CARE 24th December 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – Care (24-12-2024)

News at a Glance
International Relations: The GATT-ification of the World Trade Organization
Science and Technology: Pointing the beacon at India’s undersea warfare capabilities
Economy: Envisioning India as a global skill supplier
Polity and Governance: What are the new interception rules and safeguards?
India’s ‘steel frame’ does need a check

The GATT-ification of the World Trade Organization

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-gatt-ification-of-the-world-trade-organization/article69019794.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 International Relations

Context: World Trade Organization

Why in News

The WTO’s Appellate Body has been non-operational since 2019 due to U.S. obstruction, signaling a shift from rule-based trade multilateralism to power-driven trade diplomacy.
The Role of the WTO and the Appellate Body (AB)
  • WTO as a Multilateral Trade Referee
    Established in 1995, the WTO replaced the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) and introduced a rule-based international trade system. It regulates trade in goods, services, and intellectual property and includes a two-tier dispute settlement system, with the AB serving as the second and final appellate stage.
  • Importance of the Appellate Body
    The AB is central to the WTO’s credibility, ensuring that disputes between member states are resolved through binding legal processes. If a WTO panel decision is challenged, the AB acts as the final arbitrator, ensuring compliance with WTO rules.
The Paralysis of the Appellate Body
  • U.S. Blocking of AB Appointments
    Since 2019, the U.S. has blocked the appointment of AB members, rendering the body non-operational. This obstruction started under President Obama, escalated during Trump’s administration, and continues under Biden, reflecting bipartisan consensus in the U.S.
  • Implications of AB Paralysis
    Although the first-tier WTO panels still operate, their decisions are often rendered ineffective because losing countries can appeal to the non-operational AB, effectively stalling the adjudication process. This creates a loophole where disputes remain unresolved.
  • Underlying U.S. Strategy
    The U.S.’s obstruction is not merely about the AB but part of a broader attempt to make the WTO dysfunctional. This strategy reflects growing U.S. hostility toward multilateral institutions and a shift toward unilateral trade policies.
The Historical Context and Promise of the WTO
  • The Neoliberal Context of the 1990s
    The WTO emerged during the rise of neoliberalism, advocating for free markets and minimal state intervention. Its creation was seen as a milestone in international law, promising a rule-based trade order that limited the influence of politics.
  • Comprehensive Legal Framework
    The WTO introduced binding rules, compulsory jurisdiction, and enforcement mechanisms like retaliation for non-compliance. Its robust legal framework was seen as a triumph of international law over diplomacy, often referred to as the “thickening of legality.”
  • The Constitutionalism Project
    Scholars likened the WTO to a constitutional project, aimed at embedding the rule of law in global trade governance. Countries willingly ceded sovereignty to the WTO, accepting its binding jurisdiction and enforcement mechanisms.
The Unraveling of the WTO
  • China’s Rise and U.S. Frustrations
    A turning point came with China’s rise as a global economic power. The U.S. supported China’s WTO accession in 2001, hoping it would adopt free-market principles and abandon state-led industrial policies. Instead, China leveraged the WTO system to strengthen its state-led economy, challenging the U.S.’s economic dominance.
  • U.S. Disillusionment with the WTO
    The U.S. perceives the WTO as an obstacle to countering China’s economic strategies. For example, the Trump administration’s 2018 tariffs on Chinese goods violated WTO rules, but the absence of a functioning AB allowed the U.S. to act unilaterally without accountability.
  • Strategic Wrecking of the WTO
    Scholars argue that the U.S. aims to “wreck” the WTO system to regain control over trade policies and counter China’s rise. By dismantling the AB, the U.S. removes a key check on its actions, enabling unilateral measures like tariffs and industrial policies.
The Shift from Rule-Based to Diplomacy-Based Trade
  • “GATTification” of the WTO
    Geraldo Vidigal describes the current state of the WTO as the “thinning of legality” or “GATTification.” This term refers to a regression from a rule-based system (WTO) back to a diplomacy-based framework (GATT era).
  • Regime Change in Trade Governance
    Instead of a crisis, Vidigal views this as a regime change, where countries reclaim sovereignty over trade policies, reducing their reliance on WTO rules. While there is no complete de-legalization, the binding nature of WTO’s legal framework is significantly weakened.
  • Erosion of Legal Multilateralism
    The legal revolution of 1995-2019, which prioritized international law over politics, is being reversed. The WTO’s role as a neutral arbitrator is diminishing, and trade relations are increasingly dictated by national interests and power dynamics.
Broader Implications
  • Existential Crisis for the WTO
    The paralysis of the AB symbolizes the larger crisis facing the WTO. Its inability to enforce rules undermines its relevance in global trade governance.
  • Impact on Global Trade Order
    The shift toward unilateral and protectionist policies, exemplified by the U.S. and China’s trade war, could lead to increased trade tensions and economic fragmentation.
  • Future of Multilateralism
    The decline of the WTO raises questions about the viability of multilateral institutions in addressing global challenges. As countries prioritize national interests, the vision of a rules-based international order faces significant challenges.
Conclusion
  • The WTO’s Appellate Body crisis is not an isolated issue but a symptom of a larger shift in global trade governance.
  • The U.S.’s obstruction reflects its strategic goal of undermining multilateralism to counter China’s rise.
  • This “GATTification” marks a return to power-driven diplomacy, eroding the legal foundations of international trade.
  • While the WTO’s future remains uncertain, its decline signals a troubling trend for global cooperation and rule-based governance.
CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q1. With reference to the World Trade Organization (WTO), consider the following statements:

1.  The WTO’s dispute settlement system includes a two-tier structure with the Appellate Body as the second stage.

2.  The Appellate Body has been operational and resolving disputes effectively since 2019.

3.  The United States has supported the revival of the Appellate Body to counter China’s trade practices.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Q.    The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the (2015)

(a) Food and Agriculture Organization

(b) United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change

(c) World Trade Organization

(d) United Nations Environment Programme

Ans: C

 

Answer – 1 – A

Explanation –

  • Statement 1 is Correct
    The WTO’s dispute settlement system indeed has a two-tier structure:
  • The first tier consists of panels that hear disputes and give rulings.
  • The second tier is the Appellate Body (AB), which hears appeals on legal interpretations of panel rulings.
  • Statement 2 is Incorrect
    The Appellate Body has been non-operational since December 2019 due to the U.S. blocking the appointment of new members. Without a functional Appellate Body, appeals cannot proceed, leading to a stalemate in dispute resolution.
  • Statement 3 is Incorrect
    The U.S. has consistently opposed the revival of the Appellate Body, citing its dissatisfaction with the WTO’s functioning and its inability to address China’s trade practices effectively. This stance reflects the U.S.’s preference for unilateral trade measures rather than relying on WTO mechanisms.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

India’s undersea warfare capabilities

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/pointing-the-beacon-at-indias-undersea-warfare-capabilities/article69016503.ece

UPSC Relevance:   GS 3 Science and Technology

Context: Indian Navy’s Achievements in 2024

Why in News

India’s 2024 naval advancements focus on enhancing undersea warfare through indigenous SSBNs, SSNs, and conventional submarine projects like Project-75 and 75(I).
Background
  • The year 2024 began with significant operational advancements for the Indian Navy, particularly under Operation Sankalp, which extended its focus from the Strait of Hormuz to the Red Sea.
  • This expansion aimed to ensure the safety and security of shipping lanes from piracy and provided assistance to vessels targeted by the Houthis.
  • By addressing threats such as piracy, hijacking, and drone attacks, the Indian Navy has solidified its reputation as a preferred security partner and first responder in the region.
  • Beyond these surface-level operations, the most remarkable progress was seen in undersea warfare capabilities, an area of strategic importance to India’s defense posture.
Commissioning of INS Arighaat
  • INS Arighaat, India’s second indigenous nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN), was commissioned in August 2024.
  • Significance:
    • It strengthens the third leg of India’s nuclear triad, complementing the country’s land-based missiles and air-delivered nuclear weapons.
    • With enhanced indigenous content, INS Arighaat features advanced sonar, propulsion systems, and upgraded acoustic dampening, which bolster India’s stealth and strike capabilities.
  • Testing of K-4 SLBM:
    • The K-4 Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM) was successfully tested from INS Arighaat. With a range of 3,500 km, it places a significant portion of China within striking range, enhancing India’s strategic deterrence.
    • While the test was successful, results of specific performance parameters are still awaited.
Approval of Project-77 (P-77)
  • The Cabinet Committee on Security approved the long-pending Project-77, which involves the construction of two nuclear-powered attack submarines (SSNs).
  • Key Details:
    • Budget: ₹40,000 crore.
    • Delivery Timeline: The first SSN is scheduled for delivery by 2036-37.
    • Indigenous Content: Over 90% indigenous content is expected.
  • Strategic Importance:
    • The SSNs will protect deployed SSBNs and provide India with advanced capabilities in underwater warfare.
    • With these additions, India will become the only non-P5 nation operating both SSBNs and SSNs, underscoring its growing maritime prowess.
Advancements in Conventional Submarines
  1. Project-75 and Scorpene Submarines
  • Under Project-75, India has collaborated with France to develop Scorpene-class submarines. The sixth boat, INS Vaghsheer, is set for commissioning soon.
  • Plans to procure three additional Scorpene-class submarines will help offset the void left by the decommissioning of older submarines.
  • Indigenous content for these follow-on boats is expected to reach 60%.
  1. Air-Independent Propulsion (AIP) Systems
  • The Navy is moving towards AIP-enabled conventional submarines under Project-75(I).
  • Key Contenders:
    • Thyssenkrupp Marine Systems (TKMS) of Germany.
    • Navantia of Spain.
  • Indigenous content in these AIP-enabled boats is expected to rise progressively from 45% to 60% by the sixth boat.
  • Advantages of AIP:
    • AIP increases endurance and stealth by allowing submarines to remain submerged for extended periods without surfacing for air.
Development of Unmanned Underwater Vehicles (UUVs)
  • Approval has been granted for the development of 100-tonne Unmanned Underwater Vehicles (UUVs) at a cost of ₹2,500 crore.
  • Significance:
    • UUVs are a low-cost, high-return option for enhancing undersea capabilities.
    • They represent a shift towards leveraging niche technologies to counter complex maritime threats.
Challenges in Modernization

While significant progress has been made, there are hurdles that need to be addressed:

  1. Budgetary Constraints:
    • Mismatch between planned acquisitions and modernization budgets.
    • Sustained funding is crucial for projects with long gestation periods.
  2. Time Delays:
    • Excessive delays in specifying requirements, shortlisting manufacturers, and evaluating tenders hinder timely acquisitions.
  3. Streamlining Processes:
    • Simplifying procurement processes is essential for faster implementation of modernization projects.
  4. Balanced Force Structure:
    • The Navy must focus on balancing surface, aviation, and undersea elements to ensure comprehensive maritime security.
Strategic Opportunities
  1. Collaborations with Strategic Partners:
    • Cooperation with friendly maritime nations enhances India’s standing as a maritime power.
    • Joint ventures with countries like France, Germany, and Spain foster the transfer of technology and expertise.
  2. Alignment with SAGAR Vision:
    • India’s maritime vision of Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) underscores its commitment to a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific.
    • Enhanced naval capabilities support India’s strategic objectives in the region.
  3. Maritime Stability:
    • By strengthening its maritime capabilities, India can better address challenges such as piracy, smuggling, and geopolitical tensions in critical waterways.
Conclusion
  • The advancements in undersea warfare, epitomized by the commissioning of INS Arighaat, the approval of Project-77, and the focus on indigenous capabilities, showcase India’s commitment to becoming a dominant maritime force.
  • However, addressing challenges like funding gaps and procedural delays is crucial for realizing the full potential of these initiatives.
  • With its growing capabilities and strategic partnerships, the Indian Navy is well-positioned to secure India’s maritime interests and contribute to regional stability.
 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q2 With reference to India’s naval developments in 2024, consider the following statements:

1.  INS Arighaat is equipped with K-4 submarine-launched ballistic missiles (SLBMs) with a range of 3,500 km.

2.  Project-75(I) involves the construction of nuclear-powered submarines with air-independent propulsion (AIP) systems.

3.  India aims to include at least 45% indigenous content in its Project-75(I) submarines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

Q.  Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022)

a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space;

b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.

c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.

d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.

Ans: C

Answer 2– B

Explanation –

  • Statement 1 is correct: INS Arighaat, India’s second indigenous SSBN (nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine), was commissioned in 2024. It successfully tested the K-4 SLBM, which has a range of 3,500 km. This missile enhances India’s nuclear deterrence capabilities by placing much of China within striking range.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Project-75(I) focuses on the construction of conventional (non-nuclear) submarines equipped with advanced AIP systems. AIP allows submarines to stay submerged for longer durations without surfacing, making them more effective in stealth operations. It is distinct from the nuclear-powered attack submarines being developed under Project-77.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Project-75(I) emphasizes increased indigenous content. The bidders, Germany’s Thyssenkrupp Marine Systems (TKMS) and Spain’s Navantia, have agreed to India’s transfer of technology and indigenous content requirements. The first submarine under this project will have at least 45% indigenous content, gradually increasing to 60% for later submarines.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

India as a global skill supplier

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/envisioning-india-as-a-global-skill-supplier/article69019685.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Economy

Context: International labour migration

Why in News

India has the potential to become a global hub for skill-centred international labour migration but requires a comprehensive policy framework.
Introduction to the Panama Canal
  • India’s potential to meet global skills gaps through a skilled workforce is a critical area of opportunity, particularly as global mega-trends reshape the demand for international labour migration.
  • These trends include demographic transitions, technological advancements, climate change, and economic challenges, all of which are prompting major migrant-receiving countries to prioritize skill-intensive immigration.
  • However, for India to rise to this occasion, several systemic challenges must be addressed, and strategic measures must be implemented.
Global Trends Driving Demand for Skilled Migrants

The demand for skilled workers is rising in both traditional and emerging migrant destination countries.

  • Traditional destinations: Countries such as the U.S., the U.K., Canada, and Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) nations are emphasizing skill-based immigration to address issues like aging populations and economic diversification.
  • New destinations: Countries such as Germany, South Korea, and Japan are facing similar demographic challenges and workforce shortages, prompting them to open up immigration channels for skilled workers.

These countries see skilled migrant workers as crucial for tackling:

  • Declining fertility rates and aging populations.
  • The need for innovation and digital transformation.
  • Economic diversification in sectors like healthcare, manufacturing, and green technologies.

India, with its vast pool of working-age population, has the potential to address these skill shortages if equipped with the right policy framework and training mechanisms.

Current Challenges in India’s International Labour Migration Policy

Despite its potential, India faces several challenges that limit its ability to supply a skilled global workforce effectively:

  1. Fragmented Policy Structure

India lacks a comprehensive and integrated national policy on international labour migration. Current efforts are ad hoc and lack long-term vision.

  • Bilateral agreements: These are primarily one-off exercises covering social security, protection, and welfare but do not focus on skill mobility comprehensively.
  • Lack of evaluations: There is minimal analysis of the outcomes or effectiveness of these agreements.
  1. Inadequate Data Systems

The only available data source, emigration clearance data, is limited to low-skilled workers migrating to 18 select countries. There is no mechanism to track the flow of medium- or high-skilled workers, which hampers evidence-based policy formulation.

  1. Skill Development Mismatch

India’s current skill development efforts are not aligned with the global skill demands of major migrant-receiving countries. There is a lack of:

  • Recognition of foreign qualification standards.
  • Internationally recognized certifications and accreditations.
  • Targeted training programs tailored to destination country requirements.
  1. Neglect of Return Migration

Return migrants, who acquire valuable skills abroad, are often underutilized in India. Their acquired skills are not formally recognized or accredited, leading to a loss of potential economic benefits.

The Way Forward: Strategies for Skill-Centred International Labour Migration

To transition India into a global skills hub, a comprehensive, evidence-based approach is essential.

  1. Formulate a National Policy on International Labour Migration

A unified national policy should address all aspects of international labour mobility with skill-centred migration as a key pillar. The policy must:

  • Define a roadmap for skill development and migration processes.
  • Integrate migration and skills development within a cohesive framework.
  1. Skill Demand Forecasting

India must anticipate and respond to evolving global skill demands:

  • International collaboration: Leverage insights from organizations like the European Centre for the Development of Vocational Training.
  • Big data analytics: Analyze real-time job market trends in destination countries to identify emergent skill needs.
  1. Revamp Skill Development Programs

India’s skill training initiatives should be aligned with global standards and tailored to destination countries’ requirements.

  • Curriculum reform: Introduce identified skills and competencies in educational and training institutions.
  • Short-term training programs: Focus on job-specific training for targeted occupations in destination countries.
  • International accreditation: Align India’s National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF) with foreign standards to ensure portability of qualifications.
  1. Utilize Return Migrants’ Skills

Develop a robust framework for reintegrating return migrants into the Indian labour market:

  • Skill certification: Ensure that skills acquired abroad are accredited by specialized institutions.
  • Economic reintegration: Promote entrepreneurship and job creation utilizing the expertise of returnees.
  1. Develop a Labour Migration Information System

Create a centralized, skill-centred labour migration information platform to:

  • Track quantitative and qualitative data on international migration and skill development.
  • Enable evidence-based interventions for skill mobility and migration policies.
  • Foster partnerships with destination countries to address their specific workforce needs.
Benefits of a Skill-Centred Migration Policy

A well-designed and executed policy can yield multiple benefits:

  • For migrants: Enhanced employment opportunities, higher wages, and better working conditions abroad.
  • For India: Increased remittances, improved global standing as a skilled labour supplier, and better utilization of return migrants.
  • For destination countries: Easier access to a reliable and skilled workforce to meet demographic and economic challenges.
Conclusion
  • India is uniquely positioned to become the global hub for skill-centred international migration, given its large working-age population and growing skill development infrastructure.
  • However, realizing this potential requires a shift from fragmented policies to a comprehensive, evidence-based approach.
  • By aligning its skill development programs with global demands, fostering international collaborations, and effectively reintegrating return migrants, India can play a pivotal role in bridging global skills gaps and driving economic growth both domestically and internationally.
 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. With reference to India’s potential in international labour migration, consider the following statements:

1.  India has a comprehensive national policy on international labour migration.

2.  The National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF) is aligned with the qualification standards of major migrant destination countries.

3.  Return migrants’ skills are effectively utilized and accredited in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) None
D) 1, 2, and 3

Q.  Consider the following statements: (2017)

  1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
  2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

 

Answer 3– C

Explanation –

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. India lacks a comprehensive policy framework for international labour migration. Existing efforts, such as bilateral agreements and emigration data, are fragmented and insufficient. There is no unified roadmap to systematically address skill gaps and migration trends.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The NSQF needs a review and significant improvement to align with international standards. There is a lack of convergence between India’s qualification systems and those of major destination countries like the U.S., U.K., Canada, or Gulf nations.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. India has not developed adequate mechanisms to accredit or integrate the skills and competencies that return migrants acquire abroad. This is a neglected area in India’s migration policy, limiting the productive reintegration of these workers.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

What are the new interception rules and safeguards?

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/what-are-the-new-interception-rules-and-safeguards-explained/article69016581.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance

Context: New Rules (Telecommunications Rules, 2024)

Why in News

  • The Union Government notified the Telecommunications (Procedures and Safeguards for Lawful Interception of Messages) Rules, 2024.
Background
  • Recently, the Union Government notified the Telecommunications (Procedures and Safeguards for Lawful Interception of Messages) Rules, 2024, which empower certain enforcement and security agencies to intercept phone messages under specific conditions.
  • These rules supersede the earlier Rule 419A of the Indian Telegraph Rules, 1951.
Key Provisions of the New Rules
  • Competent Authorities for Interception:
  • Union Home Secretary and Secretary of the State Government in charge of the Home Department are designated as competent authorities for ordering interceptions.
  • Additionally, officers not below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Union Government can issue interception orders in certain urgent or unavoidable circumstances, though these circumstances are not clearly defined.
  • The Central Government can authorize law enforcement or security agencies to intercept messages for specific reasons outlined in Section 20(2) of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
  • Officers Authorized for Interception in Remote Areas:
  • In remote areas or for operational reasons, the head or the second senior-most officer at the central agency level, and the head or second senior-most officer (at least of IG Police rank) at the state agency level can order interceptions.
  • However, these orders must be submitted to the competent authority for confirmation within three working days.
  • If the competent authority does not confirm the order within seven working days, the interception must cease, and any intercepted messages cannot be used for any purpose, including as evidence in court.
  • Destruction of Interception Records:
  • The rules mandate the destruction of interception records every six months unless they are required for ongoing functional needs or as per court directions.
Key Differences from Previous Rules (Rule 419A)
  • Relaxation of ‘Emergent Cases’ Condition:
  • Under Rule 419A, interception was only allowed in emergent cases. In the new rules, this condition is relaxed, allowing interceptions when it is not feasible to get an order from the competent authority, particularly in remote areas or due to operational reasons.
  • Limited Number of Authorized Officers:
  • Rule 419A did not limit the number of IGP rank officers at the state level who could be authorized for interception. However, the new rules restrict it to only the second senior-most officer (along with the head of the agency) being authorized for interception.
  • Cessation of Interception After Seven Days Without Confirmation:
  • A significant change in the new rules is the timeframe for confirming the interception order. If the competent authority does not confirm an interception order within seven days, then the intercepted messages cannot be used for any purpose, including evidence in court. This was not explicitly mentioned under Rule 419A.
Historical Context: Legal and Procedural Background
  • The Indian Telegraph Act of 1885 allowed the Union Government to issue rules to prevent the improper interception or disclosure of messages. However, safeguards were not effectively outlined until the PUCL v. Union of India case (1996), where the Supreme Court ruled that interceptions for public emergency or public safety needed clear safeguards.
  • Subsequently, in 2007, the government issued Rule 419A, outlining procedures for interception, in response to the PUCL case. The Supreme Court’s directions emphasized the need for just, fair, and reasonable safeguards to protect the right to privacy. However, the new rules introduced in 2024 have been criticized for loosening some of these safeguards.
Concerns and Criticism
  • Relaxation of Conditions for Interception:
  • The new rules allow interception in non-emergent situations without clear checks. This means that agencies can intercept messages without waiting for competent authority orders in remote areas or operational conditions, raising concerns about unchecked powers and potential abuse.
  • Lack of Accountability for Misuse:
  • One of the most significant concerns is that the new rules do not define any clear accountability for agencies that misuse their interception powers. For instance, there is no provision for punitive actions if an agency abuses the power of interception during the seven-day window before confirmation by the competent authority.
  • This raises concerns about potential misuse of power, particularly given that the rules allow agencies to act without sufficient oversight during a significant portion of the interception process.
  • Potential for Abuse:
  • Critics argue that while the rules claim to uphold national security and safety, the lack of robust oversight mechanisms and undefined circumstances for emergency interception may allow agencies to misuse these powers, infringing on citizens’ privacy rights.
Implications
  • National Security vs. Privacy Rights:
  • The new rules highlight a balance between the need for national security and the protection of individual privacy. The government argues that intercepting messages is crucial for safeguarding national interests, while critics warn that insufficient safeguards might lead to violations of fundamental rights.
  • Need for Stronger Oversight:
  • To ensure that the new rules do not infringe on privacy unnecessarily, there is a call for stronger oversight mechanisms. This could include establishing independent review bodies, defining clearer conditions under which interceptions may occur, and setting up mechanisms to punish agencies that misuse their powers.
  • Role of Technology and Data:
  • With the increasing reliance on digital communication, the new rules are crucial for law enforcement to keep up with modern challenges. However, this must be done carefully to avoid encroaching on civil liberties. Additionally, creating a systematic audit and oversight framework will be essential to ensure that interceptions are carried out lawfully.
Conclusion
  • The Telecommunications Rules, 2024, represent a significant change in how the government can authorize phone message interceptions.
  • While they aim to balance national security needs with privacy, the relaxation of conditions and the lack of accountability mechanisms raise concerns. For these rules to be effective and just, they must be accompanied by clear safeguards, regular reviews, and mechanisms to prevent misuse by enforcement agencies.
CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4.  Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Telecommunications (Procedures and Safeguards for Lawful Interception of Messages) Rules, 2024?

  1. The new rules empower the Union Home Secretary and the Secretary of the State Government in charge of the Home Department to order interception of messages.
  2. The rules allow interception by authorized agencies only in cases of public emergency or national security.
  3. The new rules mandate the destruction of interception records after 6 months, except when required for court proceedings.
  4. Interceptions by agencies can be confirmed by the competent authority within 7 days of the order; otherwise, intercepted messages cannot be used for any purpose.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3, and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Q. Which of the following is/are the aims/aims of the “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? (2018)

  1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
  2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centers within our national geographical boundaries.
  3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: 

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

 

Answer 4- C

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is Correct: The new rules indeed authorize the Union Home Secretary and the Secretary of the State government in charge of the Home Department as the competent authorities to order interceptions of messages. This is a key feature of the 2024 rules.
  • Statement 2 is Incorrect: The earlier rules (Rule 419A of the Indian Telegraph Rules, 1951) emphasized interception only in public emergency or national security. However, under the new rules, the condition for interception has been relaxed. Agencies can intercept messages in “remote areas or for operational reasons,” even without immediate orders from the competent authority.
  • Statement 3 is Correct: According to the new rules, records relating to intercepted messages must be destroyed every six months by the authorized agency and review committee, unless they are required for functional purposes or court orders.
  • Statement 4 is Correct: If an interception order issued by an authorized agency is not confirmed by the competent authority within 7 working days, any messages intercepted during that period cannot be used for any purpose, including in court proceedings.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer.  

­­­India’s ‘steel frame’ does need a check

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/indias-steel-frame-does-need-a-check/article69020104.ece

UPSC Relevance: GS 2 Polity and Governance

Context: India’s Bureaucratic Reforms

Why in News

  • India’s governance challenges especially within the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) demand urgent reforms to unlock the country’s economic potential.

Overview

  • India’s bureaucracy, particularly the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), is at the core of the country’s governance system.
  • While India has made significant economic progress, the challenges faced by the IAS and the wider bureaucracy have created bottlenecks in effective governance, which need urgent reforms.
Legacy and Challenges of the IAS
  • Historical Background: The IAS, inherited from the British colonial Indian Civil Service (ICS), was designed to serve as an efficient administrative backbone after independence. However, over time, it has faced issues like political interference, lack of domain expertise, and outdated personnel practices.
  • Politicisation: Political interference in transfers, promotions, and suspensions has affected the morale and professionalism within the IAS. Officers often find themselves moved across different departments, limiting their ability to specialize in one field. This has led to inefficiencies in policy formulation and implementation.
  • Corruption and Inefficiency: Reports such as those from the World Bank indicate that India’s bureaucracy suffers from inefficiency, which hampers effective governance. Poor implementation of policies and lack of administrative autonomy are notable concerns.
Executive-Led Governance and Its Impact
  • Centralized Decision-Making: The Indian government often practices executive-led governance, with the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) holding substantial power. While this has helped implement major reforms and infrastructure projects quickly, it has sidelined bureaucrats’ role in policy execution, reducing the overall effectiveness of governance.
  • Criticism of Centralization: Critics argue that centralization risks undermining the autonomy of senior bureaucrats, which can disempower them and erode their ability to lead independent, effective policymaking.
Previous Efforts at Bureaucratic Reforms
  • Since independence, over 50 commissions and committees have attempted to reform the bureaucracy. The First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) in 1966 and subsequent commissions identified key areas for improvement, including merit-based promotions, specialization, and the reduction of arbitrary transfers. However, many of their recommendations remain unimplemented due to bureaucratic inertia and political resistance.
  • The Second ARC (2005) proposed measures such as:
  • Lowering the age of entry into civil services.
  • Introducing performance-based promotions.
  • Allowing lateral entry into senior bureaucratic positions.
  • These reforms aimed to modernize and professionalize the bureaucracy but faced implementation challenges.
Government’s Push for Reform Under Modi
  • Lateral Entry: The Modi government has made efforts to reform the bureaucracy by introducing lateral entry, which involves recruiting domain experts from the private sector into key positions in government. This aims to bring fresh perspectives and expertise into the administrative process.
  • Impact: Since 2018, 57 lateral entrants have been appointed, including senior positions like Joint Secretaries. This has disrupted the IAS’s traditional dominance in governance, with only 33% of Joint Secretaries now coming from the IAS, compared to a decade ago when the IAS had almost complete control of such positions.
  • However, lateral entry has faced resistance, with some arguing that it undermines morale and promotion prospects for existing IAS officers. Additionally, there has been political controversy surrounding the lack of reservation provisions for marginalized groups in these appointments.
  • Challenges to Lateral Entry: The push for lateral entry has not been smooth. In some cases, political pressure led to a U-turn on lateral entry appointments, reflecting the contentious nature of this reform.
International Models and Potential Solutions
  • The Department of Government Efficiency (DOGE) in the U.S. provides an interesting model for bureaucratic reform. DOGE aimed to streamline government functions, eliminate inefficiencies, and enhance accountability. A similar model could be adopted in India to identify wasteful expenditure, promote data-driven decision-making, and develop metrics for bureaucratic performance.
  • A time-bound commission, inspired by the U.S. model, could help ensure that reforms in India’s bureaucracy remain focused and actionable.
Challenges to Bureaucratic Reforms
  • Reforming India’s bureaucracy is a complex task due to several entrenched factors:
  • Institutional Resistance: The IAS has deep institutional roots, and proposals for reforms like lateral entry, performance-based promotions, and specialized training are often met with resistance from within the bureaucracy, where seniority-based progression and generalist approaches are well-entrenched.
  • Political Interference: Proposals such as the Civil Services Standards, Performance, and Accountability Bill (2010), which aimed to protect bureaucrats from arbitrary transfers, have stalled in the legislature. Even judicial interventions, like the Supreme Court’s directive to establish civil service boards, have had limited impact due to weak enforcement.
A Multidimensional Approach to Reforms
  • A comprehensive and multifaceted approach to bureaucratic reform is essential to modernize the Indian administration:
  • Merit-Based Recruitment and Domain Expertise: Recruitment should prioritize merit, with an emphasis on domain expertise in critical sectors like economics, health, and environment. This would ensure that bureaucrats are equipped with specialized knowledge to handle complex challenges.
  • Performance-Linked Promotions: Promotions should be linked to measurable performance outcomes, rather than seniority, to ensure efficiency and incentivize hard work and dedication.
  • Specialization in Policymaking Roles: Bureaucrats should be allowed to specialize in specific fields, which would improve their expertise and allow them to become effective policy specialists.
  • Data Infrastructure: The government must invest in data systems to track bureaucratic performance and aid in evidence-based decision-making regarding postings, promotions, and policy implementation.
  • By adopting these reforms, India can unlock the full potential of its bureaucracy, which is critical for realizing its economic aspirations and ensuring that governance serves the needs of its people.
Conclusion
  • Reforming India’s bureaucracy is essential to address the challenges posed by inefficiency, political interference, and the lack of specialization.
  • While initiatives like lateral entry represent a step in the right direction, sustained and comprehensive reforms are necessary to ensure that the IAS and other bureaucratic structures are aligned with India’s future governance and economic needs.
  • The focus should be on merit, performance, and expertise to modernize the civil services and enable them to better serve the people of India.
 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5.  Consider the following statements regarding administrative reforms in India:

1.  The Indian Administrative Service (IAS) is often criticized for being politicized, with promotions and transfers influenced more by political loyalty than merit.

2.  The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005) recommended lowering the permissible age of entry into civil services but did not suggest lateral entry for domain experts.

3.  Under the Modi government, the lateral entry initiative seeks to bring domain experts from the private sector into key policy-making roles in the bureaucracy.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

 Q.  Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?(2017)

(a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.

(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.

(c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.

(d) It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government.

Ans: (b)

 

Answer 5- C

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct. The IAS has been frequently criticized for political interference, with promotions, transfers, and suspensions sometimes being influenced by political loyalty, rather than merit or performance. This undermines the professionalism of the service and is one of the key issues that have been flagged by critics of the bureaucracy.
  • Statement is incorrect. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005) did recommend several reforms, including the introduction of performance-based promotions and measures to reduce political interference. The recommendation of lateral entry, i.e., bringing in domain experts from outside the IAS, was a significant part of later reform efforts (notably under the Modi government), but it was not explicitly mentioned in the 2005 report.
  • Statement is correct. Under Prime Minister Modi’s government, the lateral entry initiative was introduced as a reform to bring in specialized knowledge from outside the Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and involve experts from the private sector and other sectors in key administrative roles. This was aimed at enhancing the expertise within the government and breaking the IAS’s traditional dominance in the bureaucratic structure.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

 

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