Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (29-04-2024)
| News at a Glance |
| Telangana: Komati Kunta Lake |
| Sculpture of Lord Nataraja in needle eye |
| Disaster Management: Forest fires in Uttarakhand |
| Release of Disaster Relief Funds to Karnataka and Tamil Nadu |
| Polity and Governance: New Insurance Rules for Senior Citizens |
| When is a candidate elected unopposed? |
| Geography: Oldest remnants of Earth’s early magnetic field in Greenland |
| International Relations: India-Oman Trade Deal |
Komati Kunta Lake
Source: Indian Express
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Rivers and lakes in Telangana
Context: Telangana HC hears case on officials’ inaction on Komati Kunta Lake construction.
Why in news
- The Telangana High Court heard a PIL and a writ petition on alleged inaction of officials in curbing illegal construction activities within the Full Tank Level (FTL) of Komati Kunta Lake in Bachupally under the Nizampet Municipal Corporation limits.
Komati Kunta Lake
- Komati Kunta lake is located in Bachupally in Nizampet municipal corporation.
- A construction of a multi-storeyed building within full tank level (FTL) of Komati Kunta cheruvu (tank) in Bachupally of Medchal Malkajigiri district was in news.
- A division bench of the Telangana High Court, comprising Chief Justice Alok Aradhe and Justice Anil Kumar Jukanti, expressed concern over the attitude of government authorities who did not provide details that it had sought about illegal constructions at the Kumatikunta Lake at Bachupally.
- Counsel for the petitioner informed the court that Vasavi Infra Limited, a real estate firm, had encroached on the Komatikunta Lake land and completed the construction of an apartment complex. His representations to the irrigation and revenue departments to protect the lake had not evoked a response.
Important lakes of Telangana
| Himayat Sagar | · Himayat Sagar is an artificial lake, located about 20 km from Hyderabad, the capital of both Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
· It lies just parallel to a larger artificial lake called the Osman Sagar Lake. |
| Hussain Sagar | · Hussain Sagar is a medieval artificial lake situated in Hyderabad.
· It was built by Hazrat Hussain Shah Wali in the year 1562, during the rule of Ibrahim Quli Qutb Shah. · Hussain Sagar is fed by Musi River, a tributary of Krishna River flowing through Telangana and Andhra Pradesh. |
| Pakhal Lake | · Pakhal Lake is a man-made lake, located in the vicinity of Pakhal Wildlife Sanctuary in Warangal district of Telangana.
· Pakhal Lake was constructed in the early half of the medieval times around 1213 A.D, by the ruler of Kakatiya Dynasty of Warangal namely, Ganapathideva. |
| Pocharam Lake | · Pocharam Lake is located in Nizamabad district of Telangana.
· It is adjacent to Pocharam Forest and Wildlife Sanctuary. |
| Durgam Cheruvu | · Durgam Cheruvu is a freshwater natural lake located in Ranga Reddy district of Telangana, near the city of Hyderabad.
· This lake is spread over 83 acres of land. · The lake is also known as Secret Lake because it is hidden between the localities of Jubilee Hills and Madhapur region. |
| Fox Sagar Lake | · Fox Sagar Lake is also known as Jeedimetla Cheruvu or Kolla Cheruvu.
· It is located in Jeedimetla near Kompally, Hyderabad. · It has the distinction of being the fifth largest lake in Telangana. · The lake is popular for fishing and local fishermen rear fish in the lake. |
| Palair Lake | · Palair Lake is an artificial lake located at Palair village in Kusumanchi mandal in the Khammam district of Telangana.
· The lake also functions as a balancing reservoir for the Lal Bahadur Canal, a left bank canal of the Nagarjuna Sagar project. · The lake is a significant attraction for travelers. |
| Shamirpet Lake | · Shamirpet Lake in Telangana is an artificial lake near Hyderabad.
· It was built during the rule of the Nizam. · The lake attracts many birds, making it a good bird watching spot. |
Lake Conservation
- Lakes contribute significant additional recharge to ground water due to infiltration, but however, urbanization has led to loss of water bodies, resulting in increased runoff.
- There is rapid depletion of ground water level, and the worst ground water scenario is being experienced by apartment complexes.
- An additional problem is the pollution due factors like, the washing of clothes in lakes, and indiscriminate dumping of debris.
- Polluted lakes not only impact the local weather conditions but also contribute to climate change indirectly
Important Data
- According to data from the Telangana State Pollution Control Board (TSPCB), as of February 2023, approximately 23 out of 185 lakes in the Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) limits have dried up, while the data from December 2022 reported seven dried-up lakes.
- Some of the lakes that have dried up include Thouthu Kunta in Khajaguda, ISB lake in Gachibowli, Khanamet lake, Edgavani Kunta in Gopanpally and Neerla Cheruvu in Kothaguda.Water samples analysed by the TSPCB clearly indicate alarmingly high levels of COD, BOD, nitrates and phosphates in the lake waters.
- Dissolved oxygen levels are virtually non-existent, and filamentous bacteria have been found in all collected water samples.
- This situation demands immediate action not only to restore the identified lakes but also to assess the condition of other lakes in their respective basins, experts said.
The Lake Protection Committee
- The Lake Protection Committee was constituted in order to cater to the protection of lakes in the Hyderabad Metropolitan Region.
- It is involved in the administration of the protection and improvement of lakes and their catchments. The Metropolitan Commissioner of HMDA coordinates all the activities of the Committee.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q1. Consider the following pairs:
Lake Famous For
Which of the above pairs is correctly matched?
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| Answer 1– C
Explanation
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Sculpture of Lord Nataraja in Needle eye
Source: The Hindu
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Art and Culture, Important personalities
Context: Warangal artist sculpts Lord Nataraja in needle eye.
Why in news
- Warangal-based international micro sculptor Ajay Kumar Mattewada has unveiled his latest creation, a miniature sculpture of Lord Nataraja, delicately crafted in the eye of a needle.
Key highlights:
- The miniature sculpture is a testament to Kumar’s extraordinary skill and precision.
- The work will be showcased at the 10th World Art Dubai-2024 exhibition.
- He dedicates the work to dance artists around the world to pay homage to the artistic spirit and cultural significance embodied by Lord Nataraja.
About the Nataraja Sculpture
- The miniature sculpture of Lord Nataraja measures a mere 700 microns (0.70 mm) in height and 550 microns (0.55 mm) in width.
- The materials used in a sculpture is plastic powder, nylon pieces, self-made soft wax, caterpillar hair for colouring and 24-carat gold to make this miniature wonder.
- The sculpture is visible only through a microscope.
- The sculpture boasts intricate details such as the jatajutam (hair) of Nataraja Swamy and a 90-micron sculpture of Apasmara (dwarf) beneath the deity’s feet.
- He employed an array of materials including plastic powder, nylon fragments, soft wax, caterpillar hair for colouring, and even 24-carat gold.
About Ajay Kumar Mattewada
- Ajay Kumar is a renowned micro sculptor from Warangal.
- Ajay claimed that he ranks as the third person globally to craft such intricate miniature art.
- Ajay was born in Warangal in 1973 into a family of goldsmiths. He shared that he started learning to design jewellery and sculpt micro arts from the age of 14 from his father.
- Ajay claimed that he ranks as the third person globally to craft such intricate miniature art.
- His creations have garnered praise from current and former prime ministers PV Narasimha Rao, Atal Bihari Vajpayee, and Narendra Modi, as well as chief ministers and numerous other public figures.
- He drews inspiration from renowned British micro-sculptor Willard Wigan.
About Nataraja Sculpture
- Shiva the Hindu god of destruction is also known as Nataraja, the Lord of Dancers (In Sanskrit Nata means dance and raja means Lord).
- The visual image of Nataraja achieved canonical form in the bronzes cast under the Chola dynasty in the tenth century AD.
Importance of Nataraja in art and culture
- The significance of the Nataraja (Nataraj) sculpture is said to be that Shiva is shown as the source of all movement within the cosmos, represented by the arch of flames.
- The purpose of the dance is to release men from the illusion of the idea of the “self” and of the physical world.
- The cosmic dance was performed in Chidambaram in South India, called the center of the universe by some Hindus.
- The gestures of the dance represent Shiva’s five activities,
- creation (symbolized by the drum),
- protection (by the “fear not” hand gesture),
- destruction (by the fire),
- embodiment (by the foot planted on the ground),
- release (by the foot held aloft).
- As Nataraja Shiva represents apocalypse and creation as he dances away the illusory world of Maya transforming it into power and enlightenment.
- The symbolism of Siva Nataraja is religion, art and science merged as one.
| CARE MCQ |
Q2. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1,2 and 3 |
| Answer 2– C
Explanation
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Forest fires in Uttarakhand
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Environment and Disaster Management)
Context: The fire that broke out in the forest near Nainital district headquarters took a horrific form, posing a threat to the residents of nearby houses.
Why in News
- Massive forest fires sweeping through the dense foliage in the mountains of Uttarakhand have gutted over 142 hectares of forest land in the State.
Key Highlights
- With a fire reaching the vicinity of an Air Force Station near the Nanda range, the Indian Air Force deployed a Mi-17 V5 helicopter to douse the flames using a ‘Bambi Bucket’.
What is a Bambi Bucket?
- Bambi Bucket is a specialised aerial firefighting tool which has been in use since the 1980s.
- It is essentially a lightweight collapsible container that releases water from underneath a helicopter to targeted areas.
- The water is released by using a pilot-controlled valve.
- Bambi Bucket is used in more than 115 countries around the world by more than 1,000 helicopter operators.
Important Features
- Bambi Buckets can be quickly and easily filled.
- The bucket can be filled from various sources, including lakes and swimming pools.
- This allows firefighters to swiftly refill it and return to the target area.
- Bambi Bucket is available in a variety of sizes and models, with capacities ranging from 270 litres to more than 9,840 litres.
Issues with old type of Buckets
- Old type of water buckets were generally made of “solid fibreglass, plastic, or canvas with metal frames”.
- These buckets were “too rigid to fit inside the aircraft” and had to be “trucked to fire sites or flown in on the hook of a helicopter thereby slowing the aircraft down.
- Another issue was that the water dropped from these containers used to get dispersed into a spray thereby reducing impact.
- Bambi Bucket does not have these limitations.
- It can be stored within the helicopter until development.
- It discharges a solid column of water, resulting in a more accurate and effective water dump, less evaporation on the descent, and greater impact force.
How was the Bambi Bucket invented?
- The Bambi Bucket was invented by Don Arney, a Canadian business, in 1982.
- In 2017, Arney was inducted into the Inventors Hall of Fame for the invention of the Bambi Bucket.
- Arney came up with the idea after he realised that the aerial firefighting water buckets in use at the time were not efficient and had a high failure rate.
Forest Fires
- Forest fires are uncontrolled fires occurring in nature, accidental disasters which pose a challenge to forest ecosystems globally.
- Three conditions must be present in order for any fire to exist: fuel, oxygen and a heat source. This is often referred to as the fire triangle.
- Three types of forest fires may occur — ground fire, surface fire and crown fire.
Causes of Forest Fires
- As per a 2019 report from the Forest Research Institute, which comes under the Environment Ministry of India, 95% of forest fires are caused by humans.
- Often, grazers set fire to dry grass in the hopes of encouraging the cultivation of new grass.
- Slash and burn and shifting cultivation also use fire.
- Unattended campfires, burning of waste, lit cigarette stubs as well as intentional lighting of fires with criminal intent are some other man-made causes.
- Natural causes included the rubbing of dry trees or bamboo, sparks set off by stones, or lightning.
Why Uttarakhand is prone to forest fires?
- States of northeast India, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand are the most fire-prone in India.
- There are four forest-fire clusters in India- the North-Western Himalayas, North-East India, Central Ghats, and Western and Eastern Ghats.
- Fires in the North-Western Himalayas are attributed to the preponderance of pine trees and the accumulation of thick flammable litter.
- In the summer, there is a large quantity of pine needles that gather on the forest floor, which is highly susceptible to fire.
- The occurrence of high fire intensity at the low altitude Himalayan hilly regions may also be due to the proximity to villages, in addition to the plant species (pine trees).
- Villages make forests susceptible to anthropogenic activities like forest cover clearance, grazing and so on.
- In normal conditions, healthy vegetation exhibits a very high reflectance in the near-infrared spectral region and considerably low reflectance in the shortwave infrared spectral region. These conditions get dismantled and reversed if a fire occurs.
- A sharp increase in average and maximum air temperature, decline in precipitation, and change in land-use patterns have caused increasing episodes of forest fires in most Asian countries.
- Of course, local community patterns are also responsible for instances of forest fire.
How can forest fires be tackled?
- Besides spreading awareness, there are certain measures that can be undertaken to reduce the incidence of forest fire.
- This includes the removal of biomass through controlled or prescribed burning. Limited and controlled forest burns have been shown to be useful in promoting healthy forest growth, getting rid of undergrowth, dead trees and litter.
- Further, once a patch of land is burned or cleared of dried biomass by a ground-fire, it is difficult for another fire to occur there.
- This process is usually done by taking 5.2-metre-wide fire-lines or fire-belts in forested areas to which people have access.
- Other preventive steps include engaging temporary fire watchers, desilting of water sources within the forest, and having fire safety equipment at hand. Increased surveillance of forests using drones has also proved useful.
- Lessons can also be learnt from other parts of India.
- A recent article in The Hindu highlighted how community participation helped with fighting forest fires in Kerala, a region far less prone to forest fire than the Lower Himalayan region.
Government Measures
- The government has taken measures, including a satellite-based fire alert system introduced by the Forest Survey of India.
- It makes it easy for staff to find out whether there are fires inside the forest.
- According to the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) website, two types of fire lines are in practice – Kachha or covered fire lines and Pucca or open fire lines.
- In Kaccha fire lines, the undergrowth and shrubs are removed while trees are retained to decrease the fuel load.
- The Pucca fire lines are clear felled areas separating a forest/compartment/block from another to control the spread of potential fires.
- Satellite based remote sensing technology and GIS tools have been effective in better prevention and management of fires through creation of early warning for fire prone areas, monitoring fires on a real time basis and estimation of burnt scars.
- Forest staff use methods like beating the fire with green, leafy boughs, and counter-fires. They also carry fire beaters and blowers.
- The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) lists the following methods to prevent and control a forest fire:
- construction of watch towers for early detection;
- deployment of fire watchers;
- involvement of local communities,
- the creation and maintenance of fire lines.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following Statements with respect to the Bambi Bucket System:
1. The Bambi Bucket is a proven, helicopter-borne integrated firefighting system. 2. It is a specialised aerial firefighting tool which was developed in 2023 by DRDO. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both D. None |
Q. With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration on Forests’’, which of the following statements are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2021)
1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014 2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests 3. It is a legally binding international declaration 4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities. 5. India was one of the signatories at its inception Select the correct answer using the code given below A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 1, 3 and 5 C. 3 and 4 D. 2 and 5 Ans: (A)
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| Answer 3- A
Explanation · Bambi Bucket is a specialized bucket suspended on a cable carried by a helicopter to deliver water for aerial firefighting. Hence, statement 1 is correct. · Bambi Bucket is a specialised aerial firefighting tool which has been in use since the 1980s. The Bambi Bucket was invented by Don Arney, a Canadian business, in 1982. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
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Release of Disaster Relief Funds to Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS2- Government Policies & Interventions, GS3- Disaster Management
Context: Centre releases disaster relief funds for Karnataka and Tamil Nadu states
Why in News
- For calamities such as Cyclone Michaung, floods and drought in 2023, the Union government has ordered the release of ₹3,730.32 crore towards “relief assistance for natural calamity” from the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF).
Background
- On March 23, the Karnataka government had moved the Supreme Court against the Union government seeking release of drought relief funds as the latter had failed to do so despite an inter-Ministerial team submitting its report five months ago.
- Similarly, the Tamil Nadu government moved the top court on April 3 seeking a direction to the Union government to release the funds.
- Tamil Nadu has filed a suit at the Supreme Court claiming that the Centre is withholding national disaster relief funds, after Cyclone Michaung and consequent floods rocked the state in December 2023.
- Karnataka has moved the Supreme Court for the release of drought relief under the National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF).
What is Natural Disaster?
- Disaster Management Act, 2005 defines a disaster as any significant event, whether natural or man-made, causing substantial loss of life, human suffering, property damage, or environmental degradation beyond the community’s coping capacity.
Disaster Management Act, 2005
- The Disaster Management Act, 2005 lays down a framework to mitigate, prepare for, respond to, and recover from any disaster or emergency situation in India.
- States receive assistance during natural disasters through various mechanisms established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
- The Act established the Disaster Management Authorities to work in conjunction with district-level authorities to form an integrated disaster management system in India.
- Disaster Management Act, 2005 (DMA) created two funds following the devastating tsunami of December 2004.
- The Funds are — the State Disaster Relief Fund (SDRF) and the National Disaster Relief Fund (NDRF).
National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
- NDMA is an apex Body of Government of India established through the Disaster Management Act 2005.
- It aims to lay down policies for disaster management.
- NDMA is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs)
- SDMA is responsible for the state-level action plan during a disaster.
- The chairperson of SDMA is the Chief Minister.
National Disaster Relief Fund
- National Calamity Contingency Fund (NCCF) was renamed as National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) with the enactment of the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
- The National Disaster Response Fund is defined in Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 (DM Act).
- It is managed by the Central Government to meet the expenses for emergency response, relief and rehabilitation due to any threatening disaster situation or disaster.
- It supplements the SDRF in case of a disaster of a severe nature, provided adequate funds are not available in the SDRF.
- In instances where a state lacks adequate funds in the SDRF and has experienced a national calamity beyond its coping capacity, it can request assistance from the NDRF.
- The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) or the Ministry of Agriculture will evaluate the situation and decide on the need for additional assistance from the NDRF.
State Disaster Relief Fund
- SDRF has been constituted under Section 48 (1) (a) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
- It was constituted based on the recommendations of the 13th Finance Commission.
- It is the primary fund available with the State governments for responses to notified disasters to meet expenditure for providing immediate relief.
- It is audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) every year.
- Contribution: The Centre contributes 75% of the SDRF allocation for general category States and Union Territories and 90% for special category States and Union Territories (Northeastern States, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir).
- Disaster Covered under SDRF: Cyclones, drought, earthquakes, fire, flood, tsunami, hailstorms, landslides, avalanches, cloudbursts, pest attacks, frost and cold waves.
- Local Disasters: A State Government may use up to 10% of the funds available under the SDRF for providing immediate relief to the victims of natural disasters.
- Such disasters should be considered to be ‘disasters’ within the local context in the State.
- Such disasters are not included in the notified list of disasters of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q 4. Consider the following statements with regards to State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF):
1. The State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) was constituted under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. 2. SDRF can be used for disaster prevention measures and development of infrastructure post disaster. 3. A State Government may use up to 50 percent of the funds available under the SDRF for providing local natural disasters. Which among the above statement/s is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. None
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Q. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct? (UPSC Prelims 2018)
A. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax. B. A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India. C. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India. D. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India. Ans- C
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| Answer 4– A
Explanation – · The State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF), constituted under Section 48 (1) (a) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, is the primary fund available with State Governments for responses to notified disasters. Hence, statement 1 is correct. · SDRF shall be used only for meeting the expenditure for providing immediate relief to the victims. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. · A State Government may use up to 10 percent of the funds available under the SDRF for providing immediate relief to the victims of natural disasters. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
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New Insurance Rules for Senior Citizens
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS2- (Government Policies & Interventions, Issues related to Elderly), GS 3 (Indian Economy, Insurance sector)
Context: The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (Insurance Products) Regulations, 2024, came into force on April 1.
Why in News
- The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has removed the age limit of 65 years for individuals purchasing health insurance policies in order to broaden the market and promote adequate protection against healthcare expenses.
New Health Insurance Policy Rules for senior citizen
- Even those above 65 years of age will now be able to buy health insurance easily, as the age gap on health insurance policy has been removed.
- IRDAI has directed health insurance companies to come up with special policies keeping senior citizens in mind and also to create a robust system for quick disposal of complaints related to their policies.
- The move will help senior citizens get cashless treatment easily in hospitals.
- IRDAI has also asked health insurance companies to come up with special health insurance policies pertaining to maternity and for students and children.
- Health insurance companies will no longer be able to refuse coverage to people suffering from pre-existing medical conditions like cancer, heart or kidney failure, AIDS etc.
- As premiums for a special policy can be higher than a normal policy, the policy holders will have the option to pay the premium in instalments.
- There will be no cap on the treatment of AYUSH i.e. Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, Homeopathy, and one can get coverage for the entire sum insured.
- IRDAI has also reduced the waiting period for new policy holders from 48 months to 36 months. Now all, pre-existing health conditions will be covered after 36 months – whether the policy holder has disclosed the disease at the time of taking the policy or not.
- Until now, insurance companies not just cancelled claims on non-disclosure, but also cancelled the entire policy. Now the moratorium period has been reduced from 8 years to 6 years.
- Moratorium period is the duration after which the insurer cannot deny the claim provided it is not a fraudulent claim.
- According to IRDAI, the rule has been implemented from April 1, 2024.
- As per the new norms, on completion of the waiting period, diseases/treatments will be covered provided the policy has been renewed without any break.
- The time-frame for defining pre-existing disease has also been set to three years in the new regulations.
- Pre-existing disease refers to any health condition, ailment, injury or disease diagnosed by a physician not more than three years prior to the commencement of the policy or for which medical advice or treatment was recommended or received from a physician not more than three years prior to the date of policy issue.
- AYUSH (Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy systems) treatment coverage is another aspect emphasised in the new norms.
- Mandating a Board approved policy for the insurers, the regulator wants insurance companies to treat AYUSH on par with other treatment options.
- The regulator has also advised insurers against denying renewal of a health insurance policy on the ground that the insured had made a claim or claims in the preceding policy years, except for benefit based policies where the policy terminates following payment of the benefit covered under the policy such as in the case of a critical illness policy.
Objectives of New Insurance Regulations
- To enable provisions for insurers to respond faster to emerging market needs, improve ease of doing business and enhance insurance penetration while ensuring protection of policyholders interests.
- To encourage insurers to conform to good governance while designing and pricing their products.
- To reduce the “specific waiting period” from four years to three years.
- From the time the policy is purchased, to get insurance cover for specified diseases/treatments (except due to an accident).
Changes relevant to senior citizens
- The April 1 notification attempts to broaden insurance coverage from a demographic perspective, broadly in line with IRDAI’s ‘Insurance for All by 2047’ goal.
- In contrast, the Health Insurance Regulations, 2016, on entry and exit age, stipulated that “all health insurance policies shall ordinarily provide for an entry age of at least up to 65 years”.
- In other words, under the previous regulations health insurers could not deny cover to those aged up to 65.
- This, however, does not mean that all insurers were hitherto averse to providing health cover to those aged above 65 years.
- The new regulations have also asked insurers to establish a separate channel to address health insurance related claims and grievances of senior citizens.
Response of Insurance Company
- Since it is more of a nudge from the IRDAI, many general insurers dealing in health insurance as well as stand-alone health insurers are likely to wait and watch, while some may start work on new products for those above 65.
- Industry officials expect health insurers to over time reformulate their products by resetting the maximum entry age to 99 years.
- There had been no explicit age restriction in the previous regulations either.
Significance of The Changes
- While measures to enhance access are indeed welcome, affordability or the ability to pay premiums is crucial for senior citizens in terms of opting for health insurance, especially at a time when they require the cover most.
- IRDAI, has in the new regulations said the “premium shall remain unchanged for the policy term.
- Insurers may offer facilities of premium payment in instalments, devise mechanisms or incentives to reward policyholders for early entry, continued renewals, favourable claims experience, preventive and wellness habits and disclose upfront such mechanism or incentives in the prospectus and the policy document”.
- In terms of buying health insurance, ‘earlier the better’, is something that those seeking cover should ideally keep in mind which is among the few companies that already provide health insurance to those above 65 at the time of entry.
- Buying a policy early provides comprehensive coverage, especially as the risk of ailments increases with age.
- Insured customers who develop ailments like cancer and cardiac conditions are covered without an increase in premium and with guaranteed policy renewal.
- Acknowledging the importance of affordability of the premium as being a key consideration for many customers, health insurance policies were increasingly becoming modular with varying features depending on the paying capacity of customers. Also, buying health cover young would mean less waiting period.
- The changes give plenty of latitude to insurers to develop products for various demographic segments. The ability to develop products with better features and affordability will ultimately, to a large extent, depend on factors like disease incidence and medical inflation.
About IRDAI
- The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is an autonomous and statutory body.
- It is responsible for managing and regulating insurance and re-insurance industry in India.
- IRDAI is a 10-member body- a chairman, five full-time members and four part-time members.
- It was constituted under an Act of Parliament in 1999 and the agency’s headquarters is in Hyderabad.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. Consider the following statements with regards to Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI):
1. IRDAI is an autonomous and Constitutional body. 2. IRDAI has removed the age limit of 65 years for purchasing health insurance policies. Which among the above statement/s is/are correct? A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both D. None |
Q. In India, which of the following reviews the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity etc.? (UPSC Prelims 2019)
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament. 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees 3. Finance Commission 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission 5. NITI Aayog Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 3 and 4 C. 3, 4 and 5 D. 2 and 5 Ans- A |
| Answer 5 B
Explanation · The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is an autonomous and statutory body. · It is a statutory body formed under an Act of Parliament, i.e., Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 (IRDAI Act 1999) for overall supervision and development of the Insurance sector in India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. · The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has removed the age limit of 65 years for individuals purchasing health insurance policies in order to broaden the market and promote adequate protection against healthcare expenses. Hence, statement 2 is correct. · Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
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When is a candidate elected unopposed?
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2- (Constitutional Bodies, Transparency & Accountability, Constitutional Amendments)
Context: Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with the procedure in uncontested elections.
Why in News
- The BJP’s Mukesh Dalal was elected unopposed from Surat Lok Sabha constituency without polling being held.
What is an Uncontested Election?
- An uncontested election is when a candidate is declared the winner without a single vote being cast.
- The Election Commission of India in its handbook for returning officers spells out how uncontested elections work.
- It states: “If in any constituency there is only one contesting candidate, declare that candidate to have been duly elected immediately after the last hour for withdrawal of candidature. In that event, a poll is not necessary.”
- This occurs when all other contesting candidates either drop out of the race or their candidacy is rejected.
Background
- Since Independence, this has happened on more than two dozen occasions.
- Indeed, in 1951, during the very first general elections, five candidates were elected unopposed.
- These included TA Ramalinga Chettiar of the Indian National Congress in Coimbatore, T Sangana from Orissa’s Rayagada Phulbani, the INC’s Anand Chand from Bilaspur, Major General HS Major Gen MS Himatsinhji from Saurashtra’s Halar, and Krishna Charya Joshi from Hyderabad’s Yadgir.
- Seven more candidates were elected unopposed to the Lok Sabha in 1951.
- The last time a person was elected unopposed to the Lok Sabha – not including bypolls – was Mohammad Shafi Bhat of the National Conference.
- Bhat won unopposed in Jammu and Kashmir’s Srinagar all the way back in 1989.
- Prior to that, Farooq Abdullah, also from the National Conference, was elected unopposed from Srinagar in 1980.
- When it comes to the bypolls, Dimple Yadav won unopposed from the Kannauj Lok Sabha seat in 2012, as per India Today.
Law with respect to Uncontested Elections
- Section 53 (3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with the procedure in uncontested elections.
- If the number of such candidates is less than the number of seats to be filled, the returning officer (RO) shall forthwith declare all such candidates to be elected.
- In this regard, the RO’s actions are governed by Section 33 of the Act which pertains to the presentation of nomination papers and requirements for a valid nomination.
- As per the Handbook for Returning Officers (Edition 2) issued by the Election Commission (EC) in 2023, in the chapter titled uncontested election,
- If in any constituency, there is only one contesting candidate, that candidate should be declared to have been duly elected immediately after the last hour for withdrawal of candidature. In that event, a poll is not necessary.”
- All those candidates, who are returned as uncontested and [who] have criminal antecedents, must publicise the details in the prescribed format as per timeline.”
Scope for negative voting in the Election System
- While the NOTA (none of the above) option has been in force since 2013, the Conduct of Election Rules, 1961, allows electors to decide not to vote through Rule 49-O.
- The option of NOTA, introduced through the Supreme Court’s intervention, has been available on electronic voting machines (EVMs) since November 2013.
- This became a reality in the wake of a verdict given by a Bench of the Supreme Court comprising Chief Justice P.
Difference between an elector exercising Rule 49-O and one using the NOTA option
- In the case of the former, the likelihood of such an elector compromising his or her secrecy is high, as there is a procedure to be followed manually at a polling booth.
- However, in the case of the latter, there is no such issue.
- According to the Handbook for ROs, the NOTA votes are not to be taken into account for calculating the total valid votes polled for the return of the security deposit.
- The EC’s stand has been that the person getting the largest number of votes in any constituency will still be declared the winner, regardless of the number of NOTA votes.
What are the Developments post NOTA?
- There have been instances wherein votes obtained by political parties were lower than the NOTA votes.
- But, a section of activists and constitutional experts has been critical, calling NOTA a “toothless tiger” with no implications on the results, despite the fact that NOTA was reported to have netted over 1.29 crore votes in the State Assembly elections and the Lok Sabha elections combined in the last five years.
- On April 26, the Supreme Court asked the poll panel to respond to a plea seeking fresh elections to constituencies where NOTA votes were in majority.
- The prayer of the petitioner-author Shiv Khera was that the court should direct the EC to frame rules, stating that candidates who polled fewer votes than NOTA should stand debarred from contesting elections for five years.
Representation of the People Act, 1951
- The Representation of the People Act, 1951 is an act of Parliament of India to provide for the conduct of election of the Houses of Parliament and to the House or Houses of the Legislature of each State.
- The Representation of People’s Act, 1951 was framed by the Parliament for the effective election process.
- The Act was enacted before the first general election under Article 327 of the Constitution by the provisional Parliament.
- The provisions included in the Representation of People’s Act, of 1951 are:
- It regulates how elections and by-elections are held.
- It provides the administrative infrastructure for holding elections.
- It includes laws to combat corruption and other crimes.
- Qualification of Member of Parliament and Member of Legislative Assembly.
- Disqualification of Member of Parliament and Member of Legislative Assembly.
- It lays out the method for resolving election-related concerns and controversies.
- Registration of Political Parties
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Consider the following statements:
1. An uncontested election is when a candidate is declared the winner without a single vote being cast. 2. There is no law that deals with the procedure in uncontested elections. 3. If the number of candidates is less than the number of seats to be filled, the Election Commissioner shall declare all such candidates to be elected. 4. Since Independence, there is no instance of candidate winning uncontested election in India. Which among the above statements is incorrect? A. 1 and 2 Only B. 2 and 3 Only C. 2, 3 and 4 Only D. None of the above
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Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2021)
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. 2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. 3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 3 Answer – (B) |
| Answer 6 C
Explanation · An uncontested election is an election in which the number of candidates is the same as or fewer than the number of places available for election, so that all candidates are guaranteed to be elected. Hence, statement 1 is correct. · Section 53 (3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with the procedure in uncontested elections. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. · If the number of such candidates is less than the number of seats to be filled, the returning officer (RO) (NOT Election Commissioner) shall forthwith declare all such candidates to be elected. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. · Since Independence, this has happened on more than two dozen occasions. Seven more candidates were elected unopposed to the Lok Sabha in 1951. Hence, statement 4 is not correct. · Therefore, option C is the correct answer. |
Oldest remnants of Earth’s early magnetic field in Greenland
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 1 (World Physical Geography)
Context: Study finds ‘oldest evidence’ of Earth’s magnetic field in rocks from Greenland
Why in news
- Geologists at MIT and Oxford University have found ancient rocks in Greenland that bear the oldest remnants of Earth’s early magnetic field.
Key Findings of Study
- Scientists found these rocks to be about 3.7 billion years old, and the strength of the magnetic field to be at least 15 microtesla.
- This was comparable to the strength of Earth’s magnetic field.
- The fact that it’s similar in strength as today’s field implies whatever is driving Earth’s magnetic field has not changed massively in power over billions of years.
- The team explained that iron particles in these rocks effectively act as “tiny magnets” that can detect and record the Earth’s magnetic field.
- The rocks were uncovered from the Isua Supracrustal Belt in Greenland.
- Previously estimated to be at least 3.5 billion years old, the lifetime of the planet’s magnetic field may now extend by another 200 million years.
- The Earth’s magnetic field is powered by its molten iron core, slowly churning up electric currents in a self-generating “dynamo”, and extending out and around the planet like a “protective bubble”.
Significance of the Study
- If the Earth’s magnetic field was around a few hundred million years earlier, it could have played a critical role in making the planet habitable.
- The magnetic field is one of the reasons we think Earth is really unique as a habitable planet.
- It’s thought our magnetic field protects us from harmful radiation from space and also helps us to have oceans and atmospheres that can be stable for long periods of time.
Earth Magnetic Field
- Earth’s magnetic field is also known as the geomagnetic field.
- It is generated in our planet’s interior and extends out into space, creating a region known as the magnetosphere.
- The Earth’s magnetic field is generated in the fluid outer core by a self-exciting dynamo process.
- Electrical currents flowing in the slowly moving molten iron generate the magnetic field.
- In addition to sources in the Earth’s core the magnetic field observable at the Earth’s surface has sources in the crust and in the ionosphere and magnetosphere.
- The geomagnetic field varies on a range of scales and a description of these variations is now made, in the order low frequency to high frequency variations, in both the space and time domains.
Causes of Earth’s Magnetic field
- Earth’s magnetic field is generated by what is known as the geodynamo process.
- For a planet to generate its own magnetic field by the geodynamo process, it must have the following characteristics:
- The planet rotates fast enough
- Its interior must have a fluid medium
- The interior fluid must have the ability to conduct electricity
- The core must have an internal source of energy that propels convection currents in the liquid interior.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q 7. Recently ‘geodynamo process’ was in news with respect to which of the following concepts:
A) Big Bang Theory B) Earth’s Magnetic Field C) Lithium Mining D) None of above |
Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2018)
1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years. 2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide. 3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: C |
| Answer 7 B
Explanation · The magnetic field of the Earth does not originate from a permanent magnet, because the temperature inside the Earth is too high. · It is caused by electric currents which are generated in the same way as with a self-excited dynamo: by the movement of an electrical conductor in a magnetic field. · This ‘geodynamo’ is driven by the thermal convection of the liquid iron inside the Earth. · The geodynamo process proposes a mechanism by which a celestial body such as Earth or a star generates a magnetic field. · Therefore, option B is the correct answer. |
India-Oman Trade Deal
Source: Business Standard
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 (International Relations– Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests.)
Context: India set to sign trade deal with Oman to expand its West Asia ties
Why in news
- India and Oman will sign a trade deal in the coming months as New Delhi seeks to expand its ties in the Middle East, where rising tensions are putting major shipping routes at risk.
India-Oman Trade Deal
- India and Oman have annual trade of less than $13 billion.
- Oman has agreed to eliminate duties on Indian exports worth an annual $3 billion including agricultural products, gems and jewellery, leather, automobiles, medical devices, engineering products and textiles.
- India has agreed to reduce duties on some petrochemicals, aluminium and copper from Oman, while capping imports of such goods.
Significance of India-Oman Trade Deal
- India-Oman relationship is important for New Delhi as the Gulf nation is a gateway to the narrow Strait of Hormuz between Oman and Iran, a major transit point for global oil shipments.
- It will help India with a strategic partner and access to key trade routes in a volatile region.
- The planned deal with Oman “also gives a competitive edge as Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is negotiating trade agreements with Pakistan and China.
Geopolitical tensions in Middle East
- Israel’s war against Hamas in Gaza has spread to hostilities with Iran.
- Yemen’s Iran-aligned Houthi militants have launched repeated drone and missile strikes in the Red Sea area, claiming solidarity with the Palestinians in Gaza.
- This has impeded global shipping and forced vessels to avoid the Red Sea route and use a longer route through Africa to reach their destinations.
- Yemen’s Houthi rebels reportedly targeted the Andromeda Star oil tanker in the Red Sea. The Andromeda Star, engaged in trade linked to Russia, was en route from Primorsk, Russia, to Vadinar, India, when it came under attack.
- Significantly, this incident adds to a string of strikes by Iran-aligned Houthi militants in the Red Sea, Bab al-Mandab Strait, and Gulf of Aden since November.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q8. Which of the following countries are part of Middle East?
1. Iran 2. Kuwait 3. Lebanon 4. Oman Which among the following option/s are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2, 3 and 4 only C) 1, 3 and 4 only D) All of the above |
Q. Which of the following is not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation Council’? (UPSC Prelims 2016)
A. Iran B. Saudi Arabia C. Oman D. Kuwait Ans: (A)
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| Answer 8– D
Explanation · The Middle East is a geopolitical region encompassing the Arabian Peninsula, the Levant, Turkey, Egypt, Iran, and Iraq. · The Middle East is a geographical and cultural region located primarily in western Asia, but also in parts of northern Africa and southeastern Europe. · The western border of the Middle East is defined by the Mediterranean Sea, where Israel, Lebanon, and Syria rest opposite from Greece and Italy in Europe. · The countries which are part of Middle East are: o Bahrain o Iran o Iraq o Israel and Occupied Palestinian Territories o Jordan o Kuwait o Lebanon o Oman o Qatar o Saudi Arabia o Syria o United Arab Emirates o Yemen · Therefore, correct answer is option D.
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