APRIL 5 CARE CURRENT AFFAIRS 2024 TSPSC

Current Affairs Reverse Engineering

Care (5-04-2024)

 

News at a Glance

 

Telangana: Archaeologists unearth lead coin hoard from Ikshvaku period in Phanigiri, Suryapet
NMC approves establishment of nine medical colleges in Telangana
National: National Emergency in India and Lok Sabha Elections
Science and Technology: India’s first homegrown CAR T-cell therapy for cancer treatment launched.
New generation ballistic missile Agni-Prime successfully flight-tested
The US and the UK sign agreement on AI safety testing
Environment and Ecology: Uttarakhand govt wants to evaluate the risk of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods

 

Archaeologists unearth lead coin hoard from Ikshvaku period in Phanigiri, Suryapet

Source: The Hindu

https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/hyderabad/megalithic-graves-telangana-disappearing-heritage-9248641/

TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Paper-II (History and Cultural Heritage of Telangana)

Context: The Phanigiri is an important Buddhist site.

Why in news

  • Officials of the Department of Archaeology and Museums have unearthed a coin hoard at the Phanigiri Buddhist site in Suryapet district.

Key Highlights

  • The team led by N. Sagar, the excavation director and B. Mallu, the co-excavator, found an earthen pot with 16.7 cm in diameter and 15 cm height at a depth of two feet on March 29.
  • Inside the pot, the team found 3,730 lead coins with elephant symbol on one side and Ujjain symbol on the other side.
  • According to the archaeologists, the coins belong to the Ikshvaku period dated between 3rd century and 4th century Common Era.
  • Besides the coins, the archaeologists discovered stone beads, glass beads, shell bangle fragments, stucco motifs, broken limestone sculptures, a wheel of a toy cart, final nails and pottery.
  • Apart from Phanigiri, excavations were held in other Buddhist sites namely Vardhamanukota, Gajula Banda, Tirumalagiri, Nagaram, Singaram, Aravapalli, Ayyavaripallim Arlagaddagudem and Yeleswaram in the past.

About Phanigiri

  • The Phanigiri is an important Buddhist site that has only recently gained the importance it deserves with many of the excavated artefacts travelling the world most recently to the New York Met Museum.
  • The site contains a Buddhist complex with a large stupa, two apsidal halls with stupas, and three viharas that were once home to Buddhist monks. The site’s remains date back to the 2nd to 4th centuries AD, and the artifacts provide insight into the evolution of Buddhism in the region during that time

Ikshvaku dynasty

  • Phanigiri is an important Buddhist site in Telangana. It is located in the Suryapet district, about 40 kilometers from Suryapet city.
  • The Ikshvaku dynasty, ruled the Krishna River Delta, Andhra region, and Godavari river on the east coast of India for over a century during the 3rd and 4th centuries CE.
  • The dynasty’s capital was Vijayapuri, which is now Nagarjunakonda in Andhra Pradesh.
  • This kingdom supported multiple religions, traded with Rome, and built the only amphitheatre found in ancient India.
  • It hosted Nagarjuna, also known as ‘the second Buddha’, and founder of Madhyamaka, or the influential Middle Path school of Mahayana Buddhism.

 

 

 CARE MCQ
Q1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Phanigiri is an important Buddhist site.
  2. The Ikshvaku dynasty’s capital was Vijayapuri.

Code:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

Answer 1– C

Explanation

  • Phanigiri is an important Buddhist site in Telangana. Officials of the Department of Archaeology and Museums have unearthed a coin hoard at the Phanigiri Buddhist site in Suryapet district recently. So, statement 1 is correct.
  • The Ikshvaku dynasty, ruled the Krishna River Delta, Andhra region, and Godavari river on the east coast of India for over a century during the 3rd and 4th centuries CE.
  • The sprawling remains of its capital city, Vijayapuri, which is now Nagarjunakonda in Andhra Pradesh and its monuments, were discovered only in 1920. So, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, correct answer is option C.

 

 

NMC approves establishment of nine medical colleges in Telangana

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/nmc-approves-establishment-of-nine-medical-colleges-in-telangana/article68029411.ece

TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Public Health

Context: National Medical Commission (NMC) replaced the Medical Council of India

Why in news

  • Nine medical colleges in Telangana have moved a step closer to establishment as the National Medical Commission (NMC) has advanced their applications.

Key Highlights

  • In a public notice issued on April 3 by NMC’s Medical Assessment and Rating Board (MARB), a list of 170 institutions across the nation seeking to establish new medical colleges or expand MBBS seats in existing ones for the academic year 2024-25 was released.
  • Among the nine institutions in Telangana, seven are Government Medical Colleges situated in Jogulamba Gadwal, Narayanpet, Mulugu, Warangal (Narsampet), Medak, Yadadri Bhongir, and Medchal Malkajgiri districts.
  • The remaining two are the Nova Institute of Medical Sciences and Research Centre in Rangareddy district and the Christian Medical College and Hospital in Nizamabad.
  • This development follows the earlier proposal by the previous State government to establish eight new government medical colleges, which would bring the total count of government medical colleges in the State to 34.
  • The recent announcement by NMC has sanctioned seven out of the eight proposed by the previous government, leaving Rangareddy district as the sole location without an approved government medical college.

NMC

  • National Medical Commission (NMC) is an Indian regulatory body of 33 members which regulates medical education and medical professionals.
  • It replaced the Medical Council of India on 25 September 2020.
  • The Commission grants recognition of medical qualifications, gives accreditation to medical schools, grants registration to medical practitioners, and monitors medical practice and assesses the medical infrastructure in India.

 

 

 CARE MCQ
Q2. Consider the following statements with regards to National Medical Commission (NMC):

1. NMC recently approved establishment of nine medical colleges in Telangana

2. National Medical Commission (NMC) is a constitutional body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.      1 only

B.      2 only

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.      Neither 1 nor 2

 

 

Answer 2– A

Explanation

  • NMC recently approved establishment of nine medical colleges in Telangana
  • Among the nine institutions in Telangana, seven are Government Medical Colleges situated in Jogulamba Gadwal, Narayanpet, Mulugu, Warangal (Narsampet), Medak, Yadadri Bhongir, and Medchal Malkajgiri districts.
  • The remaining two are the Nova Institute of Medical Sciences and Research Centre in Rangareddy district and the Christian Medical College and Hospital in Nizamabad. So, statement 1 is correct.
  • National Medical Commission (NMC) is a statutory body and not constitutional body.
  • It is an Indian regulatory body of 33 members which regulates medical education and medical professionals.
  • The Commission grants recognition of medical qualifications, gives accreditation to medical schools, grants registration to medical practitioners, and monitors medical practice and assesses the medical infrastructure in India. So, statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, correct answer is option A.

 

 

National Emergency in India and Lok Sabha Elections

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/elections-that-shaped-india-janata-party-1977-elections/article67525760.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS II (Functions and responsibilities of the Union and the States, issues and challenges pertaining to the federal structure, devolution of powers and finances up to local levels and challenges therein)

Context: A look at the historic elections that have shaped the polity and political landscape of our nation since Independence

Why in news

  • The 1977 Lok Sabha elections in India were significant due to the context of the Emergency imposed by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and her unpopular policies, including forced sterilizations and curtailment of civil liberties.

Key highlights

  • Indira Gandhi’s electoral malpractice conviction in 1975 and subsequent disqualification led to widespread criticism of her authoritarian methods, culminating in the imposition of Emergency.
  • The Janata Party emerged as a coalition of six parties under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan, a staunch critic of Indira Gandhi, aiming to challenge Congress’ hegemony.
  • The election saw record voter turnout, particularly in northern states, fueled by public outrage over the excesses of the Emergency and family planning measures.
  • The Janata wave swept across the north, resulting in a significant defeat for Congress, with Indira Gandhi herself losing her seat in Rae Bareli.
  • In contrast, Congress maintained its stronghold in southern states, largely due to press censorship during the Emergency and better results in family planning initiatives.
  • The aftermath saw Indira Gandhi stepping down temporarily, with Morarji Desai becoming the Prime Minister, though controversies arose over his appointment.
  • The Janata Party coalition faced internal rifts, leading to instability and early elections in 1980, where Indira Gandhi made a triumphant comeback, securing a two-thirds majority for Congress (I).
  • The 1977 elections marked a significant shift in Indian politics, highlighting the power of public discontent and paving the way for Indira Gandhi’s eventual return to power.

Emergency Provisions in the Constitution:

  • The Constitution of India includes emergency provisions from Article 352 to 360, which enable the Central government to address abnormal situations effectively, safeguarding the sovereignty, unity, integrity, and security of the country.
  • There are three types of emergencies: National Emergency, Constitutional Emergency, and Financial Emergency.
  • A National Emergency can be declared in cases of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
  • During a National Emergency, the normal fabric of Centre-State relations changes significantly, affecting executive, legislative, and financial aspects.
  • The life of the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies can be extended during a National Emergency, but not beyond six months after the emergency ceases.
  • Fundamental rights can be suspended under Articles 358 and 359 during a National Emergency, subject to certain conditions and limitations.

National Emergency has been proclaimed three times in India’s history: in 1962, 1971, and 1975.

  • President’s Rule, imposed under Article 356, occurs when the President deems a situation in a state to be unfit for the government to function according to the Constitution.
  • The proclamation of President’s Rule must be approved by both houses of Parliament within two months, and its consequences include central intervention in the state’s governance.
  • Financial Emergency, declared under Article 360, is proclaimed when the financial stability or credit of India or its territories is threatened.
  • Financial Emergency grants the Union government authority over state financial matters and allows for reduction of salaries, among other measures.Top of Form
  • Judicial Review can be done by the courts of all types of Emergencies provided in the Constitution.

Criticism of the emergency provisions in the Constitution of India includes:

  1. Centralization of power: Emergency provisions lead to an excessive concentration of power in the hands of the Union government, potentially undermining the federal structure of the Constitution.
  2. Erosion of fundamental rights: During emergencies, fundamental rights can be suspended or curtailed, posing a threat to civil liberties and democratic principles.
  3. Abuse of authority: Emergency provisions may be misused by the ruling government for political purposes, leading to the suppression of dissent and opposition voices.
  4. Disruption of democratic processes: Emergency situations can disrupt the normal functioning of democratic institutions and processes, potentially undermining the rule of law and democratic governance.
  5. Lack of accountability: The broad discretionary powers granted to the executive during emergencies may result in unchecked actions without sufficient oversight or accountability mechanisms.

Way forward:

  1. Strengthen checks and balances: Implement mechanisms to ensure adequate checks and balances on the executive’s powers during emergencies, including judicial review and parliamentary oversight.
  2. Safeguard fundamental rights: Amend emergency provisions to include safeguards that protect fundamental rights even during times of crisis, ensuring that civil liberties are not unduly compromised.
  3. Enhance transparency and accountability: Promote transparency in decision-making processes during emergencies and establish mechanisms for greater accountability of the executive to the legislature and the public.
  4. Educate and raise awareness: Increase public awareness about emergency provisions and their implications for democracy and civil liberties, fostering a culture of vigilance and accountability among citizens.
  5. Review and reform emergency provisions: Periodically review emergency provisions to assess their effectiveness, relevance, and potential for misuse, and consider necessary reforms to address identified shortcomings while maintaining the ability to respond effectively to genuine emergencies.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q3. Consider the Following statements:

  1. Under Article 352, the president can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression only.
  2. Article 19 is automatically revived after the expiry of the emergency.
  3. National Emergency has been proclaimed three times in India’s history in 1962, 1971, and 1975.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. None of the above

 

Q. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then (UPSC Prelims 2018)

A. The Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

B. The powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.

C. Article 19 is suspended in that State.

D. the President can make laws relating to that State.

Answer: B

 

                                                                                                                                                                                        

Ans 3 B

Explanation

·         Under Article 352, the president can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

·         According to Article 358, when a proclamation of National Emergency is made, the six fundamental rights under article 19 are automatically suspended. Article 19 is automatically revived after the expiry of the emergency. Hence statement 2 is correct.

·         The 44th Amendment Act laid out that Article 19 can only be suspended when the National Emergency is laid on the grounds of war or external aggression and not in the case of armed rebellion.

·         National Emergency has been proclaimed three times in India’s history in 1962, 1971, and 1975. Hence statement 3 is correct.

 

India’s first homegrown CAR T-cell therapy for cancer treatment launched

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/president-launches-indias-first-homegrown-car-t-cell-therapy-for-cancer-treatment-calls-it-new-hope/article68028031.ece

 UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS III (Achievements of Indians in science & technology; indigenization of technology and developing new technology) 

Context: Developed by the IIT Bombay and the Tata Memorial Centre, CAR T-cell therapy will help in curing different types of cancer

 

Why in news

  • President Droupadi Murmu launched India’s first indigenously-developed CAR T-cell therapy for cancer treatment on April 4, hailing it as a significant breakthrough in the fight against cancer.

 

Key Highlights:

  • Top of Form
  • The launch event, held at IIT Bombay in Mumbai, showcased the CAR T-cell therapy as an exemplary achievement of the ‘Make in India’ initiative.
  • Developed collaboratively by IIT Bombay and Tata Memorial Centre, this gene-based therapy promises to treat various types of cancer and significantly reduce treatment costs.
  • The introduction of low-cost CAR T-cell therapy is a significant achievement for India, placing the country on the global stage in the field of cell and gene therapy.
  • This NexCAR19 CAR T-cell therapy is the country’s first ‘Made in India’ CAR T-cell therapy, which will significantly bring down the cost of cancer treatment.
  • Sudeep Gupta, Director of the Tata Memorial Centre hailed NexCAR19 as a historic milestone in cancer care and genetic engineering, predicting that it would save numerous lives and alleviate suffering.
  • The rollout of NexCAR19 represents both a scientific milestone and a practical solution with the potential to transform cancer treatment and improve patient outcomes.

 

About CAR T cell Therapy:

  • Top of Form
  • CAR T cell therapy involves modifying a patient’s T cells to express chimeric antigen receptors (CARs) that can recognize and bind to specific proteins on cancer cells.
  • Unlike traditional immunotherapies that enhance the overall immune response, CAR T cell therapy involves customizing a patient’s immune cells to target their cancer cells, making it a personalized approach.
  • It is primarily being investigated as a treatment for various blood cancers, particularly those involving B cells and plasma cells.
  • The development of CAR T cell therapy began in the late 1980s, with initial trials showing limited effectiveness and safety concerns.
  • However, recent advancements have significantly improved CAR T cell design and clinical protocols, leading to better safety and efficacy.
  • In the United States, two CAR T cell therapies gained approval from the FDA: Kymriah in 2017 for B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia and Yescarta in 2017 for diffuse large B-cell lymphoma.
  • Numerous other CAR T cell therapies are undergoing clinical trials for various cancers, including solid tumors. Research is also exploring “off-the-shelf” CAR T cell therapies using donor T cells.

 

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q4. Consider the following statements with regards to CAR T cells:

1.       CAR T cells are designed to identify and attach to particular protein targets found on cancer cells.

2.       In the USA, two CAR T cell therapies, Kymriah and Yescarta, have been approved for certain types of blood cancers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.      Only 1

B.      Only 2

C.      Both 1 and 2

D.      Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (UPSC Prelims 2022)

A. They protect the environmental allergens. body

B. They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.

C. They act as immunosuppressants in the body.

D. They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens.

Ans: D

 

 

Answer 4– C

Explanation –

·         CAR T cells are designed to identify and attach to particular protein targets found on cancer cells. When these cells bind to cancer cells, they trigger activation and proliferation, ultimately leading to the destruction of the cancer cells.

·         Unlike broad immunotherapies that enhance the entire immune system, CAR T cell therapy customizes a patient’s immune cells to directly target their specific cancer. Hence statement 1 is correct.

·         In the United States, two CAR T cell therapies gained approval from the FDA: Kymriah in 2017 for B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia and Yescarta in 2017 for diffuse large B-cell lymphoma. Hence statement 2 is correct.

·         Therefore, option C is correct answer.

 

 

 New generation ballistic missile Agni-Prime successfully flight-tested

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/new-generation-ballistic-missile-agni-prime-successfully-flight-tested/article68027482.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS III (Achievements of Indians in science & technology; indigenization of technology and developing new technology)

Context: Agni-P has a range of 1,000-2,000km and was tested for the first time in June 2021. It is lighter than earlier Agni missiles

Why in news

  • The Agni-Prime ballistic missile was successfully tested by the Strategic Forces Command (SFC) and the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) from Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha.

Key Highlights

  • Agni-Prime is a two-stage canisterised solid propellant ballistic missile equipped with a dual redundant navigation and guidance system, as per DRDO.
  • It boasts a range of 1,000-2,000km and was initially tested in June 2021, being lighter than previous Agni series missiles.
  • In June 2023, the first pre-induction night launch was carried out by users following three successful developmental trials, confirming the system’s accuracy and reliability.
  • The Agni series, along with Prithvi short-range ballistic missiles and fighter aircraft, constitutes India’s nuclear weapons delivery framework.
  • India has achieved its nuclear triad and operationalized its second-strike capability with the nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine INS Arihant conducting deterrence patrols.

About Ballistic Missile

  • A ballistic missile follows a trajectory characterized by a high arcing flight path to deliver its payload to a target.
  • The trajectory, known as a “ballistic trajectory,” represents the path followed by a ballistic missile or projectile after thrusting forces cease, leaving only gravity and resistance to influence its course.
  • Short-range ballistic missiles function within Earth’s atmosphere, whereas intercontinental ballistic missiles embark on a sub-orbital flight.
  • The initial phase of a ballistic missile’s journey, the launch, is controlled and directed, while the subsequent trajectory is governed primarily by gravity and requires minimal supervision.

Missiles have five system components

  • Guidance system
  • Targeting system
  • Flight system
  • Engine
  • Warhead

Types of Missiles Based on Speed

  • Missiles are classified based on their speed with respect to that of sound, expressed as Mach.
  • Subsonic missiles: These missiles travel slower than the speed of sound. Examples: U.S. Harpoon anti-ship missile, Indian Prithvi short-range ballistic missile.
  • Supersonic missiles: These missiles travel faster than the speed of sound but less than Mach 5. Examples: Russian Iskander tactical ballistic missile, Indian BrahMos supersonic cruise missile.
  • Hypersonic missiles: These missiles travel at speeds exceeding Mach 5, at least five times faster than the speed of sound. Examples: China’s DF-ZF hypersonic glide vehicle, Russia’s Avangard.

Cruise missiles vs Ballistic Missiles

  • Cruise missiles utilize a guidance system to locate or are pre-programmed with a target, navigating through inertial or satellite GPS guidance.
  • They are equipped with a payload and propulsion system and can be launched from land, sea, or air for various purposes, including land attacks and anti-shipping operations.
  • Cruise missiles can travel at subsonic, supersonic, or hypersonic speeds and are difficult to detect by anti-missile systems due to their proximity to the Earth’s surface.
  • Cruise Missiles are designed for precise delivery of large payloads.
  • Ballistic missiles are launched directly into the upper layers of the Earth’s atmosphere and travel outside it.
  • Upon reaching the designated altitude, the warhead separates from the missile and descends towards the predetermined target.
  • Ballistic missiles are self-guided and rocket-propelled, capable of carrying conventional or nuclear munitions.
  • They can be launched from various platforms, including aircraft, ships, submarines, and land.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q5. Consider the following statements:

  1. Agni-Prime is a two-stage canisterised solid propellant ballistic missile equipped with a dual redundant navigation and guidance system.
  2. Short-range ballistic missiles function within Earth’s atmosphere, whereas intercontinental ballistic missiles embark on a sub-orbital flight.
  3. Cruise missiles can travel at subsonic, supersonic, or hypersonic speeds and are difficult to detect by anti-missile systems due to their proximity to the Earth’s surface.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None of the above

 

Q. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2014)

1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.

2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.

3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: A

 

 

Answer 5 C

Explanation

  • Agni-Prime is a two-stage canisterised solid propellant ballistic missile equipped with a dual redundant navigation and guidance system, as per DRDO. It boasts a range of 1,000-2,000km and was initially tested in June 2021, being lighter than previous Agni series missiles. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Short-range ballistic missiles function within Earth’s atmosphere, whereas intercontinental ballistic missiles embark on a sub-orbital flight. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Cruise missiles can travel at subsonic, supersonic, or hypersonic speeds and are difficult to detect by anti-missile systems due to their proximity to the Earth’s surface. Hence statement 3 is correct.

 

 

The US and the UK sign agreement on AI safety testing

Source: The Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/us-uk-agreement-ai-safety-testing-9248773/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance : GS 2 ( bilateral agreement ) GS 3 ( science and technology )

Context: Bletchley Park AI Safety Summit

Introduction

  • Following through commitments made at the Bletchley Park AI Safety Summit last year, the United States and the United Kingdom have signed an agreement to collaborate on the development of tests for the most advanced artificial intelligence (AI) models.

Key highlights

  • The agreement, which was signed emphasizes the sharing of vital information about the capabilities and risks associated with AI models and systems.
  • It also includes provisions for sharing fundamental technical research on AI safety and security, as well as aligning the approach towards safely deploying AI systems.

Key Points of the Agreement

Sharing of information

  • Both countries will exchange important information regarding the abilities and risks of AI models and systems.
  • They will also exchange basic technical AI safety and security research and collaborate to ensure safe deployment of AI systems.

Joint Testing and Personnel Exchanges

  • They plan to conduct at least one collaborative testing exercise on a model accessible to the public. Additionally, they aim to leverage their combined expertise by considering personnel exchanges between the Institutes.

Collaboration with other countries

  • They have also pledged to establish comparable collaborations with other nations to advance global AI safety.

US Seeks Inputs on Open-Source AI Models

  • In a separate development, the National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA) in the US has initiated consultations on the risks, benefits, and potential policy related to dual-use foundation models with widely available weights.
  • This move follows an executive order issued by the President Joe Biden administration in 2023 on the safe deployment of AI systems.
  • The agency is seeking inputs on various aspects related to the openness of AI models, including innovation, competition, safety, security, trustworthiness, equity, and national security concerns.

Global Efforts and AI Regulation

  • The recent developments in the US and the UK are part of a broader global effort to address the challenges and risks associated with AI.
  • Lawmakers and governments around the world are grappling with setting legislative guardrails around AI to mitigate its downsides.
  • For instance, the EU has reached a deal with member states on its AI Act, which includes safeguards on the use of AI within the EU, including clear guardrails on its adoption by law enforcement agencies.
  • Additionally, the US White House has issued an Executive Order on AI, which is being offered as a template for other countries looking to regulate AI.

About Bletchley Declaration

  • Central objective- The central objective of the Bletchley Declaration is to address risks and responsibilities associated with frontier AI in a comprehensive and collaborative manner.
  • The document emphasizes the necessity of aligning AI systems with human intent and urges a deeper exploration of AI’s full capabilities.

Member countries

  • Australia, Brazil, Canada, Chile, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Kenya, Saudi, Arabia, Netherlands, Nigeria, The Philippines, the Republic of Korea, Rwanda, Singapore, Spain, Switzerland, Turkey, Ukraine, United Arab Emirates, United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, the United States of America, and the European Union.

Significance

  • It was marked by an agreement which resolved to establish “a shared understanding of the opportunities and risks posed by frontier AI”. It includes:
  • Identifying misuse: Acknowledgment of the substantial risks from potential intentional misuse or unintended issues of control of frontier AI — especially cybersecurity, biotechnology, and disinformation risks.
  • Identifying risks: The declaration noted the potential for serious harm, deliberate or unintentional, stemming from the most significant capabilities of these AI models, as well as risks beyond frontier AI, including those of bias and privacy.
  • Focusing on international cooperation: These risks are “best addressed through international cooperation”. As part of the agreement on international collaboration on frontier AI safety, future summits will be held annually.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q6. Which of the following is NOT the key points of the agreement between the US and UK?

1. Conducting joint testing exercises on publicly accessible AI models

2. Sharing information about AI capabilities and risks

3. Developing AI for commercial purposes

4. Exploring personnel exchanges between AI safety institutes

CODE

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3  only

D. 1, 3 and 4 only

 

Q. With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following? (UPSC Prelims 2020)

1. Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units

2. Create meaningful short stories and songs

3. Disease diagnosis

4. Text-to-Speech Conversion

Wireless transmission of electrical energy

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2, 4 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: B

 

 

Answer 6 C

Explanation

  • The United States and the United Kingdom have signed an agreement to collaborate on the development of tests for the most advanced artificial intelligence (AI) models.
  • The agreement, which was signed emphasizes the sharing of vital information about the capabilities and risks associated with AI models and systems.
  • It also includes provisions for sharing fundamental technical research on AI safety and security, as well as aligning the approach towards safely deploying AI systems.
  • Therefore, option C is correct answer.

 

 

Uttarakhand govt wants to evaluate the risk of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods

Source: The Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/risk-from-glacial-lake-floods-9249967/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS – 3 (Disaster Management, GS – 1 Important Geophysical Phenomena)

Context : Rising temperatures have increased the risk of glacial lake bursts of the kind that devastated the Kedarnath valley in 2013 and parts of Chamoli in 2021.

Why in news

  • The Uttarakhand government has constituted two teams of experts to evaluate the risk posed by five potentially hazardous glacial lakes in the region.

Key highlights

  • Glacial lakes in the region are prone to Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs), the kind of events that have resulted in several disasters in the Himalayan states in recent years
  • The goal of the risk assessment exercise is to minimise the possibility of a GLOF incident and provide more time for relief and evacuation in case of a breach.
  • The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), which operates under the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, has identified 188 glacial lakes in the Himalayan states that can potentially be breached because of heavy rainfall. Thirteen of them are in Uttarakhand.
  • Rising surface temperatures across the globe, including India, have increased the risk of GLOFs.
  • Studies have shown that around 15 million people face the risk of sudden and deadly flooding from glacial lakes, which are expanding and rising in numbers due to global warming.

 

What are GLOFs?

  • GLOFs are disaster events caused by the abrupt discharge of water from glacial lakes — large bodies of water that sit in front of, on top of, or beneath a melting glacier.
  • As a glacier withdraws, it leaves behind a depression that gets filled with meltwater, thereby forming a lake.
  • The more the glacier recedes, the bigger and more dangerous the lake becomes.
  • Such lakes are mostly dammed by unstable ice or sediment composed of loose rock and debris.
  • In case the boundary around them breaks, huge amounts of water rush down the side of the mountains, which could cause flooding in the downstream areas — this is referred to as a GLOF event.
  • GLOFs can be triggered by various reasons, including glacial calving, where sizable ice chunks detach from the glacier into the lake, inducing sudden water displacement.
  • Incidents such as avalanches or landslides can also impact the stability of the boundary around a glacial lake, leading to its failure, and the rapid discharge of water.
  • GLOFs can unleash large volumes of water, sediment, and debris downstream with formidable force and velocity.
  • The floodwaters can submerge valleys, obliterate infrastructure such as roads, bridges, and buildings, and result in significant loss of life and livelihoods.

 

Why are GLOFs under the spotlight?

  • In recent years, there has been a rise in GLOF events in the Himalayan region as soaring global temperatures have increased glacier melting.
  • Rapid infrastructure development in vulnerable areas has also contributed to the spike in such incidents.
  • Since 1980, in the Himalayan region, particularly in southeastern Tibet and the China-Nepal border area, GLOFs have become more frequent, according to a study, ‘Enhanced Glacial Lake Activity Threatens Numerous Communities and Infrastructure in the Third Pole’, published in the journal Nature in 2023.
  • The analysis was done by Taigang Zhang, Weicai Wang, Baosheng An and Lele Wei — all from the Institute of Tibetan Plateau Research in China.
  • “Approximately 6,353 sq km of land could be at risk from potential GLOFs, posing threats to 55,808 buildings, 105 hydropower projects, 194 sq km of farmland, 5,005 km of roads, and 4,038 bridges in the region,” according to the study.
  • Another analysis, ‘Glacial Lake Outburst Floods Threaten Millions Globally’, published in the journal Nature in February 2023, showed that about 3 million people in India and 2 million in Pakistan face the risk of GLOFs.
  • This study was conducted by Caroline Taylor, Rachel Carr and Stuart Dunning of Newcastle University, the United Kingdom, Tom Robinson of the University of Canterbury, New Zealand, and Matthew Westoby of Northumbria University, the UK.

 

What is the situation in Uttarakhand?

  • Uttarakhand has witnessed two major GLOF events in the past few years. The first took place in June 2013, which affected large parts of the state — Kedarnath valley was the worst hit, where thousands of people died.
  • The second occurred in February 2021, when Chamoli district was hit by flash floods due to the bursting of a glacier lake.
  • As mentioned earlier, Uttarakhand has 13 glacial lakes which are prone to GLOF.
  • Based on the analysis of available data and research from various technical institutions, these lakes have been categorised into three risk levels: ‘A’, ‘B’, and ‘C’.
  • Five highly sensitive glacial lakes fall into the ‘A’ category.
  • These include Vasudhara Tal in the Dhauliganga basin in Chamoli district, and four lakes in Pithoragarh district — Maban Lake in Lassar Yangti Valley, Pyungru Lake in the Darma basin, an unclassified lake in the Darma basin, and another unclassified lake in Kuthi Yangti Valley.
  • The areas of these five lakes range between 0.02 to 0.50 sq km, and they are situated at elevations ranging from 4,351 metres to 4,868 metres.
  • The rising surface temperatures could worsen the situation in Uttarakhand.
  • The state’s annual average maximum temperature may increase by 1.6-1.9 degree Celsius between 2021-2050, according to a 2021 study, ‘Locked Houses, Fallow Lands: Climate Change and Migration in Uttarakhand, India’, carried out by the Germany-based Potsdam Institute for Climate Research (PIK) and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) in New Delhi. This could exacerbate the risk of GLOFs in the state.

 

NDMA Guidelines for Management of GLOFs

  • Recognizing potentially dangerous lakes involves a multidisciplinary approach. Field observations, historical records, and analyzing geomorphological and geotechnical characteristics can help identify high-risk areas.
  • This information can be used to prioritize monitoring and risk-reduction efforts.

 

Use of Technology

  • The use of Synthetic-Aperture Radar imagery can greatly enhance early warning systems.
  • This technology can detect changes in water bodies, monitor glacier movements, and identify new lake formations, especially during monsoon seasons.
  • Remote monitoring from space can provide a broader perspective, helping to track changes in lake conditions over time.

 

 CARE MCQ  UPSC PYQ
Q7. Consider the following statements:

1. Maban Lake

2. Pyungru Lake

3. Kuchaman

4. Sargol

Which of the following are an example of a glacier lake in the context of India?

A. 1 and 4

B. 1 and 2

C. 3 and 4

D. 1, 3 and 4

 

Q. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion (UPSC Prelims 2013)

A. is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds

B. is found in freshwater lakes and rivers

C. exists as groundwater

D. exists as soil moisture

Ans: C

 

 

 

Answer 7– B

Explanation

  • Glacial lake includes Vasudhara Tal in the Dhauliganga basin in Chamoli district, and four lakes in Pithoragarh district — Maban Lake in Lassar Yangti Valley, Pyungru Lake in the Darma basin, an unclassified lake in the Darma basin, and another unclassified lake in Kuthi Yangti Valley. So, option 1 and 2 are correct.
  • Kuchaman Lake is a continental saltwater lake in the Nagaur District of Rajasthan. Sargol is a saline lake in the state of Rajasthan. So, option 3 and 4 are incorrect.
  • Therefore, option B is correct answer.

 

 

 

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