CARE 26th August 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering- CARE (26-08-2024)

News at a Glance
Polity and Governance: Cabinet gives nod to Vigyan Dhara scheme
Cabinet approves scheme to boost biotech manufacturing
Economy: Centre announces Unified Pension Scheme
Environment and Ecology: India adds 3 new Ramsar sites
Geography: Polaris Dawn: Another small step to Mars

Cabinet gives nod to Vigyan Dhara scheme

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cabinet-gives-nod-to-vigyan-dhara-scheme/article68563153.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Polity and Governance)

Context: ‘Vigyan Dhara’ Scheme

Why in News 

  • The Union Cabinet approved the continuation of three umbrella schemes of the Department of Science and Technology, merged into a unified central sector scheme called ‘Vigyan Dhara’.

‘Vigyan Dhara’ Scheme

  • The ‘Vigyan Dhara’ scheme, approved by the Union Cabinet, is a comprehensive initiative by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) in India. 
  • ‘Vigyan Dhara’ is a strategic initiative aimed at advancing India’s science and technology capabilities. 
  • It focuses on fostering innovation, research, and development through a series of programs targeting both institutional and individual growth in the field of science.
  • It consolidates three existing umbrella schemes into a unified central sector scheme with an outlay of ₹10,579 crore for the 15th Finance Commission period (2021-22 to 2025-26). 
  • This scheme is crucial for the development of science and technology in India and is structured around five main pillars. 

Three Broad Components 

  1. Science and Technology Institutional and Human Capacity Building
    • Objective: Strengthen scientific institutions and enhance human resources in science and technology.
    • Key Initiatives:
      • Internships for students in classes 11 and 12, which aim to nurture early interest in science.
      • Fellowships for undergraduate (UG), postgraduate (PG), PhD, and post-doctoral researchers, aimed at fostering a continuous pipeline of scientific talent.
  2. Research and Development (R&D)
    • Objective: Promote high-quality research across various scientific disciplines.
    • Key Initiatives:
      • Support for cutting-edge research through collaborations between Indian and international institutions.
      • Funding for joint research projects that address global challenges and contribute to scientific advancements.
  3. Innovation, Technology Development, and Deployment
    • Objective: Translate scientific research into tangible technologies and innovations.
    • Key Initiatives:
      • Development and deployment of new technologies that can be commercialized or used to solve societal challenges.
      • Encouraging innovation ecosystems through partnerships between academia, industry, and government.

Five Pillars of the Scheme 

  1. Internships and Fellowships: Encouraging young minds and supporting researchers across various educational levels.
  2. International Collaboration: Leveraging global expertise to enhance research quality and innovation.
  3. Joint Research: Promoting collaborative research efforts between Indian and foreign institutions.
  4. Technology Development: Converting research findings into practical applications and innovations.
  5. Capacity Building: Strengthening institutions and human resources involved in science and technology.

Significance of ‘Vigyan Dhara’

  • Human Resource Development: By targeting students and researchers at multiple levels, the scheme aims to build a robust scientific workforce.
  • Global Competitiveness: International collaboration will help align Indian research with global standards and foster innovation that can compete globally.
  • Technological Advancement: The focus on innovation and technology deployment ensures that research outcomes are effectively translated into products and services that benefit society.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Vigyan Dhara’ scheme:

  1. The scheme consolidates three existing umbrella schemes into a unified central sector scheme.
  2. It includes internships for students in classes 11 and 12, and fellowships for undergraduate, postgraduate, PhD, and post-doctoral researchers.
  3. The scheme exclusively focuses on domestic research and does not involve any international collaboration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Q. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (2021)

(a) Department of Science and Technology

(b) Ministry of Employment

(c) NITI Aayog

(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Answer: c

Ans: (b)

Answer 1- B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct. The ‘Vigyan Dhara’ scheme consolidates three umbrella schemes into a unified central sector scheme.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The scheme includes internships for students in classes 11 and 12, and fellowships for undergraduate, postgraduate, PhD, and post-doctoral researchers.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The scheme also involves international collaboration in cutting-edge research.
  •  Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

 Cabinet approves scheme to boost biotech manufacturing

Source: The Hindu 

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cabinet-nod-to-bioe3-policy-for-innovation-driven-support-to-research-and-development/article68562996.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS 2- Polity and Governance, GS 3- Science and Technology 

Context: BioE3 Policy

Why in News 

  • The Union Cabinet, led by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved the BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment) Policy aimed at fostering high-performance biomanufacturing in India. 

BioE3 Policy: Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment

  • The BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment) Policy is an ambitious initiative aimed at revolutionizing biotechnology-based manufacturing in India. 
  • The policy is expected to catalyze a transformation similar to how the IT industry revolutionized life in the 1990s. The Department of Biotechnology will spearhead this initiative.
  • The policy’s aim is to create a robust biomanufacturing sector that addresses challenges in medicine, agriculture, and environmental sustainability while also promoting economic growth and job creation. 
  • Although a financial outlay for the programme was not specified, the scope and strategic importance of the policy highlight its potential impact.

Key Focus Areas of BioE3 Policy

The policy emphasizes the integration of advanced biotechnological processes to produce a range of products, addressing various national priorities. The six thematic verticals identified under this policy are:

  1. Bio-based Chemicals and Enzymes: Development of high-value chemicals and enzymes through biotechnological processes.
  2. Functional Foods and Smart Proteins: Innovation in food technology to create smart proteins and functional foods, contributing to health and nutrition.
  3. Precision Biotherapeutics: Advancing the production of biotherapeutics with precision targeting, which could lead to more effective medical treatments.
  4. Climate Resilient Agriculture: Promoting agricultural practices that are resilient to climate change, ensuring food security and sustainability.
  5. Carbon Capture and Utilization: Developing technologies to capture and utilize carbon, contributing to environmental sustainability and combating climate change.
  6. Futuristic Marine and Space Research: Encouraging research in marine biology and space exploration, expanding the frontiers of biotechnology.

Biotechnology

Biotechnology is a field of science that involves the use of living organisms, biological systems, or derivatives to develop products or processes for specific purposes. It combines principles from biology, chemistry, physics, and engineering to solve problems related to health, agriculture, environment, and industry.

Key Areas of Biotechnology

  1. Medical Biotechnology:
    • Pharmaceuticals: Development of drugs, vaccines, and diagnostics.
    • Gene Therapy: Treating genetic disorders by correcting defective genes.
    • Stem Cell Therapy: Using stem cells to regenerate damaged tissues or organs.
    • Biopharmaceuticals: Production of therapeutic proteins and antibodies.
  2. Agricultural Biotechnology:
    • Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs): Creating crops with enhanced traits, such as pest resistance or improved nutritional content.
    • Tissue Culture: Growing plants in controlled environments to produce disease-free and high-yield varieties.
    • Biofertilizers and Biopesticides: Using microorganisms to enhance soil fertility and control pests in an eco-friendly manner.
  3. Industrial Biotechnology:
    • Biomanufacturing: Production of bio-based chemicals, materials, and fuels through biological processes.
    • Enzyme Technology: Using enzymes as catalysts in industrial processes like brewing, baking, and detergent production.
    • Bioplastics: Development of biodegradable plastics from renewable resources.
  4. Environmental Biotechnology:
    • Bioremediation: Using microorganisms to clean up environmental contaminants such as oil spills and heavy metals.
    • Waste Management: Treatment of waste and wastewater using biological processes.
    • Carbon Capture: Techniques to capture and store carbon dioxide from the atmosphere to mitigate climate change.
  5. Marine and Aquatic Biotechnology:
    • Aquaculture: Enhancing the production of fish and other aquatic organisms.
    • Marine Bioprospecting: Exploring marine biodiversity to discover new drugs, enzymes, and other bioactive compounds.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q2. With reference to the BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment, and Employment) Policy, consider the following statements:

  1. The BioE3 Policy aims to revolutionize biomanufacturing in India, similar to how the IT industry revolutionized life in the 1990s.
  2. The policy focuses on six thematic verticals, including precision biotherapeutics and climate-resilient agriculture.
  3. The policy includes a specified financial outlay for its implementation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

Q. Consider the following statements: (2022)

  1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
  2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
  3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 2 only

B 2 and 3 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 1, 2 and 3

Answer 2– A

Explanation – 

  • Statement 1 is correct. The BioE3 Policy aims to revolutionize biomanufacturing in India, similar to how the IT industry revolutionized life in the 1990s.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The policy focuses on six thematic verticals, including precision biotherapeutics and climate-resilient agriculture.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The policy does not include a specified financial outlay of ₹10,579 crore for its implementation. This outlay is related to the ‘Vigyan Dhara’ scheme, not the BioE3 Policy.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer. 

India adds 3 new Ramsar sites

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/india-adds-3-new-ramsar-sites-what-are-wetlands-why-do-they-matter-for-the-environment-9529938/

UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Environment and Ecology

Context: 3 new Ramsar sites and Wetlands

Why in News

  • Union Environment Minister announced three new Ramsar sites in Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh taking the total of such sites in India to 85. 

New Ramsar Sites in India 

  • Union Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav recently announced the addition of three new Ramsar sites in India:
    • Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu
    • Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu
    • Tawa Reservoir in Madhya Pradesh
  • With these additions, the total number of Ramsar sites in India has reached 85
  • These sites are part of the global network of wetlands recognized under the Ramsar Convention, which highlights their importance for conservation and international significance.

What are Wetlands?

According to the Ramsar Convention, wetlands are defined as:

  • Areas of marsh, fen, peatland, or water, whether natural or artificial, permanent or temporary.
  • These areas can have water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish, or salt.
  • Wetlands include lakes, rivers, underground aquifers, swamps, marshes, and other major water bodies.
  • They also encompass areas of marine water where the depth at low tide does not exceed six meters.

Importance of Wetlands: 

  • Wetlands are critical ecosystems that play a significant role in regulating the environment.
  • They help in carbon sequestration, capturing and storing carbon from the atmosphere, which is crucial for mitigating climate change.
  • Wetlands are among the most productive ecosystems globally, comparable to rainforests and coral reefs.
  • They support a diverse range of species, including microbes, plants, insects, amphibians, reptiles, birds, fish, and mammals.

Ramsar Sites and the Ramsar Convention 

The Ramsar Convention:

  • An intergovernmental treaty signed in 1971 in Ramsar, Iran.
  • It aims to promote the conservation and wise use of wetlands worldwide by designating them as Ramsar sites.
  • The convention provides a framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation of wetlands.

Selection Criteria for Ramsar Sites: 

  • A wetland is considered internationally important if it supports plant or animal species at a critical stage in their life cycles or provides refuge during adverse conditions.
  • The site’s ability to support fishes, waterbirds, and other aquatic species is also considered.
  • India joined the Ramsar Convention in 1982 and has since designated numerous wetlands as Ramsar sites, including famous ones like Chilika Lake and Keoladeo National Park.

The New Ramsar Sites 

  1. Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary, Tamil Nadu:
    • Located on the banks of the Noyyal River, originally a water reservoir for irrigation.
    • Now a significant ecosystem supporting various bird species and migratory birds along the Central Asian Highway.
    • Contributes to local livelihoods through fishing.
  2. Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary, Tamil Nadu:
    • One of the largest brackish water wetlands in South India, located on the Coromandel Coast.
    • Home to globally endangered species like the black-headed ibis and greater flamingo.
    • Important for flood control, groundwater recharge, and as a stopover for migratory birds along the East Asian-Australasian Flyway.
  3. Tawa Reservoir, Madhya Pradesh:
    • Created by damming the Tawa River, a significant wintering ground for migratory birds.
    • Provides irrigation water, drinking water, and sustains nearby fisheries.

Threats to Wetlands

Wetlands face several threats that jeopardize their existence and the services they provide:

  1. Unsustainable Development:
    • Around 87% of the world’s wetlands have been lost over the last 300 years due to land conversion for housing, industry, and agriculture.
  2. Pollution:
    • About 80% of global wastewater is released into wetlands untreated, leading to severe pollution from factories, fertilizers, pesticides, and major spills.
  3. Invasive Species:
    • Wetlands are particularly vulnerable to invasive species, which can spread rapidly due to the easy pathways provided by water.
  4. Climate Change:
    • Changes in rainfall patterns and temperature due to climate change pose existential threats to wetlands and their biodiversity.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q3. Match the newly designated Ramsar sites with their key features:

List I (Ramsar Site) List II (Key Feature)
A. Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary i. Significant ecosystem supporting migratory birds
B. Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary ii. Brackish water wetland with endangered species
C. Tawa Reservoir iii. Reservoir created by damming a river, supporting fisheries

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A-i, B-ii, C-iii

B. A-iii, B-i, C-ii

C. A-i, B-iii, C-ii

D. A-ii, B-i, C-iii

Q. If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply? (2014)

(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.

(b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilometers from the edge of the wetland.

(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed.

(d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site.’

Ans: (a) 

Answer 3 A

Explanation

  • A. Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary is a significant ecosystem supporting migratory birds (i).
  • B. Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary is a brackish water wetland with endangered species (ii).
  • C. Tawa Reservoir is a reservoir created by damming a river, supporting fisheries (iii).
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Centre announces Unified Pension Scheme

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/centre-announced-unified-pension-scheme-how-will-ups-differ-from-ops-nps-9531351/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3- Economy

Context: Unified Pension Scheme (UPS)

Why in News 

  • The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approved the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) that will be effective from April 1, 2025, and will benefit 23 lakh central government employees

Background of the Incident 

  • The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS), approved by the Union Cabinet is a significant reform aimed at addressing the concerns of government employees regarding their retirement benefits. 
  • The UPS promises to provide a fixed pension, offering more security than the National Pension Scheme (NPS), which it seeks to improve upon. 
  • The scheme is set to be effective from April 1, 2025, and is seen as a politically strategic move ahead of upcoming Assembly elections.

Key Features of the UPS 

  • Assured Pension: The UPS guarantees retirees a pension amounting to 50% of their average basic pay drawn over the last 12 months before superannuation, provided they have a minimum qualifying service of 25 years. For those with fewer years of service (minimum of 10 years), the pension amount will be proportionately reduced.
  • Assured Minimum Pension: Employees who retire after at least 10 years of service will receive a minimum pension of Rs 10,000 per month.
  • Assured Family Pension: In the event of a retiree’s death, their immediate family will receive 60% of the pension last drawn by the retiree.
  • Inflation Indexation: The scheme includes dearness relief for retirees, which will be calculated based on the All India Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers, ensuring that pensions keep pace with inflation.
  • Lumpsum Payment at Superannuation: In addition to gratuity, retirees will receive a lumpsum payment calculated as 1/10th of their monthly emolument (pay plus dearness allowance) for every six months of service completed.

Comparison with the National Pension Scheme (NPS) 

  • The NPS was introduced on January 1, 2004, to replace the Old Pension Scheme (OPS), as the latter was deemed fiscally unsustainable. 
  • The OPS provided a fixed pension (50% of the last drawn basic pay) and was not based on a contributory system, leading to increasing financial liabilities for the government.

How NPS Works

  • The NPS requires employees to contribute 10% of their basic pay and dearness allowance, with the government contributing 14% (proposed to increase to 18.5%). 
  • The returns under NPS are market-linked, and employees can choose from various investment options ranging from low to high risk. 
  • The NPS, however, does not guarantee a fixed pension, which was a major point of dissatisfaction among employees.

Fiscal Prudence of the UPS 

  • The UPS, while offering assured pensions like the OPS, is designed to be more fiscally responsible. It maintains the contributory nature of the NPS, ensuring that the scheme is funded and sustainable. 
  • The government anticipates an initial expenditure of Rs 800 crore in arrears in the first year of implementation, with an annual cost of approximately Rs 6,250 crore.

Applicability of the UPS

  • The UPS will apply to all those who have retired under the NPS since 2004. Retirees can choose to switch to the UPS, which is likely to be more beneficial for them. 
  • However, the decision to switch can only be made once and cannot be reversed. 
  • While the scheme currently targets central government employees, states have the option to adopt it as well.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q 4. Which of the following features is not included in the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) approved by the Union Cabinet?

A) Assured pension amounting to 50% of the employee’s average basic pay over the last 12 months before retirement

B) An assured minimum pension of Rs 10,000 per month for those with a minimum of 10 years of service

C) Inflation indexation based on the All India Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers

D) A defined contribution scheme funded solely by employee contributions with variable returns

 Q. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017)

(a) Resident Indian citizens only
(b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
(c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments
(d) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004

Ans: (c)

Answer 4 D

Explanation

  • A defined contribution scheme funded solely by employee contributions with variable returns. This feature is not included in the UPS.
  • The UPS is designed to provide a fixed pension, unlike a defined contribution scheme where returns are variable and depend on market performance. The UPS maintains a fixed pension amount and does not rely solely on employee contributions. It aims to address the criticism of the National Pension Scheme (NPS) by providing a more predictable and stable pension benefit.
  • Therefore, option D is the correct answer.   

Polaris Dawn: Another small step to Mars

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/polaris-dawn-mars-9529662/  

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 1- Geography

Context: Polaris Dawn

Why in news 

  • Polaris Dawn will be the first non-government mission to perform a spacewalk. 

Overview of the Polaris Dawn Mission 

  • The Polaris Dawn mission is a significant milestone in private space exploration, with several ambitious goals and experimental objectives. 
  • It is set to be the first non-government mission to perform a spacewalk at a record-breaking altitude of about 700 kilometers above Earth, venturing into regions of the Van Allen Belts.

Key Objectives and Features of the Polaris Dawn Mission 

  1. Spacewalk at Record Altitude:
    • Altitude: Polaris Dawn aims to conduct a spacewalk approximately 700 kilometers above Earth, which is higher than the International Space Station (ISS) that orbits at about 400 kilometers.
    • Van Allen Belts: This altitude places the crew within the Van Allen Belts, which are regions of high-energy radiation trapped by Earth’s magnetic field. The mission will be the first to expose astronauts to these conditions and collect data on radiation exposure.
  2. Crew Composition:
    • Jared Isaacman: Mission Commander, a billionaire entrepreneur known for his role in SpaceX’s Inspiration4 mission.
    • Scott Poteet: Mission Pilot.
    • Sarah Gillis: Mission Specialist.
    • Anna Menon: Mission Specialist and Medical Officer.
  3. Mission Goals:
    • Radiation Protection: Testing new spacesuits designed by SpaceX to protect against radiation in the Van Allen Belts.
    • Scientific Experiments: Collecting data on the effects of radiation exposure, with a focus on health risks such as Spaceflight Associated Neuro-ocular Syndrome (SANS) and decompression sickness (DCS).
  4. Technological Advancements:
    • Laser Communications: Testing laser communications technology through SpaceX’s Starlink network, which is intended to enhance future space communications.
    • Biobanks: Creating research biobanks to study the effects of space travel on human biology, including eyesight and brain structure.
  5. Future Polaris Missions:
    • Mission 2: Aims to expand the boundaries of human spaceflight, in-space communications, and scientific research.
    • Mission 3: Planned as the first crewed test of SpaceX’s reusable Starship spacecraft.

The Van Allen Belts 

  • The radiation in these belts is hazardous, and astronauts generally avoid prolonged exposure. 
  • Polaris Dawn’s mission through these belts will provide critical data for future deep space exploration.
  • The Van Allen Belts are two regions of highly charged particles trapped by Earth’s magnetosphere:
  • Inner Belt: Contains protons and is centered around 3,000 kilometers from Earth’s surface.
  • Outer Belt: Contains electrons and is centered around 15-20,000 kilometers from Earth’s surface.

Importance of the Polaris Dawn Mission 

  • Polaris Dawn is not just a private space mission but a step toward advancing human spaceflight capabilities. 
  • By testing new technologies and gathering valuable data on radiation exposure, it aims to support future missions to the Moon, Mars, and beyond. 
  • The data collected will be crucial for addressing health risks associated with deep space travel and improving communication systems for space missions.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q5.  Consider the following statements regarding the Polaris Dawn mission:

  1. Polaris Dawn will be the first non-government mission to perform a spacewalk at an altitude of approximately 700 kilometers above Earth.
  2. The mission will be conducted with a focus on testing new propulsion systems for interplanetary travel.
  3. SpaceX’s Starlink network will be used to test laser communications during the mission.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1 and 3 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2, and 3

Q. Consider the following statements: 2021

  1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
  2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. c

Answer 5 B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct. Polaris Dawn is indeed planned to be the first non-government mission to perform a spacewalk at this altitude, which is significantly higher than the orbit of the International Space Station (ISS).
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Polaris Dawn is not specifically focused on testing new propulsion systems for interplanetary travel. Its primary objectives include conducting a spacewalk, testing new spacesuits for radiation protection, and using SpaceX’s Starlink network for laser communications. The mission’s goals do not include propulsion system testing.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The Polaris Dawn mission plans to test laser communications using SpaceX’s Starlink network. This is part of their effort to enhance space communication systems.  
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

 

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