CARE 18th September 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering – CARE (18-09-2024)

News at a Glance
International Relations: EU chief unveils new right-leaning Commission with women in top roles
Environment and Ecology: India to get its own carbon market
Study shows protected areas only 30% effective in combating deforestation
International Relations: Differences on new finance goal for COP29 likely to impact talks
Polity and Governance: Supreme Court Bulldozes Bulldozer Justice by States

EU chief unveils new right-leaning Commission with women in top roles

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/eu-chief-unveils-new-right-leaning-commission-with-women-in-top-roles/article68654303.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 – International Relations

Context: European Commission

Why in News 

  • Ursula von der Leyen, the President of the European Commission, announced her new team for her next five-year tenure. 

Overview 

  • The European Commission is the executive branch of the European Union (EU) responsible for proposing and enforcing laws for the 27 member countries.

Gender Parity Efforts: 

  • Von der Leyen aimed for gender parity in her new team but faced resistance from member states. Initially, only 22% of the candidates proposed were women. 
  • After negotiations, she increased female representation to 40%. 
  • However, full gender parity was not achieved. 
  • Despite this, women were placed in several top positions, demonstrating her commitment to gender equality.

Major Appointments: 

  • Kaja Kallas (Estonia) became the Foreign Policy Chief.
  • Teresa Ribera (Spain) was appointed as the Green Transition and Competition Leader.
  • Henna Virkkunen (Finland) took charge of Rule of Law and Digital Affairs.
  • Roxana Minzatu (Romania) was assigned the Social Affairs portfolio.

 Controversial Appointment: 

  • Raffaele Fitto from Italy’s far-right Brothers of Italy party was appointed as Executive Vice President. 
  • This decision has sparked controversy, as critics argue that placing a far-right figure in a high-ranking EU position could be problematic. 
  • Concerns have been raised about how a representative of a far-right party might handle EU funds and manage responsibilities.

Challenges within the Commission: 

  • French Foreign Minister Thierry Breton resigned, criticizing von der Leyen’s leadership. 
  • His resignation is seen as part of an internal struggle within the Commission. 
  • French Foreign Minister Stephane Sejourne was appointed to replace him, ensuring that France retained influence in the Commission.

Parliamentary Hearings and Confirmation: 

  • The Commission team must be confirmed by the European Parliament, and individual candidates can be rejected. 
  • All eyes will be on Raffaele Fitto’s hearing, which is expected to draw significant attention due to his far-right background.

What is the European Union?

  • The European Union is a group of 27 countries that operate as a cohesive economic and political block.
  • 19 of these countries use Euro (€) as their official currency.
  • 8 EU members (Bulgaria, Croatia, Czech Republic, Denmark, Hungary, Poland, Romania and Sweden) do not use the euro.
  • The EU grew out of a desire to form a single European political entity to end centuries of warfare among European countries that culminated with World War II and decimated much of the continent.
  • The EU has developed an internal single market through a standardised system of laws that apply in all member states in matters where members have agreed to act as one.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q1. With reference to the European Commission team announced by Ursula von der Leyen in 2024, consider the following statements:

  1. Teresa Ribera was appointed to lead the European Commission’s green transition and competition policy.
  2. Raffaele Fitto, a member of a far-right political party, was appointed as Executive Vice President of the European Commission.
  3. Ursula von der Leyen successfully achieved full gender parity in her Commission team.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Q. In the context of bilateral trade negotiations between India and European Union, what is the difference between European Commission and European Council? (2010)

  1. The European Commission represents the EU in trade negotiations whereas European Council participates in the legislation of matters pertaining to economic policies of the European Union.
  2. The European Commission comprises the Heads of State or government of member countries whereas the European Council comprises of the persons nominated by European Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d)

Answer 1- A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Teresa Ribera was appointed to lead the green transition and competition policy.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Raffaele Fitto from Italy’s far-right Brothers of Italy party was appointed as Executive Vice President.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Ursula von der Leyen did not achieve full gender parity, but she improved female representation to 40%.
  • Hence option A is correct.

India to get its own carbon market

Source: Down to Earth 

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/india-to-get-its-own-carbon-market

UPSC Relevance: GS3- Environment and Ecology

Context:  Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS)

Why in News 

  • India is preparing to launch a Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), a market-based approach to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

Overview 

  • India is preparing to launch a Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), a market-based approach to reduce greenhouse gas emissions. 
  • This scheme is part of India’s strategy to meet its climate goals, including those under the Paris Agreement of 2016, and to tackle increasing climate change impacts. 
  • The CCTS is expected to take full effect by 2026, as outlined by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).

Key Aspects of CCTS:

  1. Market-Based Mechanism:
    The CCTS will set emissions reduction targets for industries. Companies that exceed their targets by cutting more emissions than required can sell their extra carbon credits. On the other hand, companies that fail to meet their targets will have to buy credits to comply.
  2. India’s Climate Commitments:
    India has pledged to reduce its emissions intensity of GDP by 45% from 2005 levels by 2030 and achieve net-zero emissions by 2070. CCTS is designed to help meet these goals by encouraging companies to reduce their carbon footprint.
  3. Global and Domestic Drivers:
    • The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), introduced by the European Union (effective from 2026), is a key factor. Under CBAM, the EU will impose tariffs on imports based on their carbon emissions, making it essential for Indian exporters to lower emissions.
    • The development of carbon markets in countries like China and Indonesia has also pushed India to adopt a similar approach.
  4. Challenges Ahead:
    While the compliance procedure has been announced, the key challenge is setting emission targets that effectively reduce emissions. For CCTS to succeed, these targets must be ambitious enough to ensure meaningful reductions and enable India to achieve its climate goals.

Significance 

  • The CCTS marks a crucial step in India’s climate policy, aligning the country with global efforts to combat climate change. 
  • The scheme, however, needs carefully designed targets and strong implementation to fulfil its purpose of reducing emissions and supporting India’s transition to a sustainable, low-carbon economy.

Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS)

  • The Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) is a market-based mechanism designed by India to reduce or limit greenhouse gas emissions. 
  • This scheme allows industries to trade carbon credits based on their emission performance, with the aim of promoting emission reductions while helping the country achieve its climate goals. 
  • It is a significant part of India’s broader environmental and economic strategies, particularly in the context of its international commitments like the Paris Agreement.

Current Government Initiatives Related to the Carbon Market in India 

  • Carbon Credits Trading Scheme (CCTS): Building on the Electricity Conservation Act, 2001, and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, India launched the CCTS to reduce GHG emissions by trading carbon credit certificates.
  • The compliance segment of CCTS will commence in 2025-26, allowing non-obligated entities to participate and trade carbon credit certificates (CCCs).
  • Other Existing Schemes: The Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme and the Renewable Energy Certificates (REC) system are existing market-based emission reduction schemes in India.
  • Monitoring and Verification: The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) and the National Steering Committee for Indian Carbon Market (NSCICM) are responsible for ensuring the integrity of the carbon credits through rigorous monitoring, reporting, and verification processes.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q2. With reference to India’s Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), consider the following statements:

  1. The CCTS is a market-based mechanism aimed at reducing or limiting greenhouse gas emissions in India.
  2. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is responsible for implementing the CCTS.
  3. The CCTS is designed to help India achieve its target of becoming a net-zero emitter by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3

Q. Consider the following statements (2023)

Statement—I Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.

Statement—II Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement—I and Statement—II are correct and Statement—II is the correct explanation for Statement—I

(b) Both Statement—I and Statement—II are correct and Statement—II is not the correct explanation for Statement—I

(c) Statement—I is correct but Statement—II is incorrect

(d) Statement—I is incorrect but Statement—II is correct

Ans: b

Answer 2– A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: The CCTS is indeed a market-based mechanism aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions by allowing the trading of carbon credits.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) will implement the CCTS.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: India aims to achieve net-zero emissions by 2070, not 2030. 
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer. 

Study shows protected areas only 30% effective in combating deforestation

Source: Down To earth

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/forests/study-shows-protected-areas-only-30-effective-in-combating-deforestation

UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Environment and Ecology

Context: Protected Areas (PAs)

Why in News

  • A new study published in the Journal of Environmental Economics and Management found that Protected areas may not be as effective in preventing deforestation as previously believed.

Overview 

  • Protected Areas (PAs) are designed to conserve nature and play a vital role in fighting climate change and biodiversity loss. 
  • However, a new study published on September 17, 2024, in the Journal of Environmental Economics and Management found that these areas may not be as effective in preventing deforestation as previously believed.

Role of Protected Areas (PAs): 

  • PAs are special areas set aside to protect forests, reduce carbon emissions, and safeguard biodiversity. 
  • They have been globally recognized in international frameworks such as the Convention on Biological Diversity and the Kunming–Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, which aims to protect 30% of the world’s lands and waters by 2030.

Effectiveness of PAs: 

  • The study, led by Professor Timothy Neal from the University of New South Wales, analyzed over 300,000 protected areas globally from 2000 to 2022 using a statistical method called regression discontinuity design (RDD). 
  • It found that, on average, PAs were only 30% effective in reducing deforestation. While this does indicate some success, it is far below the level needed to protect critical ecosystems effectively.

Regional Variation:

  • The effectiveness of PAs varies significantly across different regions:
    • In Brazil, PAs were 35% effective in preventing deforestation.
    • In Africa, countries like the Democratic Republic of the Congo showed effectiveness close to 0%, indicating major challenges.
    • In Asia, Malaysia’s PAs were 56% effective, while Indonesia’s PAs were only 11% effective.
    • Other countries like Papua New Guinea, Myanmar, and the Philippines showed similarly low effectiveness.
    • Even in Australia, the effectiveness of PAs dropped from 70% to 25% after major bushfires.

Challenges for Protected Areas: 

  • Poor management, weak enforcement, and limited funding are some of the key reasons why PAs are struggling to prevent deforestation.
  • Larger PAs tended to experience higher rates of forest loss due to the difficulty of monitoring and enforcing protection across vast areas.
  • Human pressure on forests in PAs is another significant issue. As earlier research highlighted, nearly one-third of PAs face heavy human activity, which undermines conservation efforts.
  • Call for Better Management:
    The study emphasized that merely designating more land as protected is not enough. To effectively reduce deforestation, PAs must be better managed with stronger protections, better monitoring, and more funding. The use of advanced technologies, such as satellite data, to monitor forests in real-time could improve enforcement and help address deforestation more effectively.

Conclusion:

  • The study underscores the need for more effective strategies in managing protected areas. 
  • While PAs are critical for biodiversity and climate change mitigation, poor implementation, lack of resources, and regional challenges mean they are often not achieving their full potential. 
  • Policymakers and conservationists must focus on stronger management practices and technological solutions to ensure PAs can meet their intended goals.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q3. With reference to the role of Protected Areas (PAs) in combating deforestation and climate change, consider the following statements:

  1. Protected Areas (PAs) are special regions designated to conserve nature and reduce carbon emissions.
  2. A recent study published in 2024 found that Protected Areas worldwide are, on average, 70% effective in preventing deforestation.
  3. The Kunming–Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework aims to protect 30% of the world’s lands and waters by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Q. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication? (2020)

(a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant.
(b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances.
(c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
(d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.

Ans: (a)

Answer- 3 B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: PAs are indeed designated areas for conserving nature and reducing carbon emissions.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The study found that PAs are only 30% effective on average in preventing deforestation, not 70%.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Kunming–Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework targets protecting 30% of the world’s lands and waters by 2030.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Differences on new finance goal for COP29 likely to impact talks

Source: The Hindustan Times

https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/differences-on-new-finance-goal-for-cop29-likely-to-impact-talks-101726625840283.html

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2- International Relations

Context:  A fair and ambitious New Collective Quantified Goal on climate finance (NCQG) 

Why in News 

  • The key issue under negotiation at the upcoming COP29 conference is the creation of a New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG) 

Overview

  • The key issue under negotiation at the upcoming COP29 conference is the creation of a New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG), which is set to replace the current $100 billion per year climate finance target post-2025. 
  • However, significant disagreements remain, primarily on two issues: the quantum of the fund and the contributors list. 

Key Issues in NCQG Negotiations: 

  1. Quantum of Finance:
    Developing countries demand climate finance in the trillions annually from developed countries to help meet their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) for mitigating climate change. This demand is based on the provisions of the Paris Agreement and the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), which state that developed countries must provide financial assistance to developing nations.
  2. Expansion of the Contributor Base:
    Developed countries are advocating for an expanded list of contributors, suggesting that emerging economies (even those not historically responsible for pollution) should also contribute to the climate finance pool. This proposal is being resisted by developing countries, who argue that the financial responsibility lies with the historical polluters, i.e., developed countries, based on the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities outlined in the Paris Agreement and UNFCCC.

India’s Stand:

  • India, along with other developing nations and groups such as the Like Minded Developing Countries (LMDC) and the Alliance of Small Island States (AOSIS), has strongly opposed any deviation from the established principle that developed countries must provide climate finance to developing nations. 
  • India’s position is that there should be “no digressions” from this commitment.

COP29 Presidency Initiatives:

The COP29 Presidency, led by Azerbaijan, has launched several initiatives to supplement the core negotiations, including:

  1. Climate Finance Action Fund (CFAF):
    A voluntary fund aimed at contributions from fossil fuel-producing countries and companies, which will support efforts in mitigation, adaptation, and research.
  2. COP Truce Appeal:
    Modeled on the Olympic Truce, this initiative aims to emphasize the importance of peace in addressing climate change.
  3. Baku Global Climate Transparency Platform (BTP):
    A platform to help developing countries prepare and submit their Biennial Transparency Reports (BTRs), required under the Paris Agreement.

Criticism of Developed Countries:

  • Climate activists have criticized developed countries for failing to meet their financial commitments and shifting the burden to large developing nations. 
  • This failure has led to concerns about the future of climate negotiations, with fears that the COP29 conference could be derailed due to a lack of trust between developed and developing countries.
  • The ongoing negotiations and these initiatives underscore the urgent need for equitable financial support for developing countries to address climate change, while highlighting the broader global responsibility to limit the impacts of climate change.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the New Collective Quantified Goal on Climate Finance (NCQG):

  1. The NCQG is being set to replace the current $100 billion per year climate finance target for the post-2025 period.
  2. Developed countries are seeking to include emerging economies as contributors to the NCQG fund.
  3. The Paris Agreement and UNFCCC mandate that climate finance should flow from developing countries to developed countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Q. The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (2016)

(a) pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East
(b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change
(c) capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
(d) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals

Answer: B

Answer 4 B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The NCQG is intended to replace the current $100 billion climate finance goal for the post-2025 period.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Developed countries are advocating for the inclusion of emerging economies in the list of contributors.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Paris Agreement and UNFCCC mandate that climate finance should flow from developed to developing countries, not the other way around.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.   

Supreme Court Bulldozes Bulldozer Justice by States

Source: Economic Times

https://m.economictimes.com/epaper/delhicapital/2024/sep/18/et-poli/supreme-court-bulldozes-bulldozer-justice-by-states/articleshow/113437792.cms

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 2- Polity and Governance, Judiciary

Context: Supreme court order on properties involved in crime

Why in news 

  • The Supreme Court froze illegal bulldozer demolitions across the country till October 1.

Overview

  • The case of “bulldozer actions” being heard by the Supreme Court of India raises important questions about the balance between state authority, legal procedures, and constitutional rights. 
  • The case specifically addresses the legality and fairness of demolition actions undertaken by state governments as a punitive measure against individuals accused of crimes. 
  • The context of this issue is complex, as it touches upon various aspects of law, governance, human rights, and social justice.

Nature of Bulldozer Actions: 

  • In several states across India, state authorities have been accused of demolishing the homes and properties of individuals suspected or accused of crimes. 
  • These demolitions have been labeled “bulldozer actions” because of the use of heavy machinery to carry them out. 
  • These actions have been portrayed by some as a form of punishment or retribution for criminal acts, often without following proper legal procedures.

Legal Challenge: 

  • A batch of petitions has been filed in the Supreme Court challenging these demolitions, arguing that they are unconstitutional and violate the basic principles of due process and the right to property. 
  • Petitioners have contended that these actions are often targeted and punitive in nature, carried out against individuals from specific communities or groups. 
  • The petitioners argue that demolishing homes without proper legal procedure infringes on fundamental rights, particularly the right to a home, which is an essential part of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution (Right to Life).

Supreme Court’s Interim Order: 

  • The Supreme Court passed an interim order stating that no demolitions should take place in the country without the Court’s explicit permission. 
  • This order, however, does not apply to unauthorised constructions on public spaces such as streets, footpaths, railway lines, or water bodies. 
  • The Court emphasized that while unauthorised constructions must be addressed, demolitions should not be used as a punitive measure against individuals accused of crimes. 
  • The Court’s order aims to prevent the misuse of state power to carry out arbitrary demolitions.

Key Legal and Constitutional Aspects 

  • Article 21 – Right to Life: Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. The Supreme Court has previously interpreted this article broadly, including the right to shelter and a dignified life. The petitioners argue that arbitrary demolitions violate this right, as they deprive individuals of their homes without following due process. The right to a home is seen as an integral part of the right to life, and any action that infringes upon this right must follow the principles of natural justice.
  • Article 142 – Complete Justice: The Supreme Court invoked its powers under Article 142 of the Constitution to issue its interim order. Article 142 grants the Court special powers to pass any order necessary to do “complete justice” in any case before it. This provision allows the Court to go beyond the letter of the law to ensure justice is done. In this case, the Court used Article 142 to impose a temporary stay on demolitions across India, except in cases of encroachments on public property.
  • Due Process and Rule of Law: The core issue in this case is the rule of law and the requirement for due process before taking any punitive action. 
  • Petitioners argue that demolitions should not be carried out as a form of punishment for crimes, especially without giving individuals the opportunity to be heard or defend themselves. 
  • They argue that if properties are to be demolished due to unauthorised construction, proper legal notice and hearings must be provided as per municipal laws.
  • Concerns Over Targeting of Communities: Another major concern raised by the petitioners is that the demolitions appear to be disproportionately targeting individuals from specific communities or religious groups. 
  • While the Court has stated that it is not influenced by such external narratives, it has recognized the need to ensure that any action taken by the state must be free from bias and must adhere to constitutional principles of equality and fairness.

Justice Gavai’s and Viswanathan’s Observations: 

  • Justice Gavai and Justice Viswanathan made critical observations during the hearing. 
  • Justice Gavai pointed out that “heavens won’t fall” if the demolitions are paused for two weeks, highlighting the need for caution before taking such irreversible actions. 
  • Justice Viswanathan added that even a single instance of illegal demolition is a violation of the Constitution’s ethos. 
  • The Court emphasized that while illegal constructions should be addressed, the state cannot act as judge, jury, and executioner in such matters.

Solicitor General’s Objection: 

  • The Solicitor General (SG) of India, representing the government, raised objections to the Court’s interim order, arguing that statutory authorities should not have their hands tied. 
  • He contended that municipal authorities must have the freedom to carry out demolitions in cases of unauthorised construction and encroachments. 
  • The SG also argued that a “narrative” was being built that a particular community was being targeted, which was influencing the perception of these actions.

Legal and Social Implications 

  1. Right to Property and Housing: While the right to property is no longer a fundamental right in India (after the 44th Amendment in 1978), it remains a legal right under Article 300A of the Constitution. The right to housing, however, has been recognized by the Supreme Court as part of the broader right to life under Article 21. Arbitrary demolitions that leave individuals homeless without due process may violate this right.
  2. State Power vs. Constitutional Rights: The case highlights the tension between the state’s authority to maintain law and order and enforce urban planning regulations, and the individual’s constitutional rights. The Court is essentially questioning whether the state can use demolition as a punitive measure without adhering to legal procedures. The case also raises concerns about potential misuse of state power and the need for judicial oversight in such actions.
  3. Social Justice and Protection of Vulnerable Communities: The issue of demolitions has a strong social justice dimension. Many of those affected by these actions belong to marginalized or vulnerable communities. The petitioners argue that such demolitions disproportionately affect those who are already economically disadvantaged, and that the state’s actions may be seen as targeting certain communities. This raises broader concerns about equity, non-discrimination, and the right to equal protection under the law.

Conclusion

  • This case is significant because it brings to the forefront important questions about the limits of state power, the protection of fundamental rights, and the principles of justice and fairness enshrined in the Constitution. 
  • The Supreme Court’s interim order halts demolitions temporarily and provides an opportunity for the Court to establish clear guidelines to prevent the misuse of power. 
  • As the case progresses, the Court will likely address broader issues of due process, social equity, and the rule of law, which could have far-reaching implications for governance and the protection of rights in India. 
  • The next hearing on October 1, 2024, will be crucial in determining how these issues are resolved.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q 5. Match the following constitutional articles with their respective provisions:

List I (Article) List II (Provision)
A. Article 21 1. Power of the Supreme Court to do complete justice
B. Article 142 2. Right to Life and Personal Liberty
C. Article 300A 3. Right to Property
D. Article 14 4. Equality before the law

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A B C D

  1. 1 2 3 4
  2. 2 1 3 4
  3. 2 3 1 4
  4. 1 4 2 3 
Q. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of choice? (2019)

(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29

Answer: b

Answer 5 B

Explanation

  • Article 21 guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty. It states that no person shall be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
  •  Article 142 gives the Supreme Court of India the authority to pass any decree or order necessary to do complete justice in any case or matter pending before it.
  • Article 300A states that no person shall be deprived of their property except by the authority of law. The right to property was originally a fundamental right but was downgraded to a legal right through the 44th Amendment in 1978.
  • Article 14 guarantees that every person shall be treated equally before the law and ensures equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

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