CARE 1st July 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – CARE (01-07-2024)

News at a Glance
Polity and Governance: Centre likely to amend BNS to include section on sexual crimes against men, transgender people
Science and Technology: DRDO takes up preliminary study on development of indigenous conventional submarine
Study finds gene mutation that turns familiar faces into strangers
India lacks diagnostic tests for emerging infectious diseases
International Relations: India achieves an ‘outstanding outcome’ in FATF mutual evaluation 2023-24

Centre likely to amend BNS to include section on sexual crimes against men, transgender people

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-likely-to-amend-bns-to-include-section-on-sexual-crimes-against-men-transgender-people/article68352479.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2- Polity and Governance

Context: Criminal justice framework

Why in News 

  • Three new criminal laws are set to take effect across India on July 1, 2024, marking a significant overhaul of the country’s criminal justice framework.

Overview of New Laws

  • Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
      • Replaces the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC).
      • Prescribes procedures for arrest, bail, custody, etc.
      • States have flexibility to amend provisions.
  • Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
      • Replaces the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
      • Expected amendment to include provisions on sexual crimes against men and transgender persons.
      • Current use of allied sections for interim cases.
  • Bharatiya Sakshya (BS)
    • Replaces the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
    • Mandates audio-video recording of search/seizure operations and forensic examinations.
    • Introduction of eSakshya for crime scene recording and data storage.

Implementation and Concurrent Operation

  • Laws effective from July 1st, requiring all district courts and police stations to migrate to new systems.
  • Cognisable offences to be registered under BNSS Section 173 instead of CrPC Section 154.
  • IPC and CrPC to run concurrently due to pending cases and reporting of pre-July 1 crimes. 

Key Changes and Provisions:

The forthcoming laws introduce several progressive provisions aimed at enhancing efficiency and fairness in the legal process: 

  • Innovative Legal Procedures: Features like Zero FIR allow complaints to be filed at any police station, streamlining the initiation of legal action. 
  • Technological Advancements: Online police complaints and electronic summons service aim to reduce paperwork and enhance communication.
  • Swift Judicial Processes: Strict timelines for delivering trial judgments within 45 days and framing charges within 60 days emphasize timely justice delivery. 
  • Protection for Vulnerable Groups: Special provisions for crimes against women and children, ensuring sensitive handling and expedited medical examinations. 
  • Expanded Offenses: Definition updates include emerging crimes such as false promise of marriage and gang rape of minors, alongside a comprehensive definition of terrorism.

State Responses and Amendments

  • State Amendments: States can amend BNSS provisions to suit local needs.
  • Training and Support: States supported in transitioning to new laws with training and system updates.

Technology and Procedure Updates 

  • Filing FIRs: Can now be done electronically (e-FIR) and across jurisdictions (zero FIR) via CCTNS.
  • Evidence Recording: Mandates audio-video recording of operations and forensic examinations for serious offences.

State-Level Preparations 

  • Custom Systems: States like Delhi and Uttarakhand have developed their own recording applications (e-pramaan, eSakshya).
  • Hardware Procurement: States like Uttar Pradesh allocating budgets for tablets, devices, and printers for compliance.

Forensic Capabilities and Future Upgrades

  • Forensic Readiness: States given until June 2029 to upgrade forensic capabilities.
  • Training Initiatives: Officials being trained to meet requirements until full upgrades are completed.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q1.  Consider the following statements regarding the new criminal laws introduced in India:

  1. The Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) replaces the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, for procedures related to arrest, bail, and custody.
  2. The Bharatiya Sakshya (BS) incorporates provisions specifically addressing sexual crimes against men and transgender persons.
  3. The Bharatiya Sakshya (BS) mandates compulsory audio-video recording of search and seizure operations in all criminal cases.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Q. Consider the following statements: (2018)

  1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
  2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a state shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Answer 1- C

Explanation

  • The BNSS replaces the IPC, 1860, for procedures related to arrest, bail, and custody. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) incorporates provisions specifically addressing sexual crimes against men and transgender persons. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
    • The Bharatiya Sakshya (BS) mandates compulsory audio-video recording of search and seizure operations in all criminal cases. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer. 

DRDO takes up preliminary study on development of indigenous conventional submarine

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/drdo-takes-up-preliminary-study-on-development-of-indigenous-conventional-submarine/article68352888.ece#:~:text=An%20Air%20Independent%20Propulsion%20(AIP,2027%20or%202028%2C%20sources%20said

UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Science and Technology

Context: indigenous conventional submarine under Project-76.

Why in News 

  • DRDO has initiated a preliminary study for an indigenous conventional submarine under Project-76.

Project-76: Indigenous Conventional Submarine 

  • The study aims to determine project specifics, expected to take up to a year.
  • Formal project sanction will be sought from the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) thereafter.

Continuation of Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) Project

  • Project-76 follows the Advanced Technology Vessel (ATV) initiative.
  • ATV previously led to the development of Arihant series nuclear ballistic missile submarines (SSBN) and ongoing SSN projects.

Indigenous Content and Capabilities 

  • Project-76 emphasizes substantial indigenous content:
  • Weapons, missiles, combat management system.
  • Sonars, communications, Electronic Warfare suite.
  • Mast and periscope.

Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) Development 

  • DRDO developed an AIP module to enhance submarine endurance.
  • AIP module increases submerged operation duration and reduces detection risks.
  • Fitment and Collaboration
    • AIP module awaits fitment on Scorpene-class submarines.
    • Collaboration with Naval Group for fitment on the first Scorpene-class submarine Kalvari during its refit in 2025.
  • Technical Details and Development
    • DRDO’s AIP module uses phosphoric acid-based fuel cells.
    • Each fuel cell currently outputs 13.5 kW, scalable up to 20 kW.
    • A stack of 24 fuel cells provides redundancy and optimized performance.
  • Testing and Implementation
    • AIP module undergoes continuous testing onshore.
    • Simulated hull conditions replicate near-sea environments for testing reliability.

Future Directions 

  • AIP technology advancements align with future submarine requirements, including Project-76.
  • DRDO continues to innovate to meet evolving naval operational needs.

Key Points:

  • Indigenous Development: The project aims to develop a submarine entirely with Indian technology and expertise.
    • Focuses on leveraging DRDO’s existing research and development infrastructure.
  • Strategic Importance: Enhancing India’s underwater naval capabilities is crucial for maintaining a strategic edge in the Indian Ocean region.
    • Conventional submarines play a vital role in coastal defense and strategic deterrence.
  • Technological Capabilities: The initiative will integrate advanced technologies in stealth, propulsion, and weaponry.
    • Emphasis on developing air-independent propulsion (AIP) systems to extend the submarine’s operational range and endurance.
  • Collaboration and Expertise: DRDO is expected to collaborate with other Indian defense agencies, private sector companies, and academia.
    • The project will benefit from the expertise and experience gained from previous naval projects like the Scorpene-class submarines.
  • Timeline and Phases: The project is in the preliminary study phase, involving feasibility assessments and design considerations.
    • Subsequent phases will include detailed design, prototype development, testing, and eventual production.
  • Self-Reliance in Defense: This initiative aligns with the Indian government’s ‘Make in India’ and ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat’ (self-reliant India) missions.
    • Reducing reliance on foreign suppliers for critical defense equipment enhances national security and economic benefits.
  • Potential Challenges: Developing a state-of-the-art conventional submarine domestically involves overcoming significant technical and logistical challenges.
  • Ensuring timely completion and cost-effectiveness will be crucial for the project’s success.
  • The DRDO’s move to undertake this ambitious project reflects India’s growing focus on self-reliance in defense technology and its strategic intent to bolster naval defense capabilities.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q2. Which of the following statements about Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) is correct?

A) AIP modules are primarily used in surface combatants to enhance radar detection capabilities.

B) AIP technology uses hydrogen fuel cells to generate electricity and increase submarine endurance underwater.

C) AIP systems have been developed exclusively by Indian defense agencies such as DRDO.

D) AIP is primarily used in nuclear-powered submarines for longer underwater operations.

Q. In which of the following areas can GPS technology be used? (2018)

  1. Mobile phone operations
  2. Banking operations
  3. Controlling the power grids

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Ans: (d)

Answer 2 – B

Explanation – 

    • AIP technology uses hydrogen fuel cells to generate electricity, allowing conventional submarines to remain submerged for longer periods without surfacing. 
    • This enhances operational endurance and reduces the risk of detection by adversaries.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

Study finds gene mutation that turns familiar faces into strangers

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/study-finds-gene-mutation-that-turns-familiar-faces-into-strangers/article68351534.ece#:~:text=We%20should%20give%20thanks%20to,recognise%20faces%20is%20severely%20impaired   

UPSC Relevance: GS3- Science and Technology 

Context: Discovery of the MCTP2 gene’s role

Why in News

  • The discovery of the MCTP2 gene’s role in face recognition sheds light on the genetic basis of prosopagnosia, a condition where individuals struggle to recognize faces. 

Key Highlights

  • Research led by Ye Rao identified a family with a history of face recognition difficulties, linked to a novel mutation in MCTP2. 
  • This gene mutation affects the ability to distinguish familiar faces from strangers and is associated with abnormal responses in the brain’s fusiform face area (rFFA), crucial for facial recognition.

Background:

    • Prosopagnosia, or face blindness, is a form of visual agnosia characterized by an inability to identify faces, even of close family members. 
    • It affects a significant portion of the population worldwide (1.8-2.9%). 
  • The discovery of the MCTP2 gene’s role marks a milestone in understanding how genetic mutations can impair higher cognitive functions related to social cognition.

Research Findings 

  • Family Study: Rao’s team studied a family across three generations, identifying nine members with impaired face recognition. Genetic analysis revealed a mutation in the MCTP2 gene, inherited from a great-grandparent, affecting subsequent generations.
  • Population Screening: A cohort study involving 2,904 individuals validated the link between MCTP2 mutations and poor face recognition. Sequencing genomes of poor performers identified additional mutations in MCTP2, correlating with impaired facial recognition ability.

Functional Insights:

  • Neurological Basis: Functional MRI studies highlighted abnormal activity in the rFFA among individuals with MCTP2 mutations.
  • This brain region is critical for facial recognition, indicating a direct impact of gene mutations on neural processes underlying social cognition.

Clinical and Ethical Considerations:

  • Implications for Understanding Visual Agnosia: Insights into MCTP2 mutations provide a molecular understanding of how visual agnosia manifests, contrasting with anecdotal cases like that of Dr. P. described by Oliver Sacks.
  • Ethical Reflections: The study prompts ethical reflections on genetic testing for cognitive disorders and potential implications for affected individuals and their families.

MCTP2 (multiple C2 domain transmembrane containing protein 2) 

  • MCTP2 (multiple C2 domain transmembrane containing protein 2) encodes a protein with poorly understood roles in lipid metabolism and lipid droplet biogenesis. 
  • Genetic studies previously identified variations in MCTP2 in conjunction with left ventricular outflow tract obstructive forms of congenital heart disease (CHD).
  • Mutations in the MCTP2 gene impair the ability to recognize familiar faces, leading to a condition known as prosopagnosia or face blindness. 
  • Individuals with these mutations struggle to distinguish between known faces, often mistaking strangers for family members.

Implications for Cognitive Neuroscience

  • Understanding the function of MCTP2 provides insights into the neurobiological mechanisms underlying higher cognitive functions related to social interactions and visual perception. 
  • It contributes to our broader understanding of how genetic mutations can impact complex behaviors and cognitive processes.
CARE MCQ  
Q3.  Consider the following statements:

    1. Mutations in the MCTP2 gene can lead to a condition known as prosopagnosia, or face blindness.
  • The MCTP2 gene is located on chromosome no. 15.
  1. Functional MRI studies have shown abnormal brain responses in the fusiform face area (rFFA) in individuals with mutations in the MCTP2 gene.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only 
  3. 1 and 3 only 
  4. 1, 2 and 3
Q. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future? (2017)

  1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
  2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
  3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Answer 3 C

Explanation

  • Mutations in the MCTP2 gene have been associated with prosopagnosia, a condition characterized by difficulty in recognizing faces. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The MCTP2 gene is located on chromosome 17, not chromosome 15. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Functional MRI studies have indeed shown abnormal brain responses in the fusiform face area (rFFA) in individuals with mutations in the MCTP2 gene, which is consistent with the manifestation of prosopagnosia. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Hence correct option is C

India lacks diagnostic tests for emerging infectious diseases

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/india-lacks-diagnostic-tests-for-emerging-infectious-diseases/article68344699.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3- Science and Technology

Context: India lacks diagnostic tests for emerging infectious diseases

Why in News 

  • A recent case of Zika virus infection in Pune has renewed concerns about India’s preparedness for diagnosing emerging infectious diseases. 

Zika Virus 

  • Zika virus, a flavivirus like dengue, poses risks especially to pregnant women, potentially causing microcephaly.
  • India lacks approved diagnostic tests for Zika, hindering effective diagnosis and surveillance despite sporadic outbreaks.

Dengue and Zika Similarities

  • Both diseases are spread by Aedes mosquitoes.
  • India’s climate change exacerbates dengue outbreaks, suggesting potential for Zika spread.

Nipah Virus 

  • Multiple outbreaks in India, notably in Kerala, highlight diagnostic challenges and delays in testing.
  • Early identification crucial; current reliance on apex institutes for testing limits rapid response.

Avian Influenza

  • Recent outbreaks in India underscore the need for accessible diagnostic tests and rapid genome sequencing.
  • Lack of published genomes impedes understanding and development of effective diagnostics.

Lessons from COVID-19

  • India successfully decentralized testing during the pandemic, enhancing accessibility and availability of diagnostics.
  • Similar approach could be pivotal in combating emerging infectious diseases like Zika, Nipah, and avian influenza.

Recommendations 

  • Establish decentralized testing facilities at district and sub-district levels for rapid response.
  • Accelerate development and validation of affordable diagnostic tests for Zika, Nipah, avian influenza, etc.
  • Improve genomic surveillance and data sharing to enhance preparedness and response capabilities.

Conclusion

  • India’s preparedness for diagnosing emerging infectious diseases like Zika, Nipah, and avian influenza remains a concern due to limited diagnostic capabilities and reliance on few apex institutes.
  • Learning from COVID-19, decentralizing testing infrastructure and advancing diagnostic development are critical steps toward effective response and containment of future outbreaks.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q4.   Match the following pairs:

  1. Zika Virus  (i). Potential to cause   

                                        microcephaly in infants

  1. Nipah Virus      (ii). Spread by fruit bats
  2. Avian Influenza  (iii). Associated with high mortality in poultry
  3. Dengue (iv). Spread by Aedes mosquitoes

Select the correct 

A. (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv) 

B. (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i) 

C. (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii) 

D. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

Q. Consider the following statements: (2017)

  1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
  2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Answer 4 A

Explanation

  • Zika Virus – A. Potential to cause microcephaly in infants
  • Nipah Virus – B. Spread by fruit bats
  • Avian Influenza – C. Associated with high mortality in poultry
  • Dengue – D. Spread by Aedes mosquitoes
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.   

India achieves an ‘outstanding outcome’ in FATF mutual evaluation 2023-24

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-achieves-an-outstanding-outcome-in-fatf-mutual-evaluation-2023-24/article68344102.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 2- International Relations, GS 3– Global Finance

Context: Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

Why in news 

  • India has achieved an outstanding outcome in the Mutual Evaluation conducted during 2023-24 by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), said the government on June 28. 

Achievements in Mutual Evaluation 

  • India achieved a favorable outcome in the FATF Mutual Evaluation for 2023-24.
  • Recognized for reaching a high level of technical compliance in AML, CFT, and CPF regimes.
  • Acknowledged for effective international cooperation and access to beneficial ownership information.

Areas for Improvement

  • Identified need for strengthened supervision and implementation in non-financial sectors.
  • Emphasis on addressing delays in concluding money laundering and terrorist financing prosecutions.
  • Call to enhance implementation of CFT measures in non-profit sectors through a risk-based approach.

Efforts in Mitigating ML/TF Risks 

  • Highlighted efforts to mitigate risks from corruption, fraud, and organized crime.
  • Transition from cash-based to digital economy through JAM Trinity (Jan Dhan, Aadhaar, Mobile).
  • Resulted in increased financial inclusion, traceability of transactions, and reduced ML/TF risks. 

Impact on India’s Financial System and Economy

  • Positive ratings expected to enhance access to global financial markets and investor confidence.
  • Potential benefits for expanding India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) globally.

Government’s Perspective and Commitment 

  • Government views the FATF recognition as validation of India’s rigorous measures against financial crimes.
  • Commitment to international standards and leadership in countering cross-border terror financing.
  • Multi-pronged strategy and legislative changes to align with global standards since 2014.

About FATF

  • FATF is an international body formed in 1989 by the Group of Seven (G7) member states with an aim to prevent cases of Anti-money laundering and financing of terrorist activities. 
  • Its headquarters is located in Paris, France. 
  • It aims to generate the necessary political will to bring about reforms in the national legislative and regulatory reforms to prevent money laundering and financing of terrorist activities.  

FATF has 2 types of lists for classifying countries:  

    • Blacklist Countries: The Countries in this list known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs).
    • It means countries designated as ‘high-risk jurisdictions subject to call for action’. 
    • In this case, the countries have considerable deficiencies in their AML/CFT (anti-money laundering and counter terrorist financing) regimens and the body calls on members and non-members to apply enhanced due diligence. 
    • Currently, North Korea and Iran are on the black list.
    • Grey List: In essence, countries on the Grey list are under global watch by FATF for not adequately preventing money laundering and terrorist financing.
  • This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist. For Example: Currently, Barbados and Albania are on the grey  list.

Consequences of being in the FATF’s list:

    • Economic sanctions from IMF, World Bank, ADB 
    • Problem in getting loans from IMF, World Bank, ADB and other countries
    •  Reduction in international trade
    • International boycott
  • It may also affect capital inflows, foreign direct investments, and portfolio flows.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q5. India’s recent Mutual Evaluation by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) resulted in several key observations and conclusions. Consider the following statements:

  1. India has been categorized under the “regular follow-up” category by FATF, which is shared by only a few G-20 countries.
  2. The FATF concluded that India has achieved a high level of technical compliance in its anti-money laundering (AML), countering the financing of terrorism (CFT), and counter-proliferation financing (CPF) regimes.
  3. According to the FATF, India needs to strengthen supervision and implementation of preventive measures primarily in the financial sectors to fully comply with international standards.

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2, 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3
Q. With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020)

  1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited.
  2. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services.
  3. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans- c

Answer 5 D

Explanation

  • India has been categorized under the “regular follow-up” category by FATF, a distinction shared by only a few G-20 countries. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
  • The FATF concluded that India has achieved a high level of technical compliance in its AML, CFT, and CPF regimes. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
  • The FATF observed that improvements are needed in India to strengthen supervision and implementation of preventive measures in some non-financial sectors. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
  • Therefore, option D is the correct answer. 

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