Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (9-04-2024)
News at a Glance
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Telangana: Sharing of River Water – Krishna Tribunal Tell AP To File Its Case by April 29 |
Mahalakshmi free bus scheme saves Telangana women ₹ 1,177 crores in four months |
Economy: Households’ debt touched an all-time high of 40% of GDP by Dec. 2023 |
Science and Technology: TASL’s satellite successfully deployed in space |
Indian Army is observing the year 2024 as the ‘Year of Technology Absorption |
National: Right against climate change a fundamental right, says SC |
Several States are coming to court against Centre: SC |
International Relations: Cochin Shipyard signs ship repair agreement with the U.S. Navy |
Sharing of River Water – Krishna Tribunal Tell AP To File Its Case by April 29
Source: The Hindu
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Drainage system in the state
Context: The Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal (KWDT-II) headed by Justice Brijesh Kumar has turned down the plea of Andhra Pradesh for adjudication of water shares of Telangana and A.P.
Why in news
- The Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal (KWDT-II) has asked A.P. to file its SoC on or before April 29 and replies by the two sides within two weeks from that date even as it posted the next hearing from May 15 to 17.
Key Highlights
- The Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal (KWDT-II) observed that A.P. sought extension of time in the last application too but did not file SoC even after six weeks’ time granted initially and later, an extension of two weeks.
- After hearing the arguments put forward by senior counsels C.S. Vaidyanathan and Jaideep Gupta representing Telangana and A.P., respectively, in New Delhi, the tribunal — comprising its chairman Brijesh Kumar and members Ram Mohan Reddy and S. Talapatra — stated in its order that the two States did not file their SoC and replies in eight weeks and the last extension of time was given till March 20.
- P. side argued that they could not file the SoC with the model code of conduct being in force from April 16 as it involves policy decisions.
- They were seeking time till June-end as the Lok Sabha election results would be declared by that time.
- Opposing A.P.’s plea, Telangana pointed out that it was only a delaying tactic and that they were aware of the impending elections by late December or early January.
- Telangana produced evidence that A.P. was aware of the elections and argued that model code of conduct would not bar filing pleadings in pending cases.
- They mentioned that they too had filed SoC on March 20, though Lok Sabha elections were due on the same date as in A.P.
About Krishna river
- The Krishna River is the second biggest river in peninsular India.
- It originates near Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra and runs for a distance of 303 km in Maharashtra, 480 km through the breadth of North Karnataka and the rest of its 1300 km journey in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh before it empties into the Bay of Bengal.
- The river basin is 257,000 km2 and the States of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh contributes 68,800 km2 (26.8%), 112,600 km2 (43.8%) and 75,600 km2 (29.4%) respectively.
Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal
- Government of India constituted a common tribunal on 10 April 1969 to adjudicate the river water utilization disputes among the river basin states of Krishna and Godavari rivers under the provisions of Interstate River Water Disputes Act – 1956.
- The common tribunal was headed by Sri RS Bachawat as its chairman with Sri DM Bhandari and Sri DM Sen as its members.
- So, the proceedings of Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal (KWDT) were taken up first separately and its final verdict was submitted to GoI on 27 May 1976.
- Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal-II was constituted by the Central Government on 02.04.2004 on requests made by the party States under Section 3 of the ISRWD Act, 1956.
- Subsequently, on 02.06.2014, Telangana, as a State of the Union of India, came into existence.
- As per section 89 of the Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act (APRA), 2014, the tenure of the KWDT-II was extended to address the clauses (a) and (b) of the said section of APRA, 2014.
Telangana state demands
- The newly formed Telangana state is fourth riparian state in the Krishna River basin. The state wants the central government to start again the tribunal proceeding afresh as it was not party to the earlier KWDT1 and KWDT2 adjudications.
- The KWDT2 decided to confine redistribution of water between Telangana and Andhra Pradesh states only.
- After a long gap, the central government decided for tribunal adjudication on Krishna river water’s sharing dispute between the two states.
- On the request of Telangana state, the Union Government issued fresh terms of reference to KWDT2 superseding its earlier verdict of distributing unallocated water among all riparian states.
- As per the latest terms of reference dated 6 October 2023, the unallocated water of KWDT1 is to be distributed between Telangana and Andhra Pradesh states only.
CARE MCQ |
Q1. Consider the following statements:
1. The Krishna River is the biggest river in peninsular India. 2. As per the latest terms of reference dated 6 October 2023, the unallocated water of KWDT1 is to be distributed between Telangana and Andhra Pradesh states only. Which of the above statements are incorrect?
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Answer 1– A
Explanation · The Krishna River is the second biggest river in peninsular India. · It originates near Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra and runs for a distance of 303 km in Maharashtra, 480 km through the breadth of North Karnataka and the rest of its 1300 km journey in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh before it empties into the Bay of Bengal. So, statement 1 is incorrect. · The newly formed Telangana state is fourth riparian state in the Krishna River basin. The state wants the central government to start again the tribunal proceeding afresh as it was not party to the earlier KWDT1 and KWDT2 adjudications. As per the latest terms of reference dated 6 October 2023, the unallocated water of KWDT1 is to be distributed between Telangana and Andhra Pradesh states only. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, correct answer is option A. |
INCOIS launches Small Vessel Advisory and Forecast Services
Source: The Hindu
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Science and Technology
Context: Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), is an organisation under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
Why in news
- INCOIS has come out with pioneering system of ‘Small Vessel Advisory and Forecast Services’ or ‘SVAS’ for small vessels navigating the coastal waters on the east and west coast alerting about any ‘overturning’ zones 10 days in advance.
Small Vessel Advisory and Forecast Services’ or ‘SVAS’
- The ‘SVAS’ includes forecasting to small vessels about significant wave height, wave steepness, directional spread and the rapid development of the wind sea.
- Boat-specific warning is issued with the region of danger in conjunction with the category or the size of the boat.
- The advisory is based on the ‘Boat Safety Index’ (BSI) which indicates whether the particular boat is safe during the prevailing or forecasted wave conditions.
- BSI is derived based on the beam size, category of the vessel, significant wave height, wave steepness, directional spread and rapid changes in the sea state.
- This service is particularly useful for small fishing boats and country craft in all the nine coastal States and Union Territories.
Categories of fishing vessels
- The most popular categories of fishing vessels used across the country have beam widths ranging from 2.1 metres to 6.5 metres with each State having their own categories.
- For instance, Goa has trawls with beam widths of 5-6 metres, gill netters of 4.5-5 metres, and other of 2.5-3 meters.
- Tamil Nadu has 5.5 metres trawls, 4.5-5 metres of gill netters and 5.5 metres of hook and line boats. Andhra Pradesh has 5 metres trawls, 4.5-5 metres gill netters & 4.5-5 metres of hook & line boats. Kerala has 5.5 metres trawls, 4-6 metres of gill netters, 5.5 metres of hook & line boats, etc.
Ocean analysis
- INCOIS also provides ocean analysis and operational forecasts of several ocean state and circulation parameters 5–10 days in advance every day giving accurate advisories/warnings on several oceanogenic hazards such as tsunamis, storm surges, wave surges, etc. to the stakeholders.
About INCOIS
- Indian National Center for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) is an autonomous organization of the Government of India, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, located in Pragathi Nagar, Hyderabad.
- ESSO-INCOIS was established as an autonomous body in 1998 under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and is a unit of the Earth System Science Organization (ESSO).
- ESSO- INCOIS is mandated to provide the best possible ocean information and advisory services to society, industry, government agencies and the scientific community through sustained ocean observations and constant improvements through systematic and focussed research.
Potential Fishing Zone (PFZ)
- This is the first advisory service started by INCOIS, with Dr.A.Narendra Nath as the founder director of INCOIS and the project director of PFZ.
- The backbone of this service is the real-time data for ocean color and SST provided by the OCEANSAT and NOAA respectively. This service was started because there was a need to identify the potential fishing zones to help the fishermen to get better catch while they were at the sea.
Tsunami Early Warning System (TEWS)
- On 15 October 2007, a centre housing the Indian Tsunami Early Warning System (TEWS) was established in INCOIS.
- At the time of its establishment, the centre had the mandate to provide important tsunami advisories to the people living in the coastal areas of the country.
- For this purpose, the center was equipped with state-of-the-art infrastructure and well trained manpower.
- By 2012, the centre has started to give a round-the-clock alert and advisory services to all Indian Ocean Rim Countries (IOR).
Ocean State Forecast (OSF)
- A new service was rolled out to forecast the ocean state, which is capable of predicting the surface and sub-surface features of the Indian Ocean in advance.
- It is called the Indian Ocean Forecasting System (INDOFOS).
- Ocean State Forecast (OSF) and marine hazard advisories are strongly supported by focused research and there are also customized forecasts for specific users such as ports and harbours, maritime boards, Indian Coast Guard (ICG), boats/ships, offshore industries, Indian Navy, etc.
- In addition, ocean state forecasts are also available for the standard waypoints along standard shipping routes such as Chennai – Port Blair and Kolkata – Port Blair.
Ocean Observation Group (OOG)
- The main activity of this group in INCOIS is to measure and monitor the surface temperature and salinity of the upper 2000 meters of the ocean.
- This system was named as Argo, which emphasizes the strong complementary relationship between the free-drifting floats and Jason altimeter mission.
CARE MCQ |
Q2. Which of the following services are provided by Hyderabad based Indian National Center for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)?
1. Small Vessel Advisory and Forecast Services’ 2. Potential Fishing Zone (PFZ) 3. Tsunami Early Warning System (TEWS) 4. Indian Ocean Forecasting System (INDOFOS). 5. Argo Code: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2,3 and 5 only C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above
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Answer 2– D
Explanation
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Households’ debt touched an all-time high of 40% of GDP by Dec. 2023
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Indian Economy)
Context: The debt levels are reckoned to have touched an all-time high of 40% of GDP by December 2023, while net financial savings had likely dropped to their lowest level at around 5% of GDP
Why in news
- In what may be construed as a sign of rising financial distress, India’s household debt levels are reckoned to have touched an all-time high of 40% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by December 2023, while net financial savings had likely dropped to their lowest level at around 5% of GDP, as per a research report from leading financial services firm Motilal Oswal.
Key Highlights
- In September 2023, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had estimated that households’ net financial savings had dropped to 5.1% of GDP in 2022-23, a 47-year low, triggering a flurry of criticism that the Finance Ministry had refuted sharply.
- It had argued that households are adding fewer financial assets than in the past because they were taking loans to buy real assets such as homes and vehicles which is “not a sign of distress but of confidence in their future employment and income prospects”.
- The first revised estimates of national income for 2022-23 published this February, raised the estimated net financial savings in households to 5.3% of GDP, which is still the lowest in 47 years, and weaker than the average of 7.6% of GDP recorded between 2011-12 and 2019-20.
- The revised estimates also scaled up household debt levels to 38% of GDP in 2022-23, second only to the 39.1% of GDP recorded in the pandemic-hit year of 2020-21.
Unsecured personal loans
- As per Motilal Oswal research analysts, household debt has risen to approximately 40% of GDP as of December 2023, reaching a new high.
- Based on banks’ data, it is clear that unsecured personal loans continue to grow at the fastest pace within household debt, followed by secured debt, agricultural loans, and business loans.
- The report ascribed the dismal 2022-23 net financial savings numbers to weak income growth, coupled with robust consumption and growth in physical savings.
- With income growth remaining weak and household net financial savings likely at its lowest at around 5% of GDP, it is not surprising that both private consumption and household investment growth have weakened considerably in 2023-24, it postulated.
Gross savings
- Over the first nine months of last year, households’ gross financial savings rose a tad to 10.8% of GDP, from 10.5% in the corresponding period of 2022-23, but financial liabilities also rose by a similar extent to 5.8% of GDP from 5.5% of GDP, the report said.
- Households’ annual borrowings had surged to 5.8% of GDP in 2022-23, the second-highest in the post-Independence period.
- While households’ physical savings stood at a decade-high in 2022-23, their total savings were at a six-year low level of 18.4% of GDP.
- India’s Gross Domestic Savings (GDS) eased to 30.2% of GDP, lower than the 31-32% range seen between 2013-14 and 2018-19, the report noted, terming the fall in net financial savings of households as ‘dramatic’.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q1. Consider the Following statements with regards to Indian economy:
1. India’s household debt levels have touched an all-time high of 40% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by December 2023 2. Based on recent data, agriculture loans continue to grow at the fastest pace within household debt, followed by secured debt. 3. Households’ annual borrowings had surged to 5.8% of GDP in 2022-23. How many of the above statements are correct?
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Q. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2022)
1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. 2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Ans- C
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Ans 1 B
Explanation · In what may be construed as a sign of rising financial distress, India’s household debt levels are reckoned to have touched an all-time high of 40% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by December 2023, while net financial savings had likely dropped to their lowest level at around 5% of GDP, as per a research report from leading financial services firm Motilal Oswal. · Hence statement 1 is correct. · Based on banks’ data, it is clear that unsecured personal loans continue to grow at the fastest pace within household debt, followed by secured debt, agricultural loans, and business loans. · Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
· Households’ annual borrowings had surged to 5.8% of GDP in 2022-23, the second-highest in the post-Independence period. · Hence statement 3 is correct. Therefore, correct answer is option B |
TASL’s satellite successfully deployed in space
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (science & technology; Space technology)
Context: SpaceX deploys Tata and Satellogic’s TSAT-1A satellite assembled in Karnataka.
Why in news
- India’s first military grade geospatial satellite manufactured in the private sector has been successfully launched and placed in orbit, with full functionality expected to be achieved within a few months.
Key Highlights
- The TSAT-1A satellite, which was assembled at TASL’s Assembly, Integration, and Testing (AIT) plant in Vemagal, Karnataka, is a result of the collaboration between TASL and Satellogic that began in November 2023.
- This partnership combines Satellogic’s expertise in developing advanced Earth Observation satellites with TASL’s proficiency in complex system integration.
- This milestone shows TASL’s commitment to the space sector.
- This partnership with Satellogic has enabled us to deliver an assembled and tested in India, best-in-class, sub-metre optical satellite which was launched by SpaceX.
About TSAT-1A
- While India has a few military spy satellites built by ISRO, this if the first such initiative in the private sector.
- TSAT-1A is designed to deliver high-resolution optical satellite images, boasting increased collection capacity, dynamic range, and low-latency delivery through its multispectral and hyperspectral capabilities.
- The satellite will provide military grade imagery with high resolution of less than one metre per pixel that will be downloaded and processed at a ground centre in India that is being built by TASL.
- This technological advancement is expected to significantly benefit both government and enterprise sectors by providing tailored satellite data for various applications.
- The company plans to put up a constellation of such satellites in the future and its manufacturing facility is geared to produce up to 25 low earth orbit (LEO) satellites annually.
Satellogic
- Satellogic is a company specializing in Earth-observation satellites, founded in 2010 by Emiliano Kargieman and Gerardo Richarte.
- Satellogic began launching their Aleph-1 constellation of ÑuSat satellites in May 2016.
- In January 2022 the company went public with a special-purpose acquisition company (CF Acquisition Corp. V) merger.
- Satellogic is a publicly traded company on the Nasdaq exchange.
- Satellogic’s Space Systems program offers governments and enterprises the ability to tailor a proven satellite model for their specific needs, and reach orbit within a favourable timeframe.
SpaceX
- Space Exploration Technologies Corp., commonly referred to as SpaceX, is an American spacecraft manufacturer, launch service provider, defense contractor and satellite communications company headquartered in Hawthorne, California.
- The company was founded in 2002 by Elon Musk with the goal of reducing space transportation costs and ultimately developing a sustainable colony on Mars.
- The company currently operates the Falcon 9 and Falcon Heavy rockets along with the Dragon and Starship spacecraft.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q2. Consider the following statements:
1. India’s first military grade geospatial satellite manufactured in the private sector has been successfully launched and placed in orbit by Reliance Industries. 2. SpaceX, is an American spacecraft manufacturer, launch service provider, and satellite communications company headquartered in Chicago. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Q. With reference to `Astrosat’, the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2016)
(1) Other than the USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space. (2) Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth.
Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D |
Answer 2– D
Explanation –
· Space Exploration Technologies Corp., commonly referred to as SpaceX, is an American spacecraft manufacturer, launch service provider, defense contractor and satellite communications company headquartered in Hawthorne, California. · Hence statement 2 is incorrect. · Therefore, option D is correct answer.
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Indian Army is observing the year 2024 as the ‘Year of Technology Absorption’
Source: The Hindu
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/marching-ahead-with-technology-absorption/article68043715.ece
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 3 (Defence Technology)
Context : The Indian military is moving in the right direction, but the challenge lies in sustaining technology absorption with a nuanced understanding of the requirements.
Why in news
- The Indian Army is observing the year 2024 as the ‘Year of Technology Absorption’.
Key Highlights
- 2024 theme underscores the Army’s steadfast focus on embracing technology to transform itself so as to keep ahead of adversaries in the context of the evolving character of warfare.
- The technology absorption in Indian military will be mainly in terms of disruptive technology (DT) comprising artificial intelligence, autonomous weapon systems such as drones, sensors, robotics, space technology, and hypersonic weapon systems.
- Several nations, led by the United States and China, have remarkable accomplishments in the field of DTs.
- The strategic competition and engagements in the future are going to be inevitably decided by the edge a nation possesses in absorbing these technologies.
- In military parlance, absorption implies the acquisition, adaptation and integration of technologies into existing structures called legacy systems.
- These cover various nuances that are usually not apparent to the uninitiated.
- In addition, a few misnomers prevail vis-à-vis the absorption of DTs.
- Certain facets are enumerated below for a nuanced understanding of the issue.
- To begin with, time-tested weapon platforms and tactics are here to stay, even with the induction of DTs.
- It is more about discovering a practical use of the new discoveries rather than about the discovery per se.
- As said, integration as part of absorption wherein the new DTs complement existing platforms is crucial. Discarding the prevailing systems to be substituted by the new will not necessarily be the way ahead.
Technology alone is not enough
- Although the new technologies could significantly alter the character of future wars, we must still refrain from being lulled into complacency because of the mere acquisition of technology.
- The strategies that military organisations use to employ technologies will be critical in understanding their effects on the battlefield.
- Analysts who see a military revolution in technology, usually argue that new technologies have made the modern battlefield more lethal.
- However, it is brought out that ‘realised lethality’, as opposed to the visualised ‘potential lethality’ in recent wars such as Russia-Ukraine and Armenia-Azerbaijan (Nagorno-Karabakh), is not very much different from that seen in wars of an earlier era.
- This corroborates the fact that technological advances will not be the sole determinative in war and are only a part of what shapes outcomes.
- Also, as we have seen in the ongoing Russia-Ukraine war, the initial benefits that Ukraine could muster no longer gained traction as the war progressed.
- One of the reasons behind ‘advantage Russia’ on the battlefield now is in the Russian army employing traditional methodologies to fight the war.
- Aspects such as consolidating traditional defence lines and a stronger military industrial base are what matter finally.
- The Indian military by focusing on DTs and indigenous upgrades in defence manufacture in tandem, is certainly striking the way ahead.
Adapting to new conditions is crucial
- Technical countermeasures in wars quickly limit the performance of new technology-enabled weapons employed by an adversary.
- The most important adaptations are often not technological but operational and tactical, i.e., how a military fights at various levels.
- They involve changes in the way armies use the tools at their disposal.
- Over a century ago, armies developed tactics that reduced their exposure to enemy fire by exploiting dispersion, cover and concealment. Such practices hold even more importance in the current era.
- In present battle conditions, weapon platforms such as tanks must adapt to become more survivable.
- This will require a change in tactics and a greater integration of different types of capabilities.
- With a plethora of sensors on the battlefield, it has become almost impossible to hide. Tanks, for example, will have to operate widely dispersed, accompanied by electronic warfare units to detect and jam aerial platforms of the enemy.
- Similarly, the infantry on the battlefield, while operating dispersed will need an excellent standard of junior leadership to lead men in compartmentalised and high-tech battles.
Planning ahead
- Rather than discarding conventional platforms in favour of purely digital solutions, the technology and its attributes need to be at the centre of planning for future plans.
- This will be a process that starts with the acknowledgement of vulnerabilities and sensitivities and the gap between them.
- An understanding of the latest technologies, their potential, and the context in which they can be utilised are essential.
- The absorption will have to visibly manifest itself at the unit levels, as against being controlled only at the higher levels.
- This democratisation in employing technology at cutting-edge levels is an imperative to usher in true transformation.
- Technology absorption will also necessarily include several macro level aspects such as organisational restructuring, the management of human resources and cultivating specialists not merely at the higher levels but also decentralised at execution levels, civil military fusion, having a structure and policies to ensure data integrity, and having a procurement policy that is applicable to DTs.
Conclusion
- The Indian military is moving in the desired direction but the challenge will be to sustain this with a nuanced understanding of the requirements as applicable. In this context, there are many lessons from recent and ongoing wars, and should not be lost sight of.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Army is observing the year 2024 as the ‘Year of Technology Absorption’. 2. Technology absorption in armed forces will include several macro level aspects such as organisational restructuring, as well as decentralisation at execution levels 3. One of the reasons behind ‘advantage Russia’ on the battlefield now is in the Russian army employing traditional methodologies to fight the war. 4. Disruptive technology (DT) in defence comprises artificial intelligence, autonomous weapon systems such as drones, sensors, robotics, space technology, and hypersonic weapon systems. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? A. 1 and 2 B. 3 only C. Only 4 D. None
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Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (UPSC Prelims 2022)
(a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space. (b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions. (c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth. (d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.
Answer C |
Answer 3– D
Explanation
· Technology absorption will necessarily include several macro level aspects such as organisational restructuring, the management of human resources and cultivating specialists not merely at the higher levels but also decentralised at execution levels, civil military fusion, having a structure and policies to ensure data integrity, and having a procurement policy that is applicable to DTs. So, statement 2 is correct.
· Aspects such as consolidating traditional defence lines and a stronger military industrial base are what matter finally. So, statement 3 is correct. · Several nations, led by the United States and China, have remarkable accomplishments in the field of Disruptive technology (DT). DT in defence comprises artificial intelligence, autonomous weapon systems such as drones, sensors, robotics, space technology, and hypersonic weapon systems. So, statement 4 is correct.
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Right against climate change a fundamental right, says SC
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 (Polity and Governance, Fundamental Rights)
Context: Adverse impacts of climate change infringe upon right to life, equality and clean environment, the Supreme Court bench has noted recently
Why in news
- The Supreme Court has recognised a right against the adverse effects of climate change as a distinct fundamental right in the Constitution.
Hearing of cases on endangered animals
- The judgment released on April 6 came in a case connected with the survival of the endangered Great Indian Bustard species.
- An order was pronounced in open court on March 21, constituting an expert committee to examine the problem faced by the bird species whose natural habitat and flight routes collide with power transmission lines in Gujarat and Rajasthan.
- The case had been posted for further hearing in August 2024. However, the court, unannounced, uploaded a judgment during the weekend. The text of the judgment mainly focuses several paragraphs on climate change and its adversities.
Supreme Court observed
- It is yet to be articulated that the people have a right against the adverse effects of climate change.
- This is perhaps because this right and the right to a clean environment are two sides of the same coin.
- As the havoc caused by climate change increases year-by-year, it becomes necessary to articulate this as a distinct right.
- It is recognised by Articles 14 (right to equality) and 21 (right to life).
- Linking the right against climate change to Articles 21 and 14, Chief Justice Chandrachud said the rights to life and equality could not be fully realised without a clean, stable environment.
- “The right to health (which is a part of the right to life under Article 21) is impacted due to factors such as air pollution, shifts in vector-borne diseases, rising temperatures, droughts, shortages in food supplies due to crop failure, storms, and flooding.
- The inability of underserved communities to adapt to climate change or cope with its effects violates the right to life as well as the right to equality… If climate change and environmental degradation lead to acute food and water shortages in a particular area, poorer communities will suffer more than richer ones,” the judgment said.
Interrelation between Climate change and human rights
- The Supreme court highlighted the interconnection between climate change and various human rights, including the right to health, indigenous rights, gender equality, and the right to development
- The judgment noted that the right to a healthy environment, safe from the ill-effects of climate change, was a “fundamental human right”.
- “Violations of the right to a healthy environment can reverberate across numerous rights domains, including the right to life, personal integrity, health, water, and housing, as well as procedural rights such as information, expression, association, and participation… Unequal energy access disproportionately affects women and girls due to their gender roles and responsibilities such as through time spent on domestic chores and unpaid care work,” the court noted.
- The court underscored the important role solar power would play in arresting the ills of climate change.
India’s solar potential
- India urgently needed to shift to solar power due to three issues – One, the country is likely to account for 25% of global energy demand growth over the next two decades; Two, rampant air pollution emphasises the need for cleaner energy sources; Three declining groundwater levels and decreasing annual rainfall.
- The court noted that the country was endowed with vast solar energy potential and received about 5,000 trillion kWh per year of solar energy.
- Solar photovoltaic power offered immense scalability in India, allowing for effective harnessing of solar energy.
India’s emphasis on renewable energy source
- India’s goal to achieve 500 GW of non-fossil-based electricity generation capacity by 2030 aligned with its efforts to be net zero by 2070.
- In 2023-24, out of the total generation capacity of 9,943 MW added, 8,269 is from non-fossil fuel sources.
- According to the Renewable Energy Statistics 2023 released by the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), India has the 4th largest installed capacity of renewable energy.
Benefits of non-fossil fuels for India
- India’s commitment to transitioning to non-fossil fuels is not just a strategic energy goal but a fundamental necessity for environmental preservation.
- Investing in renewable energy not only addresses these urgent environmental concerns but also yields a plethora of socio-economic benefits.
- By shifting towards renewable energy sources, India enhances its energy security, reducing reliance on volatile fossil fuel markets and mitigating the risks associated with energy scarcity.
- Additionally, the adoption of renewable energy technologies helps in curbing air pollution, thereby improving public health and reducing healthcare costs
Conclusion
- Despite governmental policy and rules and regulations recognising the adverse effects of climate change and seeking to combat it, there is no single or umbrella legislation in India which relates to climate change and the attendant concerns. However, this does not mean that the people of India do not have a right against the adverse effects of climate change.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ | ||||||||||||
Q4. Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correct?
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Q. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (UPSC Prelims 2020)
1. Preamble 2. Directive Principles of State Policy 3. Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans- D |
Answer 4 B
Explanation
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Several States are coming to court against Centre: SC
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 2 (Centre- State Relations, Role of Judiciary)
Context: Karnataka said its request for financial relief from the Centre to tide over a ‘grave humanitarian crises has hit a wall.
Why in news
- The Supreme Court said a steady stream of States are compelled to approach it against the Centre while cautioning the Union government against entering into a “contest” with water-starved Karnataka over its request for drought relief.
Key Highlights
- “Let there be no contest here between the Union and the State… We are seeing various State governments having to appear in court,” Justice B.R. Gavai, heading the Bench, addressed Attorney General R. Venkataramani and Solicitor General Tushar Mehta, both appearing for the Union government.
- Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka have petitioned the apex court on issues related to financial relief
- Recently, the Tamil Nadu government accused the Centre in the Supreme Court of treating the people of the State in a “step-motherly” fashion by delaying the release of disaster relief funds to the tune of nearly ₹38,000 crore to help tide over the twin calamities of cyclone Michaung and unprecedented floods in the State’s southern districts.
- Likewise, Kerala filed a first-of-its-kind suit directly in the apex court, blaming the Centre for arbitrarily interfering in its net borrowing limits, pushing the State to the brink of a financial emergency.
Karnataka
- Karnataka said its request for financial relief from the Centre to tide over a “grave humanitarian crisis” has hit a wall.
- The State had sought ₹18,171.44 crore under the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) six months ago, only to be met with silence.
- The total estimated loss due to crop damage in the State is ₹35,162.05 crore, the petition said.
- The State, represented by advocate D.L. Chidananda, said it is reeling under severe drought, affecting the lives of its people.
- “For the Kharif 2023 season (the season starts in June and ends in September), a total of 223 out of 236 taluks are declared as drought-affected, with 196 taluks categorised as severely affected and the remaining 27 categorised as moderately affected.
- Karnataka as a whole recorded -56% deficit rainfall in June, which was the third lowest in the last 122 years for the State,” the State said.
- The State government had submitted three drought relief memoranda under various heads, including ₹4,663.12 crore towards crop loss input subsidy, ₹12,577.9 crore for gratuitous relief to families whose livelihood has been seriously affected due to drought, ₹566.78 crore for addressing shortage of drinking water relief, and ₹363.68 crore towards cattle care.
- “The state is duty bound to affirmatively protect the fundamental rights of its people guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
- The action of the Central government in denying the financial assistance to the State is ex facie violative of the fundamental rights of the people of Karnataka guaranteed under Articles 14 (right to equality), 21 (right to life) of the Constitution,” the State of Karnataka said in its petition.
Disaster management
- The Karnataka state argued that the action of the Centre was violative of the statutory scheme of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the Manual for Drought Management and the Guidelines on Constitution and Administration of the State Disaster Response Fund, and National Disaster Response Fund.
- The State said the Centre, under the Manual for Drought Management, was required to take a final decision on NDRF assistance to a State within a month of the receipt of the Inter-Ministerial Central Team (IMCT).
- However, nothing has happened for the past six months.
- “Despite the IMCT report, which visited various drought-affected districts from October 4 till October 9, 2023, and made a comprehensive assessment of drought situation in the State and consideration of the report by the sub committee of the National Executive Committee constituted under Section 9 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, Centre has not taken a final decision on the assistance to the State,” the petition said.
Administrative Relations
- Articles 256 to 263 deal with administrative relations, including those between the Central Government and several state governments. Though India is federal, it has unitary characteristics, and so Article 256 states that state governments must ensure that they follow the laws passed by Parliament and do not conduct any executive or administrative functions in violation of the same.
- To establish improved relations between the Centre and the states, the Sarkaria Commission advocated for cooperative federalism in administrative relations between the two.
- The same was crucial since multiple parties working at the federal and state levels frequently create turmoil and distrust, leading to inefficient administration.
Financial Relation
- Part XII of the Constitution, Articles 264 to 293, deal with financial relation between the Centre and the state.
- Because India is a federal country, it adheres to the division of powers when it comes to taxation, and it is the responsibility of the Centre to allocate funds to the states.
- All such connected provisions have been addressed in this document.
- Schedule VII describes the ability of the Centre and states to levy taxes.
- Furthermore, it contains numerous regulations concerning the levy and allocation of taxes by the center and states, grants to states, surcharges, and so on. The Goods and Services Tax, a dual structure tax, is a recent example of a financial center-state relationship.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q5. Consider the following statements:
1. Tamil Nadu government accused the Centre in the Supreme Court of delaying the release of disaster relief funds. 2. Schedule VIII describes the ability of the Centre and states to levy taxes. 3. Part X of the Constitution, deal with financial relation between the Centre and the state. 4. Articles 256 to 263 deal with administrative relations, including those between the Central Government and several state governments Which of the above statements are correct? A. 1 and 4 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4
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Q. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism? (UPSC Prelims 2017)
A There is an independent judiciary in India. B Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States C The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha. D It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Answer D |
Answer 5– A
Explanation · The Supreme Court said a steady stream of States are compelled to approach it against the Centre while cautioning the Union government against entering into a “contest” with water-starved Karnataka over its request for drought relief. · Recently, the Tamil Nadu government accused the Centre in the Supreme Court of treating the people of the State in a “step-motherly” fashion by delaying the release of disaster relief funds to the tune of nearly ₹38,000 crore to help tide over the twin calamities of cyclone Michaung and unprecedented floods in the State’s southern districts. So, statement 1 is correct. · The 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the official languages in India. Schedule VII describes the ability of the Centre and states to levy taxes. The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India specifies the allocation of powers and functions between the Union and the State legislatures. It embodies three lists; namely, the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. So, statement 2 is incorrect. · Part X of the Constitution lays down special provisions for the administration of Scheduled and Tribal Areas. Part XII of the Constitution, Articles 264 to 293, deal with financial relation between the Centre and the state. So, statement 3 is incorrect. · Articles 256 to 263 deal with administrative relations, including those between the Central Government and several state governments. · Though India is federal, it has unitary characteristics, and so Article 256 states that state governments must ensure that they follow the laws passed by Parliament and do not conduct any executive or administrative functions in violation of the same. So, statement 4 is correct.
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Cochin Shipyard signs ship repair agreement with the U.S. Navy
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance : GS 2 ( International Relations, Defence Relations )
Context: India and the United States look to expand cooperation in ship repair and maintenance to turn India into a regional hub
Why in news
- The State-run shipbuilding facility in Kochi is the third shipyard in the country after Larsen & Toubro (L&T) and Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) to enter into a Master Shipyard Repair Agreement (MRSA)
Key Highlights
- Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) became the third Indian shipyard to enter into a Master Shipyard Repair Agreement (MRSA) with the U.S., which will enable to repair U.S. Navy ships.
- L&T shipyard in Kattupalli near Chennai, which has so far repaired three U.S. Navy fleet support ships, was the first Indian shipyard to sign the agreement in July last year.
- Last month, a United Kingdom naval ship arrived for the first time at Kattupalli for repairs.
- In a joint statement issued after bilateral talks held between Prime Minister Narendra Modi and U.S. President Joe Biden in September 2023, both sides recommitted to advancing India’s “emergence as a hub for the maintenance and repair” of forward-deployed U.S. Navy assets and other aircraft and vessels
- Join statement also added that the leaders welcomed “further commitments from U.S. industry to invest more in India’s maintenance, repair, and overhaul capabilities and facilities for aircraft.”
Master Shipyard Repair Agreement (MRSA) with the U.S
- The MSRA is a non-financial agreement and is effective from April 05, 2024.
- This will facilitate repair of U.S. Naval vessels under Military Sealift Command in CSL
- CSL has been qualified for entering into the MSRA after a detailed evaluation process and capability assessment by the U.S. Navy — Military Sealift Command.
- Both India and the U.S. are quite keen on expanding cooperation in ship maintenance and repairs as it benefits both countries, giving business and expertise to Indian shipyards while giving alternate options to the U.S. Navy for its smaller repairs of its ships without going faraway increasing their turnaround time and at significantly lesser cost.
- Defence shipyard MDL concluded an MSRA in August 2023.
India-UK Logistic Exchange Memorandum of Agreement
- On March 26, the U.K.’s Littoral Response Group (LRG) arrived in Chennai as the first engagement of its deployment to the Indian Pacific region.
- The U.K. High Commission said the Royal Fleet Auxiliary Argus and RFA Lyme Bay conducted maritime exercises with the Indian Navy as they entered the Arabian Sea and will undergo essential maintenance at L&T shipyard.
- This is the first time a Royal Navy vessel will undergo maintenance at an Indian shipyard — a direct result of the logistics-sharing agreement signed between the U.K. and India in 2022.
- It also signals the continued growing importance of the strategic defence partnership between the UK and India as towards achieving the ambition set out in the India-U.K. 2030 Roadmap.
- Following the completion of its maintenance in India, the LRG will operate in the Indo-Pacific to conduct training, exercises, and wider engagement with allies and partners.
India- UK Defence Partnership
- In January, the U.K. launched Defence Partnership-India — a bespoke office designed to further defence collaboration between the two countries, which includes sending the U.K.’s LRG (South) to India for joint exercises and use of the Indian dockyard at Chennai for essential maintenance.
- The U.K. has also announced plans for the Carrier Strike Group 2025 to visit the Indo-Pacific, which includes the intent to operate and train with the Indian armed forces.
- The logistics-sharing agreement between the U.K. and India allows for the provision of logistics support, supplies and services between the U.K. and Indian armed forces for joint training, joint exercises, authorised port visits and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q6. In each of the questions given below, there are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) became the third Indian shipyard to enter into a Master Shipyard Repair Agreement (MRSA) with the U.S Reason (R): The logistics-sharing agreement between the U.K. and India allows for the provision of logistics support, supplies and services between the U.K. and Indian armed forces. A) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. C) A is true but R is false. D) A is false but R is true. |
Q. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (UPSC Prelims 2017)
1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. 2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: (B) |
Answer 6 B
Explanation
· The State-run shipbuilding facility in Kochi is the third shipyard in the country after Larsen & Toubro (L&T) and Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL) to enter into a Master Shipyard Repair Agreement (MRSA). So, Assertion is correct.
· The logistics-sharing agreement between the U.K. and India allows for the provision of logistics support, supplies and services between the U.K. and Indian armed forces for joint training, joint exercises, authorised port visits and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) operations. So, Reason is correct.
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