CARE 2nd September 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – CARE (02-09-2024)

News at a Glance
Polity and Governance: About legal validity of lie-detector tests
Economy: India has trade surplus with 151 nations; deficit with 75 during Jan-June 2024: GTRI
Centre plans to boost ‘2G ethanol’ production, set up enzyme-manufacturing facilities to reduce imports
Science and Technology: IACS scientists discover a new target for cancer treatment
International Relations: Balochistan’s on the boil – Impact on India

About legal validity of lie-detector tests

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/is-the-administration-of-lie-detector-tests-legally-valid/article68568568.ece/amp/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Polity and Governance)

Context: Lie Detection Tests

Why in News 

  • Recently, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) has been authorised to perform a polygraph test on the key suspect in the rape and murder case of a postgraduate doctor at Kolkata Medical College. 

Polygraph Test 

  • How It Works: The polygraph test measures physiological responses such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, and skin conductivity (sweating) while the subject answers a series of questions. The underlying assumption is that these physiological parameters change when a person is lying due to stress or anxiety.
  • Purpose: It is used to verify the truthfulness of suspects, witnesses, or accused individuals in criminal investigations.

Narco-Analysis Test

  • How It Works: The subject is administered a drug, typically sodium pentothal, which induces a sedative or “twilight” state, lowering the subject’s inhibitions and making them more likely to speak freely. The subject is then questioned about the crime, and their responses are monitored.
  • Purpose: Narco-analysis is employed when investigators believe that the subject is concealing information and hope that the drug will make them more forthcoming.

Brain Mapping (P300) 

  • How It Works: Brain mapping involves measuring brainwave activity using electrodes attached to the scalp. When the subject is shown images or asked questions related to the crime, the brain’s response (specifically the P300 wave) is monitored. The presence of a P300 wave is thought to indicate recognition or knowledge related to the crime.
  • Purpose: This test is used to determine whether the subject has specific knowledge about the crime that they may be trying to hide.

Why Are Lie Detection Tests Conducted?

  • Criminal Investigations: Lie detection tests are tools for law enforcement agencies to verify the truthfulness of individuals involved in a case, including suspects, witnesses, and accused persons.
  • Judicial Orders: Courts may authorize these tests to gather additional information when traditional investigative methods do not yield clear results.
  • High-Profile Cases: These tests are often employed in sensitive or high-profile cases where there is a heightened need for thorough investigation and where other evidence may be limited or circumstantial.

How Are Lie Detection Tests Conducted? 

  • Voluntary Consent: Indian law requires that these tests be conducted only with the subject’s voluntary consent. The Supreme Court’s 2010 ruling in Selvi v. State of Karnataka emphasized that such tests cannot be forced, as this would violate the constitutional protection against self-incrimination (Article 20(3)).
  • Test Administration: The tests are carried out under the supervision of medical experts in a controlled environment. For the polygraph test, sensors are attached to the subject’s body to monitor physiological responses, while in narco-analysis and brain mapping, specialized equipment and procedures are used.
  • Results Interpretation: The data collected from these tests is analyzed by experts to identify inconsistencies in the subject’s responses that may indicate deception. However, interpretation requires caution as results can be influenced by various factors, including the subject’s mental state or medical conditions.

Legal Status in India

  • Admissibility in Court: Lie detection test results are considered investigative tools and are not admissible as sole evidence in court. The Supreme Court has ruled that these tests can violate the right against self-incrimination, and therefore, their results cannot be used to directly convict someone.
  • Derivative Evidence: While the results themselves are not admissible, any evidence discovered as a result of these tests (e.g., the location of a weapon) can be admitted in court.

Ethical Concerns 

  • Privacy and Consent: There are significant ethical debates surrounding the use of lie detection tests, particularly concerning the subject’s privacy and the potential for coercion, even when consent is obtained.
  • Reliability: The accuracy of these tests is often questioned. Factors like anxiety, nervousness, or pre-existing medical conditions can lead to false positives or negatives, making the results unreliable in some cases.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q1.  Consider the following statements regarding Polygraph Tests:

  1. A polygraph test measures physiological responses such as heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration while the subject answers questions.
  2. The results of a polygraph test are admissible as direct evidence in Indian courts.
  3. The accuracy of polygraph tests is widely accepted and undisputed in the scientific community.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Q. Consider the following statements:  (2023)

Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration. 

Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I 

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.  

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect  

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 

 Correct Answer: Option (c)

Answer 1- A

Explanation

    • A polygraph test measures various physiological responses like heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, and skin conductivity while the subject answers questions. The assumption is that these physiological parameters change when a person is lying due to stress or anxiety.  Hence, statement 1 is Correct.
    • The results of a polygraph test are not admissible as direct evidence in Indian courts. The Supreme Court of India has ruled that such tests can violate the right against self-incrimination (Article 20(3) of the Constitution). However, any material evidence discovered as a result of the test can be admissible, but not the test results themselves. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The accuracy of polygraph tests is a subject of ongoing debate in the scientific community. There are concerns about false positives and false negatives, and factors like anxiety or medical conditions can influence the results. Thus, the accuracy is neither widely accepted nor undisputed. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Therefore, option A is the Correct answer. 

India has trade surplus with 151 nations; deficit with 75 during Jan-June 2024: GTRI

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-has-trade-surplus-with-151-nations-deficit-with-75-during-jan-june-2024-gtri/article68592580.ece  

UPSC Relevance: GS3- Economy

Context: India’s trade balance during the first half of 2024

Why in News 

  • The report by the Global Trade Research Initiative (GTRI) offers an analysis of India’s trade balance during the first half of 2024, highlighting both trade surpluses and deficits with various countries. 

Trade Surplus and Deficit Overview 

  • Trade Surplus: India recorded a trade surplus with 151 countries, meaning that its exports to these countries exceeded its imports. This surplus accounted for 55.8% of India’s exports and 16.5% of its imports, totaling $72.1 billion. The largest surpluses were with the USA ($21 billion) and the Netherlands ($11.6 billion).
  • Trade Deficit: India had a trade deficit with 75 countries, where its imports exceeded exports. This deficit accounted for 44.2% of its exports and 83.5% of its imports, resulting in a much larger trade deficit of $185.4 billion. The top countries contributing to this deficit were China ($41.88 billion), Russia ($31.98 billion), and Iraq ($15.07 billion). 

Countries Contributing to the Trade Deficit 

  • The report identifies 23 countries where India’s trade deficit exceeded $1 billion, with these countries accounting for a significant portion of India’s imports (73.5%) and exports (32.9%).
  • The top five countries with the highest deficits include China, Russia, Iraq, Indonesia, and the UAE.

Sectoral Insights 

  • Crude Oil and Coal: The report suggests that India need not worry about deficits arising from crude oil and coal imports, as these are essential commodities.
  • Industrial Goods: However, the report expresses concern over the large deficit with China, particularly in the import of industrial goods. China is India’s largest trade deficit partner, with 98.5% of imports from China being industrial goods. This reliance on Chinese imports, especially in critical industrial products, is seen as a threat to India’s economic sovereignty.
  • Gold, Silver, and Diamonds: The report also advises caution regarding imports of gold, silver, and diamonds, particularly from countries like Switzerland, UAE, and Hong Kong, as recent tariff cuts could lead to a rise in these imports.

Strategic Recommendations 

  • Reducing Dependence on China: The report suggests that India should invest in “deep manufacturing” to reduce dependence on industrial goods imports from China. This would involve building domestic capacity in key industries to mitigate the economic risks associated with heavy reliance on Chinese imports.
  • Monitoring Imports: While the trade deficit with oil-exporting countries is not a concern, the report recommends monitoring imports from countries that export precious metals and gems, as changes in tariffs might impact the trade balance.

Shift in Trade Partners 

  • The report notes a shift in India’s top trade partners, with the USA overtaking China as India’s top merchandise trade partner. 
  • This change is attributed to a revision in trade data that increased the recorded imports from the USA, making the USA India’s largest trading partner with a total trade value of $119.7 billion.

What is Trade surplus?

  • Trade surplus occurs when a country exports more goods and services than it imports, resulting in a positive trade balance. 
  • This indicates that the country is earning more from its exports than it is spending on imports, often seen as a sign of economic strength and competitiveness in international markets

What is Trade deficit?

  • Trade deficit arises when a country imports more than it exports, leading to a negative trade balance. 
  • This means the country is spending more on foreign goods and services than it is earning from its exports, which can be a concern if it leads to increased debt or reliance on foreign capital. 
  • Both trade surplus and deficit are key indicators of a country’s economic health and its position in the global trade system.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q2. Which of the following statements correctly describes a trade surplus and a trade deficit?

A) A trade surplus occurs when a country imports more goods and services than it exports, resulting in a positive trade balance, while a trade deficit occurs when a country exports more than it imports, leading to a negative trade balance.

B) A trade surplus occurs when a country exports more goods and services than it imports, resulting in a positive trade balance, while a trade deficit occurs when a country imports more than it exports, leading to a negative trade balance.

C) A trade surplus occurs when a country’s imports and exports are equal, resulting in a balanced trade, while a trade deficit occurs when a country spends more on foreign goods than it earns from its exports.

D) A trade surplus occurs when a country imports more goods and services than it exports, resulting in a negative trade balance, while a trade deficit occurs when a country exports more than it imports, leading to a positive trade balance.

Consider the following countries: (2018)

  1. Australia
  2. Canada
  3. China
  4. India
  5. Japan
  6. USA

Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6

Ans: (c)

Answer 2– A

Explanation – 

    • A trade surplus occurs when a country exports more goods and services than it imports. This results in a positive trade balance because the country is earning more money from its exports than it is spending on imports. In simple terms, a trade surplus means that a country is selling more to the world than it is buying, which often indicates economic strength.
    • On the other hand, a trade deficit happens when a country imports more goods and services than it exports. This leads to a negative trade balance because the country is spending more money on imports than it is earning from exports. A trade deficit can be a concern if it leads to increased borrowing or dependence on foreign capital.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer. 

Centre plans to boost ‘2G ethanol’ production, set up enzyme-manufacturing facilities to reduce imports

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/to-boost-ethanol-production-centre-moots-dedicated-enzyme-manufacturing/article68588895.ece/amp/  

UPSC Relevance: GS3- Economy

Context: BioE3 Policy and Ethanol Production in India

Why in News

  • Production of key minerals in the country, such as iron ore and limestone, has continued to show robust growth in Q1 of FY 2024-25.

BioE3 Policy Overview: 

  • The BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment) policy is an initiative launched by the Indian government to boost biotechnology-centric manufacturing in the country. 
  • This policy is a part of India’s broader efforts to transition away from fossil fuels and adopt more sustainable, biologically-based alternatives. 
  • The policy aims to establish bio-foundries that will produce biotechnology-developed feedstock and catalysts, among other components, to support various industries.

Focus on Ethanol Production: 

  • One of the key components of the BioE3 policy is the emphasis on ethanol production, particularly the production of second-generation (2G) bioethanol. 
  • 2G bioethanol is produced from non-food biomass, such as rice straw, rather than traditional sources like sugarcane molasses. 
  • This approach not only supports the fuel blending mandate (E20, which requires petrol to be blended with 20% ethanol by 2025) but also helps in managing agricultural waste, particularly rice stubble, which is often burned, contributing to severe air pollution in northern India.

Enzyme Manufacturing Facilities:

  • As part of the first steps under the BioE3 policy, the Department of Biotechnology is considering setting up enzyme-manufacturing facilities to support the production of ethanol. 
  • Enzymes play a crucial role in converting agricultural waste like rice stubble into ethanol. Currently, these enzymes are imported, which increases the cost of ethanol production. 
  • However, Indian scientists have developed locally-produced enzymes that are as effective as imported ones, and scaling up their production could significantly reduce costs.

Pilot Plant in Manesar, Haryana: 

  • The first enzyme-manufacturing facility is likely to be established in Manesar, Haryana. 
  • This plant would supply enzymes to 2G bioethanol plants in Mathura (Uttar Pradesh), Bhatinda (Punjab), and an existing plant in Panipat. 
  • The Panipat plant, set up by the Indian Oil Corporation Ltd. in 2022, is the first of its kind in India that uses rice stubble as feedstock for ethanol production.

Importance of Locally Produced Enzymes: 

  • The enzymes in question are derived from a fungus known as Penicillium funiculosum. Through genetic engineering, scientists have been able to modify this fungus to produce the necessary enzymes in sufficient quantities to efficiently convert rice stubble into ethanol. 
  • If India’s future ethanol production relies on these locally developed enzymes, it could reduce the cost of procuring enzymes by approximately two-thirds.

Environmental and Economic Benefits: Challenges and 

The BioE3 policy and the push for ethanol production have multiple benefits:

  • Environmental: It provides an alternative use for rice stubble, reducing the need for burning and thereby helping to reduce air pollution.
  • Economic: By decreasing reliance on imported enzymes and increasing domestic production, the policy could boost India’s economic sovereignty and create new employment opportunities in the biotechnology sector.
  • Sustainability: The use of agricultural waste and municipal solid waste as feedstock for ethanol aligns with the global movement towards sustainability and reduces the environmental impact of traditional fuel sources.

Future Directions:

  • While the BioE3 policy is ambitious, it faces challenges, including the need for large-scale production facilities and continued research and development to improve the efficiency and cost-effectiveness of biotechnology solutions. 
  • Additionally, the policy’s success will depend on effective implementation and collaboration between government agencies, research institutions, and industry players.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q3. Which of the following statements accurately describes the BioE3 policy and its associated initiatives in India?

  1. The BioE3 policy aims to enhance biotechnology-centric manufacturing by establishing bio-foundries and supporting the production of second-generation bioethanol.
  2. The primary feedstock for 2G bioethanol production in India is sugarcane molasses.
  3. India is planning to set up enzyme-manufacturing facilities to reduce the reliance on imported enzymes for ethanol production.
  4. The first enzyme-manufacturing facility under the BioE3 policy is expected to be located in Panipat, Haryana.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Q. Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol? (2010)

(a) Jatropha
(b) Maize
(c) Pongamia
(d) Sunflower

Ans: (b)

Answer 3 B

Explanation

  • Statement 1: Correct. The BioE3 policy is designed to boost biotechnology-based manufacturing, including setting up bio-foundries and supporting the production of second-generation (2G) bioethanol.
    • Statement 2: Incorrect. The feedstock for 2G bioethanol is rice straw, not sugarcane molasses. Sugarcane molasses is used for first-generation ethanol.
  • Statement 3: Correct. The policy includes setting up enzyme-manufacturing facilities to reduce dependence on imported enzymes for ethanol production.
    • Statement 4: Incorrect. The first enzyme-manufacturing facility is expected to be in Manesar, Haryana, not Panipat.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

IACS scientists discover a new target for cancer treatment

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/iacs-scientists-discover-a-new-target-for-cancer-treatment/article68559161.ece/amp/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3- Science and Technology

Context: Search for effective cancer therapies 

Why in News 

  • Scientists at the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS) in Kolkata have identified a new target for killing cancer cells, which could lead to more effective cancer therapies.

Key Findings: 

  1. DNA Repair Mechanisms:
    • The study reveals insights into how cancer cells respond to topoisomerase 1 (Top1)-targeted chemotherapy. Top1 is an enzyme critical for DNA replication and transcription.
    • Cancer cells can develop resistance to chemotherapy drugs by activating their intrinsic DNA repair mechanisms. This resistance is often mediated by the enzyme TDP1 (Tyrosyl-DNA phosphodiesterase 1), which repairs DNA damage caused by Top1 inhibitors like camptothecin, topotecan, and irinotecan.
  2. Targeted Therapies:
    • The researchers have discovered that targeting both CDK1 (Cyclin-Dependent Kinase 1) and TDP1 could offer new therapeutic strategies. CDK1 regulates TDP1 and its activity during cell division.
    • CDK1 inhibitors are in clinical trials and may be used in combination with Top1 inhibitors. This combination can enhance the effectiveness of cancer treatment by disrupting DNA repair processes and inducing chromosomal instability in cancer cells.
  3. Combinatorial Approach:
    • The study suggests that combining CDK1 inhibitors with Top1 inhibitors can effectively target cancer cells by interfering with their DNA repair mechanisms and cell cycle regulation.
    • This approach addresses the issue of chemoresistance by targeting multiple aspects of the cancer cell cycle and DNA replication, making it harder for cancer cells to survive and evade treatment.

Research Implications: 

  • Personalized Medicine: The findings could lead to personalized chemotherapy regimens tailored to individual patients based on their specific cancer characteristics and resistance mechanisms.
  • Novel Therapies: The research supports the development of new drugs and treatment combinations that target the interplay between DNA repair and cell cycle regulation, potentially improving outcomes for cancer patients.

Ongoing Work:

  • The researchers are currently using mouse models to test these combination drug therapies and validate the efficacy of the proposed treatment strategies.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q4. Recent research by scientists at the Indian Association for the Cultivation of Science (IACS) has uncovered potential new strategies for treating cancer. Consider the following statements regarding this research:

  1. The research focuses on the role of topoisomerase 1 (Top1) and its interaction with DNA repair mechanisms in cancer cells.
  2. CDK1 inhibitors are being tested as a new class of drugs to enhance the effectiveness of chemotherapy by preventing the repair of DNA damage caused by Top1 inhibitors.
  3. The study suggests that CDK1 inhibitors can be used in combination with Top1 inhibitors to overcome cancer cell resistance to single-agent therapies.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Q. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?   (2022)

a). Ant

b) Cockroach 

c) Crab

d) Spider

Ans: a

Answer 4 D

Explanation

    • Statement 1: Correct. The research focuses on how Top1-targeted chemotherapy interacts with DNA repair mechanisms in cancer cells, specifically how TDP1 helps cancer cells repair DNA damage caused by Top1 inhibitors.
  • Statement 2: Correct. CDK1 inhibitors are being explored as a new class of drugs that, when combined with Top1 inhibitors, can prevent the repair of DNA damage and enhance the effectiveness of chemotherapy.
  • Statement 3: Correct. The study indicates that combining CDK1 inhibitors with Top1 inhibitors can help overcome resistance to single-agent therapies by targeting different aspects of the cancer cell cycle and DNA repair mechanisms.
  • Therefore, option D is the correct answer. 

Baluchistan’s on the boil- Impact on India

Source: Times of India

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/pakistan/why-balochistans-on-the-boil-what-it-means-for-india/articleshow/112960379.cms

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 2- International Relations

Context: Baluchistan Unrest and implications on India 

Why in news 

  • In recent times, Pakistan has experienced a troubling rise in terrorist attacks, with the province of Baluchistan being particularly hard-hit.

Overview 

  • Balochistan was struck by a series of coordinated attacks by the Baloch Liberation Army (BLA), a separatist group. 
  • The violence has resulted in over 70 deaths and has been described as more widespread than previous assaults. 
  • The BLA’s attacks have targeted police stations and taken control of major highways, highlighting the ongoing insurgency in the region.

Balochistan’s Issues: 

  • Balochistan, Pakistan’s largest but least developed province, has long been troubled by issues of neglect and exploitation. 
  • The province is rich in natural resources, but its residents have often felt marginalized and deprived of the benefits from these resources.

Baloch Insurgency

  • The insurgency in Balochistan has its roots in grievances over the exploitation of the region’s resources and the lack of development and political representation. 
  • The BLA, one of the key insurgent groups, has been actively challenging the Pakistani state, seeking greater autonomy or independence for Balochistan.

Nawab Akbar Khan Bugti

  • The timing of the attacks coincided with the death anniversary of Nawab Akbar Khan Bugti, a prominent Baloch leader who was killed in 2006. 
  • Bugti was a key figure in the Baloch separatist movement, and his death during then-President Pervez Musharraf’s counter-insurgency operations remains a significant and controversial event in Balochistan’s recent history.

Dynamics and Implications

  1. Ethnic Dimension:
    • A new ethnic dimension has emerged, with the BLA targeting Punjabi workers. This shift reflects a deeper anti-Punjabi sentiment among Baloch insurgents. Punjabis are seen as beneficiaries of economic opportunities in Balochistan, exacerbating local resentment and fueling the insurgency.
  2. Historical Context:
    • The Baloch insurgency has historical roots in the perceived exploitation of Balochistan’s resources and neglect by the central government. The killing of Baloch leader Nawab Akbar Khan Bugti in 2006 remains a poignant symbol of the conflict.
  1. Security and Insurgency Dynamics:
    • The insurgency is not only driven by local grievances but also intersects with broader regional conflicts. There are indications that the BLA and the Tehrik-i-Taliban Pakistan (TTP) may be collaborating, reflecting a possible nexus between Baloch and Pashtun insurgent groups.
  2. China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC):
    • The ongoing violence threatens the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC), a flagship project aimed at transforming Balochistan into a major economic hub. The BLA and other insurgent groups view CPEC as a symbol of exploitation and a tool of oppression, targeting Chinese projects and workers.
  3. Pakistan’s Response:
    • Pakistan faces a dual challenge: addressing Balochistan’s internal issues and managing external accusations. The government’s militaristic approach has not quelled the insurgency and has exacerbated grievances, including allegations of human rights abuses and economic exploitation.

Impact on India:

  1. Strategic and Security Concerns:
    • The instability in Balochistan poses security challenges for India, especially in terms of cross-border terrorism and potential spillover effects along the shared maritime boundary.
    • Pakistan’s accusation of Indian involvement in supporting Baloch separatists complicates bilateral relations and could be used as a pretext for increased hostility towards India.
  2. Geopolitical Implications:
    • The unrest undermines CPEC, a key project for China and Pakistan, which passes through Balochistan. Disruptions in this region could affect India’s strategic positioning in the Indian Ocean and South Asia.
    • India’s stance on Balochistan’s human rights issues has been highlighted at international forums, aligning with New Delhi’s broader strategy to counter Pakistan’s narrative on Kashmir.
  3. Energy Security and Trade Routes:
    • Balochistan’s instability affects potential trade routes and energy transit, impacting India’s access to Central Asia and beyond. The security of the Gwadar port, a CPEC flagship, remains a critical concern.
  4. Regional Stability:
    • Continued unrest in Balochistan could further destabilize South Asia, affecting India’s neighborhood policy and efforts to maintain peace and stability in the region.
    • India must navigate the complex dynamics carefully, balancing its strategic interests while avoiding direct involvement that could escalate tensions further.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q5. Assertion (A): The unrest in Balochistan poses strategic and security challenges for India, including potential spillover effects along the shared maritime boundary.

Reason (R): Balochistan’s instability undermines the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC), which passes through the region, affecting India’s strategic interests in the Indian Ocean and South Asia.

Options:

A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
C. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
D. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Q. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India? (2017)

a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.

b) India’s relations with oil producing Arab countries will be strengthened.

c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India

Answer: (c)

Answer 5 A

Explanation

  • The unrest in Balochistan poses significant strategic and security challenges for India. The instability in the region can lead to increased cross-border terrorism and potential threats to India’s maritime boundary. 
  • Moreover, Balochistan’s instability directly affects the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC), a critical infrastructure project for China and Pakistan, which runs through Balochistan. This corridor’s disruption has implications for India’s strategic interests in the Indian Ocean and broader South Asian geopolitics, as it impacts trade routes, energy security, and regional influence. 
  • Thus, the Reason (R) correctly explains why Assertion (A) is true.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer. 

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Scroll to Top