APRIL 8 CARE CURRENT AFFAIRS 2024 TSPSC

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (8-04-2024)

 

News at a Glance

 

Telangana: Spurt in cybercrimes in Telangana
INCOIS launches Small Vessel Advisory and Forecast Services
Environment and Ecology: Rules for Green Credit Programme (GCP)
Science and Technology: Influenza A H5N1 detected in dairy cows in in the U.S.
New solar power rules boost production
International: World Central Kitchen in news
Physical Geography: Total solar eclipse
Economy: RBI’s MPC keeps the benchmark policy repo rate unchanged

 

Spurt in cybercrimes in Telangana

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/spurt-in-cybercrimes-sees-telangana-citizens-lose-150-crore-in-one-month/article68036391.ece#:~:text=The%20State%20has%20so%20far,close%20to%20%E2%82%B918%20crore.&text=Citizens%20in%20Telangana%20lost%20%E2%82%B9,Security%20Bureau%20(TSCSB)%20shows.

TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Initiatives taken by Telangana government to control Cybercrimes

Context: Cyberabad and Hyderabad have emerged as the hotspots for cybercrime cases in Telangana.

Why in news

  • Citizens in Telangana lost ₹150 crore to cyber criminals in 10,135 cases in March alone, data shared by the officials at Telangana State Cyber Security Bureau (TSCSB) shows.

Key Highlights

  • Out of 10,135 cases in March in Telangana, 8,594 cases were related to financial frauds while 1,541 pertained to non-financial frauds. The State has so far been able to block close to ₹18 crore.
  • IT professionals constitute over 70% of the targets for fraudsters particularly for business and investment, part time jobs and stock trading frauds.
  • Rachakonda followed the league with 1,604 cases. Warangal and Sangareddy registered 441 and 364 cases respectively.

Modus operandi

  • ‘Identity theft’ stood out as the top Modus Operandi (MO) in the past monthconstituting 29.13% of the complaints (2,926).
  • This was followed by ‘business and investment frauds’ in which citizens lost over ₹104 crore of which only ₹10.62 crore have been put on hold.
  • 28% of the total complaints (2,640) filed pertained to such frauds in which fraudsters lured victims into making significant investments on fake trading apps.
  • With the rise of digital trading platforms, there has been a corresponding increase in fraudulent activities targeting unsuspecting investors.
  • Fraudsters manipulate fake applications to display falsified investment portfolios, luring victims into investing more funds to purportedly enhance their profits.
  • When victims attempt to withdraw their supposed profits, fraudsters deny the withdrawal requests resulting in significant financial losses.
  • Impersonation or cheating, where fraudsters impersonate as popular business entities and higher officials or fake orders through call, stood as the third most popular MO in the cybercrimes category last month constituting 10.43% of the complaints (1,048).
  • A whopping ₹11.90 crore was lost by citizens in this category and only ₹1.6 crore have been put on hold so far.
  • A significant 9.41% of complaints (945) were about advertisement portal frauds in which over ₹4 crore was lost.
  • With a little over ₹43.53 lakh put on hold as of now, such crimes are common across e-commerce and social media platforms where users are offered tokens of money for promoting a particular service or product.
  • Loan frauds are the next big bet of fraudsters. 9.40% of the total complaints in March pertain to such frauds.

Government initiatives

  • Telangana has emerged as one of the top 5 states in India for effectively freezing or holding the victims’ money in fraudsters’ bank accounts, thanks to the proactive intervention of the TSCSB Call Centre and NCRP Monitoring Officers upon receiving reports of financial cyber crimes.
  • Telangana State Cyber Security Bureau (TSCSB) had recently started its helpline number 1930 for reporting cybercrimes.
  • T4C, popularly known as the ‘1930 Call Centre,’ has emerged as a pivotal asset in Telangana’s arsenal against cyber threats, having handled over 90,000 calls since its inception in January 2020.
  • In the month of March, the centre, manned by 32 constables, received 17,381 calls, of which 7,765 were financial and 1,135 were non-financial calls. About 8,500 were status calls for ongoing cases.

Cybercrime vs Traditional crimes

  • Cybercrime is defined as crimes committed on the internet using the computer as a tool to target the victim for the execution of the desired crime.
  • Though it is difficult to determine that where the particular cybercrime took place because it can harm its victim even sitting at a far distance
  • Cybercrimes are quite different from traditional crimes as they are often harder to detect, investigate and prosecute and because of that cybercrimes cause greater damage to society than traditional crimes.
  • Cybercrime also includes traditional crimes conducted through the internet or any other computer technology.
  • For example; defamation, forgery, identity theft, terrorism, cyber-stalking, hacking, software piracy, web jacking and bullying are considered to be cybercrimes when traditional crimes are committed through the use of a computer and the internet.
  • The other difference between these two crimes is based on the evidence of the offences. In the traditional crimes the criminals usually leave any proof of that crime like fingerprints or other physical proof.
  • But in the cybercrimes, cyber criminals commit their crimes through the internet and there are very less chances of leaving any physical proof.

 

 

 CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Telangana State Cyber Security Bureau (TSCSB) had started its helpline number 1930 for reporting cybercrimes.

2. Cybercrimes are quite different from traditional crimes as they are often easier to detect, investigate and prosecute.

3. Cybercrimes cause greater damage to society than traditional crimes.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A.      1 and 2 only

B.      2 and 3 only

C.      1 and 3 only

D.      1, 2 and 3

 

 

Answer 1– C

Explanation

  • Telangana has emerged as one of the top 5 states in India for effectively freezing or holding the victims’ money in fraudsters’ bank accounts, thanks to the proactive intervention of the Telangana State Cyber Security Bureau (TSCSB)  Call Centre and NCRP Monitoring Officers upon receiving reports of financial cyber crimes.
  • T4C, popularly known as the ‘1930 Call Centre,’ launched by TSCSB has emerged as a pivotal asset in Telangana’s arsenal against cyber threats, having handled over 90,000 calls since its inception in January 2020. So, statement 1 is correct.
  • Cybercrime is defined as crimes committed on the internet using the computer as a tool to target the victim for the execution of the desired crime.
  • Though it is difficult to determine that where the particular cybercrime took place because it can harm its victim even sitting at a far distance. Cybercrimes are quite different from traditional crimes as they are often harder to detect, investigate and prosecute. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Cybercrime includes traditional crimes conducted through the internet or any other computer technology.  In the traditional crimes the criminals usually leave any proof of that crime like fingerprints or other physical proof.
  • But in the cybercrimes, cyber criminals commit their crimes through the internet and there are very less chances of leaving any physical proof. Thus, Cybercrimes cause greater damage to society than traditional crimes. So, statement 3 is correct.

·         Therefore, correct answer is option C.

 

 

INCOIS launches Small Vessel Advisory and Forecast Services

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/ima-ap-releases-health-manifesto-for-equal-access-to-healthcare/article68037121.ece

TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Science and Technology

Context: Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), is an organisation under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.

Why in news

  • INCOIS has come out with pioneering system of ‘Small Vessel Advisory and Forecast Services’ or ‘SVAS’ for small vessels navigating the coastal waters on the east and west coast alerting about any ‘overturning’ zones 10 days in advance.

Small Vessel Advisory and Forecast Services’ or ‘SVAS’

  • The ‘SVAS’ includes forecasting to small vessels about significant wave height, wave steepness, directional spread and the rapid development of the wind sea.
  • Boat-specific warning is issued with the region of danger in conjunction with the category or the size of the boat.
  • The advisory is based on the ‘Boat Safety Index’ (BSI) which indicates whether the particular boat is safe during the prevailing or forecasted wave conditions.
  • BSI is derived based on the beam size, category of the vessel, significant wave height, wave steepness, directional spread and rapid changes in the sea state.
  • This service is particularly useful for small fishing boats and country craft in all the nine coastal States and Union Territories.

Categories of fishing vessels

  • The most popular categories of fishing vessels used across the country have beam widths ranging from 2.1 metres to 6.5 metres with each State having their own categories.
  • For instance, Goa has trawls with beam widths of 5-6 metres, gill netters of 4.5-5 metres, and other of 2.5-3 meters.
  • Tamil Nadu has 5.5 metres trawls, 4.5-5 metres of gill netters and 5.5 metres of hook and line boats. Andhra Pradesh has 5 metres trawls, 4.5-5 metres gill netters & 4.5-5 metres of hook & line boats. Kerala has 5.5 metres trawls, 4-6 metres of gill netters, 5.5 metres of hook & line boats, etc.

Ocean analysis

  • INCOIS also provides ocean analysis and operational forecasts of several ocean state and circulation parameters 5–10 days in advance every day giving accurate advisories/warnings on several oceanogenic hazards such as tsunamis, storm surges, wave surges, etc. to the stakeholders.

About INCOIS

  • Indian National Center for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) is an autonomous organization of the Government of India, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, located in Pragathi Nagar, Hyderabad.
  • ESSO-INCOIS was established as an autonomous body in 1998 under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and is a unit of the Earth System Science Organization (ESSO).
  • ESSO- INCOIS is mandated to provide the best possible ocean information and advisory services to society, industry, government agencies and the scientific community through sustained ocean observations and constant improvements through systematic and focussed research.

Potential Fishing Zone (PFZ)

  • This is the first advisory service started by INCOIS, with Dr.A.Narendra Nath as the founder director of INCOIS and the project director of PFZ.
  • The backbone of this service is the real-time data for ocean color and SST provided by the OCEANSAT and NOAA respectively. This service was started because there was a need to identify the potential fishing zones to help the fishermen to get better catch while they were at the sea.

Tsunami Early Warning System (TEWS)

  • On 15 October 2007, a centre housing the Indian Tsunami Early Warning System (TEWS) was established in INCOIS.
  • At the time of its establishment, the centre had the mandate to provide important tsunami advisories to the people living in the coastal areas of the country.
  • For this purpose, the center was equipped with state-of-the-art infrastructure and well trained manpower.
  • By 2012, the centre has started to give a round-the-clock alert and advisory services to all Indian Ocean Rim Countries (IOR).

Ocean State Forecast (OSF)

  • A new service was rolled out to forecast the ocean state, which is capable of predicting the surface and sub-surface features of the Indian Ocean in advance.
  • It is called the Indian Ocean Forecasting System (INDOFOS).
  • Ocean State Forecast (OSF) and marine hazard advisories are strongly supported by focused research and there are also customized forecasts for specific users such as ports and harbours, maritime boards, Indian Coast Guard (ICG), boats/ships, offshore industries, Indian Navy, etc.
  • In addition, ocean state forecasts are also available for the standard waypoints along standard shipping routes such as Chennai – Port Blair and Kolkata – Port Blair.

Ocean Observation Group (OOG)

  • The main activity of this group in INCOIS is to measure and monitor the surface temperature and salinity of the upper 2000 meters of the ocean.
  • This system was named as Argo, which emphasizes the strong complementary relationship between the free-drifting floats and Jason altimeter mission.

 

 

 CARE MCQ
Q2. Which of the following services are provided by Hyderabad based Indian National Center for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)?

1. Small Vessel Advisory and Forecast Services’

2. Potential Fishing Zone (PFZ)

3. Tsunami Early Warning System (TEWS)

4. Indian Ocean Forecasting System (INDOFOS).

5. Argo

Code:

A.      1, 2 and 3 only

B.      2,3 and 5 only

C.      1, 2, 3 and 4 only

D.      All of the above

 

 

Answer 2– D

Explanation

  • Indian National Center for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) is an autonomous organization of the Government of India, under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, located in Pragathi Nagar, Hyderabad.
  • INCOIS has come out with pioneering system of ‘Small Vessel Advisory and Forecast Services’ or ‘SVAS’ for small vessels navigating the coastal waters on the east and west coast alerting about any ‘overturning’ zones 10 days in advance. So, fact 1 is correct.
  • Potential Fishing Zone (PFZ) is the first advisory service started by INCOIS. This service was started because there was a need to identify the potential fishing zones to help the fishermen to get better catch while they were at the sea. So, fact 2 is correct.
  • Tsunami Early Warning System (TEWS) was started on 15 October 2007, to provide important tsunami advisories to the people living in the coastal areas of the country. By 2012, the centre has started to give a round-the-clock alert and advisory services to all Indian Ocean Rim Countries (IOR). So, fact 3 is correct.
  • Indian Ocean Forecasting System (INDOFOS) was rolled out to forecast the ocean state, which is capable of predicting the surface and sub-surface features of the Indian Ocean in advance. So, fact 4 is correct.
  • Ocean Observation Group (OOG)- The main activity of this group in INCOIS is to measure and monitor the surface temperature and salinity of the upper 2000 meters of the ocean. This system was named as Argo, which emphasizes the strong complementary relationship between the free-drifting floats and Jason altimeter mission. So, fact 5 is correct. Therefore, correct answer is option D.

 

 

Rules for Green Credit Programme (GCP)

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/states-offer-up-thousands-of-hectares-of-degraded-forest-land-for-green-credits/article68036826.ece#:~:text=Weeks%20after%20the%20Union%20Environment,earn%20%E2%80%93%20and%20potentially%20trade%20%E2%80%93%20green

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Ecology and Environment)

Context: Under the Green Credit Programme (GCP), registered and approved entities can pay to finance afforestation projects in specific tracts of degraded forest and wasteland.

Why in news

  • After the Union Environment Ministry announced the rules for its Green Credit Programme (GCP), ten States have identified parcels of degraded forest land, that will be available for individuals, groups, public and private sector units to earn – and potentially trade – green credits.

Origin

  • Green Credit Initiative was launched by Hon’ble Indian Prime Minister on the side-lines of COP 28.
  • It is an initiative within the governments Lifestyle for Environment or LIFE movement.
  • The Green Credit Rules, 2023, has been notified on 12th October 2023 under the Environment Protection Act 1986.
  • The GCP’s governance framework is supported by an inter-ministerial Steering Committee and The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) serves as the GCP Administrator, responsible for program implementation, management, monitoring, and operation.

Key highlights

  • Under the Green Credit Programme (GCP), registered and approved entities can pay to finance afforestation projects in specific tracts of degraded forest and wasteland.
  • The actual afforestation will be carried out by State Forest departments.
  • Two years after planting — and following an evaluation by the International Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), an autonomous body of the Environment Ministry — each planted tree could be worth one ‘green credit’.
  • These green credits can then be used by companies which have diverted forest land for non-forest purposes and razed thousands of trees to offset some of their obligations under India’s compensatory afforestation laws.

Compensatory afforestation

  • The laws oblige any industry or institution that is given permission to raze forest and use that land for non-forestry purposes, to provide an equivalent amount of non-forest land to forest authorities and pay them to afforest that land.
  • The condition is that such land be as close as possible to the forest tracts which have been razed.
  • However, if such land is unavailable, twice the amount of ‘degraded’ forest land (usually land with very low tree density but which is officially marked as forest) may also be made available for compensatory afforestation.
  • Additionally, companies must also compensate for the value of the forest ecosystem, called the ‘net present value’, which is lost due to the diversion of the forest land.
  • In several States, including Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh where large tracts have been historically diverted for mining, getting contiguous non-forest land for compensatory afforestation is challenging.
  • In fact, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund, whose corpus comes from the environmental compensation money paid by companies and which is to be used by States for afforestation, has thousands of crores of unspent money, simply because suitable land for regenerating forests, revenue or degraded, is unavailable.

Creating new land banks

  • Green credits for afforestation are a way to incentivise private investments in tree plantation.
  • However, assigning a monetary value to such credits is problematic.
  • Linking green credits to compensatory afforestation activities is even trickier as the programme in essence facilitates the creation of land banks that could be easily diverted to commercial entities and contribute to even greater levels of diversion of forest land.
  • Compensatory forestation laws are essentially meant to disincentivise the appropriation of forest land for commercial ends, but the green credit scheme can potentially work towards the opposite end.

Way forward

  • Green Credit Programme (GCP) scheme is currently in the ‘pilot stage’; so far, the applicants have been State and Central government entities.
  • If the rules are read comprehensively, the green credit scheme will not absolve institutions of their responsibility to provide suitable land for compensation.
  • Compensatory afforestation is not the only purpose of this scheme and the scheme is meant to encourage corporate social responsibility actions as well as regeneration.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the Following statements with regards to Green Credits Programme (GCP):

1.       GCP was launched by UN Secretary General in 2024.

2.       Green credits for afforestation are a way to incentivise private investments in tree plantation.

3.       Corpus of Compensatory Afforestation Fund, comes from the environmental compensation money paid by companies

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. None of the above

 

Q. Which of the following best describes/ describe the aim of ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India? (UPSC Prelims 2016)

 

  1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the ‘green accounting’.
  2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future.
  3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures.

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer: C

 

                                                                                                                                                                                        

Ans 3 B

Explanation

·         Green Credit Initiative (GCP) was launched by Hon’ble Indian Prime Minister on the side-lines of COP 28. GCP was notified on 13th October, 2023.

·         It is an initiative within the governments Lifestyle for Environment or LIFE movement. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

·         Under the Green Credit Programme (GCP), registered and approved entities can pay to finance afforestation projects in specific tracts of degraded forest and wasteland. The actual afforestation will be carried out by State Forest departments. Hence statement 2 is correct.

·         The laws oblige any industry or institution that is given permission to raze forest and use that land for non-forestry purposes, to provide an equivalent amount of non-forest land to forest authorities and pay them to afforest that land.

·         Compensatory Afforestation Fund, whose corpus comes from the environmental compensation money paid by companies and which is to be used by States for afforestation, has thousands of crores of unspent money, simply because suitable land for regenerating forests, revenue or degraded, is unavailable. Hence statement 3 is correct.

 

Influenza A H5N1 detected in dairy cows in in the U.S. 

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/influenza-a-h5n1-detected-in-dairy-cows-in-six-states-in-the-us/article68032556.ece#:~:text=To%20date%2C%20H5N1%20has%20been,tested%20positive%20for%20the%20virus

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (science & technology; Public Health)

 Context: Avian influenza (bird flu) is a highly contagious viral infection that primarily affects birds.

Why in news

  • In late March 2024, a multistate outbreak of H5N1 in dairy cows was detected in the U.S.

About Avian Influenza

  • Top of Form
  • An emerging new lineage 2.3.4.4b of avian influenza has been spreading across the globe since late 2020, carried by migratory birds following specific routes.
  • This panzootic has a significant effect on the avian population with disastrous consequences to the ecology and significant economic loss affecting poultry across the world.
  • In rare instances, the virus can infect mammals from birds causing spillovers, and in recent years, several such instances of spillovers spanning over 200 species have been noted, the most recent being polar bears in Antarctica.
  • Close contact with infected animals could mean the virus could spill over infecting humans and this comes with a significantly large fatality rate.

 

Recent outbreak

  • Top of Form
  • In late March 2024, a multistate outbreak of H5N1 in dairy cows was detected in the U.S.
  • In what started as a mystery disease affecting dairy herds in Texas, the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) detected the highly pathogenic strain of the virus in herds across the states of Texas and Kansas.
  • The affected animals displayed symptoms including loss of appetite, low-grade fever, and reduced lactation.
  • This marked the first time H5N1 had been detected in cattle, raising concerns about potential transmission routes and the broader impact on the dairy and meat industry.
  • To date, H5N1 has been detected in over 12 herds from six states ¬— Texas, Kansas, Michigan, New Mexico, Idaho and Ohio.

 

Spread in US

  • In Texas, other animals in proximity to the affected farms ­— wild birds and cats ­— also showed signs of illness and have tested positive for the virus.
  • The exact extent of the spread of H5N1 in cows has not yet been ascertained since cattle are not routinely tested for avian influenza and the symptoms have been relatively mild, leaving possibilities that there may be other undetected infected herds.
  • The initial detections in late March in Texas, Kansas, and Michigan have yet to show a definitive pattern of transmission.
  • Given the pace of the spread of infection across herds, the transmission of the virus within cattle has not yet been ruled out.
  • Investigations are ongoing to determine the exact source of the spread to cows.
  • Subsequently, in April 2024, a human infection of H5N1 was reported from Texas.
  • The infected individual reportedly had contact with cows presumed to be infected with the virus.
  • Fortunately, the patient had mild illness, with symptoms like eye redness, and has recovered after being treated with antivirals.

 

Other countries

  • Human H5N1 infections are rare but have been sporadically reported in several countries.
  • H5N1 infections in humans can range from mild symptoms of eye infections to severe illness including pneumonia and death.
  • Since 2003, more than 800 sporadic human H5N1 cases have been reported to the World Health Organization from over 20 countries, with a case-fatality ratio of 53%.
  • In January 2024, concerns about H5N1 avian influenza rose in Southeast Asia when Cambodia reported two human cases, with tragically one resulting in death.
  • A fatal case of H5N1 infection was also recently reported from Vietnam.

Genomic insights

  • Researchers sequenced the H5N1 virus from both the infected Texas cows and the human case and found that both viruses belonged to clade 2.3.4.4b of H5N1, with the human strain having one minor mutation potentially linked to adaptation in mammals.
  • However, this change has not led to increased transmissibility among humans, and the overall public health risk remains low according to the CDC.
  • Since late 2021, H5N1 clade 2.3.4.4b has circulated in wild birds in the U.S., causing outbreaks in poultry and sporadic infections in mammals, including the recent Texas case.

Conclusion

  • In summary, while the current risk of H5N1 transmission to humans is considered low, a combined approach of disease surveillance and monitoring the virus’s genetic makeup (genomic surveillance) will be crucial for managing the outbreak.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements with regards to H5N1 infection:

1.       There is no outbreak of Avian Influenza in US till date as it has advanced surveillance infrastructure.

2.       H5N1 virus can infect cattle and humans.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.      Only 1

B.      Only 2

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.      Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases? (UPSC Prelims 2015)

 

A. AIDS

B. Bird flu

C. Dengue

D. Swine flu

 

Answer: D

 

Answer 4– B

Explanation –

  • In late March 2024, a multistate outbreak of H5N1 in dairy cows was detected in the U.S. In what started as a mystery disease affecting dairy herds in Texas, the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA) detected the highly pathogenic strain of the virus in herds across the states of Texas and Kansas.  Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

·         H5N1 had been detected in cattle herds in US, raising concerns about potential transmission routes and the broader impact on the dairy and meat industry. To date, H5N1 has been detected in over 12 herds from six states ¬— Texas, Kansas, Michigan, New Mexico, Idaho and Ohio.

·         Human H5N1 infections are rare but have been sporadically reported in several countries. Hence statement 2 is correct.

·         Therefore, option B is correct answer.

 

 

New solar power rules boost production

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/will-new-solar-power-rules-boost-production-explained/article68037190.ece#:~:text=It%20is%20estimated%20that%20nearly,significant%20rise%20in%20manufacturing%20capacity.

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS III (Solar technology)

 

Context: The Approved Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic Modules (Requirements for Compulsory Registration) Order, 2019 brought by government

Why in news

  • To incentivise India’s solar module manufacturing industry, the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) has brought into effect from April 1 an executive order.

Key Highlights

  • The Approved Models and Manufacturers of Solar Photovoltaic Modules (Requirements for Compulsory Registration) Order, 2019 was first issued by the MNRE in 2019
  • Order requires makers of solar modules to voluntarily submit to an inspection of their manufacturing facilities by the National Institute of Solar Energy, a Ministry-affiliated body.

Why need of rules?

  • Being on the list as an ‘approved’ manufacturing facility certifies a company as a legitimate manufacturer of solar panels and not a mere importer or assembler.
  • This became necessary because India’s solar industry, its claim of indigenousness notwithstanding, is heavily reliant on imports of cheaper and comparable-quality solar modules from China.
  • Despite being among the top manufacturers in the world and a commitment to scale solar installation four-fold by 2030, local production of these cells and modules is much below demand.
  • India also has limited capacity to make the raw material of a cell — ingots, wafers — and is dependent on imported cells.

Why is India reliant on imports?

  • The creation of such a list was also aimed at restricting imports from China, which controls nearly 80% of the global supply, with the downturn in diplomatic relations between the countries also being a factor.
  • India has ambitious plans of sourcing about 500 GW, nearly half its requirement of electricity, from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030.
  • This would mean at least 280 GW from solar power by that year or at least 40 GW of solar capacity being annually added until 2030.
  • In the last five years, this has barely crossed 13 GW though the government has claimed that COVID-19 affected this trajectory.
  • The difficulty is that meeting the targets require many more solar panels and component cells than India’s domestic industry can supply.

Advantages

  • The major advantage of being on the list is eligibility to compete for tenders issued by the government for its flagship solar energy programmes.
  • This includes among others the recently announced PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana.
  • The scheme envisages subsidising rooftop solar installations for nearly one crore households in the country involving an estimated subsidy of ₹75,000 crore.
  • However, only domestic manufacturers, certified as part of the Approved Models and Manufacturers (AMM) list, would be eligible.
  • There is also another scheme called the PM KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyaan) that aims to provide solar pumpsets and rural electrification.
  • For manufacturers to be eligible to provide components under this scheme, they have to be certified as genuine local manufacturers.
  • The government also has a ₹24,000 crore scheme, called the Production Linked Incentive Scheme, that is targeted at incentivising domestic manufacture of solar panels and their components.
  • Eligibility for this scheme too requires one to be a bona fide local manufacturer.
  • So far, 14 major companies have become eligible for incentives to manufacture solar modules worth 48 GW.
  • However, these restrictions apply only to fresh projects and plants and facilities commissioned before March 2024 can rely on imported modules.

India’s manufacturing capacity

  • 2023 was a fortunate year for Indians in the solar business. China which supplies over 80% of solar components globally saw a curb in orders from the U.S. on the grounds that the former relied on “forced labour” by Uiyghur Muslims in the Xinjiang province.
  • Europe too scaled back imports from China and a beneficiary of this was India which exported nearly $1 billion worth of modules in six months of 2023-24.
  • However, reports suggest that the U.S. might roll back duties on China and this could again mean uncertainty for the future of Indian exports.
  • It is estimated that nearly half of India’s solar modules are imported from China and the demand-supply mismatch is expected to persist.

Conclusion

  • While the list of certified manufacturers on the AMM list has grown to 82 according to the MNRE, there is yet no list of such manufacturers of solar cells, implying that India is still far away from achieving a comfortable degree of self-reliance.
  • The government, however, has claimed that beginning this year, there will be a significant rise in manufacturing capacity.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Consider the following pairs:

 

  Scheme Ministries
1 PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana Ministry of Power
2 PM KUSUM Ministry of Women and Child Welfare
3 PM-Daksh Scheme Ministry of Culture

 

How many of the above pairs are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None of the above

 

Q. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2018)

1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.

3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.      1 and 3 only

B.      2 only

C.      2 and 3 only

D.      1, 2 and 3

Ans- C

 

Answer 5 D

Explanation

  • The Ministry of Power is responsible for energy efficiency initiatives, while the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)promotes renewable energy. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is implementing PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana programme.
  • The scheme envisages subsidising rooftop solar installations for nearly one crore households in the country involving an estimated subsidy of ₹75,000 crore. Hence pair 1 is incorrect.
  • PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) Scheme is aimed at ensuring energy security for farmers in India, along with honouring India’s commitment to increase the share of installed capacity of electric power from non-fossil-fuel sources to 40% by 2030 as part of Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs). It is implemented by Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. Hence pair 2 is incorrect.
  • The scheme “Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi (PM-DAKSH)” was introduced by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment with the objective of economic empowerment/ upliftment through training of marginalized target groups: Other Backward Classes (OBCs), Economically Backward Classes (EBCs), De-Notified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (DNTs), Scheduled Castes (SCs), and Safai Karamcharis (Sanitation workers) including Waste Pickers. Hence pair 3 is incorrect.

 

 

World Central Kitchen in news

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/world-central-kitchen-the-charity-that-israel-bombed-in-gaza/article68037426.ece#:~:text=On%20April%202%2C%20seven%20aid,%2C%20Polish%20and%20US%2DCanadian.

UPSC Syllabus Relevance : GS 2 ( International Aid Agencies )

Context: Attack World Central Kitchen in Gaza strip has triggered sharp responses from world powers

Why in news

  • Seven workers of non-profit aid group, World Central Kitchen, operating in Gaza, were killed in Israeli strikes.

Key highlights

  • Seven workers from the relief group World Central Kitchen (WCK) were killed in central Gaza in a “targeted attack” by Israeli forces that has drawn global condemnation and forced the charity to suspend operations in the region.
  • WCK said its team members came from Australia, Palestine, Poland and the United Kingdom. One was a dual citizen of the United States and Canada.
  • Israel’s Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu described the air strike as “unintended” and “tragic”.

What is WCK?

  • WCK is a United States-based nonprofit that focuses on feeding people during conflicts and major disasters across the world, often as first responders.
  • It was founded in 2010 by Spanish-American Michelin-starred chef Jose Andres and his wife Patricia Fernandez de la Cruz.

International Recognition of WCK

  • Andres has won several humanitarian awards for his work, including the National Humanities Medal awarded by then-US President Barack Obama in 2015.
  • Mr. Andres and his U.S.-based charity were nominated for the Nobel Prize by Democrats.
  • He became a naturalised U.S. citizen during Barack Obama’s presidency and is currently a co-chair of President Biden’s Council on Sports, Fitness and Nutrition.
  • WCK is funded mainly through contributions and grants.
  • In 2021, Amazon founder Jeff Bezos gave Andres $100m.
  • In 2022, WCK reported more than $500m in contributions and grants.

Working of WCK

  • The group focuses on getting hot meals to people in conflicts and crises such as earthquakes, hurricanes and climate change
  • It works primarily with local chefs, as well as building food systems, training cooks and supporting farmers.

Important Works

  • After the Haiti earthquake, it expanded to working around the world, including in the US, Latin America and Europe, and says it has served 350 million meals since it started operations.
  • It has delivered food for communities hit by natural disasters, refugees at the US border, healthcare workers during the COVID-19 pandemic, and people caught up in conflict in Ukraine and Gaza.
  • The charity was on the ground after Hurricane Harvey hit the US city of Houston in 2017, and a month later after Hurricane Maria ripped through Puerto Rico.
  • After Russia invaded Ukraine in 2022, WCK served millions of meals to refugees, starting from people fleeing across the Polish border.
  • Founder Andres, alongside chefs from neighbouring countries including Romania, Hungary and Moldova, prepared the meals.
  • This year, WCK responded to the wildfires in Chile in February, as well as the Japan earthquake in January that killed more than 160 people.
  • It has worked in the Dominican Republic, Nicaragua, Zambia, Peru, Cuba, Uganda, The Bahamas and Cambodia.

WCK in Gaza

  • WCK was already working with local chefs to deliver food in Rafah, in southern Gaza, where some 1.5 million displaced Palestinians are sheltering.
  • The team also responded to people affected by the spiralling crisis on the Israel-Lebanon border, as well as in Israel.
  • The charity says it delivered 32 million meals in Gaza by March.
  • In early March, WCK provided 200 tonnes of flour, rice and other food aid to the Spanish nonprofit Open Arms whose ship tested a maritime supply route for the first time from Cyprus to Gaza.
  • A second ship left Cyprus, carrying 332 tonnes of food sourced by WCK.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. In each of the questions given below, there are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A): World Central Kitchen (WCK) is a United States-based nonprofit that focuses on feeding people during conflicts and major disasters.

Reason (R): World Central Kitchen (WCK) have been awarded Nobel Peace Prize for their humanitarian help.

A) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

B) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

C) A is true but R is false.

D) A is false but R is true.

Q. Amnesty International is (UPSC Prelims 2015)

A) an agency of the United Nations to help refugees of civil wars

B) a global Human Rights Movement

C) a non-governmental voluntary organization to help very poor people

D) an inter-governmental agency to cater to medical emergencies in war-ravaged regions

Answer: (B)

 

Answer 6 C

Explanation

  • World Central Kitchen (WCK) is a United States-based nonprofit that focuses on feeding people during conflicts and major disasters across the world, often as first responders.
  • It was founded in 2010 by Spanish-American Michelin-starred chef Jose Andres and his wife Patricia Fernandez de la Cruz. So, Assertion is correct.
  • Jose Andres has won several humanitarian awards for his work, including the National Humanities Medal awarded by then-US President Barack Obama in 2015.
  • Mr. Andres and his U.S.-based charity were nominated for the Nobel Prize by Democrats. But they have not won the Nobel Prize till yet. So, Reason is incorrect.
  • Therefore, option C is correct answer.

 

 

Total solar eclipse

Source: The Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/total-solar-eclipse-rare-9255264/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 1 (Physical Geography), GS – 3 (Science and Technology)

Context : Total solar eclipses only happen about once every 18 months or so

Why in news

  • On April 8, a total solar eclipse will cross North America, passing over Mexico, the United States, and Canada.

What is a solar eclipse?

  • According to Royal Museums Greenwich, once a place on Earth witnesses a total solar eclipse, it will be about 400 years before that part sees the next one.
  • A solar eclipse takes place when the Moon moves in the middle of Earth and the Sun. The Moon blocks the light of the Sun, either fully or partially, which casts a huge shadow on some parts of the world.
  • There are four different types of solar eclipses, including total solar eclipse, annual solar eclipse, partial solar eclipse, and hybrid solar eclipse.
  • When the Moon blocks the Sun entirely, the areas in the centre of the Moon’s shadow at the time witness a total solar eclipse.
  • The sky darkens and people who are in the path of a total solar eclipse can get a glimpse of the Sun’s corona — the outer atmosphere — which is usually not visible due to the bright face of the Sun.
  • When the Moon passes in front of the Sun but is at or near the farthest point from Earth, an annular solar eclipse occurs.
  • In this scenario, the Moon covers the Sun in such a way that only the periphery of the Sun remains visible — looking like a ring of fire.

Other Eclipses

  • A partial solar eclipse takes place when the Moon blocks just a part of the Sun, giving it a crescent shape.
  • During both partial and annular eclipses, the regions outside the area covered by the Moon’s umbra — the middle and the darkest part of the lunar shadow — will see a partial solar eclipse.
  • Partial solar eclipse is the most common type of solar eclipse.
  • A hybrid solar eclipse — the rarest type of solar eclipse — is witnessed when an eclipse shifts between annular and total as the shadow of the Moon moves across the globe.
  • In this case, some parts of the world see a total solar eclipse, while others observe an annular solar eclipse.

Frequency of solar eclipse

  • A solar eclipse is witnessed only during the new moon — when the Moon and Sun are aligned on the same side of Earth.
  • A new moon occurs about 29.5 days because that is how long it takes the Moon to orbit Earth.
  • This, however, does not mean that a solar eclipse happens every month.
  • It takes place only between two to five times annually.
  • It is because the Moon does not orbit Earth in the same plane as the Earth orbits the Sun.
  • In fact, the Moon is tilted by about five degrees with respect to Earth.
  • As a result, most of the time when the Moon is in between the Sun and Earth, its shadow is either too high or too low to fall on the Earth.

Why is a total solar eclipse so rare?

  • While there can be between two and five solar eclipses every year, total eclipses only happen about once every 18 months or so.
  • As mentioned before, a particular spot on Earth witnesses a total solar eclipse only once in 400 years.
  • This is because a total eclipse is only visible if one is standing in the umbra — the other part of the shadow is called the penumbra, which is not as dark as the umbra.
  • The umbral shadow is very small, covering only a small part of Earth.
  •  In fact, the entire path of the umbral shadow during a solar eclipse will only cover less than one per cent of the globe.
  • This is why only very few people will get to see a total eclipse at a time.
  • Moreover, about 70 per cent of the globe is underwater and half of the land is considered uninhabited.
  • That’s why, it is quite rare when a total solar eclipse happens and a lot of people get to see it.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q7. Consider the following statements with regards to Solar Eclipse:

1. A solar eclipse is witnessed only during the new moon

2. A solar eclipse happens every month.

3. Partial solar eclipse is the rarest type of solar eclipse.

4. When the Moon passes in front of the Sun but is at or near the farthest point from Earth, an annular solar eclipse occurs.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 4

B. 1 and 2

C. 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 4

 

Q. Variations in the length of daytime and night time from season to season are due to: (UPSC Prelims 2013)

A. the earth’s rotation on its axis

B. the earth’s revolution around the sun in an elliptical manner

C. latitudinal position of the place

D. revolution of the earth on a tilted axis

 

Answer D

 

Answer 7– A

Explanation

  • A solar eclipse is witnessed only during the new moon — when the Moon and Sun are aligned on the same side of Earth.
  • A new moon occurs about 29.5 days because that is how long it takes the Moon to orbit Earth. So, statement 1 is correct.
  • The orbit of the moon is tilted relative to the orbit of the Earth around the sun, so the moon often passes below or above Earth. At those times, it does not cross the line between the sun and the Earth, and therefore does not create a solar eclipse. There are just two to five times a year in the Earth’s orbit when there is a possibility of a total solar eclipse. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • A partial solar eclipse takes place when the Moon blocks just a part of the Sun, giving it a crescent shape.
  • During both partial and annular eclipses, the regions outside the area covered by the Moon’s umbra — the middle and the darkest part of the lunar shadow — will see a partial solar eclipse.
  • Partial solar eclipse is the most common type of solar eclipse, whereas hybrid solar eclipse is the rarest type of solar eclipse. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

·         When the Moon passes in front of the Sun but is at or near the farthest point from Earth, an annular solar eclipse occurs.

·         In this scenario, the Moon covers the Sun in such a way that only the periphery of the Sun remains visible — looking like a ring of fire. So, statement 4 is correct.

 

 

RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) keeps the benchmark policy repo rate unchanged

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/wayward-elephant-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-rbis-rate-decision/article68039433.ece#:~:text=Price%20stability%20must%20remain%20non%2Dnegotiable&text=The%20RBI’s%20Monetary%20Policy%20Committee,target%20on%20a%20durable%20basis. UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 3 (Banking sector, Reserve Bank of India)

Context : Headline inflation and food price inflation have remained stubbornly unpredictable.

Why in news

  • The RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) has opted to keep the benchmark policy repo rate unchanged at 6.5% for a seventh consecutive.

Key Highlights

  • The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI’s) six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), led by Governor Shaktikanta Das, has decided to maintain the status quo on both policy rate and stance for the seventh consecutive time.
  • This decision is driven by the central bank’s commitment to ensuring last-mile disinflation, with RBI Governor indicating that there is no need to start reducing interest rates until inflation reaches the target of 4 per cent.
  • The resolutions on rate and stance were supported by five members, with external member Jayanth Varma voting for a rate cut of 25 basis points and a change in the stance to neutral from the withdrawal of accommodation.
  • The six-member MPC headed by Governor Das also decided to maintain the policy stance at ‘withdrawal of accommodation’.
  • The RBI has projected India’s real GDP growth rate for FY25 at 7%. CPI inflation for FY25 is estimated at 4.5%.

 

Policy Measures:

  • Repo rate kept – unchanged at 6.5%. Repo Rate is the interest rate at which the central bank of a country lends money to commercial banks.
  • Policy stance of ‘withdrawal of accommodation’ maintained.
  • An accommodative stance means the central bank is prepared to expand the money supply to boost economic growth.
  • Withdrawal of accommodation will mean reducing the money supply in the system which will rein in inflation further.
  • Monetary Policy Stances are namely Dovish, Hawkish, and Accommodative & Neutral.
  • GDP growth forecast for FY25 at 7%. The quarterly projections are – Q1 at 7.1%; Q2 at 6.9%; Q3 at 7% and Q4 at 7%.
  • CPI inflation forecast for FY25 at 4.5%.
  • Detailed inflation forecast: Q1 at 4.9%; Q2 at 3.8%; Q3 at 4.6% and Q4 at 4.5%

 

Non-policy measures:

  • Scheme for trading of sovereign green bonds at IFSC to be announced
  • Introduction of a mobile app to access RBI’s Retail Direct Scheme for participation in GSec market
  • Draft circular for LCR framework for banks to be issued shortly
  • Dealing in rupee interest rate derivate products for all small finance banks
  • Enabling UPI for Cash Deposit Facility
  • UPI access for Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) through third-party applications
  • Distribution of CBDCs through Non-bank Payment System Operators.

 

RBI widens door for foreign participation in green bond

  • Foreign investors operating within the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) can now invest in Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs).
  • This decision unlocks a new avenue for financing eco-friendly projects in the country.
  • Based on an announcement in the Union Budget for 2022-23, the government issued Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) in January 2023.
  • Subsequently, SGrBs were issued as part of the government borrowing calendar in 2023-24.

 

Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs)

  • The International Capital Market Association (ICMA) defines a green bond as explicitly used to finance or refinance eligible green projects, resulting in environmental benefits.
  • Previously, only Indian investors could buy SGrBs.
  • Now, with foreign investors in the IFSC on board, the pool of potential investors significantly expands.
  • This translates to potentially more funds available for India’s green projects.
  • The government had set a target of raising ₹20,000 crore via the issuance of SGrBs in FY24, and it plans to borrow ₹12,000 crore through the sale of the bonds in the first six months of FY25.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q8. In the recently held Monetary Policy Committee meet led by RBI Governor, which of the following policy stances has been taken by the committee?

1. Hawkish

2. Withdrawal of Accommodation

3. Neutral

4. Calibrated tightening

Code:

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. Only 4

D. Only 3

 

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy

Committee (MPC)? (UPSC Prelims 2017)

1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.

2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.

3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Answer A

 

Answer 8– B

Explanation

·         Policy stance of ‘withdrawal of accommodation’ has been maintained by RBI Governor led MPC.

·         Prominent Monetary Policy Stances are namely- Hawkish, Accommodative, Neutral and Calibrated tightening.

·         An accommodative stance means the central bank is prepared to expand the money supply to boost economic growth.

·         Withdrawal of accommodation will mean reducing the money supply in the system which will rein in inflation further.

·         A ‘neutral stance’ suggests that the central bank can either cut rate or increase rate. This stance is typically adopted when the policy priority is equal on both inflation and growth. During neutral policy, the central bank doesn’t commit to hike rates or cut.

·         A hawkish stance indicates that the central bank’s top priority is to keep the inflation low. During such a phase, the central bank is willing to hike interest rates to curb money supply and thus reduce the demand.

·         A hawkish policy also indicates tight monetary policy. A rate cut is nearly certain during such a period.

·         Calibrated tightening means during the current rate cycle, a cut in the repo rate is off the table. But, the rate hike will happen in a calibrated manner. This means the central bank may not go for a rate increase in every policy meeting but the overall policy stance is tilted towards a rate hike.

 

 

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