Environment & Ecology Grand Test 12-02-2026 Environment & Ecology Grand Test 1 1 / 25 1) The main sources of carbon dioxide emissions include: Combustion of fossil fuels to generate electricity Use of fossil fuels such as gasoline and diesel in transportation Industrial processes like cement, iron, and steel production through combustion and chemical reactions Increasing afforestation and reforestation activities How many of the above sources of CO₂ emissions are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: Combustion of fossil fuels for electricity generation is a major source of CO₂. Statement 2 – Correct: Use of gasoline and diesel in transportation releases CO₂. Statement 3 – Correct: Industrial processes like cement, iron, and steel production release CO₂ through combustion and chemical reactions. Statement 4 – Incorrect: Afforestation and reforestation actually absorb CO₂, not emit it. Additional Information: Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is the primary greenhouse gas emitted by human activities. Naturally present in the atmosphere as part of the Earth’s carbon cycle (circulation among atmosphere, oceans, soil, plants, and animals). Human activities disrupt the carbon cycle by adding CO₂ and reducing natural sinks (e.g., deforestation). Rise in CO₂ levels since the Industrial Revolution mainly due to human-related emissions. Main sources of CO₂ emissions: Combustion of fossil fuels for electricity. Combustion of fuels like gasoline and diesel for transportation. Industrial processes emitting CO₂ through fossil fuel combustion. Chemical processes (like cement, iron and steel production) releasing CO₂ without combustion. 2 / 25 2) Consider the following sources of human-induced Nitrous Oxide emissions: Synthetic fertilizer uses in agriculture Breakdown of livestock manure and urine Fossil fuel combustion for transportation Production of nitric acid and adipic acid in industries How many of the above are correct sources of human-induced Nitrous Oxide emissions? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Synthetic fertilizer use – Major source of N₂O emissions. Livestock waste – Another major agricultural source. Fossil fuel combustion – Transport sector emits N₂O. Industrial production – Nitric acid and adipic acid production emits N₂O. Additional Information: Nitrous oxide (N₂O) is naturally present in the atmosphere as part of the Earth’s nitrogen cycle. Human activities like agriculture, fossil fuel combustion, wastewater management, and industrial processes are increasing N₂O levels. Natural sources: Emissions mainly from bacteria breaking down nitrogen in soils and oceans. Human-induced sources: Agriculture: Addition of synthetic fertilizers, breakdown of livestock manure and urine (contributed to 6% of N₂O emissions in 2020). Transportation: Burning of transportation fuels. Industry: Production of nitric acid and adipic acid (used for synthetic products like nylon). Removal: Absorbed by certain bacteria or destroyed by ultraviolet radiation and chemical reactions. 3 / 25 3) Consider the following types of fluorinated gases: Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) Methane (CH₄) Perfluorocarbons (PFCs) Sulfur hexafluoride (SF₆) Nitrous oxide (N₂O) How many of the above are correctly classified as fluorinated gases? Only two Only three Only four All five Explanation: Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) – Fluorinated gas Methane (CH₄) – Not a fluorinated gas (natural greenhouse gas) Perfluorocarbons (PFCs) – Fluorinated gas Sulfur hexafluoride (SF₆) – Fluorinated gas Nitrous oxide (N₂O) – Not a fluorinated gas (a separate greenhouse gas) Additional Information: Fluorinated gases are emitted through industrial processes (aluminum, semiconductor manufacturing) and as substitutes for ozone-depleting substances. Very high Global Warming Potentials (GWPs) compared to other greenhouse gases. Spread globally after emission and destroyed only by sunlight in the far upper atmosphere. Most potent and longest-lasting greenhouse gases. Main categories of fluorinated gases: Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) Perfluorocarbons (PFCs) Sulfur hexafluoride (SF₆) 4 / 25 4) At Standard Temperature and Pressure (STP), one Dobson Unit corresponds to how many ozone molecules per meter²? 2.69 × 10²³ molecules 2.69 × 10²² molecules 2.69 × 10²⁰ molecules 2.69 × 10²¹ molecules Explanation: At STP, one Dobson Unit is equal to 2.69 × 10²² molecules per meter². 5 / 25 5) Consider the following statements regarding the Ozone Depleting Substances (Regulation and Control) Rules in India: The ODS Rules were first notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, in the year 2000. The use of CFCs in manufacturing products is prohibited beyond January 1, 2003, except for medical purposes. The use of HCFCs has been completely banned in India since January 1, 2010. India phased out HCFC-141b completely by January 1, 2020. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: The ODS Rules were issued in 2000 under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Statement 2 – Correct: CFC use was prohibited beyond January 1, 2003, except for metered-dose inhalers and other medical uses. Statement 3 – Incorrect: HCFCs are allowed until January 1, 2040; they are not completely banned since 2010. Statement 4 – Correct: India completely phased out HCFC-141b (used in foam manufacturing) by January 1, 2020. Additional Information: Ozone Depleting Substances (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000 were notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. These rules set deadlines for phasing out various ODSs, regulating their production, trade, import, export, and use. Amendments were made in 2001, 2003, 2004, and 2005 to facilitate ODS phase-out across different sectors. CFC use for manufacturing products prohibited after 1st January 2003, except for metered dose inhalers and medical purposes. Halon use prohibited after 1st January 2001, except for essential uses. Carbon tetrachloride, methyl chloroform, and CFCs for inhalers allowed till 1st January 2010. Methyl bromide use allowed till 1st January 2015. HCFCs allowed as interim substitutes up to 1st January 2040. Ozone Depleting Substances (Regulation and Control) Amendment Rules, 2019 were notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Import license for HCFC-141b prohibited from 1st January 2020. India completely phased out HCFC-141b used in foam manufacturing by 1st January 2020. India shifted deliberately towards eco-friendly and energy-efficient technologies, avoiding ozone-depleting substances. 6 / 25 6) Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Credit: A carbon credit represents the right to emit one tonne of carbon or carbon dioxide equivalent. Carbon credits can only be earned by companies operating in developed countries. Under the Kyoto Protocol, companies can either reduce their own emissions or help developing countries to earn carbon credits. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: A carbon credit indeed represents one tonne of carbon dioxide or carbon dioxide-equivalent gases. Statement 2 – Incorrect: Companies in developing countries can also earn carbon credits by reducing emissions and transfer part of those credits to companies in developed countries. Statement 3 – Correct: Under the Kyoto Protocol, companies can either improve their own technology or support developing countries in setting up eco-friendly technology to earn credits. Carbon credit Carbon credit is a tradable certificate or permit representing the right to emit one tonne of carbon dioxide (CO₂) or equivalent gases. One carbon credit = one tonne of CO₂ or equivalent gases. Earning a carbon credit: An organisation producing one tonne less than its allowed carbon emission level earns one carbon credit. Utility of carbon credit: Countries under the Kyoto Protocol have set emission norms to be met. A company can either: (i) Reduce GHG emissions through new/ improved technology, or (ii) Tie up with a developing country, help set up eco-friendly technology, and earn carbon credits. Transfer condition: Only a portion of the credits earned in developing countries can be transferred to the developed country companies. 7 / 25 7) For a carbon offset to be credible, which of the following quality criteria must it satisfy? Additionality Double counting Permanence Leakage prevention Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation: A credible carbon offset must show additionality, ensure permanence, and avoid leakage. Double counting must be prevented, not included as a required quality itself. Additional Information: Carbon offset refers to credits for greenhouse gas (GHG) reductions made elsewhere, like wind farms producing renewable energy. Offsets are sold in metric tonnes of CO₂ equivalent (CO₂e). Buying one tonne of offsets = one less tonne of CO₂ in the atmosphere. Carbon offsetting is often the fastest way for businesses to achieve major emission reductions, also bringing local benefits like jobs, training, community development. For credibility, an offset must: Be additional (would not happen without carbon finance), Be retired from the market (no double counting), Ensure permanence (real and lasting reduction) and avoid leakage (no shifting emissions elsewhere). Example: Business A cannot cut 100 tonnes of CO₂ directly. It funds a project (e.g., solar panels for an Indian village) that reduces 100 tonnes, thus achieving net 100 tonnes reduction globally and aiding local development. 8 / 25 8) Which of the following best describes the Carbon Tax? A limit set on total carbon emissions with tradable permits A direct tax based on the amount of carbon content in fuels A penalty for exceeding emission caps An incentive scheme for renewable energy developers Explanation: A Carbon Tax is a tax levied directly based on the amount of carbon contained in fuels like coal, intended to reduce fossil fuel usage and promote cleaner alternatives. Carbon Tax: A potential alternative to the cap-and-trade system. Tax is based on the amount of carbon in fuels (like coal). Aim: Discourage fossil fuel use and promote renewable energy. Gradual increase over time to support industry transition. 9 / 25 9) Consider the following about initiatives under the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE): Perform Achieve and Trade (PAT) under NMEEE is a market mechanism to enhance energy efficiency in energy-intensive industries. Energy Efficiency Financing Platform (EEFP) under NMEEE provides direct loans exclusively to solar startups. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Perform Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme creates a tradable energy-saving certificates market for large industries. Statement 2 is incorrect: Energy Efficiency Financing Platform (EEFP) is for connecting energy efficiency projects to financiers, not direct loans, and not limited to solar startups. Additional Information: National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE) seeks to strengthen the market for energy efficiency through a conducive regulatory and policy regime. It aims to foster innovative and sustainable business models in the energy efficiency sector. Objective: Promote innovative policy, regulatory frameworks, financing mechanisms, and business models. Create and sustain energy efficiency markets in a transparent and time-bound manner. Mission Goals: Unlock energy efficiency opportunities worth ₹74,000 Crores. By 2014–15: Achieve annual fuel savings exceeding 23 million tonnes of oil equivalent (MTOE). Avoid electricity capacity addition of 19,000 MW. Mitigate CO₂ emissions by 98 million tonnes per year. Four New Initiatives under NMEEE: Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency (MTEE) Energy Efficiency Financing Platform (EEFP) Framework for Energy Efficient Economic Development (FEEED) 10 / 25 10) Consider the following key dimensions identified under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA): Water Efficiency Nutrient Management Industrial Infrastructure Promotion Livelihood Diversification Improved Crop Seeds and Livestock How many of the above are correct as per NMSA’s identified key dimensions? Only two Only three Only four All five Explanation: Water Efficiency – Correct (NMSA key dimension) Nutrient Management – Correct (NMSA key dimension) Industrial Infrastructure Promotion – Incorrect (Not an NMSA objective) Livelihood Diversification – Correct (NMSA key dimension) Improved Crop Seeds and Livestock – Correct (NMSA key dimension) National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) Mission Objectives: Devise strategic agro-climatic plans at the regional level. Enhance agricultural productivity using biotechnology, improved irrigation systems, capacity building, and skill development. Expand Automatic Weather Station networks to panchayat level and link to insurance schemes like Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme and NAIS. Promote “laboratory to land” research through model villages and model farms. Develop long-term strategies for emission reduction through improved crop varieties, livestock management, and farm practices. Realize growth potential of dryland agriculture using drought/pest-resistant crops, resource-conserving technologies, and institutional support. Key Dimensions for Adaptation and Mitigation: Improved Crop Seeds, Livestock, and Fish Culture Water Efficiency Pest Management Improved Farm Practices Nutrient Management Agricultural Insurance Credit Support Markets Access to Information Livelihood Diversification 11 / 25 11) Consider the following sources: Leftover farm organic residue Leftover forest residue Leftover organic urban residue Algal residue Industrial chemical waste How many of the above are sources of bioenergy? Only two Only three Only four All five Explanation: Leftover farm organic residue – Correct source of bioenergy. Leftover forest residue – Correct source of bioenergy. Leftover organic urban residue – Correct source of bioenergy. Algal residue – Correct source of bioenergy. Industrial chemical waste – Not a direct source of bioenergy (it’s categorized as hazardous industrial waste, not bio-residue). Bio Energy Renewable energy derived from biological sources. Used for heat, electricity, or vehicle fuel. Biofuels derived from plant materials are among the most rapidly growing renewable energy technologies. Sources of Bio-Energy: Existing Sources: Leftover organic residue Leftover farm organic residue Leftover forest residue Leftover organic urban residue Algal residue New Sources: Cultivation of short rotation energy crops Social forestry initiatives 12 / 25 12) Consider the following about the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC): The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) was adopted during the Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992. UNFCCC currently has over 100 member countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The UNFCCC was adopted in 1992 during the UN Conference on Environment and Development (Earth Summit) at Rio de Janeiro. Statement 2 is incorrect: UNFCCC has 195 Parties, not just over 100. UN Summit Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) Held at Rio de Janeiro in June 1992. Adopted the first multilateral legal instrument on climate change: UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). About UNFCCC: In 1992, countries joined the UNFCCC to cooperatively limit average global temperature increases and manage impacts of climate change. 195 Parties have joined the Convention. UNFCCC Secretariat supports: Conference of the Parties (COP). Subsidiary Bodies (advisory to COP). COP Bureau (procedural and technical matters). Significance: All subsequent international negotiations on climate change adaptation and mitigation are based on UNFCCC principles. Timeline of International Climate Policy: 1988: WMO and UNEP established Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC). 1990: IPCC released its First Assessment Report: Confirmed human activities substantially increase greenhouse gas concentrations. Second World Climate Conference held. UN General Assembly established Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC) for a Framework Convention. 1992: UNFCCC, along with UN Convention on Biological Diversity and Convention to Combat Desertification, adopted at Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro. 13 / 25 13) Consider the following targets set under the India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP): Reduce cooling demand across sectors by 20% to 25% by 2037–38. Reduce refrigerant demand by 25% to 30% by 2037–38. Reduce cooling energy requirements by 20% to 30% by 2037–38. Train and certify 1,00,000 servicing sector technicians by 2027–28 under Skill India Mission. How many of the above targets are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: ICAP targets a 20–25% reduction in cooling demand by 2037–38. Statement 2 – Correct: A 25–30% reduction in refrigerant demand is targeted by 2037–38. Statement 3 – Incorrect: ICAP aims for a 25–40% reduction in cooling energy requirements, not just 20–30%. Statement 4 – Incorrect: 1,00,000 technicians are to be trained by 2022–23, not 2027–28. India Cooling Action Plan (ICAP) India is the first country in the world to develop a dedicated Cooling Action Plan. Cooling is a cross-sectoral requirement, essential for economic growth. The plan targets a 20-year horizon focused on: Reduction of cooling demand. Refrigerant transition. Energy efficiency enhancement. Better technology options. Overarching Goal: Sustainable cooling and thermal comfort for all. Securing environmental and socio-economic benefits. Reducing direct and indirect emissions. Targets under ICAP: Reduce cooling demand across sectors by 20% to 25% by 2037-38. Reduce refrigerant demand by 25% to 30% by 2037-38. Reduce cooling energy requirements by 25% to 40% by 2037-38. Recognize “cooling and related areas” as a thrust area under the National Science & Technology Programme. Train and certify 100,000 servicing sector technicians by 2022-23, synergized with the Skill India Mission. Key Benefits: Thermal comfort for all — especially for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) and Low Income Groups (LIG). Sustainable cooling — promoting low GHG emissions solutions. Doubling farmers’ income — via better cold chain infrastructure, reducing wastage and improving produce value. Skilled workforce — creating better livelihood opportunities and promoting environmental protection. Make in India boost — domestic manufacturing of air-conditioning and cooling equipment. Robust R&D — encouraging alternative cooling technologies and innovation. 14 / 25 14) Consider the following statements regarding the Kyoto Protocol (KP): The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in 1997 but came into force only in 2005. The Kyoto Protocol operationalizes the UNFCCC by committing industrialized countries to stabilize greenhouse gas emissions. The Kyoto Protocol requires both developed and developing countries equally to reduce emissions. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: Adopted in 1997, entered into force in 2005 after ratification. Statement 2 – Correct: It operationalizes the Convention by setting binding commitments for industrialized countries. Statement 3 – Incorrect: Only developed countries have binding emission targets under KP, not developing countries. Kyoto Protocol (COP-3): Adopted at Kyoto, Japan on 11 December 1997. Entered into force on 16 February 2005 after a complex ratification process. Operationalizes the UNFCCC by committing industrialized countries to stabilize greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. Key Differences: The Convention only encouraged GHG reductions. The Kyoto Protocol legally binds developed nations to reduce emissions. Targets: Sets binding emission reduction targets for 37 industrialized countries and the European Community. Based on the principle of “common but differentiated responsibility”. Recognizes that developed countries are largely responsible for the current high levels of GHGs due to 150 years of industrial activity. Aims for an average 5% reduction of emissions compared to 1990 levels over the first commitment period (2008–2012). Architecture of the Kyoto Protocol: Reporting and Verification Procedures — regular monitoring and transparency. Flexible Market-Based Mechanisms — like Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), Joint Implementation (JI), and Emissions Trading (ET). Compliance System — to ensure that countries meet their commitments. Essence: Two major elements make the Kyoto Protocol effective: Rigorous reporting, verification, and compliance. Market mechanisms allowing flexibility in how countries meet their targets. 15 / 25 15) Consider the following initiatives by India related to REDD+: Setting up a National REDD+ Coordinating Agency. Instituting a National Forest Carbon Accounting Programme. Launching the Green India Mission under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). Establishing the Indian Space Research Centre for Forest Studies. How many of the above initiatives are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: India is setting up a National REDD+ Coordinating Agency. Statement 2 – Correct: National Forest Carbon Accounting Programme is being institutionalized. Statement 3 – Correct: Green India Mission is a major initiative under NAPCC linked to REDD+ goals. Statement 4 – Incorrect: No Indian Space Research Centre for Forest Studies exists; this is a made-up term. Additional Information REDD (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation) Global effort to incentivize developing countries to protect, manage, and save forests. Contributes to the global fight against climate change. REDD+ – Goes beyond REDD: Includes conservation, sustainable forest management, and enhancement of forest carbon stocks. Focuses on positive incentives for expanding and improving forest areas. Mechanism: Creates financial value for carbon stored and enhanced in forests. Countries that reduce emissions can receive funds as incentives. Additional Benefits: Improves livelihoods of communities. Enhances biodiversity conservation and food security services. India’s Benefits from REDD+: India’s forest conservation efforts can earn carbon service incentives. Incentives to be passed to local communities managing forests. Potential to capture over 1 billion tonnes of additional CO₂ over 30 years. Possible earning of USD 3 billion under REDD+ mechanism. India’s Position on REDD+: Advocates for a broader REDD+ approach, not just REDD alone. Successfully influenced the Bali Action Plan (COP-13) to add conservation and sustainable management to REDD. Presented the Green India Mission under National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). India’s Initiatives Related to REDD+: Submission to UNFCCC on REDD, Sustainable Forest Management (SMF), Afforestation & Reforestation (A&R) (December 2008). Formation of a Technical Group to develop monitoring methods for REDD+ actions. Establishing a National REDD+ Coordinating Agency. Setting up a National Forest Carbon Accounting Programme. Hosted COP-10 of CBD in 2012. Impact study of climate change on Indian forests by INCCA (released November 2010). Findings: Net Primary Productivity (NPP) projected to increase by 20–57% under climate change scenarios. India’s Vision for Future Climate Cooperation: Focus on adaptation and global mitigation. Ensure fairness and equity in international measures. Uphold the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR). Emphasis on concessional finance, technology access, and support for developing countries. India committed to efficient and equitable global climate solutions while addressing its development challenges. 16 / 25 16) Consider the following areas: Biological Diversity Climate Change International Waters Land Degradation Ozone Layer Depletion Nuclear Energy Safety How many of the above are focal areas of the Global Environment Facility (GEF)? Only three Only four Only five Only Six Explanation: Biological Diversity – Focal area of GEF. Climate Change – Focal area of GEF. International Waters – Focal area of GEF. Land Degradation (Desertification and Deforestation) – Focal area of GEF. Ozone Layer Depletion – Focal area of GEF. Nuclear Energy Safety – Not a focal area of GEF. Additional Information GEF (Global Environment Facility) Named in Article 21 to serve as the financial mechanism on an interim basis. Origin of GEF: Established in 1991 by the World Bank in consultation with UNDP and UNEP. Purpose: Provide funding to protect the global environment. Governance: Set out in the Instrument for the Establishment of the Restructured GEF (adopted in 1994, amended in 2002). UNFCCC Article 11 Creates a financial mechanism for implementing the Convention. Functions under the guidance and accountability of the UNFCCC COP (Conference of Parties). Role of COP: Decides on the policies, program priorities, and eligibility criteria related to the Convention’s financial mechanism. Six Focal Areas of GEF: Biological diversity Climate change International waters Land degradation (primarily desertification and deforestation) Ozone layer depletion Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) 17 / 25 17) The National Mission for Electric Mobility (NCEM) was set up to promote electric mobility in India due to which of the following reasons? Fast dwindling petroleum resources Impact of vehicles on environment and climate change Worldwide shift towards efficient drive technologies and alternative fuels Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Explanation: All three factors — dwindling petroleum, environmental concerns, and global industry shift — influenced the formation of NCEM. National Mission for Electric Mobility (NMEM) Set up to promote electric mobility and manufacturing of electric vehicles in India. Three Factors Influencing NMEM: Fast dwindling petroleum resources Impact of vehicles on environment and climate change Worldwide shift towards efficient drive technologies and alternative fuels, including electric vehicles Barriers to Electric Mobility: Higher cost of electric vehicles. Challenges in battery technology. Consumer mindset issues. Inadequate government support. Objective of NMEM: Provide government intervention and support. Use a mission-mode approach for fast decision making. Ensure collaboration among various stakeholders. NCEM (National Council for Electric Mobility): Acts as apex body to make recommendations. 18 / 25 18) Consider the following powers of the Central Zoo Authority: Granting recognition to zoos Permitting acquisition of wild or captive animals Issuing certificate of ownership for private animal collections Declaring critical tiger habitats How many of the above powers are correct regarding the Central Zoo Authority? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: CZA grants recognition to zoos based on compliance with norms. Statement 2 – Correct: CZA provides permission for acquisition of wild/captive animals. Statement 3 – Correct: CZA grants certificate of ownership in appropriate cases. Statement 4 – Incorrect: Declaring critical tiger habitats is handled by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), not CZA. Additional Information: Central Zoo Authority Created through the amendment of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 in 1991. Oversees the functioning and development of zoos across India. Only zoos operating as per prescribed norms would be granted recognition by the Authority. Functions of Central Zoo Authority: Specify minimum standards for housing, upkeep, and veterinary care of zoo animals. Evaluate and assess zoo functioning against prescribed norms. Recognize and derecognize zoos. Identify endangered species for captive breeding and assign responsibility to zoos. Coordinate acquisition, exchange, and loaning of animals for breeding purposes. Ensure maintenance of stud-books for endangered species bred in captivity. Identify priorities and themes for the display of captive animals. Coordinate training of zoo personnel in India and abroad. Coordinate research in captive breeding and educational programs. Provide technical and other assistance for scientific zoo management and development. Perform other necessary functions under the Act related to zoos. Powers of Central Zoo Authority: Recognition of zoos Permission for acquisition of wild or captive animals. Cognizance of offences related to zoo operations. Grant of licenses, certificates of ownership, and recognitions 19 / 25 19) Consider the following objectives of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD): Conservation of biological diversity Sustainable use of biodiversity components Ensuring free commercial use of genetic resources without benefit-sharing Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources How many of the above objectives are correct as per the CBD? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: Conservation of biodiversity is a major objective. Statement 2 – Correct: Sustainable use of biodiversity components is another goal. Statement 3 – Incorrect: CBD requires fair and equitable sharing, not “free” commercial use. Statement 4 – Correct: Fair and equitable benefit-sharing is a key pillar. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) A legally binding convention recognizing biodiversity conservation as a common concern of humankind. Covers all ecosystems, species, and genetic resources. Objectives of CBD: Conservation of biological diversity Sustainable use of biodiversity components Fair and equitable sharing of benefits from the use of genetic resources. Promotes access to genetic resources, transfer of relevant technologies, and appropriate funding. Three Main Goals: Conservation of biodiversity. Sustainable use of biodiversity components. Fair and equitable sharing of benefits from commercial and other uses of genetic resources. The CBD emphasizes that substantial investments are needed but offers significant environmental, economic, and social benefits in return. 20 / 25 20) The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 in India was enacted primarily to achieve the objectives of which international agreement? Kyoto Protocol Cartagena Protocol United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) Paris Agreement Explanation: The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 was enacted to meet India’s obligations under the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) of 1992. Biological Diversity Act, 2002 Enacted to fulfill India’s commitment to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD, 1992) recognizing sovereign rights over biological resources. Purpose: Conservation of biodiversity Sustainable use of its components Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of genetic resources Three-tier structure: National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) State Biodiversity Boards (SBB) Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at local level 21 / 25 21) The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety focuses primarily on: Reducing emissions of greenhouse gases Protecting marine biodiversity from overfishing Safe transfer, handling, and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) Regulating deforestation and desertification Explanation: The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety ensures an adequate level of protection during the transfer, handling, and use of LMOs resulting from modern biotechnology. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety Focus on protecting human health and the environment from adverse effects of modern biotechnology. Key Areas: Access to and transfer of safe biotechnologies Procedures for ensuring biosafety Objective: To ensure safe transfer, handling, and use of Living Modified Organisms (LMOs) affecting biodiversity and human health. Provisions: Regulates import and export of LMOs between countries. Safe handling, packaging, and transport of LMOs. Shipments must have proper documentation identifying LMOs and safety instructions. 22 / 25 22) Consider the following statements regarding TRAFFIC (The Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network): TRAFFIC is a joint conservation program of WWF and IUCN. TRAFFIC was established mainly in response to the enforcement of the CITES agreement. TRAFFIC works independently and does not collaborate with governments or CITES Secretariat. TRAFFIC’s goal is to ensure wildlife trade is sustainable and not a threat to nature. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: TRAFFIC is a joint program of WWF and IUCN. Statement 2 – Correct: It was established in 1976, mainly as a response to CITES coming into force. Statement 3 – Incorrect: TRAFFIC collaborates closely with governments and CITES Secretariat; it does not work independently. Statement 4 – Correct: Its goal is to ensure wildlife trade is sustainable and not a threat to nature. TRAFFIC: The Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network TRAFFIC is a joint conservation programme of WWF and IUCN. Established in 1976 by the Species Survival Commission of IUCN, in response to the enforcement of CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora). TRAFFIC International is based in Cambridge, UK, with offices on five continents. Largest wildlife trade monitoring programme globally and recognized as a leading expert on wildlife trade issues. Works closely with governments and the CITES Secretariat. Goal Ensure that trade in wild plants and animals does not threaten the conservation of nature. Vision A world where wildlife trade is sustainable, does not harm ecological systems, and Contributes to human needs, Supports local and national economies, and Encourages conservation of wild species and their habitats. 23 / 25 23) Consider the following about the Coalition Against Wildlife Trafficking (CAWT): CAWT was initiated in 2005 as a voluntary public-private coalition against illegal wildlife trade. CAWT does not carry out enforcement activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: CAWT was indeed initiated in 2005 as a voluntary coalition of governments and organizations. Statement 2 is correct: CAWT does not carry out enforcement activities; it focuses on awareness, training, and political support. Additional Information: Coalition Against Wildlife Trafficking (CAWT) CAWT aims to focus public and political attention on ending illegal trade in wildlife and wildlife products. Initiated in 2005, it is a voluntary public-private coalition of like-minded governments and organizations. Goals: Improve wildlife law enforcement by expanding training, sharing information, and strengthening regional networks. Reduce consumer demand by raising awareness about illegal wildlife trade impacts on biodiversity, livelihoods, human health, and organized crime. Catalyse high-level political will to fight wildlife trafficking. CAWT complements national, regional, and international efforts, including work under CITES. Note: CAWT is not directly involved in enforcement activities. 24 / 25 24) Consider the following statements regarding IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature): IUCN was originally founded as the International Union for the Protection of Nature (IUPN) in 1948. IUCN is headquartered in Paris, France. The vision of IUCN is to create a just world that values and conserves nature. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: IUCN was initially founded as International Union for the Protection of Nature (IUPN) in 1948 at Fontainebleau, France. Statement 2 – Incorrect: IUCN’s headquarters is in Gland, Switzerland, not Paris. Statement 3 – Correct: IUCN’s vision is a just world that values and conserves nature. International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Founded: October 1948 as International Union for the Protection of Nature (IUPN); renamed to IUCN in 1956. Headquarters: Gland, Switzerland. Vision: A just world that values and conserves nature. Mission: To influence, encourage, and assist societies to conserve nature’s integrity and diversity, ensuring equitable and sustainable use of natural resources. Functions: Supports scientific research. Manages global field projects. Brings together governments, NGOs, UN agencies, companies, and local communities for policy development and implementation. Membership: Includes States and Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs). Role: Acts as a neutral forum for finding practical solutions to conservation and development challenges. Priority Areas: Biodiversity Climate change Sustainable energy Human well-being Green economy 25 / 25 25) Consider the following focus areas of IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature): Biodiversity Climate Change Sustainable Energy Human well-being Green Economy How many of the above are priority areas of IUCN? Only two Only three Only four All five Explanation: Biodiversity – Priority area of IUCN. Climate Change – Priority area. Sustainable Energy – Priority area of IUCN. Human Well-being – Priority area. Green Economy – Priority area. Your score is 0% Environment & Ecology Grand Test 2 1 / 25 1) Consider the following examples of wastes: Biomedical and healthcare wastes Used oils Used lead-acid batteries Persistent Organic Pollutant (POP) wastes Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) How many of the above are examples of wastes regulated by the Basel Convention? Only two Only three Only four All five Explanation: Biomedical and healthcare wastes – Regulated under Basel Convention. Used oils – Regulated. Used lead-acid batteries – Regulated. Persistent Organic Pollutant (POP) wastes – Regulated. Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) – Regulated. Basel Convention (1989) Adopted: 22 March 1989, Basel, Switzerland. Reason: Public outcry over toxic waste dumping in Africa and developing countries. Objective: Protect human health and the environment against adverse effects of hazardous wastes. Scope: Covers hazardous wastes (by origin, composition, characteristics) and other wastes (household waste, incinerator ash). Principal Aims: Reduce hazardous waste generation. Promote environmentally sound management of hazardous wastes. Restrict transboundary movements of hazardous wastes except under proper management. Implement a regulatory system for allowable transboundary movements. Definition of Waste: Substances/objects disposed of, intended to be disposed of, or required to be disposed of under national law. Key Annexes: Annex I: Lists hazardous wastes (clarified in Annexes VIII and IX). Annex II: Lists “other wastes” needing special consideration (mainly household waste). Examples of Wastes under Basel Convention: Biomedical and healthcare wastes Used oils Used lead acid batteries Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) wastes Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs) Thousands of chemical wastes from industries and consumers 2 / 25 2) Which of the following statements best describes the unit Rem? It measures the atmospheric concentration of carbon dioxide. It indicates the biological damage caused by radiation. It measures the intensity of visible light. It indicates the amount of particulate matter in the air. Explanation: Rem is a unit that estimates the biological injury produced in humans from absorption of radiation like X-rays or gamma rays. 3 / 25 3) Which radioactive isotope, produced during nuclear tests, enters the food chain via milk and primarily damages the thyroid gland, especially in children? Strontium-90 Iodine-131 Radium-226 Uranium-238 Explanation: Iodine-131 contaminates vegetation, enters the cattle’s milk, and on human consumption, causes serious thyroid damage, especially in children. 4 / 25 4) Consider the following statements regarding DDT (Dichloro-Diphenyl-Trichloroethane): DDT bio-magnifies across the food chain and affects fish, turtles, birds, and humans. DDT interferes with egg shell formation in birds by disrupting steroid hormones. DDT is easily degradable in soil and water, it not safe for long-term use. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: DDT bio-magnifies and affects multiple species across food chains. Statement 2 – Correct: DDT interferes with steroid hormones, causing fragile eggshells in birds. Statement 3 – Incorrect: DDT is not easily degradable; it is persistent in the environment. DDT (Dichloro-Diphenyl-Trichloroethane) Toxic pesticide, non-biodegradable and persists long in the environment. Bio-magnification: DDT accumulates from water → fish → birds → humans. Impact: Fish and turtles die by eating DDT-contaminated food. Bird populations decline due to fragile eggs (DDT interferes with steroid hormones). DDT found in milk fat—dangerous for infants. 5 / 25 5) Consider the following statements regarding Lead in Paints: Lead in paints is banned worldwide, including India. Lead exposure damages the central nervous system and brain, especially in children. Lead continues to be used in paints mainly because using substitutes increases cost and reduces paint performance. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 – Incorrect: Lead is not yet banned in India completely. Statement 2 – Correct: Lead exposure damages the brain and central nervous system, especially in children. Statement 3 – Correct: Paint manufacturers prefer lead because substitutes increase cost and reduce performance. Lead in Paints Harmful chemical still used in paints in India (banned elsewhere). Lead dust (from windows, doors) → main source of poisoning. Impact: Young children highly vulnerable—damages brain and central nervous system. Paint makers prefer lead as substitutes are costly and reduce performance. 6 / 25 6) Consider the following statements regarding Transfats: Transfats are formed during hydrogenation of oils, giving them longer shelf life. The FSSAI mandated less than 2% transfat content in food products from January 2022. WHO’s REPLACE program targets the complete elimination of transfats from global food supply. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: Transfats are created by adding hydrogen to oils to increase shelf life. Statement 2 – Correct: FSSAI mandated less than 2% transfat in food items from January 2022. Statement 3 – Correct: WHO’s REPLACE initiative aims at the global elimination of industrially produced transfats. Transfat Formed during hydrogenation of oils (example: vanaspati). Problems: Causes diabetes, heart disease, cancer. Junk food high in transfats leads to obesity, hypertension, early health issues. Regulation: FSSAI: Food items should have less than 2% transfat (effective from Jan 2022). WHO: Released REPLACE guide to eliminate industrial transfats globally. 7 / 25 7) Pneumoconiosis or Black Lung Disease mainly affects workers in which industry? Chemical Industry Agriculture Coal Mining Fishing Industry Explanation: Coal miners frequently develop Pneumoconiosis due to prolonged inhalation of coal dust, leading to serious lung diseases. Pneumoconiosis (Black Lung Disease) Cause: Coal dust deposition in lungs of coal miners. Effect: Serious lung disease, reduced lung function. 8 / 25 8) The term Yokkaichi Asthma refers to a disease caused by: Exposure to cadmium pollution High nitrate contamination in groundwater Sulfur oxide-induced smog pollution Coal dust deposition in the lungs Explanation: Yokkaichi Asthma was caused by burning of petroleum and crude oil, releasing sulfur oxides that led to severe respiratory diseases in Japan between 1960 and 1972. Yokkaichi Asthma Happened in Yokkaichi, Japan (1960–1972). Cause: Burning of petroleum → release of sulfur oxides → severe smog. Effect: Chronic bronchitis, COPD, pulmonary emphysema, and bronchial asthma. 9 / 25 9) The medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria, growing across different Himalayan regions, shows variation in the potency and concentration of its active chemical compound, reserpine. This variation within the same species across its geographical range is an example of which one of the following types of biodiversity? Species diversity Genetic diversity Ecological diversity Ecosystem resilience Explanation: Genetic Diversity: Refers to variations at the genetic level within a species across its range. Example: Different populations of Rauwolfia vomitoria produce reserpine in varying potencies and concentrations due to genetic differences. Species Diversity: Refers to the variety of species within a habitat or region. Ecological Diversity: Refers to the variety of ecosystems within a geographical location. Ecosystem Resilience: Refers to the ability of an ecosystem to recover from disturbances, not to variation within species 10 / 25 10) Consider the following statements Regarding Biodiversity : Alpha diversity refers to species diversity within a specific area or ecosystem. Beta diversity measures overall diversity of species across different ecosystems within a region. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. Alpha diversity measures species richness within a particular ecosystem or area. It is simply the number of species in a given, specific habitat. Statement 2: Incorrect. Beta diversity refers to the comparison of species diversity between two ecosystems, measuring the change or turnover in species composition. The overall diversity for multiple ecosystems across a region is called Gamma diversity, not Beta diversity. Summary Table: Type of Diversity Meaning Alpha Diversity Species diversity within a single ecosystem/area. Beta Diversity Difference in species between ecosystems (species turnover). Gamma Diversity Overall diversity across different ecosystems in a region. 11 / 25 11) Which of the following are among the seven big cat species focused on by the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA)? Tiger Lion Snow Leopard Puma Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only All four Explanation: Tiger — Included Lion — Included Snow Leopard — Included Puma — Included Thus, all four are among the seven big cat species covered by IBCA. Additional Important Information for IBCA: Feature Details Full Form International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) Launch Date April 9, 2023 (50 Years of Project Tiger) Treaty-based Establishment January 23, 2025 Approval by Union Cabinet February 2024 Founder National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), under MoEFCC Headquarters India Objective Global conservation of big cats through collaboration Seven Big Cats covered Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar, Puma Countries that Ratified Nicaragua, Eswatini, India, Somalia, Liberia (initially) Total countries onboard 27 IBCA focuses on cross-border collaboration for the conservation of these species. India took a leadership role globally by forming a platform similar to the spirit of Project Tiger, but now on an international scale. Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2107821 12 / 25 12) Consider the following statements regarding Rhodophyceae: Red pigment r-phycoerythrin gives Rhodophyceae their colour. Rhodophyceae are found only in well-lighted surface waters. Food is stored as floridean starch in Rhodophyceae. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 is correct – Rhodophyceae (red algae) appear red because of the predominance of the pigment r-phycoerythrin, which absorbs blue-green light and reflects red light. This adaptation allows them to survive even in deeper oceanic waters where only blue-green light penetrates. Statement 2 is incorrect – Rhodophyceae are found both in well-lighted shallow waters and at great depths where very little light penetrates. Their pigment system allows them to photosynthesize even under low light conditions at considerable depths. Statement 3 is correct – Rhodophyceae store food as floridean starch, a polysaccharide similar in structure to amylopectin (a component of starch) and glycogen. It is distinct from the typical starch found in green plants. 13 / 25 13) What is the theme for United Nations World Wildlife Day (WWD) in 2025? Sustaining All Life on Earth Recovering Key Species for Ecosystem Restoration Forests and Livelihoods: Sustaining People and Planet Wildlife Conservation Finance: Investing in People and Planet Explanation: The United Nations World Wildlife Day (WWD) is observed annually on March 3rd to celebrate the role of wild animals and plants in maintaining ecosystem health and supporting human well-being. The theme for WWD 2025 is “Wildlife Conservation Finance: Investing in People and Planet.” This theme highlights the critical need for sustainable financing mechanisms to protect biodiversity while also ensuring benefits to local communities. It focuses on the idea that investment in wildlife conservation directly supports ecosystem health, livelihood security, and planetary sustainability. 14 / 25 14) Consider the following statements regarding Latitudinal Gradients: Species diversity generally increases as we move from the equator towards the poles. The Amazon rainforest exhibits the highest biodiversity on Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1: Incorrect. Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles. Tropical regions (23.5° N to 23.5° S) have maximum biodiversity, while temperate and polar zones support fewer species. Statement 2: Correct. The Amazon rainforest is the richest biodiversity hotspot on Earth, with: 40,000+ plant species, 3,000 fishes, 1,300 birds, 427 mammals, 427 amphibians, 378 reptiles, Over 1,25,000 invertebrates, along with millions of undiscovered insect species. 15 / 25 15) Kachnar, a medicinal plant commonly used in India, is primarily utilized for treating which of the following? Blood pressure regulation Eye sores treatment Asthma and digestive problems Diabetes control Explanation: Kachnar is widely used to cure asthma and ulcers. The buds and roots of Kachnar are beneficial for digestive problems. It is one of the commonly used medicinal plants listed in Ayurveda and traditional practices in India. 16 / 25 16) Consider the following statements regarding Similipal Tiger Reserve: Similipal is the world’s only home to wild melanistic tigers. It is the first national park to be notified in Odisha. Similipal is known for its mixed forests of sal trees, moist deciduous, and semi-evergreen vegetation. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 is correct – Similipal, located in Odisha’s Mayurbhanj district, is globally unique for being the only natural habitat of wild melanistic tigers. These tigers have a pseudo-melanistic trait where their black stripes are so wide and close together that the tiger appears almost completely black. This genetic feature is extremely rare in wild tiger populations elsewhere. Statement 2 is incorrect – Similipal is the second national park of Odisha. The first is Bhitarkanika National Park, known mainly for its mangroves and saltwater crocodiles. Although Similipal was proposed as a national park in 1980, it was officially notified only in April 2024, making it Odisha’s second, not first, national park. Statement 3 is correct – Similipal’s vegetation is highly diverse, consisting of sal-dominated forests, moist deciduous trees, and semi-evergreen patches. This rich variety supports over 360 species of birds, mammals like royal Bengal tigers, leopards, elephants, sambar, mugger crocodiles, and about 104 species of orchids, many of which are endemic to the region. 17 / 25 17) A traveler plans a road trip visiting three wildlife sanctuaries in Telangana: Kawal, Pocharam, and Eturunagaram. If he wishes to visit them from west to east based on their geographic locations, what would be the correct sequence? Eturunagaram → Pocharam → Kawal Pocharam → Kawal → Eturunagaram Kawal → Pocharam → Eturunagaram Kawal → Eturunagaram → Pocharam Explanation: Kawal Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the western part of Telangana (near Adilabad district). Pocharam Wildlife Sanctuary is located east of Kawal, closer to Medak district. Eturunagaram Wildlife Sanctuary lies further east, near Warangal district, close to the border with Chhattisgarh. 18 / 25 18) The Sahyadri Tiger Reserve (STR) was in news due to the translocation of tigers. It forms a common boundary between: Maharashtra Karnataka Goa Gujarat Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Maharashtra: Sahyadri Tiger Reserve is located in Maharashtra, covering Kolhapur, Satara, Sangli, and Ratnagiri districts. It includes Chandoli National Park and Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary. Karnataka: STR is part of the larger Sahyadri-Konkan corridor, which links to forested areas of Karnataka. Goa: The corridor also extends into forest patches of Goa. Gujarat: Incorrect. Gujarat does not share a boundary with STR and is not part of the Western Ghats system linked to STR. Additional Information: Objective of Translocation: To repopulate the Sahyadri Tiger Reserve where tiger numbers have remained historically low due to poaching, reduced prey base, and habitat degradation. Source of Tigers: Tigers will be translocated from Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR) in Chandrapur district, eastern Maharashtra. Ecosystem: The reserve features dense evergreen, semi-evergreen, and moist deciduous forests typical of the northern Western Ghats. Establishment: Sahyadri Tiger Reserve was officially created in January 2010. 19 / 25 19) Consider the following statements regarding Oleander (Nerium oleander): Oleander is drought-tolerant and used for landscaping. API (Ayurvedic Pharmacopoeia of India) mentions oleander for treating respiratory diseases. White-flowered oleander is used in Ayurveda for treating skin diseases. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 is correct – Oleander (Nerium oleander) is valued for its drought resistance and is widely planted for ornamental and green fencing purposes, especially in tropical and subtropical regions. Statement 2 is incorrect – The Ayurvedic Pharmacopoeia of India (API) refers to oleander mainly for external treatment of skin diseases, not for respiratory ailments. An oil from its root bark is used against chronic skin disorders. Statement 3 is correct – In Ayurveda, especially mentioned in classical texts like the Charak Samhita, the white-flowered variety of oleander is prescribed for chronic and obstinate skin diseases, including leprosy. 20 / 25 20) which one of the following species depends exclusively on bats for pollination? Neem Ebony tree Khejri Jamun Explanation: Certain tropical trees like the Ebony tree rely on bats for pollination. Bats act as keystone species here — loss of bats ➔ no pollination ➔ failure in tree regeneration ➔ disturbance in ecosystem. This showcases the interconnectedness between keystone species and ecosystem health. 21 / 25 21) Foundation species are best described as: Species that live underground and enrich soil Carnivores that maintain prey populations Dominant primary producers shaping the ecosystem structure Animals that initiate new ecosystems in barren areas Explanation: Foundation species are abundant primary producers that create habitats for many other species. Their physical structure (e.g., kelp forests, coral reefs) supports diverse organisms. They form the “foundation” upon which the ecosystem stands. 22 / 25 22) Consider the following statements regarding biogeographic realms: Biogeographic realms are large regions with broadly similar flora and fauna. The entire Indian subcontinent falls under the Palearctic Realm. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. Biogeographic realms are continent or subcontinent-sized regions. They are characterized by ecosystems with broadly similar biological communities (plants and animals) shaped by long-term geographical and evolutionary history. For example: Palearctic, Malayan, Nearctic, Neotropical realms. Statement 2: Incorrect. The entire Indian subcontinent does not fall under a single realm. India is divided into two realms: The Himalayan region belongs to the Palearctic Realm (which also includes parts of Europe and North Asia). The rest of India (Peninsular India, Indo-Gangetic plains, North East India, Western Ghats, etc.) falls under the Malayan Realm, part of the larger Indo-Malayan biogeographic region. Thus, India straddles both realms, not confined to the Palearctic only. 23 / 25 23) Consider the following statements regarding Bryophytes: Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant kingdom. Bryophytes depend on water for fertilization. Bryophytes help in plant succession on bare rocks and soil. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 is correct – Bryophytes are referred to as amphibians of the plant kingdom because they grow on land but need water for completing their reproductive cycle. Statement 2 is correct – Bryophytes require water for fertilization as the motile male gametes (antherozoids) swim through a film of water to reach the female gametes (archegonia). Statement 3 is correct – Bryophytes are pioneers in ecological succession, colonizing bare rocks and soils, helping in soil formation and enabling the establishment of later plant species. 24 / 25 24) Consider the following description: Cold-blooded animals with dry skin and scales. Usually lay eggs and have ear holes instead of external ears. Possess either four legs or no legs. Which group of animals is being described? Amphibians Reptiles Mammals Birds Explanation: Reptiles are ectothermic (cold-blooded) animals, meaning their body temperature depends on the environment. They have dry, scaly skin that prevents water loss, unlike amphibians that have moist skin. They lay eggs, usually on land, and lack external ears, instead having ear openings. Reptiles like lizards, snakes, turtles, and crocodiles either have four legs or no legs (in the case of snakes). Their scales provide protection and help them survive in dry, terrestrial habitats. 25 / 25 25) Which of the following are examples of Crustacean organisms? Barnacle Octopus Crab Lobster Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only All four Explanation: Barnacle — Yes, it is a crustacean. Octopus — No, octopus is a mollusk (not a crustacean). Crab — Yes, it is a crustacean. Lobster — Yes, it is a crustacean. Thus, only Barnacle, Crab, and Lobster are crustaceans. Octopus belongs to a different phylum (Mollusca). Your score is 0% Environment & Ecology Grand Test 3 1 / 25 1) Which of the following are examples of Gymnosperms? Cycas Pinus Gnetum Mango Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only All four Explanation: Cycas — Yes, it is a gymnosperm. Pinus — Yes, it is a gymnosperm (pine tree). Gnetum — Yes, it is a gymnosperm (unusual among gymnosperms, somewhat like angiosperms). Mango — No, mango is an angiosperm (flowering plant with enclosed seeds). Thus, only 1, 2 and 3 are gymnosperms. 2 / 25 2) Consider the following statements regarding the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023: ISFR 2023 is the 18th edition of the report published by Forest Survey of India. The total Forest and Tree cover in India is reported as 21.76% of the geographical area. The ISFR is released every year by the Forest Survey of India. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 is correct – The India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023 is indeed the 18th edition in the series. The Forest Survey of India (FSI) has been publishing ISFR since 1987 to provide a comprehensive overview of the country’s forest and tree resources using Remote Sensing data and National Forest Inventory (NFI). Statement 2 is incorrect – The total Forest and Tree Cover of India, as per ISFR 2023, is 8,27,357 sq km, which corresponds to 25.17% of the country’s geographical area. Out of this: Forest Cover alone is 7,15,343 sq km (which is 21.76%). Tree Cover alone is 1,12,014 sq km (which is 3.41%). Therefore, the combined percentage is 25.17%, not 21.76% as mentioned in the statement. Statement 3 is incorrect – The ISFR is published on a biennial basis (every two years), not annually. The assessments are conducted every two years to track changes in forest cover, tree resources, carbon stock, agroforestry, and forest fires among other parameters. 3 / 25 3) As per the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2023, arrange the following regions in descending order based on the percentage of forest cover with respect to their total geographical area: Mizoram Andaman & Nicobar Islands Lakshadweep Select the answer using the code given below: 1, 3, 2 3, 2, 1 3, 1, 2 2, 3, 1 Explanation: Region Forest Cover (% of Geographical Area) Source Lakshadweep 91.33% ISFR 2023 Mizoram 85.34% ISFR 2023 Andaman & Nicobar Islands 81.62% ISFR 2023 Lakshadweep has the highest percentage of forest cover among all states/UTs. Followed by Mizoram and then Andaman & Nicobar Islands. 4 / 25 4) Which of the following Biosphere Reserves have been included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR) of UNESCO? Nilgiri Sunderbans Simlipal Nokrek Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2 and 4 only All four Explanation: Nilgiri — Included in the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves Sunderbans — Included in the UNESCO list . Simlipal — Included in the UNESCO lis. Nokrek — Included in the UNESCO list 5 / 25 5) Consider the following description: They are green, non-differentiated plants possessing chlorophyll. They usually grow in water or moist places and can be saprophytes or parasites. They are autotrophic and can manufacture their own food. Which group of organisms is being described? Fungi Algae Bacteria Bryophytes Explanation: Algae are simple, non-differentiated plants (no true roots, stems, or leaves) that possess chlorophyll. They generally grow in water (freshwater or marine) or in moist environments. Algae may also live as saprophytes (on dead matter) or parasites (on living hosts). Freshwater algae are usually green or blue-green, while marine algae are red or brown. Being autotrophic, they synthesize their own food through photosynthesis. 6 / 25 6) Which of the following committees were constituted to recommend conservation measures for the Western Ghats? Kasturirangan Committee and Madhav Gadgil Committee N.K. Singh Committee and Kasturirangan Committee Madhav Gadgil Committee and Kelkar Committee Kelkar Committee and Nandan Nilekani Committee Explanation: The Madhav Gadgil Committee (2011), officially known as the Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP), recommended: Strict conservation zones Involvement of local communities in decision-making Later, the government constituted the Kasturirangan Committee (2013) to review Gadgil’s report. It suggested a more balanced approach between ecological protection and development needs. Both committees aimed at protecting the biodiversity of the fragile Western Ghats region. 7 / 25 7) In the context of environmental governance in India, “CAMPA” stands for which of the following? Central Agency for Monitoring Protected Areas Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority Conservation and Afforestation Measures and Planning Authority Community Afforestation and Management Planning Association Explanation: CAMPA was established by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) to manage the compensatory afforestation funds collected whenever forest land is diverted for non-forest purposes (like roads, industries, dams). The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 provided the statutory backing for CAMPA and related funds. Objective: To promote afforestation, regenerate degraded forests, and ensure ecological security. Funds collected under CAMPA are meant to be used exclusively for forest conservation, wildlife protection, and regeneration efforts. 8 / 25 8) Consider the following statements regarding the Appiko Movement: It began in the forests of the Western Ghats region in Karnataka. The term “Appiko” means “to protect” in the Kannada language. The movement was directly inspired by the Chipko Movement of Uttarakhand. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. The Appiko Movement started in September 1983 in the Kalase forests of the Uttara Kannada district in Karnataka, part of the Western Ghats. Statement 2: Incorrect. “Appiko” in Kannada literally means “to hug”, not “to protect”. The method of hugging trees was to protect them from felling. Statement 3: Correct. The movement was directly inspired by the famous Chipko Movement of the Himalayan Uttarakhand region. 9 / 25 9) Which of the following statements correctly relate to the Namdapha Flying Squirrel? It is endemic to Arunachal Pradesh and is nocturnal and arboreal. It inhabits tall Mesua ferrea forests near the Dihing River catchment area. It is listed as Critically Endangered under the IUCN Red List. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All three Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Namdapha flying squirrel is endemic to Arunachal Pradesh. It lives in trees (arboreal) and is active during the night (nocturnal). Statement 2 is correct: It inhabits tall Mesua ferrea forests on hill slopes near the Dihing River catchment in Arunachal Pradesh (particularly on the western Patkai range). Statement 3 is correct: It is classified as Critically Endangered under the IUCN Red List and protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Feature Detail Habitat Mesua ferrea forests near Dihing River Region Namdapha National Park, Arunachal Pradesh Behavior Nocturnal, Arboreal, Gliding (not flying) Conservation Status IUCN: Critically Endangered; WPA 1972: Schedule II 10 / 25 10) Consider the following statements regarding Project Tiger: Project Tiger was launched in 1973 and completed 50 years in 2023. India’s average wild tiger population is 3,682 as per the 2022 estimation. India hosts about 50% of the world’s wild tiger population. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 is correct – Project Tiger was initiated in 1973 with the aim of conserving tigers and their habitats across India. It completed 50 years in 2023. A commemorative event was held in Mysuru, Karnataka, where the Prime Minister released important reports like the ‘Amrit Kaal Ka Vision for Tiger Conservation’ and the 5th cycle of Management Effectiveness Evaluation (MEE) of tiger reserves. Statement 2 is correct – As per the 5th cycle of All India Tiger Estimation (2022), India’s average wild tiger population was estimated to be 3,682. The minimum population was 3,167. The maximum estimated population was 3,925. The tiger population has shown a consistent increase from 2,226 (2014) to 2,967 (2018) and now 3,682 (2022). The population growth rate in consistently sampled areas is 6.1% per annum. Statement 3 is incorrect – India does not host 50% of the world’s wild tigers. It hosts over 70% of the world’s wild tiger population, highlighting India’s global leadership in tiger conservation. 11 / 25 11) Match the following pairs: Disease Causal Organism Animal Susceptible 1. Tuberculosis Mycobacterium spp Deer, cat, primates, elephant 2. Anthrax Bacillus anthracis Gaur, chetal, wild pig, barking deer 3. Rabies Rabies virus Tiger, lion, bear, mongoose, squirrel 4. Foot and Mouth Disease FMD virus Gaur, nilgai, chetal, sambar, yak, mithun In how many of the above pairs is the information correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Tuberculosis – Mycobacterium spp – Deer, cat, primates, elephant Correct: Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium species and affects wild and domestic animals like deer, elephants, and primates. Anthrax – Bacillus anthracis – Gaur, chetal, wild pig, barking deer Correct: Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis and affects hoofed animals like gaur and cheetal. Rabies – Rabies virus – Tiger, lion, bear, mongoose, squirrel Correct: Rabies is caused by the Rabies virus and affects a wide range of mammals, including tigers, lions, mongooses, etc. Foot and Mouth Disease – FMD virus – Gaur, nilgai, chetal, sambar, yak, mithun Correct: Foot and Mouth Disease is caused by the FMD virus, affecting both wild and domestic cloven-hoofed animals like gaur, nilgai, yak, etc. 12 / 25 12) Consider the following statements regarding Project Cheetah: Project Cheetah was launched in 2022 to reintroduce cheetahs in India. Cheetahs were relocated from South Africa and Namibia to Kuno National Park. Project Cheetah operates independently, separate from Project Tiger. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 is correct – Project Cheetah was officially launched on 17 September 2022. Its aim was to reintroduce cheetahs into India, where they had become extinct by the early 1950s. This project is the world’s first intercontinental large wild carnivore translocation initiative and symbolizes India’s efforts to restore lost biodiversity. Statement 2 is correct – As part of the project: Eight cheetahs were brought from Namibia in September 2022. Twelve more cheetahs were relocated from South Africa in February 2023. All cheetahs were released into Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh. These translocations aimed at establishing a viable free-ranging cheetah population in India’s grassland ecosystems. Statement 3 is incorrect – Project Cheetah is not an independent programme. It is implemented under the broader umbrella of Project Tiger. It follows the guidelines of the Cheetah Action Plan (2022) to ensure habitat restoration, community participation, and long-term species survival. Thus, it is integrated into India’s existing wildlife conservation framework and is not a standalone project. 13 / 25 13) Consider the following description: It refers to progressive dying backward from the tip of any plant part. It is an adaptive mechanism where the root survives but the shoot dies. Examples include Red Sanders, Silk Cotton Tree, and Boswellia serrata. Which phenomenon is being described? Abscission Wilting Die back Leaf fall Explanation: Die back is a survival mechanism in plants during adverse environmental conditions. In this process, the shoot system progressively dies from the tip backward, while the root system remains alive and can regenerate when favorable conditions return. Species such as Sai, Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus), Terminalia tomentosa, Silk Cotton Tree, and Boswellia serrata exhibit this phenomenon. It helps the plant conserve resources and survive through droughts or other stresses. 14 / 25 14) How many of the following are correctly identified as invasive alien plant species in India? Lantana Parthenium Prosopis Water Hyacinth Select the correct answer using the code given below: Only two Only three All four Only one Explanation: Species Invasive Alien Status Details Lantana Invasive alien species from Tropical America; common in degraded forests and scrublands. Parthenium Known as Congress grass; a major invasive weed from North America. Prosopis (Prosopis juliflora) Native to Mexico; aggressively invades scrublands and wastelands. Water Hyacinth Native to Tropical America; invades stagnant or slow-flowing water bodies, harming aquatic ecosystems. 15 / 25 15) Consider the following statements Regarding Seagrass: Seagrass meadows store carbon faster than tropical rainforests. Seagrass meadows act as natural barriers against storms and coastal erosion. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1: Correct. Seagrass meadows are among the most efficient carbon sinks on Earth. They capture and store carbon up to 35 times faster than tropical rainforests. The carbon stored by seagrasses (called “blue carbon”) remains buried in the sediments for thousands of years, making them crucial for long-term carbon sequestration. Loss of seagrass meadows leads to the release of stored carbon, contributing to climate change. Statement 2: Correct. Seagrass meadows act as natural coastal defenses: Their dense root systems stabilize the seabed, preventing coastal erosion. They absorb wave energy, reducing the impact of storm surges and flooding along shorelines. This function is critical for protecting coastal communities, especially as the frequency of extreme weather events increases due to climate change. 16 / 25 16) Match the following Sacred Groves with their corresponding States: Sacred Grove Name State 1. Devrai (A) Karnataka 2. Devarakadu (B) Maharashtra 3. Law Kyntang (C) Meghalaya 4. Kavu (D) Kerala Select the correct matching using the codes given below: 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A Explanation: Devrai → Found in Maharashtra (B) Devarakadu → Found in Karnataka (A) Law Kyntang / Law Lyngdoh → Found in Meghalaya (C) Kavu → Found in Kerala (D) Additional Important Points: Sacred Groves are forest patches protected by local communities due to religious reasons. They act as biodiversity hotspots and are vital for ecological conservation. Sacred groves are called by different names in different states (e.g., Sarna in Madhya Pradesh, Oran in Rajasthan). 17 / 25 17) The widespread decline of vulture populations in India during the 1980s and 1990s was primarily caused by exposure to which veterinary drug? Ibuprofen Paracetamol Aspirin Diclofenac Explanation: Diclofenac is a veterinary drug used to treat cattle. Vultures that scavenged carcasses of livestock treated with Diclofenac suffered mass kidney failure. This led to a dramatic crash in vulture populations during the 1980s and 1990s. By 2007, around 99% of vultures in India had disappeared. Recognizing the threat, the Government of India banned the veterinary use of Diclofenac in 2006. The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) even declared the Indian vulture as “only one step away from total extinction” because of this crisis. 18 / 25 18) The functional unit of nature, where biotic and abiotic components interact and exchange materials, is termed as: Biome Population Ecosystem Habitat Explanation: An ecosystem is a functional unit where living organisms (plants, animals, microorganisms) interact with non-living components (soil, water, climate) in a continuous cycle of energy flow and material recycling. Biome refers to a broader classification (e.g., tropical forest, desert). Population is a group of individuals of the same species. Habitat is simply the physical place where an organism lives. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 1 Ecology 19 / 25 19) Consider the following elements: Soil Non-green plants Topography Decomposers How many of the above are abiotic components? Only one Only two Only three All Four Explanation: Soil is an abiotic component providing nutrients and structure. Non-green plants are biotic; they are living organisms even though they don’t photosynthesize. Topography (landforms and landscape features) is abiotic, influencing climate and distribution of life. Decomposers (bacteria and fungi) are living and thus biotic. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 1 Ecology 20 / 25 20) Consider the following statements: The ecological footprint measures the biologically productive area required to meet the resource consumption and waste absorption needs of a population. Humanity’s current total ecological footprint is estimated to be lower than the Earth’s capacity for regeneration. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: The ecological footprint is a key concept used to assess human demand on the Earth’s ecosystems. It expresses how much biologically productive land and sea area is needed to produce the resources a population consumes and to absorb the waste they generate, particularly carbon emissions. Statement 1 is correct: The ecological footprint calculates the area required to supply resources like food, fiber, timber, and space for infrastructure, and to absorb wastes like carbon dioxide. It is a standardized way to measure the human demand for nature’s services. Statement 2 is incorrect: According to current estimates, humanity’s ecological footprint exceeds the Earth’s capacity to regenerate. We use ecological resources 1.5 times faster than the Earth can renew, meaning we would need 1.5 Earths to sustainably support our current lifestyles. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 1 Ecology 21 / 25 21) Consider the following characteristics of an Ecotone: An ecotone always has sharply distinct species without any overlap from adjacent ecosystems. Ecotones may have environmental conditions intermediate between adjacent ecosystems, making them zones of tension. Ecotones are always wider than the adjoining ecosystems. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only two None Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: An ecotone shows a gradual mixing of species from both adjoining ecosystems. It is not sharply distinct. Instead, it is a transition zone where both species compositions overlap. Statement 2 is correct: Ecotones often have intermediate environmental conditions between adjacent ecosystems. This causes competition among species, making it a zone of tension where species interact intensely. Statement 3 is incorrect: An ecotone may be either narrow or wide depending on local conditions such as geography, climate, and species involved. It is not necessary that it is always wider than adjoining ecosystems. Other important characteristics of Ecotone: Ecotones show a progressive increase in species from the incoming community and a simultaneous decrease in species from the outgoing community. Sometimes, new or unique species may occur in ecotones, which are not found in either adjoining community. Edge effect is observed in ecotones, where the number of species and population density can be higher than in adjacent ecosystems. Edge species (species abundant mainly in ecotones) are especially common in terrestrial ecotones, particularly among bird species. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 1 Ecology 22 / 25 22) This biome has moderate temperatures. The vegetation is dominated by coniferous evergreen trees. Soil in this region is generally thin, poor in nutrients, and acidic due to slow decomposition of the trees grown here. Identify the biome. Tundra Taiga Temperate Grassland Tropical Rainforest Explanation: The description matches the Taiga biome, also known as the boreal forest. Taiga stretches across Northern Europe, Asia (especially Siberia), and North America (Canada, Alaska). The climate is cold but moderate compared to tundra, allowing coniferous forests to flourish. Vegetation mainly includes spruce, pine, and fir trees, all adapted to withstand long winters and short summers. Characteristic animals include fur-bearing carnivores like the mink, wolverine, and large mammals like elks, pumas, Siberian tigers, and wolves. Additional Information: Soil in Taiga is generally thin, poor in nutrients, and acidic due to slow decomposition of conifer needles. Fires play a natural role in maintaining Taiga ecosystems by clearing old vegetation and triggering new growth. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 1 Ecology 23 / 25 23) Consider the following statements regarding Fresh Water Ecosystems: Lotic ecosystems refer to freshwater bodies with still or stagnant water. Ponds and lakes are examples of lentic water ecosystems. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: Lotic ecosystems refer to moving or flowing freshwater bodies, such as streams, springs, rivulets, creeks, brooks, and rivers. They are characterized by continuous water movement. On the other hand, lentic ecosystems have still or stagnant water, not lotic. Statement 2 is correct: Ponds, lakes, some swamps, and bogs are examples of lentic ecosystems, where water is still or stagnant. These bodies vary considerably in their physical, chemical, and biological characteristics depending on factors like depth, nutrient content, and temperature. Other important points: Freshwater ecosystems can be lotic or lentic depending on water movement. They play a crucial role in supporting biodiversity, regulating climate, and providing water for human use. 24 / 25 24) Consider the following statements. Primary succession occurs in essentially lifeless regions in which the soil is incapable of sustaining life. Secondary succession occurs in areas where a community that previously existed has been removed. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Both the statements are correct. Primary succession occurs in essentially lifeless areas—regions in which the soil is incapable of sustaining life as a result of such factors as lava flows, newly formed sand dunes, or rocks left from a retreating glacier. Secondary succession occurs in areas where a community that previously existed has been removed; it is typified by smaller-scale disturbances that do not eliminate all life and nutrients from the environment. Events such as a fire that sweeps across a grassland or a storm that uproots trees within a forest create patches of habitat that are colonized by early successional species. Depending on the extent of the disturbance, some species may survive, other species may be recolonized from nearby habitats, and others may actually be released from a dormant condition by the disturbance. For example, many plant species in fire-prone environments have seeds that remain dormant within the soil until the heat of a fire stimulates them to germinate. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 2 Functions of an Ecosystem. 25 / 25 25) Consider the following statements regarding Food Webs: A food web allows only one pathway of energy flow through an ecosystem. Food webs increase the chances of organism survival compared to isolated food chains. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect: A food web shows multiple interconnected pathways of energy flow. Unlike a single food chain, it represents complex feeding relationships among organisms. Statement 2 is correct: Because food webs offer multiple options for food sources, they increase the survival chances of organisms. If one link breaks, organisms can find alternative food sources. Additional Information: Food chains are simple and linear. Food webs are complex, realistic models in natural ecosystems. Example: Grass can feed rabbits, grasshoppers, goats, or cows; herbivores can be eaten by multiple carnivores. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 2 Functions of an Ecosystem. Your score is 0% Environment & Ecology Grand Test 4 1 / 25 1) Which among the following best explains why DDT concentrations are highest in birds of prey? High reproduction rates Bioaccumulation of water-soluble compounds Biomagnification through successive trophic levels Short lifespan of prey species Explanation: Biomagnification causes pollutants like DDT to accumulate more at higher trophic levels, such as in birds of prey.Energy transfer inefficiency at each trophic level concentrates fat-soluble toxins. Additional Information: Top predators like hawks and eagles are especially vulnerable to DDT poisoning. DDT caused eggshell thinning leading to population declines in many bird species. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 2 Functions of an Ecosystem. 2 / 25 2) Consider the following statements regarding Food Webs: Food webs prevent species extinction by offering multiple food choices. If one species is removed from a food web, the entire ecosystem immediately collapses. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: Food webs provide alternative food sources, reducing the risk of extinction if a particular prey species declines. Statement 2 is incorrect: While the removal of a species can affect the ecosystem, it usually does not cause immediate collapse because of alternative pathways available in food webs. Additional Information: Food webs offer a more accurate, realistic representation of energy transfer in ecosystems compared to simple food chains, which show only one linear path. Food availability and food preferences can vary seasonally and by ecosystem type. Complex food webs add resilience to ecosystems. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 2 Functions of an Ecosystem. 3 / 25 3) Consider the following statements regarding Bioaccumulation: Bioaccumulation involves the buildup of pollutants inside an organism from its environment. Bioaccumulation can happen even if a pollutant is water-soluble. Bioaccumulation only occurs in higher trophic levels like top carnivores. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: Bioaccumulation refers to pollutants accumulating inside an organism directly from the environment (air, water, soil). Statement 2 – Incorrect: Pollutants that are fat-soluble, not water-soluble, tend to bioaccumulate. Water-soluble pollutants are usually excreted. Statement 3 – Incorrect: Bioaccumulation can occur at any trophic level, not only in top carnivores. Additional Information: Bioaccumulation starts at the base of the food chain and lays the foundation for biomagnification up the chain. Monitoring fish tissues or human breast milk often reveals levels of bioaccumulated pollutants. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 2 Functions of an Ecosystem. 4 / 25 4) Consider the following pairs regarding Lake Types: Feature Lake Type 1. High aquatic plant nutrient flux Eutrophic lake 2. Water remains clear and good for drinking Oligotrophic lake 3. Oxygen absent at the bottom layer (hypolimnion) Eutrophic lake 4. Greater depth and cooler bottom waters Eutrophic lake How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Pair 1 – Correct: High aquatic plant nutrient flux is a feature of a eutrophic lake due to high nutrient levels promoting excessive plant growth. Pair 2 – Correct: Water remains clear and good for drinking is typical of an oligotrophic lake, which has very low nutrient levels and clean water. Pair 3 – Correct: Oxygen absent at the bottom (hypolimnion) is common in eutrophic lakes, especially in summers when decomposition depletes oxygen. Pair 4 – Incorrect: Greater depth and cooler bottom waters are features of an oligotrophic lake, not a eutrophic lake. Eutrophic lakes are often shallow due to sediment accumulation over time. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 4 Aquatic Ecosystem. 5 / 25 5) In the Equatorial rainforest, the undergrowth on the floor is very less. The most appropriate reason is Very less sunlight reaches the ground for survival of plants due to thick canopies. Excessive rainfall is detrimental to the growth of saplings Due to the high population of herbivorous species. The soil of rainforest is less fertile due to heavy leaching of minerals. Explanation: Tropical forests are one of the richest areas on earth. They are home to gigantic trees, birds and a huge variety of mammals. About 80% of the world’s documented species can be found in tropical rainforests, even though they cover only about 6% of the Earth’s land surface. They are closed canopy forests growing within 28 degrees north or south of the equator. They are very wet places, receiving more than 200 cm rainfall per year, either seasonally or throughout the year. Plant life occurs in layers in a tropical rainforest. The uppermost layer consists of very tall trees—some over 150 feet tall—rising out of the dense canopy below. The canopy consists of a dense mass of treetops, vines, and other plants occurring in a layer, usually about 100 feet above ground. Below that are various seedlings, saplings, trees stunted from lack of light, bushes and shrubs, some growing up to 75 feet tall. Finally, there is the forest floor. Because of the very dense canopy,very little sunlight reaches the ground thus leading to a very less growth on the floor Area. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 1 Ecology 6 / 25 6) Consider the following: New Island after volcanic eruption A forest after a fire A land after flood waters have receded An agricultural field after crop harvesting Which among the following are areas for Secondary Succession? 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 3 and 4 only All of the above Explanation: Statement 1 – Incorrect: Formation of a new island from a volcanic eruption represents Primary Succession, as no soil exists initially. Statement 2 – Correct: A forest regenerating after fire involves Secondary Succession, as soil and seeds usually remain. Statement 3 – Correct: A land recovering after a flood undergoes Secondary Succession, as remnants of the previous ecosystem survive. Statement 4 – Correct: An agricultural field after harvesting experiences Secondary Succession, since soil remains and some seeds might naturally regenerate. Additional Information: Primary Succession occurs in lifeless areas where no previous ecosystem existed (e.g., lava fields, bare rock). Secondary Succession happens where an ecosystem previously existed but was disturbed. Secondary succession is generally faster because soil already exists. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 2 Functions of an Ecosystem. 7 / 25 7) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Humus’: It is highly prone to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at a very fast rate. It serves as a reservoir of nutrients in the soil. Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1 – Incorrect: Humus is the organic component of soil formed by decomposition of plant and animal residues. It is highly resistant to microbial action and undergoes decomposition at a very slow rate, not fast. Statement 2 – Correct: Humus acts as a colloidal reservoir of nutrients, retaining moisture and essential minerals needed for plant growth. It plays a critical role in maintaining soil fertility and structure. Additional Information: Humus improves soil aeration, water holding capacity, and overall soil health. It contains vital nutrients, with nitrogen being the most abundant and important. Mineralisation is the process through which microbes slowly degrade humus to release inorganic nutrients into the soil. Humus formation begins after the weathering of organic matter and is a crucial part of soil formation and ecosystem nutrient cycling. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 2 Functions of an Ecosystem. 8 / 25 8) Which of the following pollutants is a classic example of a non-degradable chemical? Carbon dioxide Methane Chlorinated hydrocarbons Ozone Explanation: Chlorinated hydrocarbons like DDT are examples of non-degradable pollutants that cannot be metabolized by organisms. These pollutants persist for a long time and can accumulate in the food chain. Additional Information: Non-degradable pollutants resist breakdown and cause bioaccumulation and biomagnification in ecosystems. They are fat-soluble and biologically active, leading to toxic effects at higher trophic levels. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 2 Functions of an Ecosystem. 9 / 25 9) Consider the following statements regarding effects of biomagnification: Biomagnification reduces reproductive success in top predators. Human milk can show higher concentrations of fat-soluble pollutants than drinking water. Biomagnification can lead to complete breakdown of pollutants in higher trophic organisms. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: Top predators like birds of prey, big cats show reduced fertility, eggshell thinning due to biomagnification. Statement 2 – Correct: Human milk, being fat-rich, can accumulate high levels of fat-soluble pollutants like DDT, PCBs, compared to water sources. Statement 3 – Incorrect: Biomagnification leads to pollutant buildup, not breakdown. Additional Information: Example: Biomagnified mercury can cause neurological disorders in humans consuming fish. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 2 Functions of an Ecosystem. 10 / 25 10) Consider the following pairs: Interaction Type Description 1. Predation Only one species benefits and the interaction is detrimental to the other species. 2. Commensalism One species is harmed, whereas the other is unaffected. 3. Symbiosis Both species are benefitted. 4. Amensalism One species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed. How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Pair 1 – Correct: Predation is an interaction where one species benefits (the predator) and the other is harmed (the prey). Pair 2 – Incorrect: Commensalism refers to an interaction where one species benefits and the other is unaffected — not harmed. (The description given matches amensalism incorrectly.) Pair 3 – Correct: Symbiosis refers to a close, long-term interaction between two species where both species benefit. Example: Lichens (algae + fungi). Pair 4 – Incorrect: Amensalism is an interaction where one species is harmed while the other is unaffected (not benefitted). Example: Penicillium fungus killing nearby bacteria without any benefit to itself. Additional Information: Predation: Lion hunting a deer (benefit to lion, harm to deer). Commensalism: Orchids growing on trees without harming the tree. Symbiosis (Mutualism type): Pollination between bees and flowers. Amensalism: Release of chemicals by certain plants that inhibit nearby plant growth (allelopathy). 11 / 25 11) Succession brought about by the living inhabitants of a community itself is known as: Allogenic succession Autogenic succession Primary succession Secondary succession Explanation: Autogenic succession occurs when the living organisms of a community cause changes in the environment that drive the process of succession. These changes can include alterations in soil composition, shade creation, or nutrient cycling. Additional Information: Example: Pioneer plants modify the soil, making it more suitable for subsequent species. Over time, the changes brought by organisms themselves lead to the replacement of one community by another. Common in both primary and secondary succession processes. 12 / 25 12) Consider the following statements regarding factors affecting Aquatic Ecosystem Productivity: Light penetration defines the division between photic and aphotic zones. Dissolved oxygen levels are higher in warm water compared to cold water. Transparency of water affects photosynthetic activity in aquatic systems. Temperature changes rapidly in water compared to air due to lower specific heat of water. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: Light penetration decides the photic zone (where photosynthesis occurs) and aphotic zone (where only respiration happens). Statement 2 – Incorrect: Dissolved oxygen levels are lower in warm water than in cold water because oxygen solubility decreases with temperature. Statement 3 – Correct: Transparency influences light availability, and thus, limits photosynthesis in aquatic habitats. Statement 4 – Incorrect: Water has a higher specific heat than air, so temperature changes more slowly in water than in air, not rapidly. Additional Information: Winter kill occurs when thick ice and snow block sunlight, leading to oxygen depletion and fish death. Water bodies with high turbidity have lower photosynthetic efficiency. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 2 Functions of an Ecosystem. 13 / 25 13) Which of the following best explains why certain phytoplankton blooms associated with “Red Tide” events can lead to marine ecosystem disruption even without visibly discoloring the water? They release toxins that accumulate in marine food chains. They deplete carbon dioxide in water leading to acidification. They block sunlight completely, stopping photosynthesis in all marine plants. They directly attack marine animals through physical invasion. Explanation: Option A – Correct: Certain phytoplankton species responsible for Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs) release potent toxins that bioaccumulate through marine food chains, even at low concentrations invisible to the naked eye. Option B – Incorrect: HABs primarily affect oxygen levels, not directly carbon dioxide balance or acidification. Option C – Incorrect: They can block light partially, but total photosynthesis stoppage is rare unless blooms are extremely dense. Option D – Incorrect: Physical invasion is not the mechanism. It is toxin production and oxygen depletion that harm marine animals. Additional Information: Toxins from HABs can cause fish kills, shellfish poisoning, and even neurotoxic effects in humans. Some harmful algae like Karenia brevis and Alexandrium produce neurotoxins affecting marine food chains. Impact occurs even without significant water discoloration, making monitoring crucial. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 4 Aquatic Ecosystem. 14 / 25 14) Consider the following characteristics of Mangroves: Mangroves require high solar radiation and can absorb freshwater from saline water. Pneumatophores are specialized roots that help mangroves deal with anaerobic soil conditions. Mangroves secrete excess salt only through their roots. Mangroves exhibit viviparity, meaning seeds germinate while still attached to the parent tree. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: Mangroves require high solar radiation and have physiological adaptations to absorb freshwater from saline/brackish water. Statement 2 – Correct: Pneumatophores (specialized breathing roots) allow mangroves to survive in anaerobic (oxygen-poor) muddy soils. Statement 3 – Incorrect: Mangroves secrete salt through their leaves, not through their roots. Some species block salt at the roots. Statement 4 – Correct: Mangroves exhibit viviparity — seeds germinate while still attached to the parent plant before falling. Additional Information: Mangroves act as natural coastal barriers against cyclones, tsunamis, and storm surges. They are highly productive ecosystems that enhance nutrient recycling. Salt excretion or exclusion is a key survival strategy in saline environments. Vivipary ensures seedlings survive the harsh saline conditions during early development. Pneumatophores stick out from the soil to absorb oxygen. Source: Shankar IAS En 15 / 25 15) The one chosen to represent an environmental cause, such as an ecosystem in need of conservation and the chosen species could be either vulnerable or attractive or distinct. The above description refers to Keystone species Flagship species Invasive species Indicator species Explanation: The correct answer is Flagship species. Example: Indian Tiger, African Elephant, Giant Panda of China, etc. Indicator species The one whose presence indicates the presence of a set of other species and whose absence indicates the lack of that entire set of species.For instance, a species might indicate presence of environmental pollution or arrival of monsoon and so on.Example: Lichens (air quality), most amphibians, fishes, etc. Invasive species An alien species is a species introduced by humans – either intentionally or accidentally – outside of its natural past or present distribution, however not all alien species have negative impacts, and it is estimated that between 5% and 20% of all alien species become problematic. It is these species that are termed ‘Invasive alien species. Keystone species It is a species whose addition or loss to an ecosystem will lead to major changes in the ecosystem.This is because certain species are considered more important in determining the presence of other species.Example: All top predators -tiger, lion, crocodile, elephant – as their addition or removal will distort the existing food chain in the ecosystem. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 2 Functions of an Ecosystem. 16 / 25 16) Consider the following possible causes of Coral Bleaching: Exposure to high-intensity sunlight Subaerial exposure Freshwater dilution from storms How many of the above are causes of coral bleaching? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: 1 – Correct: High-intensity solar radiation (PAR and UVR) damages symbiotic algae (zooxanthellae), leading to coral bleaching. 2 – Correct: Subaerial exposure during extreme low tides or tectonic uplift exposes corals to air, causing bleaching. 3 – Correct: Freshwater dilution from storm runoff can decrease salinity rapidly, stressing corals and causing localized bleaching. Additional Information: Other causes of coral bleaching include: Thermal stress (increased sea temperature) Xenobiotic pollution (chemical contamination) Pathogen-induced bleaching (epizootics) Coral bleaching events are increasing globally due to climate change and human disturbances. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 4 Aquatic Ecosystem. 17 / 25 17) The "BEAMS" program launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is associated with: Promoting inland waterway navigation in India Management of sustainable and clean coastal beaches Regulating maritime shipping lanes in Indian waters Conservation of inland wetlands and riverine islands Explanation: Option B – Correct: BEAMS (Beach Environment & Aesthetics Management Services) aims at sustainable management, cleanliness, and ecological protection of coastal beaches under the broader Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Additional Information: BEAMS supports India's effort to achieve "Blue Flag" Certification for beaches, an international eco-label awarded for high environmental and quality standards. It promotes beach tourism, pollution abatement, ecosystem protection, and hygiene/safety standards for beachgoers. The Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE), Denmark grants the Blue Flag Certification. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 4 Aquatic Ecosystem. 18 / 25 18) They occupy about 20% of the land on the earth surface.They occur in both tropical and temperate regions where rainfall is not enough to support the growth of trees. They also support a large population of rodents, reptiles and insects.Which among the following is /are correct? Tundra Evergreen Forests Grasslands Deciduous Forests. Explanation: Grasslands are areas dominated by grasses. They occupy about 20% of the land on the earth surface. Grasslands occur in both tropical and temperate regions where rainfall is not enough to support the growth of trees. Grasslands are known by various names in different parts of the world. Grasslands are found in areas having well defined hot and dry, warm and rainy seasons. Tropical grasslands are commonly called Savannas. They occur in eastern Africa, South America, Australia and India. Savannas form a complex ecosystem with scattered medium sized trees in grasslands. Flora and fauna: Grasses are the dominating plants with scattered drought resistant thorny trees in the tropical grasslands. Badgers, fox, ass, zebra, antelope are found grazing on grasslands support the dairy and leather industries. Grasslands also support large population of rodents, reptiles and insects. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 2 Functions of an Ecosystem. 19 / 25 19) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Competition’ under Population interactions: Competition occurs only when closely related species compete for the same resources. Resources should be limited for competition interaction to occur. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation Statement 1 is incorrect: Firstly, totally unrelated species could also compete for the same resource. For instance, in some shallow South American lakes, visiting flamingoes and resident fishes compete for their common food, the zooplankton in the lake. Statement 2 is incorrect: Secondly, resources need not be limiting for competition to occur; in Interference competition, the feeding efficiency of one species might be reduced due to the interfering and inhibitory presence of the other species, even if resources (food and space) are abundant. Therefore, competition is best defined as a process in which the fitness of one species measured in terms of its ‘r’ (the intrinsic rate of increase) is significantly lower in the presence of another species. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 2 Functions of an Ecosystem 20 / 25 20) Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Monoxide (CO): Carbon monoxide is produced by the complete combustion of carbon-based fuels such as petrol and diesel. Inhalation of carbon monoxide reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of human blood. Which of the statements given above are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1 – Incorrect: Carbon monoxide (CO) is produced by the incomplete combustion (not complete) of carbon-based fuels such as petrol, diesel, wood, and cigarettes. Statement 2 – Correct: Carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin to form carboxyhemoglobin, which reduces the amount of oxygen transported by the blood, leading to hypoxia. Additional Information: Symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning include dizziness, confusion, weakness, and even unconsciousness. Major urban sources include vehicle exhausts, industrial emissions, and cigarette smoke. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 5 Environmental Pollution 21 / 25 21) During winter, smog tends to stay closer to the ground mainly because: Wind speeds are higher during winter Sunlight is stronger during winter Temperature inversion prevents vertical mixing of air Rainfall washes away pollutants rapidly Explanation: In winter, temperature inversion occurs — a warm air layer traps cooler air (and pollutants) near the ground. As a result, smog and pollutants accumulate closer to ground level, leading to breathing difficulties and reduced visibility. Calm winds further worsen the problem. Additional Information: Photochemical smog forms when nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) from vehicles react with sunlight. It produces harmful secondary pollutants, especially ozone at ground level. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 5 Environmental Pollution 22 / 25 22) Consider the following statements regarding Fly Ash: It is made of silica, aluminum oxide, calcium oxide, and some potentially toxic elements. Fly Ash is added to cement mixtures for building construction, laying of roads, and landfills. A taller chimney helps reduce the concentration of fly ash by distributing it over a wider region. How many of the above statements are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: Fly ash is primarily composed of silica (SiO₂), aluminum oxide (Al₂O₃), and calcium oxide (CaO) along with trace toxic elements like arsenic, boron, chromium, and lead. Thus, it can pose health and environmental hazards if not managed properly. Statement 2 – Correct: Fly ash is widely used as a partial replacement of Portland cement in concrete mixtures. It is also used for manufacturing bricks, laying roads, landfills, and other construction activities because it improves workability and durability. Statement 3 – Correct: Building taller chimneys in coal-based thermal power plants helps disperse fly ash particles over a larger area, thereby reducing localized air pollution concentration, although it does not eliminate fly ash production. Additional Information: Fly ash management also includes washing coal at the source, promoting dry ash collection, and encouraging research to improve efficiency of power plants. Effective utilization of fly ash helps reduce the environmental footprint of the power sector and promotes circular economy practices. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 5 Environmental Pollution 23 / 25 23) Consider the following pairs: Pollutant Source 1. Ozone Automobile emissions 2. Chlorofluorocarbons Refrigerators, sprays, jet emissions 3. Hydrocarbons Burning of fossil fuels 4. Tobacco Smoke Cigarettes, cigars How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three All four All four Explanation: Pair 1 – Correct: Ozone at ground level forms from automobile emissions, particularly from nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs). → Health effects: Causes breathlessness, asthma, chronic bronchitis, and chest pain. Pair 2 – Correct: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are emitted from refrigerators, air-conditioners, sprays, and jet emissions.→ Environmental effects: Cause depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer and contribute to global warming. Pair 3 – Correct: Hydrocarbons are released during the burning of fossil fuels. → Health effects: Cause carcinogenic impacts on lungs, kidney damage, respiratory problems, and enzyme dysfunction. Pair 4 – Correct: Tobacco smoke from cigarettes and cigars is a major source of indoor air pollution. → Health effects: Leads to chronic bronchitis, asthma, lung cancer, and irritation of eyes, nose, and throat. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 5 Environmental Pollution 24 / 25 24) Consider the following statements regarding Smog Towers in India: The first functional Smog Tower in India was established at Anand Vihar, New Delhi. Smog Towers mainly function by emitting chemical aerosols into the air to neutralize pollutants. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: Statement 1 – Correct: The first functional Smog Tower in India was installed at Anand Vihar, New Delhi. It uses a downdraft system where polluted air enters from the top and clean air is released from the bottom. Statement 2 – Incorrect: Smog towers do not emit chemical aerosols. They filter particulate matter (PM2.5, PM10) using advanced filtration systems and purify the air mechanically — no chemicals are released into the atmosphere. Additional Information: Designed by University of Minnesota and Indian institutions. Targeted at localized reduction of particulate pollution (not gases). Expected to have around 90% efficiency for PM reduction near the tower area. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 5 Environmental Pollution 25 / 25 25) Which process involves combustion of waste in the absence or near absence of oxygen? Incineration Composting Pyrolysis None of the above Explanation: Pyrolysis is the chemical decomposition of organic materials at elevated temperatures without oxygen (or very limited oxygen). It produces charcoal, tar, methyl alcohol, and fuel gas. It is considered a cleaner alternative to incineration for carbon-rich wastes. Anaerobic digestion, involves microbial breakdown of waste in the absence of oxygen but produces biogas. Source: Shankar IAS Environment Book, Part 1 Chapter 5 Environmental Pollution Your score is 0%
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