

How many of the above theories are supported by substantial historical evidence?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Although multiple theories exist regarding the origin of the Pallavas, none of them are supported by adequate historical evidence. The most widely accepted view among scholars is that the Pallavas were natives of Tondaimandalam, and possibly identified with the Pulindas mentioned in Ashokan inscriptions.
There are multiple theories regarding the origin of the Pallavas, but none are conclusively proven.
Theory 1: The Pallavas were equated with the Parthians, a group of foreign rulers who once governed parts of western India.
Theory 2: They were considered a branch of the Brahmin royal dynasty of the Vakatakas from the Deccan region.
Theory 3: The Pallavas were believed to be descendants of a Chola prince and a Naga princess from the island of Manipallavam.
These above theories lack strong evidence and are not widely accepted by historians.
The most widely accepted view is that the Pallavas were natives of Tondaimandalam (northern Tamil Nadu and southern Andhra region).
They are also considered to be identical with the Pulindas, mentioned in Ashokan inscriptions.
The Satavahanas conquered Tondaimandalam, and the Pallavas became their feudatories.
After the decline of the Satavahanas in the 3rd century A.D., the Pallavas emerged as an independent power.
Their early inscriptions were in Prakrit and Sanskrit, reflecting their Satavahana connections.
The Pallavas were patrons of Brahmanism and contributed to its spread in southern India.

Source: Lesson 11 SOUTH INDIAN KINGDOMS – I PALLAVAS page 122- old TN Textbook

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2) Consider the following statements regarding Krishna I, a Rashtrakuta ruler:

He was the one who defeated the Gangas of Mysore.
He was the builder of the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
He was the first Rashtrakuta ruler to capture Kanauj and establish northern hegemony.
He was succeeded by his eldest son, Govinda II.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Statement 1: Krishna, I defeated the Gangas of Mysore — correct.
Statement 2: He was the builder of the famous Kailasanatha temple at Ellora, a rock-cut architectural marvel — correct.
Statement 3: The first to challenge for control of Kanauj was Dhruva, not Krishna I – Incorrect.
Statement 4: He was succeeded by Govinda II, who handed over real power to Dhruva — correct.

Krishna I (756–775 CE)

- Defeated the Gangas of Mysore.
- Succeeded by his son Govinda II in 775 CE.

Govinda II (775–780 CE)

- Defeated the Eastern Chalukyas.
- Delegated power to his brother Dhruva, who later declared himself ruler.

Dhruva (780–794 CE)

- Led the Rashtrakuta Empire to its zenith.
- Defeated the Western Ganga king, Pallava king Dantivarman, and the ruler of Vengi.
- Moved north to defeat Vatsaraja (Pratihara) and Dharmapala (Pala)—major rivals for Kanauj.
- Nominated his third son Govinda III as heir.

Govinda III (794–814 CE)

- Defeated Dantika (Pallava king).
- Became overlord of the Deccan; Rashtrakuta Empire reached its height of glory.
- Did not challenge Vishnuvardana of Vengi, his maternal grandfather.

Amoghavarsha I (814–878 CE)

- Ruled for 64 years—the longest among Rashtrakutas.
- Fought frequent wars with Western Gangas, later established peace through marriage alliance.
- Great patron of literature and religion: supported Acharya Jinasena, Sakatayana, and Mahaviracharya.
- Author of Kavirajamarga, the earliest Kannada work on poetics.

Krishna III (939–968 CE)

- Last great ruler of the Rashtrakuta dynasty.
- Invaded the Chola kingdom with brother-in-law Butunga in 943 CE.
- Captured Kanchi and Thanjavur, controlled Thondaimandalam (Arcot, Chengalpattu, Vellore).
- Defeated Rajadithya (Chola prince) in the Battle of Takkolam (949 CE).
- Advanced to Rameshvaram and built a pillar of victory.
- Established suzerainty over the entire Deccan.
- Participated in the tripartite struggle for Kanauj among northern powers.

Decline after Krishna III

- Successors were weak and unable to maintain the empire.
- Local rajas asserted independence, weakening central control.
- Invasions from the north-west prevented formation of a strong northern kingdom.

Source: TN Textbook Class 11^th History Unit 8 – Harsha and Rise of Regional Kingdoms page – 113

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3) Consider the following pairs of Kannada literary figures and their royal patrons:

Literary Figure	Royal Patron
1. Adikavi Pampa	Krishna III
2. Kavichakravarti Ranna	Satyashraya
3. Kavichakravarti Ponna	Tailapa II
4. Gunabhadra	Krishna III

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Pampa was patronised by Krishna III.
Ranna was indeed patronised by Satyashraya of the Western Chalukyas.
Ponna was patronised by Tailapa II, also of the Western Chalukyas.
Gunabhadra was the spiritual guide of Krishna II, not Krishna III.

The Rashtrakuta rulers were great patrons of learning and supported the growth of Kannada and Sanskrit literature.

Amoghavarsha I authored:

Prasnottaramalika (in Sanskrit)
Kavirajamarga (the earliest Kannada work on poetics)

Jinasena, a Jain scholar, wrote the Adipurana.

Gunabhadra, spiritual guide of Krishna II, authored the Mahapurana (a Jain text).

The three gems of ancient Kannada literature were:

Kavichakravarthi Ponna
Adikavi Pampa
Kavichakravarti Ranna

These poets were patronised by Rashtrakuta king Krishna III, as well as by Tailapa and Satyashraya of the Western Chalukyas.

Source: TN Textbook Class 11^th History Unit 8 – Harsha and Rise of Regional Kingdoms page – 114

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4) Consider the following saints in the context of Tamil Saiva literature and Thevaram hymns:

Appar
Sambandar
Manickavasagar

How many of the above saints composed Thevaram hymns?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Appar (also known as Thirunavukkarasar) – Composed Thevaram hymns.
Sambandar (also known as Thirugnanasambandar) – Composed Thevaram hymns.
Manickavasagar – Did not compose Thevaram; he authored Thiruvachagam, a different but highly revered Tamil Saiva text.
Saiva literature was canonized as the Panniru Tirumurai (Twelve Saiva Scriptures).
Thevaram is a collection of devotional hymns composed by three prominent saints:
- Appar (Thirunavukkarasar)
- Sambandar (Thirugnanasambandar)
- Sundarar
Thiruvasakam was composed by Manickavasagar, known for its spiritual depth.
These texts are still regarded as sacred literature in Saivism and widely read today.
Periyapuranam, written by Sekizhar in a later period, provides valuable historical information about Saiva saints.
Mathavilasa Prahasanam, a Sanskrit play written by Mahendravarman I, is an important source for understanding the Pallava period.
Hymns of Thevaram corpus; Nalayiradivyaprapandam; Periyapuranam; Tiru-thondarthogai; Manickavasakar’s Tiruvasagam; Hymns engraved on the walls of temples. Miniature sculptures in the circumambulation of temples; paintings in the temples.

Source: TN Textbook Class 11^th History, Unit 9 – Cultural Development in South India – page 117

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5) Consider the following statements regarding state administration under the Chalukyas:

The king was the head of the administration.
Primogeniture was strictly followed in dynastic succession.
Yuvaraja was usually appointed while the king was still ruling.
Chalukya kings claimed to govern according to dharma-shastra and niti-shastra.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All Four

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct – The king was indeed the head of the administration.
Statement 2: Incorrect – Primogeniture was not strictly followed in Chalukyan succession.
Statement 3: Correct – The yuvaraja (heir apparent) was generally appointed during the king’s reign.
Statement 4: Correct – The Chalukyas claimed to rule according to dharma-shastra and niti-shastra.
The king was the head of administration in the Chalukyan polity.
Primogeniture (eldest son succeeding the throne) was not strictly followed.
Typically, the eldest son was appointed as yuvaraja (heir apparent) while the king was still ruling.
The yuvaraja was trained in literature, law, philosophy, martial arts, and other disciplines.
Chalukya kings claimed to rule according to dharma-shastra and niti-shastra.
Pulikesin I was well-versed in Manu-smriti, Puranas, and Itihasas.

Source: TN Textbook Class 11^th History, Unit 9 – Cultural Development in South India – page 118

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6) Consider the following images:

Image of Lord Shiva
Image of Nandi
Image of King Rajasimha
Image of Queen Rangapataka

How many of the above images are found in the inscription in the Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Lord Shiva – While the temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva, his image is not specifically mentioned in the inscription.
Nandi – Though a typical presence in Shiva temples, not referenced in the inscription.
King Rajasimha – His name appears as the temple’s builder, but no image is mentioned in the inscription.
Queen Rangapataka – The image explicitly mentioned in the inscription at Kailasanatha temple is that of Queen Rangapataka, wife of King Rajasimha.
Pallava queens did not take active part in the administration of the kingdom, but they built shrines, and installed images of various deities, and endowed temples. The image of Queen Rangapataka, the queen of Rajasimha, is found in the inscription in Kailasanatha temple in Kanchipuram.

Source: TN Textbook Class 11^th History, Unit 9 – Cultural Development in South India – page 119

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7) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Mongol invasion of India directly led to the fall of the Delhi Sultanate.

Statement-II: Mongol raids destroyed Ghazni and the Ghurid Sultanate, weakening rulers like Qubacha and aiding Iltutmish’s rise.

Which one of the following is correct?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Explanation:

Statement-I is incorrect. The Mongol invasion did not end the Delhi Sultanate, rather it weakened regional rivals.
Statement-II is correct. Ghazni and the Ghurid territories were devastated by Mongol invasions, indirectly helping Iltutmish consolidate power in North India.
The geographical location of Arabia enabled active trade contact between India and Arabia.
Pre-Islamic Arab sea-farers maintained maritime trade links with both western and eastern coasts of India.
Arabs settled in regions like Malabar and the Coromandel Coast.
Arabs who married Malabar women and settled on the West Coast were known as Mappillais (meaning “sons-in-law”).

Source: TN Textbook Class 11^th History, Unit 10 – Advent of Arabs and Turks page – 135

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8) Consider the following titles and honors associated with Mahmud of Ghazni:

He was given the title Yamini-ud-Daulah by the Caliph.
He ascended the throne after peacefully succeeding his father Sabuktigin.
He received a robe of investiture from the Caliph upon his accession.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct – The Caliph honored Mahmud with the title Yamini-ud-Daulah, meaning “Right hand of the Empire.”
Statement 2: Incorrect – Mahmud did not ascend peacefully; he defeated his brother Ismail in battle to claim the throne.
Statement 3: Correct – The Caliph sent a robe of investiture to officially recognize Mahmud’s accession.

Source: TN Textbook Class 11^th History, Unit 10 – Advent of Arabs and Turks page – 137

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9) The Second Battle of Tarain (1192) is considered a turning point in Indian history because:

It marked the rise of the Cholas

It led to the decline of the Rajputs and the beginning of Turkish rule in North India

It ended Mongol invasions

It led to the expansion of the Delhi Sultanate under Balban

Explanation:

The Second Battle of Tarain in 1192 resulted in a decisive defeat of Prithviraj Chauhan, paving the way for Turkish rule in North India, with Qutb-ud-din Aibak later establishing the Delhi Sultanate.

In 1192, Ghori returned with a stronger force, leading to the Second Battle of Tarain.
- Prithviraj underestimated Ghori’s threat and was defeated decisively.
- He was captured, marking a major turning point in Indian history.
Ghori initially restored Prithviraj to the throne of Ajmer, but later executed him on charges of treason.
Qutb-ud-din Aibak, Ghori’s trusted general, was appointed as his deputy in India, laying the foundation for Muslim rule in North India.

Source: TN Textbook Class 11^th History, Unit 10 – Advent of Arabs and Turks page – 138

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10) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Muhammad Ghori defeated the Chalukyas of Gujarat at Mt. Abu in 1179.

Statement-II: After the battle, Ghori shifted focus to consolidating power in Sind and the Punjab.

Which one of the following is correct?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Explanation:

Statement-I is incorrect. Ghori was actually defeated by the Chalukyas of Gujarat at Mt. Abu in 1179, not victorious.
Statement-II is correct. After this defeat, he changed his route and focused on strengthening control in Sind and Punjab, avoiding direct confrontation in Gujarat again.
In 1179, Muhammad Ghori was defeated by the Chalukyas of Gujarat at Mount Abu.
Following this defeat, Ghori redirected his efforts toward consolidating control over Sind and Punjab, rather than expanding immediately into deeper parts of India.

Source: TN Textbook Class 11^th History, Unit 10 – Advent of Arabs and Turks page – 138

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11) Consider the following pairs regarding Rajput rulers and the dynasties they belonged to:

Ruler	Dynasty
1. Vighraharaja	Chauhan
2. Bhoja	Paramara
3. Jayachandra	Chandelas
4. Kirti Varman	Chandelas

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Vighraharaja – Chauhan → Correct
Bhoja – Paramara → Correct
Jayachandra – Chandelas → Incorrect. Jayachandra was a ruler of the Gahadavala dynasty
Kirti Varman – Chandelas → Correct

Prominent rulers from these dynasties included:

Vighraharaja and Prithviraj Chauhan (Chauhans)
Bhoja (Paramara dynasty)
Jayachandra (Gahadavalas)
Yasovarman and Kirti Varman (Chandelas)
Each of these rulers was strong in their respective regions, contributing to regional stability and cultural development.

Source: TN Textbook Class 11^th History, Unit 10 – Advent of Arabs and Turks page – 139

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12) Consider the following statements regarding the First Battle of Panipat (1526):

Babur’s outnumbered army used the Rumi tactic to defeat Ibrahim Lodi.
Trenches, flanking, and gunfire were key to Babur’s victory.
Babur used Lodi’s treasure to build forts in Lahore and Multan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct: Babur’s forces were numerically inferior — about 12,000 troops against Ibrahim Lodi’s 100,000-strong army. To overcome this, Babur employed the Rumi (Ottoman) method of warfare, which emphasized gunpowder, mobility, and flanking tactics. This military innovation gave Babur a decisive edge despite being outnumbered.
Statement 2: Correct: Babur’s victory was achieved through carefully dug trenches, defensive barricades, and expertly coordinated flanking movements. His central units included Ottoman-trained gunners, who used matchlocks and artillery to devastating effect. These tactics created confusion in Lodi’s massive army, leading to heavy Afghan casualties.
Statement 3: Incorrect: Babur did not use Lodi’s treasure to construct forts in Lahore or Multan. In fact, Lahore (1524) and Multan (earlier) had already been brought under his control before the First Battle of Panipat. The treasure captured at Panipat was primarily distributed among his commanders and soldiers as a reward for their loyalty and service, helping to consolidate his power in Delhi and Agra.

SOURCE: TN Textbook Class 11th History

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13) Consider the following Hindu rulers .

Rana Sangha of Mewar
Krishnadevaraya of Vijayanagar
Medini Rai of Chanderi
Shivaji of Maratha

How many of the above were Hindu rulers during the time of Babur’s invasion of India

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Rana Sangha of Mewar – Correct: A Hindu Rajput ruler, he was one of the most prominent opponents of Babur and was defeated in the Battle of Khanua (1527).
Krishnadevaraya of Vijayanagar – Correct: A Hindu emperor of the powerful Vijayanagar Empire in the south. He was one of the two major Hindu rulers on the eve of Babur’s invasion.
Medini Rai of Chanderi – Correct: A Hindu Rajput chief who opposed Babur and was defeated in the siege of Chanderi (1528).
Daulat Khan Lodi – Incorrect: He was a Muslim governor of Punjab under the Lodi dynasty, not a Hindu ruler.

SOURCE: TN Textbook Class 11th History

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14) Arrange the following events in chronological order:

Battle of Panipat
Battle of Chausa
Battle of Khanua
Battle of Bilgram (Kanauj)

Select the answer using the code given below:

1, 2, 3, 4

2, 1, 4, 3

1, 3, 2, 4

2, 3, 1, 4

Explanation:

1. First Battle of Panipat – 1526

Participants: Babur vs. Ibrahim Lodi (Sultan of Delhi)
Significance:
- This was Babur’s first major battle in India.
- Marked the end of the Delhi Sultanate and the beginning of the Mughal Empire in India.
- Ibrahim Lodi was killed.
- Babur used superior artillery and cavalry tactics (Rumi/Ottoman-style warfare).

2. Battle of Khanua – 1527

Participants: Babur vs. Rana Sangha (Rajput confederacy of Mewar)
Significance:
- This battle took place near Agra.
- Rana Sangha posed a major challenge to Babur’s authority.
- Babur’s victory neutralized the Rajput threat, and he adopted the title “Ghazi” (slayer of infidels).
- This battle consolidated Mughal rule in North India after the Panipat victory.

3. Battle of Chausa – 1539

Participants: Humayun vs. Sher Khan (later Sher Shah Suri)
Significance:
- Sher Khan ambushed and routed the Mughal army.
- Humayun barely escaped with his life.
- Sher Khan declared himself Sher Shah and began asserting independent rule.
- This was the first major defeat of Humayun.

4. Battle of Bilgram (also called Battle of Kanauj) – 1540

Participants: Humayun vs. Sher Shah Suri
Significance:
- Took place near Kanauj, Uttar Pradesh.
- Humayun was decisively defeated again.
- This defeat led to the loss of the Mughal throne, and Humayun went into 15 years of exile.
- Sher Shah Suri became the de facto ruler of North India, establishing the Sur Empire.

Final Chronological Sequence:

Event	Year	Summary
1. Battle of Panipat	1526	Babur defeats Ibrahim Lodi, starts Mughal rule
2. Battle of Khanua	1527	Babur defeats Rana Sangha, consolidates power
3. Battle of Chausa	1539	Sher Shah defeats Humayun, Mughal army routed
4. Battle of Bilgram/Kanauj	1540	Humayun defeated again, goes into exile

SOURCE: TN Textbook Class 11th History

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15) During the reign of Sher Shah Suri, the term “Sarai” referred to:

A fortified administrative outpost on the empire’s frontier

A type of irrigation tank built for agrarian expansion

A wayside inn constructed to accommodate travelers and facilitate trade

A royal enclosure used exclusively for military training

Explanation:

Sarai was a rest house built under Sher Shah Suri’s reign, placed strategically along highways such as the Grand Trunk Road.
These structures provided shelter, food, and rest to both traders and troops, and helped promote commerce and urban growth.
Sher Shah’s road infrastructure and sarai network played a crucial role in administrative efficiency and economic integration.

SOURCE: TN Textbook Class 11th History

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16) Consider the following groups invited by Akbar to participate in discussions at the Ibadat Khana (Hall of Worship):

Christians
Zoroastrians
Jains
Atheists

How many of the above are correctly mentioned as participants?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Christians – Correct: Akbar invited Jesuit missionaries from Goa to participate in theological discussions.
Zoroastrians – Correct: He invited Zoroastrian priests to share their beliefs.
Jains – Correct: Jain scholars like Hiravijaya Suri were invited and influenced Akbar’s religious outlook.
Atheists – Correct: Akbar’s Ibadat Khana was a forum for open debate, and even atheists were allowed to express their views—showing his commitment to Sulh-i-Kul (peace with all).

Akbar’s Religious Policy – A Progressive and Inclusive Approach

Early Orthodoxy and Influence of Sufism:
Akbar began his life as an orthodox Sunni Muslim, following the traditional practices of Islam. However, his exposure to Sufi ideas, known for their spiritual depth and tolerance, gradually shaped his inclusive religious worldview.
Philosophy of Sulh-i-Kul (Peace with All):
Akbar believed in universal peace and tolerance. He formulated the idea of Sulh-i-Kul, a policy that promoted harmony among all religions, regardless of sectarian divisions. This philosophy became a cornerstone of his administration.
Ibadat Khana (1575): In 1575, Akbar established the Ibadat Khana (Hall of Worship) at Fatehpur Sikri to hold spiritual and theological debates. Initially restricted to Muslim theologians, it was later opened to scholars of various faiths:
- Christians (e.g., Portuguese Jesuits like Aquaviva and Monserrate)
- Zoroastrians (e.g., Meherji Rana)
- Hindus (e.g., Purushottam and Devi)
- Jains (e.g., Hiravijaya Suri)
- Even atheists were allowed to present their views.
Tensions and Closure (1582): The open discussions eventually led to religious hostility and doctrinal conflict. Consequently, Akbar discontinued the formal debates in 1582, although his personal quest for religious understanding continued privately.
Religious Discussions and Personal Quest for Truth: Akbar engaged with leading thinkers of different religions to seek spiritual clarity. He concluded that all religions reflected the same ultimate truth, and that behind different names, there is only one God.
Din-i-Ilahi (Tauhid-i-Ilahi): As a result of these reflections, Akbar developed the concept of Tauhid-i-Ilahi, or Divine Monotheism, which came to be known as Din-i-Ilahi. It was not a new religion, but a spiritual path that combined ethical elements from various faiths, emphasizing piety, tolerance, and devotion to a single God.
- It had no scripture, no priesthood, and no rituals.
- Very few people joined (e.g., Birbal, one of Akbar’s courtiers).
- It was not imposed and died out after Akbar’s death.

Additional Notes for Students:

Criticism by Badauni: The conservative Muslim historian Abdul Qadir Badauni criticized Akbar heavily, accusing him of abandoning Islam and promoting heresy due to his inter-religious engagements and Din-i-Ilahi.
Legacy: Akbar’s religious policy marked a significant departure from sectarian orthodoxy. It played a foundational role in shaping India’s tradition of pluralism and secular governance.

SOURCE: TN Textbook Class 11th History

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17) In the context of women’s rights during the Mughal period, the term Mehr referred to:

A dowry paid by the bride’s family at the time of marriage

A ritual of widow self-immolation after a husband’s death

A certificate of divorce granted by the Mughal court to Muslim women

A mandatory sum of money paid by the groom to the bride at the time of marriage

Explanation:

Mehr was a legal and obligatory payment made by the groom to the bride under Islamic law, acknowledging her financial independence and dignity.
It was a protective measure in case of divorce or the husband’s death.
The term should not be confused with dowry (given by the bride’s family) or Sati, which was the ritual of widow self-immolation, discouraged by Mughal rulers.

SOURCE: TN Textbook Class 11th History

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18) Arrange the following European trading centres in India from North to South:

Chinsura
Patna
Calicut
Cochin

Select the answer using the code given below:

1, 2, 3, 4

2, 1, 3, 4

1, 2, 4, 3

2, 1, 4, 3

Explanation – North to South Order:

Trading Centre	Location (Present-Day)	Colonial Power	Relative Position
Patna	Bihar	English	Northernmost in the list
Chinsura	West Bengal	Dutch	South of Patna
Calicut	Kerala (Kozhikode)	Portuguese	Southwestern coast
Cochin	Kerala	Portuguese	Slightly south of Calicut

SOURCE: TN Textbook Class 11th History

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19) What is the ritual of pilgrimage to the tomb of a Sufi saint known as?

Hajj

Ziyarat

Urs

Namaz

Explanation:

Ziyarat is the pilgrimage to a Sufi saint’s dargah (shrine), often undertaken on the saint’s death anniversary, also known as Urs (symbolizing union with God). Devotees believe that saints are closer to God in death, and visiting their shrine may bring spiritual blessings and worldly relief.

Source: THEMES IN INDIAN HISTORY – PART II chapter 6 Bhakti-Sufi Traditions

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20) Consider the following characteristics of Vijayanagara architecture:

Use of Dravidian architectural style with rayagopurams.
Construction of ornate mandapas and marriage halls in temples.
Extensive use of marble in temple walls and pillars.
Influence of Indo-Islamic elements in secular structures like Lotus Mahal.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Dravidian style was prevalent, and large rayagopurams (gateway towers) were distinctive features.
Statement 2 is correct: Temples like Hazara Rama had intricately carved mandapas, used for rituals and weddings.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Granite, not marble, was commonly used due to its local availability and strength.
Statement 4 is correct: Secular structures like Lotus Mahal incorporated Islamic arches and domes, reflecting Indo-Islamic influence.

Source: NCERT Class 12 History Chapter 7 An Imperial Capital: Vijayanagara

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21) Consider the following pairs regarding authors and their works from the Vijayanagara period:

Author	Work
1. Chamarasa	Prabhulingaleele
2. Kanakadas	Ramadhanyacharite
3. Allasani Peddana	Manucharita
4. Nandi Timanna	Parijathapaharanam

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Pair 1: Correct Chamarasa was a Kannada poet patronized during Deva Raya II’s reign. His work Prabhulingaleele is a celebrated Veerashaiva composition.
Pair 2: Correct Kanakadas was a saint-poet and social reformer from the Vijayanagara period who composed several Kannada works with devotional and philosophical messages.
Pair 3: Correct He was one of the Ashtadiggajas in Krishna Deva Raya’s court and is considered the Andhra Kavita Pitamaha (Father of Telugu poetry). Manucharita is his most famous epic.
Pair 4: Correct Another prominent Ashtadiggaja in Krishna Deva Raya’s court, Nandi Timanna authored Parijathapaharanam, which was based on a well-known episode from Hindu mythology.

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22) Consider the following statements regarding Nathpanthis:

These groups emphasized renunciation and meditation on the formless Ultimate Reality.
Their spiritual training involved breathing exercises, mental discipline, and yoga.
They mainly attracted members of the higher castes and orthodox elites.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Nathpanthis, Siddhacharas, and Yogis emphasized renunciation of the world and sought salvation through meditation on the formless Supreme Reality.
Statement 2 is correct: They practiced yogic techniques, including breath control, meditation, and bodily discipline, as part of spiritual training.
Statement 3 is incorrect: These traditions were particularly popular among “low” castes and challenged ritualism, thus distancing themselves from orthodox upper-caste dominance.
Source: Class 7 History Social Science Chapter 8 Devotional Paths To The Divine

23 / 25

23) Consider the following statements about the Sufi tradition in India:

Sufi saints emphasized love, devotion, and union with God over outward religious rituals.
Sufi hospices (khanqahs) served as centers where people from all backgrounds gathered for spiritual discourses and music.
The Rishi order in Kashmir was established by Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Sufism emphasized love for God, compassion, and the inner spiritual experience, rejecting rigid religious codes.
Statement 2 is correct: Sufi khanqahs were open to people of all faiths and social backgrounds, where music, dance, and discussions were common.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Rishi order in Kashmir was established by Sheikh Nuruddin Wali (Nund Rishi), not by Muinuddin Chishti.

Source: Class 7 History Social Science Chapter 8 Devotional Paths To The Divine

24 / 25

24) Consider the following statements regarding the Iqta system:

It was first introduced by Qutbuddin Aibak.
The muqtis collected taxes and paid soldiers from the revenue.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: While Aibak granted land, the formal Iqta system was institutionalized by Iltutmish based on Islamic (Abbasid) models.
Statement 2 is correct: Muqtis collected revenue from iqtas (land assignments) and used it to pay soldiers and maintain law and order.

Source: NCERT Our Pasts II – Pg 39

25 / 25

25) During the Delhi Sultanate, the term Mustaufi referred to:

A cavalry officer

A judicial magistrate

A revenue auditor

A market controller

Explanation:

The term Mustaufi was used during the Delhi Sultanate period to denote a revenue auditor or inspector. This official played a crucial role, especially under Muhammad bin Tughlaq, in overseeing the functioning of revenue collection and curbing corruption among the amils (local revenue collectors). The Mustaufis were responsible for scrutinizing accounts, auditing revenue records, and ensuring that taxes were collected and accounted for properly.

Source: Class 7 History Social Science Chapter 8 Devotional Paths To The Divine

Your score is

Indian History Grand Test 3

1 / 25

1) Consider the following statements regarding Francisco De Almeida’s tenure as the first Portuguese governor in India:

He was instructed to seize key strategic ports including Aden, Ormuz, and Malacca.
He was advised to build fortresses at Cochin, Cannanore, Anjadiva, and Kilwa.
He introduced the Blue Water Policy, also known as the cartaz system.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct – Almeida was instructed to destroy Muslim trade by capturing Aden, Ormuz, and Malacca.
Statement 2: Correct – He was advised to build fortresses at Cochin, Cannanore, Anjadiva, and Kilwa.
Statement 3: Correct – He introduced the Blue Water Policy, focused on naval supremacy, and implemented the cartaz (pass) system to control trade in the Indian Ocean.

Francisco De Almeida

In 1505, the King of Portugal appointed Francisco De Almeida as the first governor of Portuguese India for a three-year term.
Almeida was tasked with:
- Consolidating Portuguese power in India
- Disrupting Muslim trade by targeting Aden, Ormuz, and Malacca
- Constructing fortresses at Anjadiva, Cochin, Cannanore, and Kilwa
Almeida faced opposition from the Zamorin of Calicut and a greater threat from the Mameluke Sultan of Egypt.
The Venetian merchants, whose trade was threatened by the Portuguese, encouraged the Egyptians to act.
In 1507, the Portuguese squadron was defeated off Diu by the combined Egyptian and Gujarat navies, and Almeida’s son was killed.
In 1508, Almeida avenged the loss by defeating and crushing both navies in a decisive naval battle.
Almeida aimed to make the Portuguese the supreme naval power in the Indian Ocean.
His naval-focused foreign policy came to be known as the Blue Water Policy and involved the Cartaz system (a system of naval passes to control trade).

Source: SPECTRUM (Modern Indian History) – Advent of the Europeans in India – 25^th Page

2 / 25

2) Consider the following pairs regarding the Carnatic Wars and their outcomes:

Carnatic War	Key Outcome/Event
1. First Carnatic War	Ended with Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle
2. Second Carnatic War	Decisive British victory at Battle of Wandiwash
3. Third Carnatic War	Decisive defeat of French in Battle of Wandiwash

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

First Carnatic War – Treaty of Aix-La Chapelle → Correct (Ended in 1748)
Second Carnatic War – Battle of Wandiwash → Incorrect. The battle occurred during the Third Carnatic War
Third Carnatic War – Battle of Wandiwash → Correct (Fought in 1760–61; decisive English victory over the French)

Carnatic Wars

1. First Carnatic War (1740–1748)

Cause: Extension of Anglo-French rivalry in Europe (War of Austrian Succession).

Outcome:

- Ended with the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle (1748).
- Madras was returned to the English.
- No clear territorial or political gains for either side in India.

2. Second Carnatic War (1749–1754)

Cause: Succession disputes in Hyderabad and Carnatic, with both the English and French supporting rival claimants.

Events:

- French supported Chanda Sahib and Muzaffar Jang.
- British supported Muhammad Ali and Nasir Jang.

Outcome:

- Militarily inconclusive, but it weakened French influence in South India.
- English gained political advantage and stronger foothold.

3. Third Carnatic War (1758–1763)

Cause: Part of the global Seven Years’ War between Britain and France.

Key Event:

- Battle of Wandiwash (1760–61) – Decisive British victory under Sir Eyre Coote over French commander Lally.

Outcome:

- French power in India ended.
- Confirmed by the Treaty of Paris (1763).
- French retained trading posts, but could not fortify or administer them.
- The British emerged as the dominant European power in India.

Source: SPECTRUM (Modern Indian History) – Advent of the Europeans in India – 58^th Page

3 / 25

3) Consider the following Mughal rulers:

Muhammad Shah
Alamgir II
Rafi-ud-Daula (Shah Jahan II)
Ahmad Shah
Shah Alam II

Arrange them in chronological order of their reigns:

3 – 1 – 4 – 2 – 5

1 – 3 – 4 – 2 – 5

3 – 4 – 1 – 2 – 5

4 – 3 – 1 – 2 – 5

Explanation:

Rafi-ud-Daula (Shah Jahan II): Ruled from June to September 1719, placed by the Sayyid Brothers.
Muhammad Shah: Ruled from 1719 to 1748, known for his luxurious lifestyle and titled ‘Rangeela’.
Ahmad Shah: Ruled from 1748 to 1754, dominated by Udham Bai and Javid Khan.
Alamgir II: Ruled from 1754 to 1758, during whose reign the Battle of Plassey (1757) took place.
Shah Alam II: Ruled from 1759 to 1806, associated with the Battle of Buxar (1764) and the Treaty of Allahabad (1765).

Hence, the correct chronological sequence is: 3 → 1 → 4 → 2 → 5

Later Mughal Emperors: Rise and Decline

1. Rafi-ud-Daula (Shah Jahan II) – 1719

Placed on the throne by the Sayyid Brothers.
Reigned from June 6 to September 17, 1719.
Known for being an opium addict.
Had little control over administration.

2. Muhammad Shah (1719–1748)

Ascended the throne after Rafi-ud-Daula’s death.
Real name: Raushan Akhtar; titled Muhammad Shah Rangeela for his luxurious lifestyle.
Eliminated the Sayyid Brothers with the help of Nizam-ul-Mulk.
Nizam-ul-Mulk became wazir in 1724 and established the Hyderabad state.
In 1737, Maratha Peshwa Baji Rao I invaded Delhi with only 500 horsemen.
In 1739, Nadir Shah defeated the Mughals at the Battle of Karnal, imprisoned Muhammad Shah, and annexed western territories into Persia.

3. Ahmad Shah (1748–1754)

Known for incompetence and dependency on the Queen Mother, Udham Bai.
Udham Bai, titled Qibla-i-Alam, governed with her paramour Javid Khan, a notorious eunuch.

4. Alamgir II (1754–1758)

Grandson of Jahandar Shah.
Reign witnessed Ahmed Shah Abdali’s invasion of Delhi in 1757.
Battle of Plassey occurred in June 1757, during his reign.

5. Shah Jahan III (1758–1759)

Brief and politically insignificant reign.

6. Shah Alam II (1759–1806)

His reign witnessed two decisive battles:
- Third Battle of Panipat (1761)
- Battle of Buxar (1764)
Treaty of Allahabad (1765):
- Placed under East India Company’s protection.
- Resided at Allahabad.
- Issued a farman granting the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa to the British in perpetuity.
In 1772, Marathas brought him back to Delhi.
In 1803, after the British defeated Daulat Rao Scindia, Shah Alam II again came under British protection.
After this point, Mughal emperors were mere figureheads under British control.

Source: SPECTRUM (Modern Indian History) – India on the Eve of British Conquest– 63^rdPage

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4) Consider the following pairs regarding the First Anglo-Maratha War (1775–1782) and related treaties:

Treaty	Key Provision/Outcome
1. Treaty of Surat	British Bombay allied with Raghunath Rao
2. Treaty of Wadgaon	English forced to return all acquired territories during the war
3. Treaty of Salbai	Peace for 20 years; English got Salsette; Marathas got Bassein

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Treaty of Surat (1775) – Between British Bombay and Raghunath Rao for succession support.
Treaty of Wadgaon (1779) – English faced defeat; had to return all territories acquired.
Treaty of Salbai (1782) – Ended the war; English retained Salsette, Marathas got Bassein, and 20 years of peace followed.

First Anglo-Maratha War (1775–1782)

Cause:

Succession conflict among the Peshwas after the death of Madhavrao I
Dispute between Raghunath Rao (Raghoba) and Narayan Rao’s posthumous son, Madhavrao II

Key Treaties and Events:

Treaty of Surat (1775):
- Signed between Raghunath Rao and the British Bombay Government
- British agreed to support Raghunath Rao in return for Salsette and Bassein
Treaty of Purandar (1776):
- Signed between Raghunath Rao and the British Calcutta Council
- Contradicted the Surat Treaty and created dual British policies

Main Conflict:

Mahadji Sindhia (Maratha commander) vs British forces
Marathas employed a scorched earth policy, leading to English defeat

Treaty of Wadgaon (1779):

Signed after the British defeat
Terms:
- British to surrender all acquired territories
- Seen as a humiliating loss for the English

Treaty of Salbai (1782):

Peace treaty that ended the war
Terms:
- British got Salsette
- Marathas got Bassein
- Raghunath Rao was denied further support from the British
- Peshwas agreed not to support any other European power
- Established peace for the next 20 years

Outcome:

A draw with no decisive victor
The treaty secured British trading interests
Marathas retained political dominance in western India for the time being

Source: SPECTRUM (Modern Indian History) – Expansion and Consolidation of British Power– 103^rdPage

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5) Consider the following pairs of statements on the Revolt of 1857 and their authors:

Statement	Author
1. “Had a single leader of ability arisen among them (the rebels), we must have been lost beyond redemption.”	John Lawrence
2. “The revolt of 1857 was a struggle of the soldier-peasant democratic combine against foreign imperialism as well as indigenous landlordism.”	Marxist Historians
3. “It was far more than a mutiny, yet much less than a first war of independence.”	V.D. Savarkar
4. “The revolt of 1857 was the First War of Indian Independence.”	Karl Marx

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

John Lawrence → Correct. British administrator acknowledging the lack of unified rebel leadership.
Marxist Interpretation → Correct. Interprets the revolt as a socio-economic class uprising.
V.D. Savarkar did not say the “much less than a first war…” quote. It was Stanley Wolpert.
Karl Marx did not use the phrase “First War of Indian Independence”. It was later popularized by V.D. Savarkar in his 1909 work.

1. John Lawrence (British Administrator)

“…had a single leader of ability arisen among them (the rebels), we must have been lost beyond redemption.”

Interpretation:
- Acknowledges the scale and danger posed by the revolt.
- Emphasizes the lack of unified leadership as the key reason for British survival.
- Reflects the British fear of a more coordinated uprising.

2. Marxist Interpretation

“The revolt of 1857 was a struggle of the soldier-peasant democratic combine against foreign imperialism as well as indigenous landlordism.”

Interpretation:
- Views the revolt as a popular, class-based struggle.
- Highlights the anti-imperialist and anti-feudal dimensions.
- Suggests participation from sepoys, peasants, and oppressed classes.

3. Stanley Wolpert (Modern Historian)

“It was far more than a mutiny, … yet much less than a first war of independence.”

Interpretation:
- Challenges both British dismissal (as a mere mutiny) and nationalist glorification (as the first war of independence).
- Suggests the revolt had broad implications but lacked national unity or modern nationalist consciousness.

Source: SPECTRUM (Modern Indian History) – The Revolt of 1857

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6) Consider the following pairs regarding centres of the Revolt of 1857 and their leaders:

Centre	Leader
1. Delhi	General Bakht Khan
2. Kanpur	Kunwar Singh
3. Lucknow	Begum Hazrat Mahal
4. Bihar	Kunwar Singh

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Delhi – General Bakht Khan → Correct
Kanpur – Kunwar Singh → Incorrect. It should be Nana Saheb
Lucknow – Begum Hazrat Mahal → Correct
Bihar – Kunwar Singh → Correct

Centres of the Revolt of 1857 and Their Leaders

Centre	Leader(s)
Delhi	General Bakht Khan
Kanpur	Nana Saheb
Lucknow	Begum Hazrat Mahal
Bareilly	Khan Bahadur
Bihar	Kunwar Singh
Faizabad	Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah
Jhansi	Rani Laxmibai
Baghpat	Shah Mal

Source: SPECTRUM (Modern Indian History) – The Revolt of 1857

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7) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Parsi reformers promoted purdah and discouraged education for women to preserve religious orthodoxy.

Statement-II: Parsi reformers advocated raising the age of marriage and removing purdah to uplift women.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Explanation:

Statement-I is incorrect. The Parsi reformers did not promote purdah or oppose women’s education.
Statement-II is correct. They pushed for women’s upliftment, including education, delayed marriages, and removal of purdah, making them a progressive community in 19th-century India.

Parsi Reform Movements

Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha (1851)

Meaning: “Religious Reform Association”
Founded in: 1851
Objective:
- Regeneration of social conditions of Parsis
- Restoration of Zoroastrian religion to its original purity

Key Leaders:

Naoroji Furdonji
Dadabhai Naoroji
K.R. Cama
S.S. Bengalee

Medium of Reform:

Newspaper: Rast Goftar (“Truth-Teller”) – used to spread reformist ideas and critiques

Religious Reforms:

Reformation of Zoroastrian rituals and practices
Redefinition of the Parsi creed in line with modern, rational principles

Social Reforms:

Abolition of purdah system among Parsi women
Promotion of female education
Raising the age of marriage
Focus on gender equality and social upliftment

Impact:

Contributed to the modernization and westernization of the Parsi community
Made Parsis the most progressive and westernised group in Indian society during the 19th century

Source: SPECTRUM (Modern Indian History) – Survey of Socio-Cultural Reform Movements – 232 page

8 / 25

8) Consider the following with reference to Gandhi’s anti-untouchability campaign:

All India Anti-Untouchability League
Harijan
Harijan Sevak Sangh

Which of the above were initiated by Gandhi?

1 and 2 only

2only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

1. All India Anti-Untouchability League –
- Gandhi founded it in September 1932 while still in jail, to coordinate efforts against untouchability.
- It was his first organized institutional step post-Poona Pact to combat caste discrimination.
2. Harijan –
- Gandhi started the weekly journal Harijan in January 1933.
- It was published in multiple languages and served as his primary medium to spread the anti-untouchability message.
3. Harijan Sevak Sangh –
- Established by Gandhi after his release, during his nationwide Harijan tour (Nov 1933 – July 1934).
- The organization worked at the grassroots level for the social, economic, and educational upliftment of the depressed classes.

9 / 25

9) Consider the following statements regarding the Poona Pact (1932):

It was signed by B.R. Ambedkar on behalf of the depressed classes.
It increased reserved seats for depressed classes in provincial legislatures.
It retained the provision of separate electorates for the depressed classes.

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct

- Dr. B.R. Ambedkar signed the Poona Pact on September 24, 1932, representing the depressed classes (now known as Scheduled Castes).

Statement 2 – Correct

- The Pact increased the number of reserved seats for the depressed classes in provincial legislatures from 71 to 147, and to 18% in the Central Legislature.

Statement 3 – Incorrect

- The Poona Pact abandoned the idea of separate electorates for the depressed classes, which had been proposed in the Communal Award.
- Instead, it provided reserved seats within the general electorate.

10 / 25

10) Subhash Chandra Bose presided over which of the following Indian National Congress sessions?

Haripura Session
Tripuri Session
Faizpur Session
Ramgarh Session

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2, and 4 only

1, 3, and 4 only

Explanation:

Haripura Session, 1938 – Presided over by Subhash Chandra Bose. He emphasized planning and set up the National Planning Committee.
Tripuri Session, 1939 – Also presided over by Bose, but due to ideological rift with Gandhi, he resigned. Rajendra Prasad succeeded him.
Faizpur Session, 1937 – Presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru. It was the first session held in a rural area.
Ramgarh Session, 1940 Presided over by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, where the Congress objected to India being labelled a belligerent in World War II.

Haripura Session (1938):

Subhash Chandra Bose was unanimously elected as Congress President.
Advocated for economic planning and was instrumental in establishing the National Planning Committee under Nehru.
Stressed support for agitations in princely states.
Took a radical stance on independence and was a key figure promoting full Swaraj.

Tripuri Session (1939):

Bose won a tough re-election defeating Pattabhi Sitaramayya (Gandhi’s nominee).
Bose’s victory created ideological tensions within the Congress.
Refused to work with a Working Committee handpicked by Gandhi, leading to his resignation.
Later, formed the Forward Bloc in 1939 after facing disciplinary action from the Congress.

Differences with Gandhi:

Bose believed in immediate and aggressive struggle for independence.
Gandhi believed the masses and Congress were not ready for a new civil disobedience movement.
This ideological divergence led to a political rift between the two.

Legacy:

Bose’s leadership during the Haripura and Tripuri sessions reflected the growing leftist and socialist influence in Indian politics.
His eventual resignation highlighted the deep divide between radical nationalism and Gandhian gradualism within the Congress.

11 / 25

11) Consider the following members?

Lord Pethick-Lawrence
Stafford Cripps
Lord Wavell
A.V. Alexander

How many of the above were members of the Cabinet Mission sent to India in 1946??

Only two

Only three

All four

Only one

Explanation:

Lord Pethick-Lawrence –Correct. He was the Secretary of State for India and led the mission.
Stafford Cripps –Correct. He was the President of the Board of Trade and part of the mission.
Lord Wavell –Incorrect. He was the Viceroy of India at the time, not a member of the Cabinet Mission.
A.V. Alexander –Correct. He was the First Lord of the Admiralty and a mission member.

12 / 25

12) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Factory Acts of 1881 and 1891:

The 1881 Act barred child labour below 7 years and gave four holidays a month.
The 1891 Act fixed women’s work hours at 11 per day with a rest interval.
These Acts applied to British-owned tea and coffee plantations.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct

- The Indian Factory Act of 1881 was the first factory legislation in India.
- It prohibited the employment of children under 7 years and limited working hours to 9 hours per day.
- It also ensured 4 holidays per month for working children and required machinery to be fenced for safety.
- This was a response to growing concerns over child labour in Indian industries, particularly textiles.

Statement 2 – Correct

- The Indian Factory Act of 1891 expanded on earlier protections.
- It raised the minimum age of child workers from 7 to 9 years, and set the maximum at 14 years.
- It fixed working hours for women at 11 hours/day, with a mandatory 1.5-hour break.
- Additionally, it granted a weekly holiday for all factory workers—an important step in labour welfare.

Statement 3 – Incorrect

- These reforms did not apply to British-owned tea and coffee plantations, especially in Assam and South India.
- Workers on plantations were governed by separate laws, which allowed planters to exploit labourers harshly.
- Breach of contract was criminalized, and workers could be arrested for refusing work, leading to semi-bonded labour conditions.

13 / 25

13) Which leader gave the slogan “India for the Indians”?

Aurobindo Ghosh

Swami Dayananda Saraswati

Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Explanation:

Swami Dayananda Saraswati’s slogan “India for the Indians” symbolised his vision of political and cultural nationalism. His ideas deeply influenced militant nationalists who opposed westernisation and colonial cultural dominance.

Source: Modern History Spectrum Chapter 12: Era of Militant Nationalism

14 / 25

14) Consider the following statements:

The Indian Universities Act of 1904 aimed to expand technical education and reduce government control.
The Act was seen by nationalists as a tool to suppress political activism among students and teachers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Universities Act of 1904, introduced by Lord Curzon, did not aim to expand technical education or reduce state intervention. On the contrary, it intensified government control over universities. The Act gave the government extensive powers over university senates and syndicates, allowed nomination of officials to key academic positions, and curtailed the universities’ autonomy.
Statement 2 is correct: The nationalist leadership strongly opposed the Act, viewing it as a deliberate colonial measure to suppress political thought and freedom of expression among students and teachers. Institutions of higher learning were increasingly contributing to the political awakening in India, and many student leaders were becoming vocal critics of British rule.
Source: Modern History Spectrum Chapter 12: Era of Militant Nationalism

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15) Consider the following pairs:

Gandhian Movement	Key Characteristic
1. Champaran Satyagraha (1917)	First Civil Disobedience
2. Ahmedabad Mill Strike (1918)	First Hunger Strike
3. Kheda Satyagraha (1918)	First Non-Cooperation
4. Rowlatt Satyagraha (1918)	First Mass Strike

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Pair 1: Champaran Satyagraha – First Civil Disobedience

- Gandhi launched this movement to address indigo cultivators’ grievances in Bihar. It involved defying British orders, making it the first civil disobedience movement under his leadership.

Pair 2: Ahmedabad Mill Strike – First Hunger Strike

- Gandhi used a hunger strike for the first time to resolve a wage dispute between textile mill workers and owners in Ahmedabad.

Pair 3: Kheda Satyagraha – First Mass Strike

- Though it involved refusal to pay taxes, the formal Non-Cooperation Movement began in 1920. Kheda was a tax-resistance movement, not officially termed as Non-Cooperation.

Pair 4: Rowlatt Satyagraha – First Non-Cooperation

- The Rowlatt Satyagraha occurred in 1919, not 1918. It was a protest against repressive legislation, not a traditional labor strike or “mass strike” in industrial terms.

Source: Modern History Spectrum Chapter 15 Emergence of Gandhi

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16) “With reference to the Morley-Minto reforms, consider the following statements”:

The Morley-Minto Reforms introduced separate electorates for Muslims and allowed only Muslims to vote for Muslim candidates.
The reforms introduced direct elections to the Imperial Legislative Council for the first time.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909, also known as the Indian Councils Act of 1909, introduced separate electorates for Muslims. This meant that Muslim voters would elect only Muslim candidates, thereby institutionalizing communal representation in Indian politics for the first time. This was seen as a deliberate colonial strategy to divide Hindus and Muslims, preventing the growth of united nationalism.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The elections introduced by the 1909 Act were indirect, not direct. The process involved local bodies electing electoral colleges, which in turn elected members of the provincial legislatures, who then elected members of the Imperial Legislative Council. This multi-tiered electoral structure limited the democratic nature of the reforms.
Source: Modern History Spectrum Chapter 12: Era of Militant Nationalism

17 / 25

17) Which revolutionary organization was responsible for the Kakori Conspiracy of 1925?

Hindustan Socialist Republican Association

Hindustan Republican Association

Indian National Army

Congress Socialist Party

Explanation:

The Kakori Train Robbery occurred on August 9, 1925, near Lucknow, and was carried out by revolutionaries of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA).
The primary objective was to loot the British government treasury carried in a train, in order to finance revolutionary activities aimed at overthrowing colonial rule.
Prominent members involved included Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, Chandrashekhar Azad, and Rajendra Lahiri.
In 1928, the HRA was reorganized and renamed as the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) under leaders like Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev, marking a shift towards socialist ideology in the revolutionary movement.
Source: Modern History Spectrum Chapter 17 Emergence of Swarajists, Socialist Ideas, Revolutionary Activities and Other New Forces

18 / 25

18) Consider the following statements about the 1942 movement in India:

The movement is also known as the India August Movement.
It was led by Mahatma Gandhi.
The movement was spontaneous.
It failed to attract the labor class in general.

How many of the above statements are correct regarding the 1942 movement in India?

Only one

Only two

Only Three

All four

Explanation:

India August Movement: This statement is partially correct. The 1942 movement is more commonly known as the Quit India Movement but calling it the “India August Movement” reflects the period of its peak activity, which began in August 1942.
Leadership by Mahatma Gandhi: This statement is correct. Mahatma Gandhi played a central role in leading the Quit India Movement, urging the British to “Quit India” and advocating for an orderly British withdrawal.
Spontaneity of the Movement: This statement is correct. The Quit India Movement was marked by spontaneous mass participation across various regions of India, reflecting widespread nationalistic fervor and the desire for independence.
Attraction of the Labor Class: This statement is incorrect. The Quit India Movement saw participation from diverse sections of Indian society, including the labor class. While the movement’s impact varied across different regions and communities, it mobilized a significant section of the Indian populace, including workers and peasants.
Source: Modern History Spectrum Chapter 16 Non-Cooperation Movement and Khilafat Aandolan

19 / 25

19) “With reference to the Non-Cooperation movement, consider the following statements”:

The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in support of the Khilafat cause.
The movement saw widespread participation from various sections of society, including students, peasants, women, and business groups.
The combined movement led to immediate constitutional concessions from the British government in the form of new reforms in 1922.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22) was launched by Gandhi as a response to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, the repressive Rowlatt Act, and to support the Khilafat Movement, which aimed to defend the position of the Caliph of Turkey. This was the first major instance of Hindu-Muslim unity in a mass nationalist struggle.
Statement 2 is correct: The movement saw massive participation from students (who left government schools and colleges), women (who took part in picketing and fundraising), peasants (who expressed economic grievances), and businessmen (who supported swadeshi). It marked the beginning of mass politics in India.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Despite the massive scale of the movement, the British government did not offer any concessions. Instead, it resorted to repression — arrests of leaders, banning of volunteer corps, and suppression of protests. The movement ended with no immediate reforms, and Gandhi was imprisoned in 1922.
Source: Modern History Spectrum Chapter 16 Non-Cooperation Movement and Khilafat Aandolan

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20) The slogan “The blows that fell on me are the last nails in the coffin of British imperialism” is attributed to:

Subhas Chandra Bose

Lala Lajpat Rai

Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Bhagat Singh

Explanation:

Lala Lajpat Rai, a prominent nationalist leader, lawyer, and member of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio, earned the title ‘Punjab Kesari’ (Lion of Punjab) for his fearless leadership.
On October 30, 1928, Rai led a peaceful protest march in Lahore against the arrival of the Simon Commission, which was met with severe police brutality under the supervision of Superintendent James A. Scott.
Rai was hit multiple times with a lathi (baton) on his chest, and though he initially recovered, the injuries proved fatal, leading to his death on November 17, 1928.
Before his death, he issued the iconic statement:
“The blows which fell on me are the last nails in the coffin of British imperialism in India.”
This quote became a powerful symbol of martyrdom and resistance against colonial oppression.
His death caused outrage across India, and the revolutionary group led by Bhagat Singh vowed to take revenge. In a case of mistaken identity, they assassinated British officer J.P. Saunders instead of Scott in December 1928.
Source: Modern History Spectrum Chapter 18 Simon Commission and the Nehru Report

21 / 25

21) Consider the following statements:

Gandhi signed the Poona Pact (1932) with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to support separate electorates for depressed classes.
The Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931) marked the formal end of the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Poona Pact (1932) was an agreement between Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar where they abandoned the idea of separate electorates for depressed classes and instead agreed on reserved seats within joint electorates.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931) marked the end of the Civil Disobedience Movement’s first phase, not the Non-Cooperation Movement, which ended in 1922 after the Chauri Chaura incident.

22 / 25

22) Consider the following statements about Gandhi’s work in South Africa:

Gandhi stayed in South Africa between 1893 and 1915.
He used satyagraha against the discrimination faced by Indians and Native Africans.
Gandhi launched the Quit Africa Movement during his stay in South Africa.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Gandhi lived in South Africa from 1893 to 1915, where he began his experiments with satyagraha.
Statement 2 is correct: Gandhi fought against the racist regime, advocating for equal rights for Indians and Native Africans through non-violent protest.
Statement 3 is incorrect: There was no Quit Africa Movement; this is a confusion with the Quit India Movement (1942).
Source: Modern History Spectrum Chapter 15 Emergence of Gandhi

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23) Consider the following statements respected to Rowlatt Act:

The Rowlatt Act allowed detention without trial and suspension of the right to habeas corpus.
All Indian members of the Imperial Legislative Council supported the bill.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Rowlatt Act of 1919, officially the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, was based on the Rowlatt Committee’s recommendations and allowed the government to detain individuals without trial, hold secret trials, and suspend habeas corpus—a cornerstone of civil liberties.
Statement 2 is incorrect: All elected Indian members, including Mohammad Ali Jinnah, Madan Mohan Malaviya, and Mazhar-ul-Haq, opposed the bill and resigned from the Imperial Legislative Council in protest. However, the bill was passed due to the majority of nominated British members who supported it.
Source: Modern History Spectrum Chapter 15 Emergence of Gandhi

24 / 25

24) Consider the following statements regarding to Swarajists:

Swarajists believed in entering legislative councils to expose the colonial system from within.
No-Changers supported continued non-cooperation and boycott of government institutions.
The ideological conflict between Swarajists and No-Changers was resolved during the Gaya Session of 1922.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Swarajists, led by C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru, wanted to contest elections and enter legislative councils to obstruct British policies and use the councils as a political platform.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The No-Changers, led by Rajendra Prasad and Vallabhbhai Patel, did not support council entry. They advocated constructive work, spinning, promotion of khadi, education, and social reform as a means to prepare the masses.
Statement 3 is correct: The split emerged at the Gaya Session (1922), but it was not a permanent rupture. Despite ideological differences, the Swarajists remained within the Congress, and both groups eventually coexisted strategically.
Source: Modern History Spectrum Chapter 17 Emergence of Swarajists, Socialist Ideas, Revolutionary Activities and Other New Forces

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25) The terms “rekha-prasada, phamsana, valabhi” are related to which of the following?

Nagara style of architecture

Dravida style of architecture

Vesara style of architecture

Panchayatan style of architecture

Explanation:

These terms describe different types of temple shikharas (towers) found in the Nagara style.
Rekha-prasada is the curvilinear spire; Phamsana is pyramid-shaped; and Valabhi is a barrel-roofed hall.
Source: Introduction to India Art chapter 6 Temple Architecture and Sculpture

Your score is

Indian History Grand Test 4

1 / 25

1) “With reference to the Simon commission report, consider the following statements”:

The Simon Commission recommended the establishment of a Consultative Council of Greater India to include British provinces and princely states.
The report rejected the idea of federalism and separate electorates for minorities.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Simon Commission proposed a Consultative Council of Greater India, envisioning cooperation between British provinces and princely states, though not immediately.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Contrary to the claim, the Simon Commission supported separate electorates and even recommended their extension to other communities, though it was termed temporary until communal tensions reduced. It also supported federalism, but suggested that it could be implemented in the future, not immediately.
Source: Modern History Spectrum Chapter 18 Simon Commission and the Nehru Report

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2) Consider the following statements regarding the Group of Monuments at Hampi:

Hampi, the capital of the erstwhile Vijayanagar Empire, lies south of the river Tungabhadra.
The Krishna temple at Hampi was built during the reign of Krishnadeva Raya of the Tuluva Dynasty.
It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Hampi lies on the southern bank of the Tungabhadra River in Karnataka. It was once a thriving capital city of the Vijayanagara Empire.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Krishna temple was built earlier, during the reign of Krishnadeva Raya, but it was not a defining feature of his reign. The temple is dedicated to Balakrishna.
Statement 3 is correct: Hampi’s monumental ruins, representing Dravidian architecture, earned UNESCO World Heritage status in 1986.
Source: Introduction to India Art chapter 6 Temple Architecture and Sculpture

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3) Consider the following statements about the Bhimbetka rock shelter site:

Bhimbetka is located in the Vindhya hills of UttarPradesh.
The paintings at Bhimbetka primarily depict scenes of daily life such as animals, hunting, and dancing human figures.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Bhimbetka is situated in the Vindhya ranges, about 45 km south of Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. It covers nearly 10 square kilometers and has more than 800 rock shelters, of which around 500 bear prehistoric paintings. It is considered the most spectacular and richest prehistoric art site in India.
Statement 2 is correct: The paintings at Bhimbetka display a wide range of subjects, including animals like bulls and deer, hunting scenes, stick-like human figures, and dancing scenes. These reflect the daily life and beliefs of the prehistoric people who inhabited the area.

Additional Info:

Bhimbetka was discovered in 1957–58 by archaeologist V.S. Wakankar. The site is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site due to its historical and cultural significance.

Source: Introduction to India Art chapter 1 Prehistoric Rock Paintings

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4) Consider the following statements with reference to the Neolithic age:

Neolithic Culture represents the beginning of settled life with evidence of farming and domestication of animals.
Rice and cotton were not known to the people of this age.
People generally believed in life after death, as inferred from their burial practices.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Neolithic Culture marks the beginning of settled life, characterized by the advent of farming and the domestication of animals. This period saw significant changes from the earlier Paleolithic age, including the development of more polished tools with finer edges.
Statement 2 is incorrect: During the Neolithic age, people began cultivating various crops, including rice and cotton. They started using pots for cooking and weaving cloth from materials like cotton.
Statement 3 is correct: Evidence from burial practices, such as those found in Mehrgarh, suggests that people believed in life after death. Burials with animals indicate that these were intended to serve as food or companions in the afterlife.

Source: Introduction to India Art chapter 1 Prehistoric Rock Paintings

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5) Consider the following pairs with respect to the Harappan Civilization:

Evidence	Site
1. Water reservoirs	Dholavira
2. Ploughed field	Kalibangan
3. Terracotta models of plough	Cholistan and Banawali
4. Traces of canals	Shortughai

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Pair 1: Water reservoirs – Dholavira – Dholavira (Gujarat) is known for its sophisticated water management system, including large reservoirs used to store rainwater.
Pair 2: Ploughed field – Kalibangan – Kalibangan (Rajasthan) revealed the earliest archaeological evidence of a ploughed agricultural field, with furrows arranged in a grid pattern.
Pair 3: Terracotta models of plough – Cholistan and Banawali – These models suggest the knowledge and symbolic representation of plough-based farming. Found in sites such as Cholistan (now in Pakistan) and Banawali (Haryana).
Pair 4: Traces of canals – Shortughai
Shortughai, a Harappan site in present-day Afghanistan, has shown evidence of canal irrigation, pointing to advanced agricultural techniques beyond the core Indus region.
Source: NCERT RS SHARMA Ancient History Chapter Indus valley Civilization

6 / 25

6) With reference to the prehistoric rock paintings found in India, consider the following pairs:

Site/Region	Feature/Significance
1. Lakhudiyar	White, red ochre, and black cave paintings
2. Kupgallu	Neolithic paintings with animal motifs
3. Bhimbetka	Rock shelters with murals from Upper Palaeolithic times

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Pair 1 is correct: Lakhudiyar, in Uttarakhand, has rock paintings in white, red ochre, and black, with human and animal figures and geometric designs.
Pair 2 is correct: Kupgallu in Karnataka features Neolithic art, including animal figures like bulls, elephants, and stylised humans.
Pair 3 is correct: Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh has some of the richest Upper Palaeolithic rock paintings.
Source: Introduction to India Art chapter 1 Prehistoric Rock Paintings

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7) Consider the following statements about the Mauryan Empire:

The Mauryan Empire saw the beginning of monumental stone sculptures and architecture.
Ashoka, a Mauryan emperor, was known for erecting numerous stone pillars with animal capitals across his empire.
The Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath symbolizes Dhammachakrapravartana and is India’s national emblem.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Mauryan Empire marked a significant phase in Indian history where large-scale stone sculptures and architectural styles began to flourish, representing the empire’s grandeur and the advancement in artistic techniques.
Statement 2 is correct. Ashoka, the most renowned Mauryan emperor, is particularly famous for erecting numerous stone pillars across his empire. These pillars often featured meticulously carved animal capitals and bore inscriptions that spread his messages of dharma and governance.
Statement 3 is correct. The Lion Capital at Sarnath, known for its four back-to-back lion figures and intricate carvings, symbolizes Ashoka’s embrace of Buddhist values following his conversion. It was adopted as India’s national emblem, underscoring its historical and cultural significance.
Source: Introduction to India Art chapter 3 Arts of the Mauryan Period

8 / 25

8) Consider the following:

Bulls and elephants
Geometric designs
Hand-linked dancing figures
Inscriptions in Brahmi script

Which of the above given are common subjects depicted in prehistoric cave paintings in India?

1, 2 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 3 and 4 only

1,2,3 and 4

Explanation:

Option 1 is correct: Bulls and elephants are frequently depicted animal figures in prehistoric art.
Option 2 is correct: Geometric designs like wavy lines, rectangles, and dots are common.
Option 3 is correct: Hand-linked dancing figures are found, especially at Lakhudiyar.
Option 4 is incorrect: Brahmi script belongs to the historical period and is not part of prehistoric cave paintings, which lacked language and script.
Source: Introduction to India Art chapter 1 Prehistoric Rock Paintings

9 / 25

9) Consider the following statements regarding bearded priest:

The bearded priest figure from Mohenjodaro is carved in red sandstone.
This figure is adorned with a shawl bearing trefoil designs and wears a headband.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The famous bearded priest figure from Mohenjodaro is not made of red sandstone; it is carved in steatite, a soft stone used extensively in Harappan sculpture. The torso made of red sandstone is a separate Harappan artefact.
Statement 2 is correct: The figure is adorned with a shawl decorated with trefoil motifs draped over the left shoulder and under the right arm. A headband (fillet) circles the head, and the figure also wears an armlet. His half-closed eyes suggest a meditative posture, which has led scholars to interpret the figure as a religious or elite person, possibly a priest.

Source: Introduction to India Art chapter 2 Arts of the Indus Valley

10 / 25

10) Consider the following statements about Harappan seals:

Figures and animals on seals were engraved using the intaglio technique.
Some seals were found made of gold and ivory.
The inscriptions on seals were uniform and repeated across sites.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The intaglio technique involved engraving designs into the surface of a soft material like steatite. These carvings allowed the seals to leave a raised impression when pressed into clay or other soft substances. This method was widely used on Harappan seals.
Statement 2 is correct: Although steatite was the most commonly used material, archaeologists also found seals made of rarer materials like gold and ivory. These were few in number but confirm the variety and artistic innovation of the Harappans.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The inscriptions on the seals varied from one to another. Each seal had distinct characters and symbols, suggesting they may have represented different merchants, owners, or purposes. They were not uniform or repeated, and the script used remains undeciphered to this day.
Source: Introduction to India Art chapter 2 Arts of the Indus Valley

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11) The terms ‘Vedika’, ‘Medhi’, and ‘Chatri’ are associated with which of the following?

Temple rituals of the Gupta period

Decorative motifs in Rajput paintings

Structural components of a Buddhist stupa

Vedic sacrificial altars

Explanation:

The terms Vedika, Medhi, and Chatri are integral to the architectural design and symbolic meaning of a Buddhist stupa, a structure built to enshrine the relics of the Buddha and represent his spiritual teachings.

Vedika: This is the railing or boundary wall enclosing the stupa, demarcating the sacred area. It often features carved panels and toranas (gateways) and guides the circumambulatory path (pradakshina path) for devotees.
Medhi: This refers to the raised platform on which the hemispherical dome (anda) is constructed. It supports the relic mound and is the base level for ritual worship and circumambulation.
Chatri: The chatri is the umbrella-like structure at the top of the stupa, placed above the harmika. It symbolizes ‘axis mundi’, the cosmic axis, and represents the presence of the Buddha or a spiritual protector.

Source: Introduction to India Art chapter 3 Arts of the Mauryan Period

12 / 25

12) Consider the following statements regarding the Bairat Stupa:

The Bairat Stupa is a freestanding circular Buddhist chaityagriha constructed during Ashoka’s reign.
Two of Ashoka’s Minor Rock Edicts were discovered near the Bairat Stupa site.
Bairat was a part of the ancient Mahajanapada of Kuru and was located on the banks of the Yamuna River.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Bairat Stupa, also referred to as the Bairat Temple, is a circular, freestanding Buddhist chaityagriha built during the reign of Emperor Ashoka in the 3rd century BCE. It consists of a central stupa, surrounded by a circular colonnade and enclosed by a circular wall. This structure is considered one of the earliest known examples of a built chaityagriha, predating later rock-cut forms found in western India.
Statement 2 is correct: Near the Bairat site, archaeologists discovered two of Ashoka’s Minor Rock Edicts — the Bairat Minor Rock Edict and the Calcutta-Bairat Minor Rock Edict. These inscriptions affirm Ashoka’s patronage of Buddhism and highlight his efforts to promote moral teachings (Dhamma).
Statement 3 is incorrect: Bairat, historically known as Viratnagar, was the capital of the ancient Mahajanapada of Matsya (also called Machcha) — not Kuru. The Kuru Mahajanapada was located in the western Gangetic plain. Bairat lies in present-day Rajasthan, and the Banganga River, not the Yamuna, originates near it.
Source: Introduction to India Art chapter 3 Arts of the Mauryan Period

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13) Consider the following pairs:

Birth of the Buddha – Lotus
Enlightenment – Bodhi Tree
Dhammachakrapravartana – Wheel
Mahaparinibbana – Stupa

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Pair 1: Birth of the Buddha – Lotus – The lotus is a powerful symbol in Buddhist art, representing purity and divine birth. In early symbolic depictions, the Buddha’s birth is often associated with a lotus flowe.
Pair 2: Enlightenment – Bodhi Tree – The Bodhi Tree, under which Siddhartha attained enlightenment at Bodh Gaya, is a standard symbolic representation for this event.
Pair 3: Dhammachakrapravartana – Wheel (Chakra) -The first sermon at Sarnath, also called Dhammachakrapravartana (Turning the Wheel of Dharma), is universally symbolized by the wheel (chakra). It represents the beginning of the spread of the Buddha’s teachings.
Pair 4: Mahaparinibbana – Stupa – The Mahaparinibbana, or the Buddha’s physical death and entry into final nirvana, is depicted through a stupa, which also houses his relics. The stupa became a focal point of worship and pilgrimage in Buddhism.
Source: Introduction to India Art chapter 3 Arts of the Mauryan Period

14 / 25

14) Consider the following pairs:

List-I (Traditional Theatre Form)

– List-II (Place of Origin)

Bhand Pather – Kashmir
Maach – Madhya Pradesh
Bhavai – Rajasthan
Bhaona – Assam

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Explanation:

Pair 1: Correct. Bhand Pather is a folk theatre form of Kashmir, combining satire, dance, music, and drama. It reflects the agrarian lifestyle and is often performed in villages with live musical accompaniment using instruments like nagaara and dhol.
Pair 2: Correct. Maach is the traditional theatre form of Madhya Pradesh, performed on a raised stage also called “maach.” It emphasizes songs interspersed with dialogues and features themes from mythology and folk tales.
Pair 3: Incorrect. Bhavai is not from Rajasthan; it is the folk theatre form of Gujarat, particularly from Kutch and Kathiawar regions. It mixes devotional and romantic themes and is performed with musical instruments like bhungal, tabla, rabaab, etc.
Pair 4: Correct. Bhaona is a traditional performance art of Assam, created by Srimanta Sankardev to spread the Bhakti movement. It is part of the Ankia Naat tradition and often begins with a Sanskrit invocation, followed by Brajboli or Assamese dialogue.

Source: https://ccrtindia.gov.in/theatre-forms/

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15) Consider the following statements regarding Yakshagana:

Yakshagana is a traditional theatre form of Kerala that draws.
Its themes are primarily from mythological epics like the Ramayana and the Mahabharata.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Yakshagana is a vibrant and dramatic folk theatre tradition of Karnataka, particularly popular in the coastal and Malnad regions.
Statement 2 is correct: Its stories are largely based on episodes from the Mahabharata and the Ramayana, such as Draupadi Swayamvar, Abhimanyu Vadh, Subhadra Vivah, and Baali-Sugreeva Yuddha.
While music is a central component of Yakshagana, the performance is not entirely musical. It includes spoken dialogues, dramatic monologues, theatrical gestures, and stylized acting. The characters engage in verbal exchanges, often with improvisation and local idioms, adding a theatrical richness to the performance.
Source: https://ccrtindia.gov.in/theatre-forms/

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16) Consider the following statements regarding Manipuri Sankirtana.

Sankirtana performers narrate the lives and deeds of Krishna through ritual singing, drumming and dancing of Manipur.
The Choloms which are part of the Sankirtana tradition are the feminine aspect of the dance.

Which of the above statements is /are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct.

Sankirtana encompasses an array of arts performed to mark religious occasions and various stages in the life of the Vaishnava people of the Manipur plains.
Sankirtana practices centre on the temple, where performers narrate the lives and deeds of Krishna through song and dance. In a typical performance, two drummers and about ten singer-dancers perform in a hall or domestic courtyard encircled by seated devotees.
The dignity and flow of aesthetic and religious energy is unparalleled, moving audience members to tears and frequently to prostrate themselves before the performers.
Sankirtana has two main social functions: it brings people together on festive occasions throughout the year, acting as a cohesive force within Manipur’s Vaishnava community; and it establishes and reinforces relationships between the individual and the community through life-cycle ceremonies.
It is thus regarded as the visible manifestation of God.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Kirtan form of congregational singing accompanies the dance which is known as Sankirtana in Manipur. The male dancers play the Pung and Kartal while dancing. The masculine aspect of dance – the Choloms are a part of the Sankirtana tradition. The Pung and Kartal choloms are performed at all social and religious festivals.

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17) Consider the following statements regarding the Gandhara School of art:

Gandhara Buddha images show clear influence of Greco-Roman styles.
The drapery in Gandhara sculptures is detailed with heavy folds.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Gandhara School developed in what is now northwest Pakistan and eastern Afghanistan, during the Kushana period (1st–3rd century CE). It is known for incorporating artistic elements from Greek and Roman traditions. The Buddha images from Gandhara often have curly hair, deeply carved eyes, sharp features, and realistic body proportions.
Statement 2 is correct: One of the most distinct features of Gandhara art is the way the clothes (especially the monastic robes of the Buddha) are shown. The drapery is carved with deep, rhythmic folds that resemble the toga of Roman sculptures. These folds are detailed and cover both shoulders.

Source: Introduction to India Art chapter 4 Post-Mauryan trends in Indian art and architecture

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18) Consider the following pairs:

Medieval Indian Philosophy — Founder

Vishistadvaita — Ramanujacharya
Sivadvaita — Srikanthacharya
Dvaita — Vallabhacharya

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Medieval India Philosphoies

The major religious movements were brought about by the mystics. They contributed to the religious ideas and beliefs. Bhakti saints like Vallabhacharya, Ramanuja, Nimbaraka brought about new philosophical thinking which had its origin in Shankaracharya’s advaita (non-dualism) philosophy.

Vishistadvaita of Ramanujacharya:

Vïshistadvaita means modified monism. The ultimate reality according to this philosophy is Brahman (God) and matter and soul are his qualities.

Sivadvaita of Srikanthacharya:

According to this philosophy the ultimate Brahman is Shiva, endowed with Shakti. Shiva exists in this world as well as beyond it.

Dvaita of Madhavacharya:

The literal meaning of dvaita is dualism which stands in opposition to non-dualism and monism of Shankaracharya. He believed that the world is not an illusion (maya) but a reality full of differences.

Others:

Dvaitadvaita of Nimbaraka:

Dvaitadvaita means dualistic monism. According to this philosophy God transformed himself into world and soul. This world and soul are different from God (Brahman). They could survive with the support of God only. They are separate but dependent.

Suddhadvaita of Vallabhacharya:

Vallabhacharya wrote commentaries on Vedanta Sutra and Bhagavad Gita. For him. Brahman (God) was Sri Krishna who manifested himself as souls and matter. God and soul are not distinct, but one. The stress was on pure non-dualism. His philosophy came to be known as Pushtimarga (the path of grace) and the school was called Rudrasampradaya.
NIOS chapter 14 CULTURAL DEVELOPMENTS IN MEDIEVAL INDIA

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19) Consider the following statements regarding the Kailash Temple at Ellora:

The temple was commissioned by a Rashtrakuta king and carved out of a single rock.
The temple’s sculpture of Ravana shaking Mount Kailash is a celebrated piece of Indian art.
The architecture of the temple blends features of both Pallava and Chalukya styles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Kailash Temple (Cave 16) at Ellora was built under the patronage of Rashtrakuta King Krishna I in the 8th century CE. It is carved entirely from a single monolithic rock, making it one of the world’s largest such structures. The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and features a courtyard surrounded by subsidiary shrines.
Statement 2 is correct: One of the most famous sculptures in the Kailash temple is that of Ravana attempting to lift Mount Kailash, on which Lord Shiva is seated. This panel is widely regarded as a masterpiece of Indian rock-cut sculpture, known for its dynamism and detail.
Statement 3 is correct: The architectural style of the Kailash Temple reflects influences of Pallava and Chalukya traditions. This fusion can be seen in the ornate pillars, multi-tiered shikharas, and detailed sculptural panels which depict scenes from the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
Source: Introduction to India Art chapter 6 Temple Architecture and Sculpture

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20) Consider the following statements:

Jainism, like the Charvakas, rejects the authority of the Vedas.
Jainism denies the existence of the soul, unlike orthodox Hindu philosophies.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Jainism, similar to the Charvaka school, does not accept the authority of the Vedas. It is classified as a heterodox (nastika) philosophy because it rejects Vedic rituals and scriptural supremacy.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Unlike the Charvakas, Jains do believe in the existence of the soul (jiva). In fact, belief in the eternal and conscious soul is one of the foundational elements of Jain metaphysics. The soul undergoes cycles of rebirth until it achieves liberation (moksha).

https://www.nios.ac.in/media/documents/SecICHCour/English/CH.08.pdf

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21) Consider the following pairs:

Samas – Sufi Dance
Zikr – Sacred Chanting
Pir – Sufi master
Raqs – Sufi songs

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

1, 2and 3

Explanation:

Pair 1 is incorrect. Samas refers to the practice of Sufi singing or listening to spiritual music, not dancing.
Pair 2 is correct. Zikr (or Dhikr) involves the chanting of names or sacred formulas to remember and glorify God.
Pair 3 is correct. Pir is a term used for a Sufi master or spiritual guide.
Pair 4 is incorrect. Raqs refers to the practice of Sufi dance, not singing.

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22) With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’?

It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India

It is an ancient style bronze and brasswork still found in southern part of Coromandel area

It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar

It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India

Explanation:

Kalaripayattu is one of the oldest martial art forms in the world, believed to have originated in Kerala, South India, around the 3rd century BCE.
The term derives from:
- Kalari = training ground
- Payattu = fight/practice

Key Features:

Combines strikes, kicks, weaponry, and healing techniques.
Has links to Ayurveda and traditional body-massage techniques like Uzhichil.
Includes training with wooden and metal weapons, as well as unarmed combat.
Still practiced today in Kerala, parts of Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka, with modern adaptations for fitness and self-defense

23 / 25

23) Who among the following rulers issued the Mehrauli Iron Pillar inscription, which celebrates his military conquests?

Chandragupta I

Samudragupta

Chandragupta II

Kumaragupta I

Explanation:

The Mehrauli Iron Pillar inscription is attributed to Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) of the Gupta Empire.
It praises a king who defeated enemies in the Vanga (Bengal) region and whose fame spread across lands. The king is generally identified as Chandragupta II based on historical and linguistic analysis.
The iron pillar is also famous for its rust-resistant metallurgical properties, showcasing the technological advancements of the Gupta era.

24 / 25

24) Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of:

Chalukya

Chandela

Rashtrakuta

Vijayanagara

Explanation:

Kalyaana Mandapas, or marriage halls, were a distinctive and recurring architectural feature of temples constructed during the Vijayanagara Empire (1336–1646 CE). These mandapas were specially built for conducting the ritual divine wedding ceremonies of deities, such as that of Lord Shiva and Parvati, or Lord Vishnu and Lakshmi.
The Vijayanagara rulers, especially under Krishna Deva Raya and other Tuluva dynasty kings, were great patrons of art and temple architecture.
Their temples are characterized by:
- Large gopurams (towering gateways)
- Ranga Mandapas (pillared halls)
- Kalyaana Mandapas with intricately carved pillars, mythological scenes, dancers, and musicians
- Use of granite and extensive open-air corridors
Notable examples of Kalyaana Mandapas include:
- The Vitthala Temple at Hampi, with its world-famous stone chariot and musical pillars
- The Lepakshi Temple in Andhra Pradesh
- The Hazara Rama Temple, which served the royal family and features a Kalyaana Mandapa for ritual purposes

25 / 25

25) Consider the following statements regarding Konark Sun Temple:

The Konark Sun Temple was constructed in the 13th century by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
The temple’s design represents a colossal chariot of the Sun God, drawn by seven horses and featuring twenty-four intricately carved wheels.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Konark Sun Temple, located in Odisha, was built in the 13th century by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. This monumental structure stands as a testament to the architectural prowess and artistic excellence of the time.
Statement 2 is correct: The temple is ingeniously designed to resemble a massive chariot dedicated to the Sun God, Surya. It is drawn by seven exquisitely carved horses and rests on twenty-four intricately crafted wheels. Each wheel is not only a marvel of art but also serves a functional purpose, acting as a sundial to measure time based on the shadows cast by the sun.

Why in News?

The Konark Sun Temple garnered international attention recently when Singapore’s President, Tharman Shanmugaratnam, visited the site during his two-day trip to Odisha in January 2025.

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Indian History Grand Test

05-03-2026