CARE 14th August 2024 Current Affairs

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering- CARE (14-08-2024)

News at a Glance
International Relations: ILO to help eliminate child labour, forced work in cotton fields
Environment and Ecology: All Indian salt and sugar brands have microplastics: Study
Polity and Governance: Centre’s Clean Plant Programme plans to boost India’s production of fruits
Science and Technology: Version 2.0 of ‘FloodWatch India’ mobile app
Defence:  DRDO carries out successful maiden flight test of Long-Range Glide Bomb ‘GAURAV’ from Su-30 MK-I platform off Odisha coast
Economy: Chhattisgarh leads India’s charge with first Lithium mine

ILO to help eliminate child labour, forced work in cotton fields

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ilo-to-help-eliminate-child-labour-forced-work-in-cotton-fields/article68521220.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 International Relations

Context: Promoting Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work (FPRW)

Why in News 

  • The joint project between the Confederation of Indian Textile Industry (CITI) and the International Labour Organisation (ILO) titled Promoting Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work (FPRW) aims to address and rectify labor issues in the cotton cultivation sector in India. 

Objectives 

  • Promotion of Fundamental Rights: The project focuses on promoting the fundamental principles and rights at work, which include:
    • Freedom of Association: The right for workers to join unions or other representative organizations.
    • Collective Bargaining: The right for workers to negotiate terms of employment collectively.
    • Elimination of Child Labour: Preventing children from being employed in cotton fields, thus ensuring their education and well-being.
  • Abolition of Forced Labour: Eradicating practices where workers are compelled to work under threats or coercion.
  • Elimination of Discrimination: Ensuring that workers are not treated unfairly based on race, gender, religion, or other discriminatory factors.
  • Safe and Healthy Working Conditions: Creating environments that do not pose health risks to workers and promoting overall safety.

Geographic Scope

  • The initiative is expected to reach out to approximately 6.5 million cotton farmers across 11 states in India. 
  • This extensive coverage aims to address labor rights and welfare issues in a significant portion of the cotton-growing regions.

Implementation Strategy 

  • Collaboration:
    • Stakeholder Engagement: The project will involve collaboration among various stakeholders including government bodies, employers’ and workers’ organizations, and civil society groups. This multi-stakeholder approach ensures a comprehensive strategy for addressing labor issues.
    • Utilizing Existing Networks: CITI will leverage its existing connections with farmers and the knowledge products developed by ILO to drive the initiative.
  • Awareness and Education:
    • Training and Information Dissemination: Farmers will be educated about their rights under FPRW and will be provided with information on government schemes aimed at their socio-economic upliftment.
  • Access to Services: The project will facilitate access to education for children, skill development, vocational training, and social finance opportunities. It also aims to enhance digital literacy among the cotton-growing community.
  • Economic and Social Benefits:
    • Equity and Sustainability: By adhering to FPRW principles, the project aims to create a more equitable and sustainable environment for workers, which can lead to long-term benefits for their families and communities.
    • Economic Growth with Dignity: Insaf Nizam from ILO emphasized that economic growth should not come at the expense of decent work conditions. The project promotes growth that respects workers’ rights and dignity.

Significance 

  • Addressing Labor Violations: The project seeks to address labor violations listed by the U.S. Labour Department, where Indian cotton and hybrid cotton seeds have been flagged for issues related to child and forced labor.
  • Strengthening Labour Rights: It reinforces ILO’s agenda of ensuring that economic activities align with fundamental labor rights, contributing to a more humane and ethical global supply chain.
  • Empowerment and Upliftment: By improving awareness and access to various government schemes, the project aims to uplift the socio-economic status of cotton farmers, ensuring they are well-informed and empowered to assert their rights.

International Labor Organization

  • It is the only tripartite United Nation (UN) agency. 
  • It brings together governments, employers and workers of 187 member States (India is a member), to set labour standards, develop policies and devise programmes promoting decent work for all women and men.
  • It received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969.
  • It was established in 1919 by the Treaty of Versailles as an affiliated agency of the League of Nations and became the first affiliated specialized agency of the UN in 1946.
  • Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the joint project “Promoting Fundamental Principles and Rights at Work (FPRW)” launched by the Confederation of Indian Textile Industry (CITI) and the International Labour Organisation (ILO):

  1. The project aims to address issues related to child and forced labour specifically in the cotton cultivation sector in India.
  2. The project will focus on improving digital literacy among farmers but will not involve any financial inclusion initiatives.
  3. The initiative is expected to reach out to 6.5 million cotton farmers across 11 states in India.
  4. The project is designed to align with the International Labour Organisation’s Constitution, promoting fundamental labor rights globally.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 3, and 4 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to (2018)

(a) Child Labour
(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
(c) Regulation of food prices and food security
(d) Gender parity at the workplace

Ans: (a)

Answer 1- B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The project specifically aims to address child and forced labor issues in the cotton sector.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: The project includes initiatives for financial inclusion and access to social finance in addition to digital literacy.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The project aims to reach approximately 6.5 million cotton farmers across 11 states.
  • Statement 4 is correct : The project aligns with the ILO’s Constitution, which is integral to its fundamental principles and rights. 
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

All Indian salt and sugar brands have microplastics: Study

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/all-indian-salt-sugar-brands-microplastics-study-9511646/  

UPSC Relevance: GS 3- Ecology and Environment

Context: Microplastics Adulteration

Why in News 

  • A recent study by Toxics Link revealed that all tested Indian salt and sugar brands, regardless of size or packaging, contain microplastics.  

Findings of the Study

  • Types of Salts and Sugars Tested: Ten types of salt and five types of sugar, both packaged and unpackaged, were analyzed.
  • Microplastics Found: All samples contained microplastics in various forms and sizes, from fibers to pellets.
  • Highest and Lowest Concentrations: Iodised salt and non-organic sugar had the highest microplastics, while organic rock salt had the least.

Implications and Concerns

  • Microplastics are pervasive, entering human bodies via food, water, and air, and have been found in human organs. 
  • These findings stress the need for further research and policy changes to address microplastic contamination.

Policy and Research Recommendations 

  • Toxics Link urges policymakers and researchers to focus on technological interventions and policy actions to mitigate microplastic exposure and its health impacts. 
  • This aligns with global efforts to manage plastic pollution through international treaties and agreements.

Introduction to Microplastics

  • Microplastics are defined as plastic particles less than five millimeters in diameter. 
  • Their formation is influenced by natural factors like UV radiation, wind, and currents, leading to their fragmentation into smaller particles. 
  • These particles can harm oceans and aquatic life.

Classification of Microplastics

  1. Primary Microplastics: Manufactured small particles, including microbeads in personal care products, plastic pellets, and fibers from textiles.
  2. Secondary Microplastics: Result from the breakdown of larger plastics, such as bottles, due to environmental factors.

Applications of Microplastics

  • Medical and Pharmaceutical: Used for targeted drug delivery.
  • Industrial: Utilized in air-blasting for machinery cleaning and synthetic textile production.
  • Cosmetics: Employed as exfoliants in scrubs and toothpaste.

Global Regulations on Microplastics 

  • United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA): UNEA passed a resolution for an international, legally binding treaty on plastic pollution, focusing on marine environments. This led to the formation of the Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC) to draft this treaty, targeted for completion by 2024.
  • United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) Plastics Treaty: UNEP is developing a binding agreement to tackle plastic and microplastic pollution.
  • New Zealand’s Waste Minimisation Regulations: Bans the sale and manufacture of products with plastic microbeads since 2017.

Indian Regulations on Microplastics

  • Ban on Single-Use Plastics
  • India Plastics Pact
  • Plastic Waste Management Rules: Established in 2016 with amendments in 2018 and 2024 to strengthen regulations on plastic waste.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q2. Which of the following statements about microplastics is/are correct?

  1. Microplastics are plastic particles less than five millimeters in diameter.
  2. Primary microplastics are formed by the breakdown of larger plastics.
  3. India has implemented regulations to ban the use of single-use plastics.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, and 3
Q. Consider the following pairs: (2017)

  Commonly used I consumed materials Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them
1. Lipstick Lead
2. Soft drinks Brominated vegetable oils
3. Chinese fast food Monosodium glutamate

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: D

Answer 2– B

Explanation – 

  • Statement 1 is Correct. Microplastics are defined as plastic particles less than five millimeters in diameter.
  • Statement 2 is Incorrect. Primary microplastics are intentionally manufactured as tiny particles, such as microbeads and fibers from textiles. Secondary microplastics form from the breakdown of larger plastic items.
    • Statement 3 is Correct. India has implemented regulations to ban the use of single-use plastics as part of its effort to reduce plastic pollution.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

Centre’s Clean Plant Programme plans to boost India’s production of fruits

Source: The Hindustan Times

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/how-centres-clean-plant-programme-plans-to-boost-production-of-fruits-9508509/  

UPSC Relevance: GS2- Polity and Government 

Context: Clean Plant Programme

Why in News

  • The Union Cabinet approved the Clean Plant Programme (CPP), aimed at increasing the yield and productivity of horticulture crops in India. 

Introduction 

  • The Clean Plant Programme (CPP) has been approved by the Union Cabinet to boost the yield and productivity of horticulture crops in India. 
  • Announced in the interim Budget speech of Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in February 2023, the CPP is designed to enhance the quality of fruit crops across the nation.

 Funding

  • Total Allocation: The Ministry of Agriculture has proposed an allocation of Rs 1,765 crore for the CPP.
  • Sources of Funding:
    • Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH): Rs 882.5 crore (50% of the total allocation).
    • Asian Development Bank (ADB) Loan: Rs 882.5 crore (50% of the total allocation).

Components of the CPP

  1. Development of Clean Plant Centers (CPCs):
    • Objectives:
      • Disease Diagnostics and Therapeutics: CPCs will diagnose and treat plant diseases.
      • Mother Plants: CPCs will create high-quality mother plants to be used for further propagation.
      • Quarantine Facilities: All domestic and imported planting materials will be quarantined to prevent disease spread.
  2. Enhancement of Infrastructure:
    • Large-Scale Nurseries: Development of nurseries to multiply clean planting material efficiently.
    • Distribution to Farmers: Mother plants from CPCs will be multiplied in these nurseries and distributed to farmers to ensure access to high-quality planting material.
  3. Regulatory and Certification Processes:
    • Accountability and Traceability: Establishing robust systems to ensure the quality and traceability of planting material production and sale.

Rationale and Need for the CPP 

  1. Current Status of Horticulture in India:
    • Production and Area: India is the second-largest producer of fruits and vegetables globally. The area under horticulture crops has increased from 24 million hectares in 2013-14 to 28.63 million hectares in 2023-24. Production has risen from 277.4 million metric tonnes (mt) to 352 million mt in the same period.
    • Export and Import: India exported fresh fruits worth $1.15 billion and imported fruits worth $2.73 billion in the financial year 2023-24.
  2. Demand for Planting Material:
    • Increased Import Permits: The demand for foreign planting materials such as apples, avocados, and blueberries has surged. The import permits for apple plants increased from 21.44 lakh in 2018 to 49.57 lakh in 2020. Similarly, avocado and blueberry plant imports have also risen significantly.
  3. Challenges with Current Import Processes:
    • Cumbersome Procedures: Imported plants currently undergo a two-year quarantine process, which complicates access to disease-free planting material.
    • Improved Quarantine Duration: The CPCs will reduce this quarantine period to six months, thereby easing the process and providing farmers with quicker access to high-quality planting materials.

Significance of the CPP

  1. Enhanced Crop Yield and Quality:
    • The CPP aims to improve the overall quality and yield of horticultural crops by providing farmers with virus-free and high-quality planting materials.
  2. Economic Benefits:
    • By improving the quality of planting materials, the programme is expected to increase productivity and income opportunities for farmers, contributing to economic growth in the horticulture sector.
  3. Facilitating Trade:
    • The streamlined process for importing and distributing planting materials will support the increasing demand for exotic and high-value fruit crops, benefiting both domestic consumption and export potential.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q3.  Which of the following statements accurately describe the Clean Plant Programme (CPP) approved by the Union Cabinet?

  1. The CPP aims to enhance the quality and yield of horticulture crops by providing disease-free planting materials.
  2. The programme’s funding will be equally divided between the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH) and the World Bank.
  3. One of the main components of the CPP includes the establishment of nine Clean Plant Centers (CPCs) to handle disease diagnostics and create mother plants.
  4. The CPP will reduce the quarantine period for imported planting materials from two years to six months.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1, 3, and 4 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only

Q. With reference to the government’s welfare schemes, consider the following statements. (2002)

1. Under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, the food grains are available to the poorest of the families at 2 per kg for wheat and 3 per kg for rice. Under the National Old Age Pension Scheme, the

2. old and destitute are provided 75 per month as central pension, in addition to the amount provided by most State Government

3. Government of India has allocated 25 kg food grain per below poverty line family per month, at less than half the economic cost.

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1,2 and 3

Ans. (d)

Answer 3 B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct. The CPP is designed to improve both the quality and yield of horticulture crops by ensuring that farmers receive disease-free planting materials.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The funding will be divided between MIDH and the Asian Development Bank (ADB), not the World Bank.
  • Statement 3 is correct. One of the key components of the CPP is the development of nine Clean Plant Centers (CPCs) for disease diagnostics and the creation of mother plants.
  • Statement 4 is correct. The CPP aims to reduce the quarantine period for imported planting materials from two years to six months. 
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

DRDO carries out successful maiden flight test of Long-Range Glide Bomb ‘GAURAV’ from Su-30 MK-I platform 

Source: PIB

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2044995  

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3- Science and Technology

Context: Long-Range Glide Bomb ‘GAURAV’ 

Why in News 

  • Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has carried out successful maiden flight test of Long Range Glide Bomb (LRGB), GAURAV from Su-30 MK-I platform of the Indian Air Force (IAF).  

Introduction:

  • The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully conducted the maiden flight test of the Long Range Glide Bomb (LRGB) named GAURAV.
  • This test was carried out from a Su-30 MK-I aircraft of the Indian Air Force (IAF) off the coast of Odisha.

About the GAURAV Glide Bomb

  • Weight and Class: GAURAV is a 1,000 kg class glide bomb.
  • Range and Accuracy: It is designed to engage targets at long distances with high precision.
  • Hybrid Navigation System: The glide bomb uses a hybrid navigation scheme that combines Inertial Navigation System (INS) and Global Positioning System (GPS) data. This dual-system approach enhances accuracy by providing robust guidance throughout the flight.
  • Design and Development: GAURAV has been indigenously designed and developed by the Research Centre Imarat (RCI) in Hyderabad. This reflects India’s focus on self-reliance in defense technology.

Flight Test Details 

  • Platform and Location: The test was conducted from a Su-30 MK-I aircraft, and the glide bomb was launched off the coast of Odisha.
  • Target and Accuracy: The GAURAV glide bomb hit its target with pinpoint accuracy, demonstrating its effectiveness and precision in real-world conditions.
  • Telemetry and Tracking: Complete flight data was captured using telemetry and electro-optical tracking systems set up by the Integrated Test Range (ITR) along the coastline.
  • Monitoring: Senior DRDO scientists closely monitored the flight test to ensure all parameters were met.

Industry Participation 

  • Development Partners: Adani Defence and Bharat Forge, the development cum production partners, were also involved in the flight trial, highlighting the collaborative effort in the development process.
  • Compliments and Milestones: Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh praised DRDO, IAF, and industry partners for the successful test, calling it a significant milestone. He emphasized the importance of developing indigenous defense technologies to enhance the capabilities of the Armed Forces.

Significance of the Test:

  • Technological Advancement: The successful test of the GAURAV glide bomb represents a significant advancement in India’s defense technology, particularly in the area of precision-guided munitions.
  • Strategic Capability: The development of such indigenous technologies enhances India’s strategic capabilities, providing the country with advanced tools to secure its national interests.
  • Self-Reliance in Defense: The successful development and testing of GAURAV underscore India’s commitment to self-reliance in defense technology and the capacity to produce sophisticated weaponry domestically
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q4. Which of the following statements about the Long Range Glide Bomb (LRGB) GAURAV are correct?

  1. GAURAV is a 500 kg class glide bomb designed to hit targets at long distances.
  2. The glide bomb uses a hybrid navigation scheme combining INS and GPS data.
  3. The maiden flight test of GAURAV was conducted off the coast of Odisha using a Su-30 MK-I aircraft.
  4. The flight test was monitored by senior DRDO scientists and involved industry partners Adani Defence and Bharat Forge.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2, 3, and 4 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 3 only

Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022)

  1. A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space;
  2. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
  3. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
  4. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its 

Ans: C

Answer 4 B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is incorrect. GAURAV is a 1,000 kg class glide bomb, not 500 kg.
  • Statement 2 is correct. GAURAV uses a hybrid navigation system that combines INS and GPS data.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The maiden flight test of GAURAV was conducted off the coast of Odisha from a Su-30 MK-I aircraft.
  • Statement 4 is correct. The flight test was monitored by senior DRDO scientists and involved industry partners Adani Defence and Bharat Forge.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.   

Version 2.0 of ‘FloodWatch India’ mobile app

Source: PIB

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2044887

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS3- Science and technology

Context: FloodWatch India

Why in news 

  • Union Minister for Jal Shakti launched the Version 2.0 of the ‘FloodWatch India’ mobile application developed by the Central Water Commission (CWC), in New Delhi.

Background

  • The Union Minister for Jal Shakti, Shri C.R. Paatil, recently launched Version 2.0 of the ‘FloodWatch India’ mobile application in New Delhi. 
  • This updated version is developed by the Central Water Commission (CWC) to enhance flood monitoring and information dissemination in India.

Initial Launch and Objectives 

  • First Version: Launched on August 17, 2023, the first version of the ‘FloodWatch India’ app aimed to provide flood forecasts and real-time information on flood situations across the country.
  • Objective: The app was designed to keep the public informed about potential floods and forecasts up to 7 days in advance, helping them prepare and respond effectively to flood threats.

Enhancements in Version 2.0

  • Increased Coverage: Additional Stations: The upgraded version now provides flood information from a total of 592 flood monitoring stations, including 392 additional stations beyond the original 200.
  • Reservoir Data: It also includes data on the storage positions of 150 major reservoirs, which aids in understanding the flood risk in downstream areas.

Advanced Features

  • Technological Integration: Utilizes satellite data analysis, mathematical modeling, and real-time monitoring to deliver accurate and timely flood forecasts.
  • Language Options: The app supports information in English and Hindi, making it accessible to a broader audience.
  • Formats: Available in both readable and audio broadcast formats, enhancing usability for different preferences.
  • Local Forecast: Users can check flood forecasts for their nearest location directly from the app’s home page, providing localized and relevant information.

Accessibility and Availability

  • Platforms: The ‘FloodWatch India’ app is available for download on both Android and iOS devices, ensuring widespread accessibility for users globally.
  • Download: The app can be easily accessed and installed from major app stores, broadening its reach and usability.

Significance

  • Enhanced Monitoring: By expanding the number of monitoring stations and including reservoir data, the app offers a more comprehensive view of flood conditions across the country.
  • Improved Public Awareness: The app’s advanced technological features and multilingual support aim to provide timely and accurate flood information, aiding in better preparedness and response among the public.
  • National Flood Management: ‘FloodWatch India’ plays a crucial role in flood management by integrating data from various sources and delivering it in a user-friendly format, thus contributing to more effective flood risk management and mitigation efforts.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q5.  Which of the following statements about the ‘FloodWatch India’ mobile application Version 2.0 are correct?

  1. Version 2.0 of the app increases the number of flood monitoring stations from 200 to 592 and includes data on 150 major reservoirs.
  2. The app is available only in English and can be downloaded on Android devices.
  3. The app utilizes satellite data analysis, mathematical modeling, and real-time monitoring for accurate flood forecasts.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3 only

Q. Consider the following schemes launched by the Union Government. (2001)

1. Antyodaya Anna

2. Gram Sadak Yojana

3. Sarvapriya

4. Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana

Which of these were announced in the year 2000?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. a

Answer 5 C

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct. Version 2.0 of the ‘FloodWatch India’ app indeed increases the number of flood monitoring stations from 200 to 592 and includes data on 150 major reservoirs.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The app is available in both English and Hindi, not just English, and it can be downloaded on both Android and iOS devices, not just Android.
  • Statement 3 is correct. The app utilizes advanced technologies such as satellite data analysis, mathematical modeling, and real-time monitoring to provide accurate flood forecasts.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer. 

Chhattisgarh Leads India’s Charge with First Lithium Mine

Source: Times Of India

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/chhattisgarh-leads-indias-charge-with-first-lithium-mine-in-korba/articleshow/112501456.cms

UPSC Syllabus Relevance:  GS 3- Economy

Context: First Lithium Mine

Why in news 

  • India will open its first lithium mines in the Katghora region of Korba district, Chhattisgarh.

Background 

  • India is preparing to open its first lithium mines in the Katghora region of Korba district in Chhattisgarh. 
  • This development follows the Geological Survey of India (GSI) confirming substantial lithium deposits in the area.

National Mineral Exploration Trust Meeting

  • Findings: GSI reported lithium concentrations ranging from 10 to 2,000 parts per million (PPM) across an area of approximately 250 hectares. There is potential for even higher concentrations.
  • Significance: Lithium is a critical mineral used predominantly in lithium-ion batteries for electric vehicles, which are crucial for renewable energy and technological advancements.
  • Event: The decision to open the lithium mines was announced during the sixth governing body meeting of the National Mineral Exploration Trust, held in New Delhi.
  • Chair and Attendees: The meeting was chaired by Union Minister G. Kishan Reddy. State Health Minister Shyam Bihari Jaiswal represented Chief Minister Vishnu Deo Sai.

Mineral Exploration and Allocation

Notice Inviting Tender (NIT):

  • Issued By: The Ministry of Mines issued an NIT on the MSTC portal for the allocation of 20 critical and strategic mineral blocks through e-auction. 
  • This includes blocks in states like Bihar, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, and Chhattisgarh.

Lithium and Rare Earth Elements (REE):

  • Katghora Block: The Katghora block in Chhattisgarh, which contains lithium and REE, was among the 20 blocks identified. 
  • This area’s potential is significant due to its lithium content and the presence of rare earth elements.

Importance of Critical Minerals

  • Uses: Critical and strategic minerals are essential for various sectors, including renewable energy, defense, agriculture, pharmaceuticals, high-tech electronics, telecommunications, and transportation.
  • Current Reliance: India currently relies heavily on imports for these minerals, highlighting the importance of domestic exploration and production.
  • State Revenue: In the fiscal year 2023-24, Chhattisgarh generated approximately Rs 13,000 crore in mineral revenue. This figure represents a significant increase, being nearly 30 times higher than the revenue at the time of the state’s formation.
CARE MCQ UPSC PYQ
Q6.  Which of the following statements about lithium resources and developments in India are correct?

  1. The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has confirmed lithium deposits in the Katghora region of Chhattisgarh with concentrations ranging from 10 to 2,000 parts per million (PPM) across 250 hectares.
  2. The lithium mines in Chhattisgarh will be the first of their kind in India, contributing to the country’s vision of becoming a developed nation by 2047.
  3. The Ministry of Mines has issued a Notice Inviting Tender (NIT) for the allocation of lithium blocks exclusively in Chhattisgarh.
  4. Lithium is a critical mineral primarily used in manufacturing lithium-ion batteries for electric vehicles.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A) 1, 2, and 4 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Q. Consider the following schemes launched by the Union Government. (2001)

1. Antyodaya Anna

2. Gram Sadak Yojana

3. Sarvapriya

4. Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana

Which of these were announced in the year 2000?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

Answer 6 A

Explanation

    • Statement 1 is correct. GSI has confirmed lithium deposits in Katghora, Chhattisgarh, with concentrations ranging from 10 to 2,000 PPM across about 250 hectares.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The opening of lithium mines in Chhattisgarh is significant for India’s development goals, including the vision of becoming a developed nation by 2047.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect. The Notice Inviting Tender (NIT) for the allocation of critical and strategic mineral blocks, including lithium, was issued for blocks across multiple states, not exclusively in Chhattisgarh.
  • Statement 4 is correct. Lithium is a critical mineral used mainly in lithium-ion batteries, which are crucial for electric vehicles.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer. 

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