CARE 21st August 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – CARE (21-08-2024)

News at a Glance
International Relations: India, Japan hold ‘2+2’ dialogue with focus on Indo-Pacific
Polity and Governance: Health Ministry announces series of measures to provide additional security to healthcare employees at workplace
Centre asks UPSC to cancel lateral entry advertisement, says process to be reviewed to add quotas
Geography: About waterspout
Environment and Ecology: On the ethanol blending programme
Sweden goes ‘berserker’ with plans to kill nearly 500 of its brown bears

India, Japan hold ‘2+2’ dialogue with focus on Indo-Pacific

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-japan-hold-22-dialogue-with-focus-on-indo-pacific/article68547764.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 International Relations

Context:  2+2 dialogue

Why in News 

  • India-Japan held a fresh edition of “2+2” dialogue amid China’s increasing military muscle-flexing in the region.

What is a 2+2 Dialogue?

  • The 2+2 meetings signify the participation of two high-level representatives, Ministers holding Foreign and Defence portfolios, from each of the two countries who aim to enhance the scope of dialogue between them.
  • Having such a mechanism enables the partners to better understand and appreciate each other’s strategic concerns and sensitivities taking into account political factors on both sides, in order to build a stronger, more integrated strategic relationship in a rapidly changing global environment.
  • The US is India’s oldest and most important 2+2 talks partner.
  • Additionally, India has held 2+2 meetings with ministers from Australia, Japan, the United Kingdom and Russia.

Indo-Pacific Region

  • The Indo-Pacific has emerged as a central region in global geopolitics, with major powers like India, Japan, the US, and China having significant interests. 
  • The concept of a “free, open, and rules-based Indo-Pacific” refers to the vision of a region where international laws and norms govern the conduct of states, ensuring freedom of navigation, overflight, and peaceful resolution of disputes.

India’s Act East Policy 

  • This policy aims to strengthen economic and strategic relations with Southeast Asian countries and beyond. 
  • Japan is a key partner in this policy due to shared democratic values, economic interests, and concerns about China’s growing influence in the region.

India-Japan Strategic Partnership 

  • Special Strategic and Global Partnership: This designation indicates a relationship that goes beyond bilateral issues, focusing on regional and global security. 
  • The partnership between India and Japan has evolved over the past decade, driven by common interests in regional stability and economic development.
  • 2+2 Dialogue: This dialogue format, involving the foreign and defense ministers of both countries, is significant because it allows for comprehensive discussions on security and defense cooperation. India has this format with only a few countries, underscoring the importance of the relationship with Japan.

Key Points from the Dialogue

  • Expanding Interests and Cooperation: Both countries recognize the need to support each other’s strategic interests in an increasingly volatile world. This involves not only bilateral cooperation but also working together with other like-minded nations to uphold a rules-based order in the Indo-Pacific.
  • Defense Cooperation: Strengthening defense ties is crucial for both countries, particularly in the context of China’s military activities in the region. India views its partnership with Japan as essential for building its defense capabilities, which aligns with its goal of becoming a developed nation by 2047.

Significance for India

  • Regional Security: The India-Japan partnership is crucial for maintaining balance in the Indo-Pacific, where China’s assertiveness poses challenges to regional stability. By collaborating with Japan, India seeks to counterbalance China’s influence and ensure a free and open Indo-Pacific.
  • Global Diplomacy: This partnership also enhances India’s role on the global stage, as it aligns with other major democracies that are committed to upholding international law and norms. The “2+2” dialogue helps India solidify its strategic ties with Japan, making it a more reliable partner in global and regional security frameworks.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the India-Japan partnership:

  1. The India-Japan partnership is framed within the context of a free, open, and rules-based Indo-Pacific region.
  2. The “2+2” dialogue between India and Japan involves the participation of their respective heads of state.
  3. India has the “2+2” dialogue format with only a few countries, including the United States, Australia, and Russia.
  4. The India-Japan strategic partnership is based on democratic values and the rule of law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 3, and 4 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Q. Consider the following pairs:  2020

International Agreement/set-up – Subject 

1. Alma-Ata Declaration — Healthcare of the people
2. Hague Convention — Biological and chemical weapons
3. Talanoa Dialogue — Global climate change
4. Under2 Coalition — Child rights
Which of the pairs above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: c) 

Answer 1- B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The India-Japan partnership is indeed set against the context of ensuring a free, open, and rules-based Indo-Pacific.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The “2+2” dialogue involves the foreign and defense ministers, not the heads of state.
  • Statement 3 is correct: India has the “2+2” dialogue format with a limited number of countries, including the United States, Australia, and Russia.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The partnership is based on democratic values and the rule of law, as emphasized in the discussions between the two countries.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

Health Ministry announces series of measures to provide additional security to healthcare employees at workplace

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/health-ministry-announces-series-of-measures-to-provide-additional-security-to-healthcare-employees-at-workplace/article68547462.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 Polity and Governance

Context: Doctors Safety at workplaces

Why in News 

  • In response to demands and the prevailing concerns, the Union Health Ministry has issued a series of measures aimed at improving the safety and security of healthcare professionals in government hospitals.

Overview 

  • Incident Triggering Action: The brutal rape and murder of a resident doctor in Kolkata has led to widespread agitation among doctors across India. The incident has highlighted the vulnerabilities and safety concerns faced by healthcare professionals, especially women, in their workplaces.
  • Doctors’ Strike: In response to the incident, resident doctors across the country have gone on strike, suspending services in elective areas like OPDs (Outpatient Departments), elective surgeries, ward services, and laboratory services. They are demanding immediate actions to improve their safety and ensure justice in the Kolkata case.

Demands by Doctors

  • Transparent Investigation: Doctors are demanding a thorough and transparent investigation into the Kolkata incident, with the perpetrators being prosecuted with the utmost severity.
  • Central Protection Act for Doctors: They are also calling for the urgent implementation of a Central Protection Act specifically designed to safeguard doctors against violence and other forms of harm in the workplace.
  • Increased Security Measures: The doctors are demanding enhanced security in hospitals nationwide, including the installation of CCTV cameras, particularly in high-risk zones, to prevent similar incidents in the future.

Government Response 

  • Health Ministry’s Measures: In response to these demands and the prevailing concerns, the Union Health Ministry has issued a series of measures aimed at improving the safety and security of healthcare professionals in government hospitals.
  • Safety Guidelines: The Ministry has advised that women health professionals should not be deployed alone for night duties. If they are on duty at night, they should be escorted, and secured transport should be arranged for any necessary movement during night shifts.
  • Security Enhancements: Other measures include mapping dark spots on hospital campuses, conducting mock drills for emergency situations, strict monitoring of entry and exit points, limiting the number of visitors per patient, mandatory identity card display by hospital staff, and installing CCTV cameras at strategic locations.
  • No Central Law Yet: Despite the demands, the Ministry has ruled out the implementation of a new Central law specifically for the protection of healthcare professionals. Instead, they emphasized improving existing security measures within the framework of current laws.

Importance of Security in Healthcare Settings

  • Challenges in Government Hospitals: The Ministry acknowledged that government hospitals are generally more accessible to the public than private facilities. While this accessibility is crucial for providing care, it also poses significant security risks, including the possibility of violence against staff.
  • Impact on Healthcare: Violence or harassment against healthcare professionals can disrupt hospital operations, compromise patient care, and threaten the overall integrity of healthcare facilities.
  • Comprehensive Security Approach: The Ministry emphasized the need for a balanced approach to security, ensuring that while hospitals remain accessible, there are effective measures in place to protect both staff and patients.

Sole responsible for the safety of Health workers

  • State Governments: Health and law enforcement are primarily state subjects in India, meaning that state governments are primarily responsible for ensuring the safety of healthcare professionals. They are tasked with implementing laws, providing adequate security in hospitals, and ensuring a safe working environment for medical staff.
  • Central Government: The central government plays a role in formulating national policies and frameworks that support the safety of healthcare workersRecent initiatives include the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare’s order mandating the filing of FIRs within six hours of any violence against healthcare workers, indicating a push for accountability and swift action.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the recent measures related to the safety of healthcare professionals in India:

  1. The Union Health Ministry has implemented a new Central Protection Act specifically for the safety of healthcare professionals following the recent incident in Kolkata.
  2. The Union Health Ministry has advised against deploying women health professionals alone for night duty and has recommended secured transport for them during night shifts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2
D) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. International Labour Organisation’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to (2018)

(a) Child Labour

(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change

(c) Regulation of food prices and food security

(d) Gender parity at the workplace

Ans: A

Answer 2– B

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Union Health Ministry has not implemented a new Central Protection Act for healthcare professionals; it has ruled out bringing in such a law.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Health Ministry has advised against deploying women health professionals alone for night duties and recommended secured transport for their movement at night. 
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

About waterspout

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/waterspout-luxury-yacht-sicily-9524129/  

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 1 Geography

Context: Waterspout

Why in News 

  • A violent storm, possibly a waterspout, hit a luxury yacht off the coast of Sicily, Italy, resulting in the death of one man and leaving six others missing. 

Waterspouts

  • A waterspout is a rotating column of air and mist over water, similar to a tornado but typically weaker. 
  • It can last from five to ten minutes and usually has a diameter of about 165 feet with wind speeds around 100 km/h.
  • Formation: Waterspouts form when there is high humidity and relatively warm water compared to the air above. 
  • They are more common in tropical waters but can occur in other regions.

Types of Waterspouts 

  • Tornadic Waterspouts: These are tornadoes that form over water or move from land to water. They are associated with severe thunderstorms and can cause significant damage due to high winds, large hail, and dangerous lightning.
  • Fair-Weather Waterspouts: These are smaller and form over water during calm weather conditions. They are less dangerous and generally less destructive compared to tornadic waterspouts.

Recent Trends and Implications

  • Experts suggest that rising ocean temperatures are leading to an increase in the frequency of waterspouts. 
  • A study from the University of Barcelona highlighted that waterspouts are more likely to form when sea surface temperatures are significantly higher than historical averages. 
  • Currently, the sea surface near Sicily is approximately 2.5 to 3 degrees Celsius warmer than the 1990-2020 average.

Conclusion

  • Significance: Understanding the nature of waterspouts and their increasing frequency due to climate change is crucial for assessing their impact on maritime safety and planning effective responses to such extreme weather events.
  • Implications: The incident underscores the need for enhanced monitoring and preparedness for extreme weather phenomena, particularly in vulnerable areas like maritime routes and coastal regions.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q3. Which of the following statements about waterspouts is/are correct?

  1. Waterspouts are a type of tornado that forms over land and can move to water bodies.
  2. Fair-weather waterspouts are typically less dangerous and form during calm weather conditions over water.
  3. Tornadic waterspouts are associated with severe thunderstorms and can cause significant damage.
  4. The frequency of waterspouts has decreased in recent years due to cooler ocean temperatures.

Code: 

A) 1 and 4 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Q. Consider the following statements: (2022)

  1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
  2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a. 1 only

b. 2 only

c. Both 1 and 2

d. Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: d

Answer 3-B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Waterspouts form over water and can move from water to land, but they are not tornadoes that originate over land.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Fair-weather waterspouts are less dangerous and form during calm weather conditions over water.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Tornadic waterspouts are associated with severe thunderstorms and can cause considerable damage.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The frequency of waterspouts has increased in recent years due to rising ocean temperatures, not decreased. 
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

On the Ethanol blending programme

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/on-the-ethanol-blending-programme/article68547944.ece 

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 Environment and Ecology

Context: Ethanol Blending

Why in News 

  • India is on its way to achieve its target of blending 20% of petrol with ethanol by 2025-26.

Ethanol Blending Target

  • India aims to blend 20% ethanol with petrol by 2025-26. 
  • This target is being pursued to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and lessen foreign exchange expenditure on fuel imports. 
  • The blending percentage has increased from 8% in 2021 to approximately 13-15% recently.

Production Capacity and Milestones:

  • To meet the 20% blending target, India needs to produce about 1,000 crore liters of ethanol. 
  • By December 2023, the country’s ethanol production capacity reached 1,380 crore liters, with a substantial contribution from both sugarcane and grain-based distilleries.

Production Capacity and Milestones

  • The NITI Aayog’s roadmap for achieving the blending targets includes increasing the capacity of sugarcane-based distilleries from 426 crore liters in 2021 to 760 crore liters by 2026, and grain-based distilleries from 258 crore liters to 740 crore liters. 
  • The government has also introduced interest subvention programs to facilitate the establishment of new distilleries.

Challenges and Concerns

  • Food vs. Fuel Debate: 
    • The shift towards ethanol production has led to increased maize imports and concerns about food security. 
    • Despite the industry’s assurance of adequate food grain surpluses, the diversion of food grains like maize to ethanol production impacts other sectors, such as poultry and livestock feed.
  • Water Usage and Agricultural Sustainability:
    • Expanding sugarcane cultivation for ethanol production requires significant water resources. 
    • This increased water demand could potentially affect the availability of water for food crops, raising concerns about agricultural sustainability.
  • Economic Impact:
    • The diversion of sugarcane products to ethanol production has led to changes in sugar pricing and availability. 
    • Restrictions on using sugarcane juice and syrup for ethanol production were implemented to prevent potential shortages of sugar stocks.

Types of Ethanol Production

  • First Generation (1G) Ethanol: Produced directly from food grains and sugarcane. It has raised concerns about its impact on food security.
  • Second Generation (2G) and Third Generation (3G) Ethanol: These are derived from non-food sources such as agricultural residues and algae, respectively. They are considered to have a lower impact on food security and are seen as more sustainable alternatives.

State-wise Impact and Industry Response 

  • Uttar Pradesh: U.P. is a major contributor to India’s ethanol blending program, with a significant share of ethanol production coming from sugarcane-based distilleries. The state has aligned with the central government’s ethanol targets and has invested in multi-fuel distilleries.
  • Tamil Nadu: The state’s focus remains on liquor production due to its lucrative market. There is resistance to using food grains like rice for ethanol production, and instead, maize cultivation is being suggested as a viable alternative.
  • Maharashtra: Maharashtra’s distilleries find it more profitable to produce Extra Neutral Alcohol (ENA) for various uses beyond ethanol blending. The state’s economy supports diverse manufacturing demands, which affects the attractiveness of ethanol production.

What is Ethanol? 

  • Ethanol is a key biofuel created either through the fermentation of sugars by yeast or via petrochemical processes like ethylene hydration.

Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP): 

  • The EBP aims to decrease reliance on crude oil imports, cut carbon emissions, and increase farmers’ incomes. 
  • The Indian government has accelerated its goal for 20% ethanol blending in petrol (known as E20) from 2030 to 2025.

Significance of Ethanol Blending:

  • Reducing Petroleum Dependency: Blending ethanol with gasoline lowers the amount of petrol needed for vehicles, thereby reducing dependence on costly and polluting imported petroleum. Currently, India imports 85% of its oil needs.
  • Cost Savings: In 2020-21, India imported 185 million tonnes of petroleum, costing USD 551 billion. The E20 program could potentially save India USD 4 billion annually, given that most petroleum is used for transportation.
  • Environmental Benefits: Ethanol is a cleaner fuel compared to petrol, offering similar efficiency at a lower cost. The E20 roadmap leverages India’s large arable land, growing foodgrain and sugarcane production, and the technology for producing ethanol from plant sources. It argues that achieving the E20 target is not only essential for the nation but also a strategic necessity.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP) in India:

  1. The primary goal of the EBP is to decrease India’s reliance on crude oil imports and to lower carbon emissions.
  2. The target for achieving 20% ethanol blending in petrol has been advanced to 2030 from the original 2025 deadline.
  3. Ethanol blending is expected to reduce the country’s net petroleum import costs significantly and has environmental benefits due to lower pollution levels.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

A) Only 1 and 2

B) Only 2 and 3

C) Only 1 and 3

D) All of the above

Q. Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol? (2010)

(a) Jatropha
(b) Maize
(c) Pongamia
(d) Sunflower

Ans: (b)

Answer 4- C

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct. The Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP) is designed to reduce India’s dependence on imported crude oil by blending ethanol with petrol. This not only helps in cutting down on oil imports but also aims to lower carbon emissions, contributing to environmental protection.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The target for achieving 20% ethanol blending in petrol (E20) was actually advanced to 2025 from the earlier deadline of 2030. This advancement reflects a more aggressive approach towards meeting the blending goals and enhancing the use of renewable energy sources.
  • Statement 3 is correct. By blending ethanol with petrol, India expects to save on petroleum import costs and reduce greenhouse gas emissions, making it a more environmentally friendly option compared to pure petrol. Ethanol is less polluting and helps in reducing the overall carbon footprint of fuel consumption.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer.   

Sweden goes ‘Berserker’ with plans to kill nearly 500 of its brown bears

Source: Down To Earth

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/sweden-goes-berserker-with-plans-to-kill-nearly-500-of-its-brown-bears

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 Environment and Ecology

Context:  Brown bears of Sweden

Why in News 

  • Sweden has planned to kill 486 brown bears as part of its controversial licensed trophy hunting season.

Context of Sweden’s Brown Bear Hunting Controversy 

  • Sweden’s recent decision to cull a significant number of brown bears has sparked a controversy among conservationists and environmentalists, highlighting a clash between wildlife management policies and conservation laws.  

Background and Policy

  • Brown Bear Conservation Status: The brown bear (Ursus arctos) is classified as a “Strictly Protected Species” under the EU Habitats Directive. This classification is intended to ensure that such species are protected from activities that could harm their population.
  • Current Hunting Quotas: Sweden has set a target to cull 486 brown bears starting August 21, 2024, as part of its licensed trophy hunting season. An additional 50-100 bears are also under threat from what is termed “protective hunting.”
  • Historical Context: In 2023, Sweden had allowed the killing of 648 bears under licensed hunting quotas and an additional 74 bears through protective hunting. This is part of a broader strategy to manage the brown bear population.

Conservation Concerns 

  • Impact on Population: The move to cull 486 bears could potentially reduce Sweden’s brown bear population by 20%. As per the Big Five carnivore protection project, the country had 2,450 bears in 2023, and the planned cull could bring this number significantly down.
  • Historical Population Trends: The current population represents a decline from an estimated 3,300 bears in 2008. The proposed culling could bring the bear population close to a “Favourable Reference Population” of around 1,400 bears.
  • Effects on Ecosystem: Brown bears are top predators and play a crucial role in their ecosystems. Their hunting habits influence prey populations and their role as seed dispersers helps in maintaining forest health.

Legal and Ethical Issues

  • EU Habitats Directive:  The EU Habitats Directive mandates strict protection for certain species, and the large-scale culling of brown bears could be seen as a violation of this directive. Conservationists argue that such actions contradict the intent of EU regulations.
  • Swedish Red List Classification: According to the Swedish Red List, brown bears are classified as “Near Threatened.” This classification underscores the potential risk to the species and emphasizes the need for careful management.
  • Public and International Reactions: The Swedish government’s actions have faced criticism from conservationists and international bodies. Previous concerns about licensed wolf hunts and lynx culling have led to formal complaints lodged with the European Commission.

Conservationist Perspectives 

  • Population Dynamics: Experts like Jonas Kindberg highlight the potential long-term consequences of such extensive culling. Brown bears have a slow reproduction rate, taking 3-4 years to mature and producing only a few cubs every 2-3 years. Large-scale hunting could skew sex ratios and disrupt population stability.
  • Alternative Approaches: Conservationists suggest looking at alternative management strategies, such as co-existence models. For instance, Finland has developed bear-watching tourism as a sustainable way to manage bear populations and benefit local economies.

International Comparisons

  • Case Study of Japan: Comparisons with Japan’s approach to brown bear management on Hokkaido island show a different model. Japan has a population of approximately 12,000 brown bears in a region with a high human population density, indicating that sustainable co-existence is possible even in densely populated areas.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q5. Match the species listed below with their correct conservation status as per the IUCN Red List:

List A List B
1. Sumatran Tiger A. Critically Endangered
2. African Elephant B. Endangered
3. Giant Panda C. Vulnerable
4. Amur Leopard D. Near Threatened

Options:

A) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
B) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
C) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
D) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

 

Q. Consider the following statements: 2019

  1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
  2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
  3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
  4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A 1 and 3 only

B 2, 3 and 4 only

C 2 and 4 only

D 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 5- A

Explanation

  • Sumatran Tiger (Panthera tigris sumatrae): Critically Endangered (A). This species faces an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild due to habitat loss and poaching.
  • African Elephant (Loxodonta africana): Endangered (B). This species is at high risk of extinction due to threats like poaching and habitat destruction.
  • Giant Panda (Ailuropoda melanoleuca): Vulnerable (C). The Giant Panda’s status has improved from “Endangered” to “Vulnerable” thanks to concerted conservation efforts.
  • Amur Leopard (Panthera pardus orientalis): Near Threatened (D). Although critically endangered, it is classified as “Near Threatened” because of ongoing conservation efforts.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer. 

Centre asks UPSC to cancel lateral entry advertisement, says process to be reviewed to add quotas

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-asks-upsc-to-cancel-latest-advertisement-for-lateral-entry-in-bureaucracy/article68545865.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 Polity and Governance

Context: Cancellation of Lateral Entry recruitments

Why in News 

  • The government has cancelled Lateral Entry recruitments due to the absence of quotas for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). 

Background

  • On August 19, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) advertised lateral recruitment for 45 posts, including Joint Secretary, Director, and Deputy Secretary.
  • On August 21, the government cancelled these recruitments due to concerns over the absence of quotas for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs).

Historical Context

  • Administrative Reforms: The second Administrative Reforms Commission (2005) and the Sixth Pay Commission (2013) had recommended lateral entry from outside the government. 
  • Previous Practices: The letter from Dr. Singh criticized past practices where significant posts were filled without following reservation norms. It noted that the UPA government had allowed lateral entries without such processes, causing concerns about fairness and transparency.

Government’s Approach: 

  • Commitment to Reservations: Lateral entry processes must conform to constitutional provisions on reservations for SCs, STs, and Other Backward Classes (OBCs). The current advertisements lacked these provisions, prompting the need for reform.
  • Transparency and Social Justice: The government aims to ensure that recruitment practices are transparent and equitable, addressing criticisms of past ad hoc processes.

What is Lateral Entry?

  • Lateral Entry refers to the practice of hiring individuals from outside the traditional government recruitment process for senior positions within the government. 
  • Unlike the conventional route where individuals enter through competitive exams and career progression within the government, lateral entry allows for direct recruitment from outside, often to bring in expertise and fresh perspectives.

Benefits of Lateral Entry in India:

  • Lateral entry allows for the infusion of specialized expertise and fresh perspectives into the Indian bureaucracy, which can enhance policy-making and implementation. 
  • It enables the government to tap into the knowledge and experience of professionals from diverse fields, such as technology, finance, and international relations, who may not traditionally enter public service. 
  • This approach can lead to more innovative solutions, improved efficiency, and better alignment with global best practices. Additionally, lateral entry can help bridge the skill gaps in critical areas where traditional bureaucrats may lack expertise.

Concerns:

  • However, recent concerns include the potential for conflicts of interest, as lateral entrants from the private sector may have biases toward their previous industries. 
  • There is also apprehension about transparency and fairness in the selection process, which could lead to perceptions of favoritism. 
  • Moreover, the integration of lateral hires into the established bureaucratic culture remains challenging, potentially causing friction and undermining long-term policy continuity.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q6. Which of the following statements correctly describes lateral entry into government service?

  1. Lateral entry allows for the direct recruitment of individuals from outside the government for senior positions, bypassing traditional recruitment processes.
  2. Lateral entry requires all recruits to have been employed in government service for at least five years before applying.
  3. The primary purpose of lateral entry is to promote bureaucratic positions from within the existing government pool.
  4. Lateral entry positions are always filled through competitive exams conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC).
Q. Consider the following statements: (2022)

  1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
  2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
  3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Answer 6- A

Explanation

  • Lateral entry refers to the recruitment of individuals from outside the government for senior positions in the public sector. 
  • These positions are typically filled based on experience and expertise, rather than the traditional recruitment process that involves entry-level exams and promotions from within the government. Lateral entry aims to bring in external talent with specialized skills and knowledge to fill high-level roles.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer. 

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