CARE 8th July 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – CARE (08-07-2024)

News at a Glance
Science and Technology: DRDO unveils indigenous light tank Zorawar
Polity and Government: The House Rules governing the expunction powers of Rajya Sabha Chairman, Lok Sabha Speaker
Internet Archive is facing a backlash from book publishers?
Digital Bharat Nidhi- govt’s fresh attempt at improving rural telecom connectivity
Economy: Red flags over runaway silver imports from UAE through Gift City
Geography:  About aphelion

DRDO unveils indigenous light tank Zorawar

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/drdo-unveils-indigenous-light-tank-zorawar/article68375255.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 Science and Technology

Context: Indigenous light tank Zorawar 

Why in News 

  • Defense officials recently announced that the prototype of the nation’s indigenous light tank Zorawar is complete and will soon undergo rigorous testing.

About Zorawar Light Tank:

  • It is an indigenously designed and developed Light Tank.
  • It was jointly developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) along with Larsen & Toubro (L&T) as the lead integrator. 
  • It was named after a military general, Zorawar Singh Kahluria, who had served under Jammu’s Raja Gulab Singh in the 19th Century.

Features

  • It is weighing a maximum 25 tonnes, is a key requirement of the light tank which ensures it can be transported by air.
  • The tank will be able to fire at high angles of elevation and perform the role of limited artillery and is an agile weapon platform.
  • It is designed to operate in varying terrain, from high-altitude areas and marginal terrains to island territories.
  • It will be equipped with all the modern technologies, such as Artificial Intelligence, Drone Integration, a high degree of situational awareness, and amphibious operation capability.
  • Unique about this tank is the weight as well as the combination of the fundamental parameters of a tank, which is the fire, power, mobility and protection.
  • All three are optimized in such a way that the weight is also maintained. 
  • It is expected to be inducted into the Indian Army by the year 2027 after all trials.

Collaboration And Development Timeline 

  • Partnership: Developed in collaboration with Larsen & Toubro (L&T) as the lead integrator, leveraging contributions from various Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
  • Timeline: From concept to prototype, the development has been expedited to meet strategic needs swiftly.

Key Features and Capabilities 

  • Design: Engineered for extreme environmental conditions and high altitudes, addressing the operational challenges along India’s northern borders.
  • Weight: Designed to weigh under 25 tonnes, ensuring airlift capability for rapid deployment.
  • Versatility: Modular construction allows for future upgrades and adaptation to evolving combat scenarios.

Engine Development and Trials 

  • Engine Selection: Originally planned with a German engine, delayed export clearances led to adoption of a Cummins engine for initial prototypes.
  • Future Engine Development: DRDO is concurrently developing a domestic power pack, including a 1400 HP engine, for enhanced operational efficiency.

Testing and Deployment Plans 

  • Trial Phases: The Zorawar tank is set for rigorous developmental trials over six months, including tests in summer, winter, and high-altitude conditions.
  • User Trials: Scheduled for handover to the Indian Army by August 2025, facilitating user feedback and refinement.

Strategic Importance and Operational Context

  • Strategic Need: Identified during the 2020 standoff in Eastern Ladakh, highlighting the necessity for agile, high-altitude capable armor.
  • Operational Role: Designed to fulfill roles ranging from direct combat to limited artillery support, enhancing tactical mobility and operational effectiveness.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q1. Match the pairs of Column A and Column B

Column 1 Column 2
1. Arjun Mk-1A A.  New indigenous light tank developed in India.
2.  Zorawar B. Advanced variant incorporating a new 1400 HP engine and improved features.
3. T-90 Bhishma C. Unmanned Ground Vehicle (UGV) developed for surveillance and reconnaissance.
4.  Muntra D. 

Russian-origin MBT, modified and indigenized for Indian requirements.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

  • a – II, b – I, c – IV, d – III
  • a – III, b – II, c – IV, d – I 
  • a – IV, b – III, c – II, d – I 
  • a – I, b – II, c – IV, d – III
With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (2014)

  • It is a surface-to-surface missile.
  • It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
  • It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads abod 7500 km away.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) Only 1

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

Answer – A

Explanation

    • Arjun Mk-1A – B. Advanced variant incorporating a new 1400 HP engine and improved features.
    • Zorawar: A. New indigenous light tank developed in India.
    • T-90 Bhishma – D. Russian-origin MBT, modified and indigenized for Indian requirements.
  • Muntra – C. Unmanned Ground Vehicle (UGV) developed for surveillance and reconnaissance.
  •  Therefore, option A is the correct answer. 

The House Rules governing the expunction powers of Rajya Sabha Chairman, Lok Sabha Speaker

Source: The Hindu 

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/parliament-rules-expunge-rajya-sabha-chairman-lok-sabha-speaker-dhankhar-kharge-rahul-gandhi-process-explainer/article68366155.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance

Context: Expunction of the remarks of the leaders of Opposition in both Houses.

Why in News 

  • The first special session of the 18th Lok Sabha witnessed heated discussions over the expunction of the remarks of the leaders of Opposition in both Houses.

Key Highlights

  • During the first special session of the 18th Lok Sabha, heated debates ensued as the Opposition clashed with the government over various issues during discussions on the Motion of Thanks to the President’s joint address. 
  • Controversy arose over expunction of critical remarks by opposition leaders Mallikarjun Kharge and Rahul Gandhi in Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha respectively, highlighting allegations of inconsistent application of rules.

Expunging remarks

  • Remarks are expunged from parliamentary records under specific circumstances determined by the presiding officers (Chairman in the Rajya Sabha and Speaker in the Lok Sabha). 

Criteria for Expunging Remarks 

  • Defamatory, Indecent, Unparliamentary, or Undignified Language:
      • If words, phrases, or expressions used during parliamentary debates are considered defamatory, indecent, unparliamentary, or undignified, the presiding officer may order their expunction.
      • The Lok Sabha Secretariat maintains a list of ‘unparliamentary’ words and expressions to guide this process.
  • Violation of Parliamentary Etiquette:
      • Parliamentary rules emphasize avoiding insinuations, offensive expressions, and remarks that lower the dignity of the House or its members.
      • When the presiding officer determines that a word or expression crosses these boundaries, they order its withdrawal without debate.
  • Broadened Scope of Expunction:
  • The Speaker has discretionary power to order expunction of remarks that are:
    • Prejudicial to national interest.
    • Detrimental to maintaining friendly relations with foreign states.
    • Derogatory towards dignitaries.
    • Likely to offend national sentiments or affect religious susceptibilities.
    • Discrediting to the armed forces.
    • Not in good taste or otherwise objectionable.
    • Likely to bring the House into ridicule or lower its dignity.

Examples and Instances

  • Historical Example: 
      • Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru objected to a member’s reference to the President of Pakistan in inappropriate language during a supplementary question. 
      • The objectionable words were expunged to maintain diplomatic propriety.
  • Behavioral Violations Leading to Expunction:
    • Members are required to withdraw objectionable remarks when requested by the Chair.
    • Failure to comply or continuous interruptions during speeches may result in the expunction of those remarks.

What happens if the remark is against a Minister?

    • When a remark or allegation is made against a Minister during parliamentary proceedings, the procedures and implications differ based on the nature of the allegation:
  • Rule 353 of Lok Sabha
      • Allegation Framework: Rule 353 outlines the procedural framework for making allegations. It requires advance notice to the Minister concerned, who then conducts an inquiry into the allegation and presents the facts when the MP raises the allegation in the House.
      • Non-defamatory or Non-incriminatory Allegations:  If the allegation is not deemed defamatory or incriminatory, Rule 353 may not apply strictly, allowing for more straightforward questioning and scrutiny.
  • Accountability of Ministers
      • Parliamentary Accountability: Members of Parliament (MPs) have the right and duty to question Ministers and criticize their conduct as part of ensuring government accountability to Parliament.
      • Freedom of Debate: This right allows MPs to make imputations against Ministers’ conduct and decisions, reflecting their role in scrutinizing and overseeing governmental actions.
  • Implications and Handling
    • Presiding Officer’s Role: The Speaker or Chairman ensures that discussions remain within the bounds of parliamentary rules and decorum. Allegations that cross into defamatory or undignified territory may lead to expunction or other disciplinary actions.
    • Legal and Ethical Considerations: Despite the latitude in debate, MPs are expected to adhere to legal and ethical norms, avoiding unsubstantiated claims that could harm reputations without basis.

Procedure for Expunging Remarks

  • Authority and Discretion:
      • Rule 261 (Rajya Sabha) and Rules 380-381 (Lok Sabha): These rules empower the Chairman and Speaker, respectively, to expunge remarks.
      • Chairman’s/Speaker’s Opinion: If the presiding officer believes that words used in debate are defamatory, indecent, unparliamentary, or undignified, they can order the expunction of those words.
  • Marking Expunged Portions:
      • Asterisks and Footnotes: Expunged portions are marked with asterisks in the official record.
      • Explanatory Footnote: A footnote explains that the words were expunged as per the order of the Chair.
      • ‘Not Recorded’ Footnote: If the Chair directs that nothing will be recorded during a member’s speech or interruption, a ‘not recorded’ footnote is inserted.
  • Post-Proceeding Handling:
    • List Circulation: At the end of the day’s proceedings, a comprehensive list of expunged words and phrases is circulated to media outlets.
    • Legal Implications: Once expunged, these words cease to exist in the official record. Publishing them thereafter can lead to charges for breach of parliamentary privilege.

Challenges in the Digital Age 

  • Accessibility of Expunged Content: Live Telecast and social media: Despite expunction, digital technology allows live broadcasts of proceedings and widespread sharing of screenshots and videos on social media. 
  • Persistence of Access: Expunged remarks may still be accessible online, challenging the effectiveness of expunction in the digital era. 
  • Relevance and Debate Digital Accessibility Concerns: Questions have arisen about the efficacy of expungement in a digital age where removed content remains accessible to the public. 
  • Legal and Ethical Considerations: Balancing the need to maintain parliamentary decorum with the realities of digital media poses ongoing challenges for presiding officers.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q2. With reference to Expunging Remarks in Parliament, which of the following statements is/are correct? 

    1. Presiding officers in the Indian Parliament can expunge remarks considered defamatory, indecent, unparliamentary, or undignified under Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha rules.
    2. Once remarks are expunged, they are marked with asterisks and an explanatory footnote stating ‘expunged as ordered by the Chair.’
  • Expunged remarks in parliamentary records are permanently deleted and cannot be accessed afterward.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Q. Consider the following statements: (2013)

  1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
  2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

Answer 2– C

Explanation – 

    • Both the Rajya Sabha (Rule 261) and Lok Sabha (Rules 380-381) empower the Chairman and Speaker, respectively, to expunge remarks that fall under these categories.  Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
    • Expunged remarks are indeed marked with asterisks in the official records, accompanied by a footnote that explains they were expunged according to the presiding officer’s order. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
    • Expunged remarks are removed from the immediate record, but due to the digital age and live telecasts of proceedings, they may still be accessible through various means such as recordings, social media shares, or unofficial transcripts. They are not permanently deleted in the strictest sense. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer. 

Internet Archive is facing a backlash from book publishers

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/what-is-internet-archive-and-why-is-it-facing-backlash-from-publishers-explained/article68374235.ece/amp/

UPSC Relevance: GS2 – Polity and Governance

Context: Internet Archive

Why in News

  • Internet Archive is embroiled in a major legal challenge as it faces off against traditional publishers accusing it of copyright violations. 

Internet Archive 

  • Internet Archive, a non-profit that aims to digitise, preserve, lend, and share multi-media content, is embroiled in a major legal challenge as it faces off against traditional publishers accusing it of copyright violations. 
  • The free digital library is currently fighting the forced removal of around half a million books from its platform, which it argues functions like a library.

What is the case against Internet Archive?

  • While a great number of books digitised and uploaded by Internet Archive were already in the public domain—such as historical sources, old classics, etc.—many traditional publishers have alleged that Internet Archive violated their copyrights and illegally made their books available to the public as well, by scanning physical copies and distributing the digital files.
  • In the case Hachette vs Internet Archive that began in 2020, traditional publishers Hachette, HarperCollins, Wiley, and Penguin Random House sued Internet Archive. 
  • On March 24 last year, District Judge John G. Koeltl issued an order in favour of the publishers.
  • In particular, traditional publishers were against IA’s temporary ‘National Emergency Library’ (NEL) initiative that it launched during the COVID-19 pandemic. 
  • This was to allow more users to access the e-books in its collection while physical libraries were locked down.
  • In general, IA uses a system known as “controlled digital lending” to limit the number of people who can access an e-book. It ended its emergency library system after being hit with the lawsuit.
  • Internet Archive used the doctrine of fair use to defend itself in the case, but this did not hold up. 
  • The organisation said it would appeal, but did so after some delay.

Why are books being removed from the Internet Archive?

  • As a result of the lawsuit, IA was forced to remove over half a million books from its database, with the Director of Library Services at Internet Archive, Chris Freeland, calling out the “profoundly negative impact” on users. 
  • According to testimonies collected by IA, the mass removal hurt students who could not access books for academic research. 
  • While IA identifies itself as a library, it has been compared to a shadow library or a piracy database by traditional publishers, who disagree with its “controlled digital lending” approach.
  • Despite the removal, however, Internet Archive is still home to a rich collection.
  • As of late June, the web archive said it contained 835 billion web pages, 44 million books and texts, 15 million audio recordings, 10.6 million videos, 4.8 million images, and 1 million software programs. 
  • Live concerts and television programs also make up part of this collection.

What is Wayback Machine? 

  • While Internet Archive buys physical books, digitises them, lends them to users, or makes them available for download, it has since 1996 also focused on preserving web pages. 
  • The platform claims users can explore over 866 billion saved web pages through its own search service.
  • Users can help IA archive parts of the internet at no cost, or they can reach out to the platform to make their own work publicly available.

How can one use Wayback Machine?

  • Using Wayback Machine is easy and free of cost, though results are not always guaranteed.
  • To begin, navigate to the Wayback Machine web page, where you will see a bar in which you can enter a URL/keywords relevant to the web page or content you are looking for. 
  • Then, hit ‘enter’ and wait for the results to be shown.
  • If the content was new, rarely viewed, or deleted a very long time ago before being captured for the archive, you may not get many results or any at all. 
  • However, you have a good chance of finding content such as old websites that no longer exist today, earlier versions of existing websites, deleted social media posts, archived versions of paywalled articles, and archived versions of content that is blocked or censored in your jurisdiction.
  • However, the service can be patchy at times and not all content might have been perfectly saved; broken links, missing media, or pages that won’t load are often the end result. 
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q3. Match the following organizations with the challenges they are currently facing:

List I (Organization) List II (Challenge)
a. Internet Archive 1. Accused of copyright violations by traditional publishers
b. World Health Organization 2. Legal challenges regarding environmental regulations
c. United Nations 3. Controversies over vaccine distribution
d. World Trade Organization 4. Trade disputes and negotiations

Select the correct pair(s) from the code given below:

  1. a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
  2. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
  3. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
  4. a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
Q. Consider the following statements: (2019)

A digital signature is

1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it.

2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet. 

3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

 

Answer 3 B

Explanation

  • a-1: The Internet Archive is facing a major legal challenge from traditional publishers who accuse it of copyright violations. The publishers claim that the Internet Archive’s practice of lending digitized copies of books without proper authorization infringes on their copyrights.
  • b-2: The World Health Organization (WHO) is not typically involved in environmental regulations, but faces legal challenges and controversies primarily related to health issues such as vaccine distribution.
  • c-3: The United Nations (UN) faces various controversies, including issues surrounding vaccine distribution, especially highlighted during the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • d-4: The World Trade Organization (WTO) deals with trade disputes and negotiations, often finding itself at the center of international trade controversies.

Red flags over runaway silver imports from UAE through Gift City

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/red-flags-over-runaway-silver-imports-from-uae-through-gift-city/article68379130.ece/amp/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3- Economy

Context: Gift City exchange, Bullion market

Why in News 

  • India’s silver imports are now primarily managed by a small group of private entities, who are importing the metal from Dubai through the Gift City exchange.

Background and Context 

  • India’s bullion market, particularly its silver imports, has undergone a significant shift where a majority of imports now originate from Dubai and are cleared through the Gift City exchange. 
  • This shift has raised concerns about potential revenue losses and compliance issues under the India-UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA).

Silver Import Trends and Gift City Exchange 

Import Shift to Gift City Exchange:

  • Since December 2023, almost all of India’s silver imports from Dubai, accounting for 87% of global imports, are processed through the Gift City exchange in Gandhinagar. 
  • This is due to the exchange’s ability to clear imports at a reduced 8% duty compared to the standard 15% import duty levied elsewhere.

Regulatory Concerns:

  • The shift has prompted concerns about adherence to the rules of origin specified in the India-UAE CEPA. 
  • While Gift City allows private traders to import silver without RBI/DGFT nomination, imports through other ports were questioned for failing to meet these rules, specifically regarding value addition and origin compliance.

Issues Highlighted by Global Trade Research Initiative (GTRI) 

Rules of Origin Compliance:

  • GTRI has flagged discrepancies in how imports cleared through Gift City comply with CEPA’s rules of origin compared to imports through other ports. 
  • There are concerns that imports via Gift City might not meet the required conditions, potentially leading to misdeclared imports and tariff arbitrage.

Revenue Losses and CEPA Terms:

  • Under CEPA, India plans to reduce the duty on silver imports from the UAE to 0% over 10 years, contingent upon Dubai exporters meeting stringent rules of origin. 
  • GTRI estimates a potential revenue loss of ₹6,700 crore as the duty phases out, driven by tariff arbitrage incentives.

Recommendations by GTRI: 

  • GTRI suggests renegotiating CEPA terms to address duty arbitrage issues and tightening verification of value addition claims by Dubai exporters through Gift City. 
  • It also calls for investigating relationships between export and import firms to prevent conflicts of interest and ensure compliance.

Regulatory Challenges and Way Forward 

Compliance Enforcement:

  • Customs authorities have been stringent in verifying rules of origin for silver imports through ports other than Gift City, demanding proof of value addition and process details. 
  • This contrasts with the apparent leniency or oversight observed at Gift City.

Policy Adjustments:

  • There is a proposal to restrict silver imports to RBI/DGFT-nominated agencies to mitigate risks associated with mis declared imports and ensure strict compliance with CEPA conditions.

What is a Bullion Exchange?

  • Bullion refers to physical gold and silver of high purity that is often kept in the form of bars, ingots, or coins.
  • Bullion can sometimes be considered legal tender and is often held as reserves by central banks or held by institutional investors.
  • The Government had notified in August 2020 about the Bullion Spot Delivery Contract and Bullion Depository Receipt (BDR) with underlying Bullion as Financial Product and related services as Financial Services.
  • A bullion Exchange is a market through which buyers and sellers trade gold and silver as well as associated derivatives.
  • There are various bullion markets around the world with the London Bullion Market known as the primary global market trading platform for gold and silver.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q4. India’s silver imports have recently undergone significant changes. Which of the following statements correctly describes these changes?

  1. India has stopped importing silver from Dubai and now sources it primarily from Russia.
  2. A small group of private entities primarily manages India’s silver imports, sourcing the metal from Dubai through the Gift City exchange.
  3. The Government of India has nationalized silver imports and controls all import activities directly.
  4. Silver imports are now regulated exclusively through the Mumbai Stock Exchange, with no involvement from private entities.
Q. With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct?(2020)

  1. India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.
  2.  India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilisers and machinery have decreased in recent years.
  3. India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services.
  4. India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Ans – d

Answer 4 B

Explanation

  • India’s silver imports are now primarily managed by a small group of private entities who import the metal from Dubai through the Gift City exchange. This reflects a shift towards more structured and regulated trade practices, with a focus on using the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (Gift City) exchange for importing silver. This change has led to consolidation in the market, with private entities playing a significant role in managing imports, which can impact market dynamics, regulatory frameworks, and economic conditions.
  • Option (a) is incorrect because India has not stopped importing silver from Dubai; instead, Dubai remains a primary source.
  • Option (c) is incorrect as the Government of India has not nationalized silver imports.
  • Option (d) is incorrect because silver imports are regulated through the Gift City exchange, not exclusively through the Mumbai Stock Exchange, and involve private entities.

Digital Bharat Nidhi-govt’s fresh attempt at improving rural telecom connectivity 

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/digital-bharat-nidhi-rural-telecom-9438127/  

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS3- Economy

Context: India become world’s 3rd largest solar power generator in 2023

Why in news 

  • The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) on July 4 released draft rules to operationalise the Digital Bharat Nidhi, in a fresh attempt by the central government at increasing telecom connectivity in rural areas.

Key Highlights

  • The Digital Bharat Nidhi, intended to replace the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF), is funded by a 5% levy on telecom operators’ Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR).
  • Its purpose is to finance the expansion of telecom networks in remote and rural areas, which private companies might otherwise avoid due to low profitability. 
  • Recently, the government notified amendments to the Telecom Act and proposed new regulations to transform USOF into Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN), enhancing its scope significantly.

Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) 

  • The Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) operates under the Telecom Act, where contributions from telecom companies are initially deposited into the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI). 
  • The CFI is the main account where all government revenues and expenditures are managed, including loans and repayments.
  • Periodically, the government transfers the collected funds from the CFI to the DBN.

Purposes of Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) 

Funds accumulated under the DBN are allocated for several purposes:

  • Enhancing universal service by expanding access to telecommunication services in underserved rural, remote, and urban areas.
  • Supporting research and development initiatives aimed at advancing telecommunication services, technologies, and products.
  • Funding pilot projects, providing consultancy assistance, and offering advisory support to improve connectivity.
  • Introducing new telecommunication services, technologies, and products to enhance the overall telecom infrastructure and services in India.

Administrator Appointment and Selection of Implementers 

  • According to the draft rules issued by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), the Centre will appoint an “administrator” tasked with overseeing the implementation of the Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN). 
  • The administrator will be responsible for selecting “DBN implementers” through a competitive process, which may involve bidding or invitation of applications from eligible individuals or entities.

Modalities of Funding Allocation 

  • The administrator of the DBN will determine the modalities for providing funding to DBN implementers on a case-by-case basis. 
  • These modalities include options such as full funding, partial funding, co-funding arrangements, market risk mitigation support, and provision of risk capital. 
  • The aim is to tailor the funding approach based on the specific needs and circumstances of each project or initiative.

Targeted Access to Telecommunication Services

  • Funds under the DBN will be allocated towards schemes and projects aimed at providing targeted access to telecommunication services. 
  • These initiatives are particularly focused on enhancing connectivity for underserved groups in society, including women, persons with disabilities, and economically and socially weaker sections.

Draft Rules for Implementation

  • As per the draft rules, the DBN will prioritize funding schemes that promote inclusive access to telecommunication services, support technological advancement, and facilitate the introduction of new telecom products and services.
  • The rules emphasize the importance of addressing societal disparities through targeted initiatives funded by the DBN. 

Criteria for DBN-funded Schemes and Projects 

  • The Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) aims to support schemes and projects that meet specific criteria to enhance telecommunications in underserved areas. 
  • These criteria include:
    • Introduction of Next-Generation Technologies: Implementing advanced telecommunication technologies in rural, remote, and urban underserved areas to improve connectivity and service quality.
    • Improving Affordability: Initiatives aimed at making telecommunication services more affordable in these areas, ensuring accessibility for all segments of society.
    • Promotion of Innovation and Research: Supporting innovation, research, and development activities in the telecommunications sector, fostering indigenous technology development, and promoting commercialization of associated intellectual property through regulatory sandboxes.
    • Standard Development: Developing and establishing relevant standards that meet national requirements and promoting their standardization in international bodies.
    • Support for Telecom Start-ups: Encouraging entrepreneurship in the telecommunications industry, including the manufacturing of telecom equipment, to stimulate growth and innovation.

Open and Non-Discriminatory Access

  • Furthermore, the draft rules stipulate that any entity receiving DBN funding for establishing, operating, maintaining, or expanding a telecommunication network must ensure open and non-discriminatory access to their network and services. 
  • This requirement aligns with the administrator’s directives issued periodically to uphold fair access practices across all funded projects.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q5.  Consider the following statements with regards to Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN):

    1. The Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) supports initiatives to deploy advanced telecommunication technologies.
  • Projects funded by the DBN is not required to provide open and non-discriminatory access to their telecommunication networks and services.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (2022)

  1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
  2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
  3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans- d

Answer 5 A

Explanation

  • The Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) supports initiatives to deploy advanced telecommunication technologies in underserved rural, remote, and urban areas of India, enhancing connectivity and service quality. So, Statement 1 is correct.
  • Projects funded by the DBN must provide open and non-discriminatory access to their telecommunication networks and services, following guidelines set by the DBN administrator. So, Statement 2 is incorrect.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer. 

About Aphelion

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/what-is-aphelion-9435726/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 1 Geography

Context: What is an aphelion?

Why in News 

  • On July 5, Earth reaches its farthest point from the sun for the entire year, a moment astronomers call aphelion

About Aphelion

    • Aphelion is the point in the orbit of a celestial body (like a planet or comet) that is farthest from the Sun. Earth reaches aphelion around early July each year.
    • Earth’s aphelion happens because its orbit is elliptical, not circular. All planets in the solar system move in oval-shaped orbits around the Sun, and this is probably true for planets around other stars too.
    • Gravity is the reason behind these elliptical orbits. The planets pull on each other, making their orbits less circular. Jupiter, being the largest planet, has the most influence.
    • The shape of an orbit is measured by its eccentricity: the higher the eccentricity, the more oval-shaped the orbit is. Mars has an eccentricity of 0.094, meaning its orbit is more elliptical. 
  • Pluto’s orbit is even more oval-shaped with an eccentricity of 0.244. In comparison, Earth’s orbit is almost circular with an eccentricity of 0.017. 

How far is the Earth from the Sun at aphelion? 

  • At aphelion, Earth’s distance from the Sun is about 152.1 million km.
  • Six months later, in early January, Earth reaches perihelion — the point at which it is closest to the Sun. 
  • At perihelion, the distance between Earth and the Sun is roughly 147.1 million km.

Does aphelion affect temperatures on Earth?

  • A common misconception is that Earth’s varying distance from the Sun is what gives rise to the seasons.
  • We get 7% less sunlight at aphelion compared to what we are exposed to at perihelion, leading to slightly milder summers and winters in the Northern Hemisphere. 
  • But this effect is offset by Earth’s tilt on its axis — at different points along its orbit the hemispheres slant either toward or away from the Sun.

What would happen if there were no aphelion?

  • If our planetary orbit were a perfect circle, the seasons’ lengths would be exactly the same — right now, spring and summer are a few days longer than fall and winter in the Northern Hemisphere. 
  • But if something made Earth’s orbit grow more eccentric, the consequences could be catastrophic. 
  • Seasons in the Southern Hemisphere would become too extreme — summers would be unbearably hot, and winters would be intolerably cold. This could lead to crop failures and freezes.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q6.  Consider the following statements with regards to Aphelion:

  1. At aphelion, Earth is at its greatest distance from the Sun during its elliptical orbit around it.
  2. Aphelion marks the point in Earth’s orbit where it is farthest away from the Sun, occurring approximately every July.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 only
  • None
Q. Variations in the length of daytime and night time from season to season are due to-[2013]

(a) The earth’s rotation on its axis

(b) The earth’s revolution round the sun in an elliptical manner

(c) Latitudinal position of the place

(d) Revolution of the earth on a tilted axis

Ans: d

Answer 6- A

Explanation

    • Earth’s orbit around the Sun is not a perfect circle but an ellipse, with the Sun located at one of the foci of the ellipse. Aphelion occurs when Earth is at the point in its orbit farthest from the Sun.  Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • Aphelion is the point where Earth is farthest from the Sun. Aphelion does indeed occur around July each year. This timing is due to the combined effects of Earth’s orbital motion and the tilt of its axis, which causes the seasons. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer. 

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Scroll to Top