Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (26-04-2024)
News at a Glance
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Telangana: Yellow alert for parts of Telangana |
Economy: Inheritance Tax in India |
Welfare Schemes: The reality of the Swachh Bharat Mission |
Polity and Governance: Article 244(A) of the Constitution |
Science and Technology: Phi-3-mini- Smallest AI Model |
Geography: Lithium Reserves and India |
Yellow alert for parts of Telangana
Source: The Hindu
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Disaster Management, Crisis management
Context: IMD issues yellow alert for parts of Telangana, as Hyderabad records 40.8 degree Celsius
Why in news
- Hyderabad breached the 40.8-degree Celsius mark on Thursday recording the season’s highest temperature in Telangana’s capital.
- The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) centre, Hyderabad, has issued yellow and orange heatwave alerts in certain parts of the State for the coming four days.
Key highlights:
- As per a daily bulletin released by the IMD, a yellow alert has been issued in isolated pockets of Kumaram Bheem Asifabad, Mancherial, Nizamabad, Karimnagar, Peddapalli, Jayashankar Bhupalapally, Mulugu, Bhadradri Kothagudem, Khammam, Nalgonda, Suryapet, Mahabubnagar, Nagarkurnool, Wanaparthy, Narayanpet and Jogulamba Gadwal districts of Telangana.
- As for Hyderabad and its neighbourhood areas, for the next 48 hours, the maximum temperature is likely to be around 41 degree Celsius.
India Meteorological Department
- India Meteorological Department was established in 1875.
- It is the National Meteorological Service of the country and the principal government agency in all matters relating to meteorology and allied subjects.
- The India Meteorological Department (IMD) is an agency of the Ministry of Earth Sciences of the Government of India.
- It is the principal agency responsible for meteorological observations, weather forecasting and seismology.
- IMD is headquartered in Delhi and operates hundreds of observation stations across India and Antarctica.
- Regional offices are at Chennai, Mumbai, Kolkata, Nagpur, Guwahati and New Delhi.
India Meteorological Department
- The India Meteorological Department (IMD) often issues colour-coded alerts to keep people informed of upcoming weather events and their severity.
- Green alert (No Warning): A green warning signifies that although a weather warning may occur, no advisory needs to be issued.
- Yellow alert (Be updated): A yellow alert basically means that the current bad weather will get worse.
- Orange alert (Be prepared): An orange alert is issued in case of extremely bad weather. It affects the transport facilities including rail, road and air.
- Red Alert (Take action): A red alert is issued when rainfall totals exceed 204.5 mm in a 24-hour period and when an extremely bad weather condition is expected to disrupt transport and power supply, which might also pose a risk to life.
CARE MCQ |
Q1. Consider the following pairs:
Alert Warning 1. Green alert : No Warning 2. Yellow alert : Be updated 3. Orange alert : Be prepared 4. Red Alert : Take Action Which of the above pairs is not correctly matched? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 3 and 4 only |
Answer 1– C
Explanation · Green (All is well): No advisory is issued. A green warning signifies that although a weather warning may occur. Hence pair 1 is correct. · Yellow (Be Aware): Yellow indicates severely bad weather spanning across several days. It also suggests that the weather could change for the worse, causing disruption in day-to-day activities. Hence pair 2 is correct. · Orange/Amber (Be prepared): The orange alert is issued as a warning of extremely bad weather with the potential of disruption in commute with road and rail closures, and interruption of power supply. Hence pair 3 is correct. · Red (Take Action): When the extremely bad weather conditions are certainly going to disrupt travel and power and have significant risk to life, the red alert is issued. ·Hence pair 4 is correct.
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Inheritance Tax in India
Source: The Hindu
https://www.thehindu.com/elections/lok-sabha/inheritance-tax-in-india-history-abolishment-and-revival-attempts/article68105333.ece
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Economy- Government Budgeting)
Context: Inheritance tax has become an important topic of discussion in the recent Lok Sabha campaign.
Why in News
A debate has arisen in India over ‘Inheritance tax’ following Indian Overseas Congress chairman advocated for a tax policy on inherited family wealth. Responding to this, Prime Minister of India alleged that Congress would impose such a tax on inherited wealth if voted to power.
What is Inheritance Tax?
- Inheritance tax is a sort of tax placed on an individual’s income derived from his or her ancestral property.
- When an individual dies, his legal heirs – children, grandchildren, or wards – inherit his property.
Background: Estate Duty
- The Estate Duty ‘Death Tax’ Act was approved by India’s Parliament in 1953. But it was later repealed by the Rajiv Gandhi government in 1985.
- The Act levied a tax/duty on the principal value of movable and immovable property, including agricultural land, passed on to any person after the death of the owner.
- The tax/duty was charged on the principal value of movable and immovable property, including agricultural land, transferred to any person following the death of the property’s owner.
- The Act was only applicable if the property owner died as an adult (i.e., over the age of 18).
- The Act was revised in 1960 to exclude assets in Odisha, West Bengal, and Jammu and Kashmir. It was amended again in 1968, 1982, and 1984 to incorporate changes made by other Finance laws.
- The then-Finance Minister V.P. Singh abolished it in 1985 because the revenue earned for the Centre from such levies was far less than the administrative costs associated with its implementation.
Global Scenario:
- Most European, American and even African nations levy inheritance tax.
- In Europe, the top nations levying tax on inherited properties are — France (60%), Germany (50%), United Kingdom (40%), Spain (33%) and Hungary (18%).
- Other countries with high inheritance taxes are Japan (55%), South Korea (50%), Ecuador (37%), Chile (25%), South Africa (25%) and Taiwan (20%)
Other Similar taxes in India:
- Gift Tax:
- The ‘Gift Tax’ Act was passed in 1958.
- It allowed imposition of duty on any ‘gift’ made by one person to another in that financial year.
- A gift was defined as any existing movable or immovable property transferred by one person to another voluntarily, without considering its value in terms of money, after April 1, 1957.
- All taxable gifts were imposed with a duty of 30%.
- The government sought to lost tax money when a high-income tax donor moved property to a donee in the lower income tax group. As a result, the government abolished this tax in 1998.
- However, in 2004, gift tax was reinstated in the Finance Act as part of amendments to the Income Tax Act.
- Taxes apply to cash and immovable property gifts exceeding ₹50,000 in value. Exceptions include donations, inheritances, and wedding gifts.
- Wealth Tax:
- The wealth tax was enacted in 1957 to levy a tax on an individual’s net assets. The government imposed a 1% charge on earnings above ₹30 lakh for citizens in that fiscal year.
- The tax was levied on all assets owned by Indian citizens as well as non-residential Indians (NRIs).
- This regime covered gold, silver, and platinum decorations, private aeroplanes, ships, and cars, property other than a residential dwelling, and cash over ₹50,000.
- The law provided exemptions for rental homes, company property, smaller properties below the stipulated limit, and investments in schemes.
- This tax was also repealed in 2015 due to high execution expenses.
Impact on Indian Economy:
- The implementation of an inheritance tax may appeal to those who advocate for its use to reduce wealth inequality and prevent wealth concentration.
- A tax like this would also help pay the government’s social and economic programmes, as well as construct a strong social security structure.
- The government could increase national well-being by directing tax revenues towards public services and development projects.
- The tax could instil a sense of social duty in the wealthy, encouraging a culture of mutual prosperity.
- While potentially beneficial for the government, the tax may burden families, compelling heirs to sell inherited assets to satisfy tax liabilities.
- Careful planning, in addition to regulations addressing benami transactions, is required to guarantee that inheritance law is applied fairly.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q2. Consider the following Statements:
Statement 1: The Estate Duty Tax was abolished in 1985 by the Rajiv Gandhi government. Statement 2: In 1985, Estate Duty Tax was abolished due to its ineffectiveness in reducing economic inequality and its minimal contribution to government revenue. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. Both statements -1 and statement – 2 are true and statement – 2 is the correct explanation of statement – 1 B. Both statements -1 and statement – 2 are true but statement – 2 is not the correct explanation of statement – 1 C. Statement -1 is true and statement – 2 is incorrect D. Statement -1 is false and statement – 2 is true |
Q. Consider the following items: (UPSC Prelims 2018)
1. Cereal grains hulled 2. Chicken eggs cooked 3. Fish processed and canned 4. Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)? (A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans- C |
Answer 2- A
Explanation · Estate duty was a form of tax which was levied on the total value of the property held by an individual calculated at the time of his / her demise. This estate typically includes everything from property and investments to personal belongings and debts. · In 1953, the Estate Duty Act introduced the inheritance tax to mitigate economic inequality. However, the tax faced public Opposition due to its steep rates. Thus, the tax was later abolished in 1985 by the Rajiv Gandhi government. Hence, statement 1 is correct. · In 1985, the then Finance Minister V.P. Singh abolished it as the income generated for the Centre via such taxes was much less than the cost incurred due to the administrative process in executing it. Hence, statement 2 is correct and it is correct explanation of Statement 1.
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The reality of the Swachh Bharat Mission
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS 2 (Governance, Transparency & Accountability)
Context: A Swachh Bharat Mission scheme fully owned by the state has become a toolkit for privatisation of public health services and continues caste discrimination.
Why in News
- India was ranked right at the bottom of 180 countries in the Environment Performance Index (EPI) in 2022.
- The EPI measures 40 performance indicators across 11 issue categories, such as air quality, and drinking water and sanitation.
Background
- The Central government has embarked on much-hyped campaigns of development such as the Swachh Bharat Mission, the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation, the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana, and the National Clean Air Programme.
- However, there is evidence of an increase in population vulnerability as a result of air and water pollution.
About Swachh Bharat Mission:
- The Swachh Bharat Mission is a major popular movement aimed at creating a clean India by 2019.
- Mahatma Gandhi, the founder of our nation, consistently emphasises Swachhta because it leads to a healthy and prosperous life.
- Keeping this in mind, the Indian government decided to launch the Swachh Bharat Mission on October 2, 2014.
- The mission will span both rural and urban areas.
- The Ministry of Urban Development will carry out the mission’s urban component, while the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation will handle the rural component.
- Swachh Bharat Mission – Urban (SBM-U):
- The Swachh Bharat Mission – Urban (SBM-U) was launched on 2nd October 2014.
- First Phase: The first phase of SBM-U aims at making urban India free from open defecation and achieving 100% scientific management of municipal solid waste in 4,041 statutory towns in the country.
- Second Phase: The second phase of SBM-U was launched on 1st October 2021, for a period of 5 years. The vision for SBM-U 2.0 is to achieve “Garbage Free” status for all cities by 2026.
- The objectives of the mission are mentioned below:
- All households and premises segregate their waste into
- “wet waste” (from kitchen and gardens)
- “dry waste” (including paper, glass, plastic, and domestic hazardous waste and sanitary waste wrapped separately).
- 100% door to door collection of segregated waste from each household/ premise.
- 100% scientific management of all fractions of waste, including safe disposal in scientific landfills.
- All legacy dumpsites remediated and converted into green zone.
- All households and premises segregate their waste into
- The Mission has the following components:
- Household toilets, including conversion of insanitary latrines into pour-flush latrines;
- Community toilets
- Public toilets
- Solid waste management
- IEC & Public Awareness
- Capacity building and Administrative & Office Expenses (A&OE)
- The Mission Outcomes, which are expected to be achieved by the end of the Mission tenure include:
- All statutory towns are certified at least 3-star Garbage Free, or higher
- All statutory towns become at least ODF+
- All statutory towns with less than 1 lakh population become at least ODF++
- At least 50% of all statutory towns with less than 1 lakh population become Water+.
Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin):
- The Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan has been transformed into the Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin).
- The SBM(G) was established on October 2, 2014, with the goal of ensuring cleanliness in India and eliminating open defecation (ODF) within five years.
- Phase I: It aims to increase cleanliness in rural regions by conducting Solid and Liquid Waste Management operations and keeping Gramme Panchayats Open Defecation Free (ODF), clean, and sanitised.
- Phase II: The SBM(G) Phase-II was approved in February 2020, with an emphasis on ODF sustainability and Solid and Liquid Waste Management (SLWM). SBM(G) Phase-II aims to create a new finance model that integrates multiple Central and State Government schemes. The programme will run in mission mode from 2020-21 to 2024-25.
- The main objectives of the SBM(G) are: –
- Bring about an improvement in the general quality of life in the rural areas by promoting cleanliness, hygiene and eliminating open defecation.
- Accelerate sanitation coverage in rural areas to achieve the vision of Swachh Bharat by 2nd October 2019
- Motivate Communities and Panchayat Raj Institutions to adopt sustainable sanitation practices and facilities through awareness creation and health education.
- Develop where required, Community managed sanitation systems focusing on scientific Solid Liquid Waste Management systems for overall cleanliness in the rural areas.
- Encourage cost effective and appropriate technologies for ecologically safe and sustainable sanitation.
Benefits of Swachh Bharat Mission
- The government says that the Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin) increased toilet coverage in rural India from 39% to more than 95% of households between 2014 and mid-2019.
- One of the most significant achievements of the Swachh Barat Mission was to effect social and behavioural change in society through various nationwide campaigns in traditional and social media.
Issues with Swachh Bharat Mission:
- The Union government asserts that India is rid of open defecation, however the reality differs.
- A study issued by the Comptroller and Auditor General in 2020 highlighted the low quality of toilet building under this project.
- Wealthier states demonstrated mixed performance and smaller gains in using toilets than economically disadvantaged states, emphasising the necessity for specialised tactics in varied socioeconomic circumstances.
- This issue of open defecation is especially concerning and serious because official statistics show that youngsters under the age of 15 practise open defecation more frequently than older age groups.
- Other difficulties, such as poor faecal sludge management, ineffective toilet technologies, and a lack of human resources, continue to jeopardise rural sanitation coverage.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. The first phase of SBM-U focused on achieving the target of providing access to toilets and promoting behavioural change. 2. The first phase of SBM-U aimed to go beyond ODF to ODF+, and ODF++, and focus on making urban India garbage-free. 3. SBM-U 2.0 was successful in achieving the target and 100% of urban India was declared ODF. Which among the following statement/s is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. None
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Q. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct? (UPSC Prelims 2019)
A. Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories. B. The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only C. The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities. D. It is mandatory on the part of the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
Answer: C
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Answer 3– A
Explanation –
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Article 244(A) of the Constitution
Source: The Indian Express
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/article-244a-diphu-assam-9288844/
UPSC Relevance: GS 2 Indian Constitution—historical underpinnings, evolution, features, amendments, significant provisions and basic structure.
Context: Diphu is located in Assam and it has a demand for autonomy from very long time.
Why in News
In Assam’s tribal-majority Diphu Lok Sabha constituency, candidates of all parties have promised the implementation of Article 244(A) of the Constitution to create an autonomous ‘state within a state’.
What is Article 244(A) of the Constitution?
- Article 244(A) was inserted by The Constitution (Twenty-second Amendment) Act, 1969.
- It provides for the establishment of an ‘autonomous state’ within Assam in some tribal areas.
- This region could include some tribal areas, such as Karbi Anglong.
- This autonomous state would have its own Legislature or Council of Ministers or both.
Difference with respect to Sixth Schedule:
- The provision of ‘Autonomous State’ goes a step further than the provisions under the Sixth Schedule.
- The autonomous councils under the Sixth Schedule have elected representatives for more decentralised governance of these tribal areas.
- But they have limited legislative powers, do not have control over law and order, and have only limited financial powers.
Where is Diphu?
- Diphu is the most sparsely populated of Assam’s 14 Lok Sabha constituencies.
- It is reserved for Scheduled Tribes (STs), and covers six legislative Assembly segments in three tribal-majority hill districts of Assam:
- Karbi Anglong,
- West Karbi Anglong,
- Dima Hasao.
- These three districts are administered under the provisions of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.
- It describes the “Provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram”.
Social profile of Diphu for Lok Sabha constituency
- The areas of Diphu come under two autonomous councils: the Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council (KAAC) and the North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council.
- Voters at the seat belong to various communities:
- Karbi, the third largest tribe in the state,
- Dimasa, Hmar, Kuki, Rengma Naga, Zeme Naga, Bodo,
- Garo, Assamese, Bengali, Bihari, Gorkha, etc.
- However, the seat has been represented by members of the Karbi community since 1977.
How did the demand for autonomy start?
- The demand for autonomy is as old as the 1950s movement in the hill areas of undivided Assam.
- This movement resulted in the creation of the full-fledged state of Meghalaya in 1972.
- However, because of the promise extended through Article 244(A), the leaders of the Karbi Anglong region opted to remain with Assam.
- The Autonomous State Demand Committee (ASDC) — which was set up as a mass organisation to press for the region’s autonomy, and which continues to operate today.
- However, over the years, as autonomy for the region remained elusive, the demand for implementation of Article 244(A) also took the form of an armed insurgency.
- In 2021, a peace settlement was reached with five militant groups in Karbi Anglong under which greater autonomy and a special development package of Rs 1,000 crore over five years were promised.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 244(A) allows for creation of an ‘autonomous state’ within Assam in certain tribal areas. 2. Sixth Schedule allows establishment of the autonomous councils for decentralised administration of tribal areas. 3. Karbi Anglong, West Karbi Anglong, and Dima Hasao districts of Assam are administered under the provisions of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution. Which among the following statement/s is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. None |
Q. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to (UPSC Prelims 2015)
A. Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes B. Determine the boundaries between States C. Determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats D. Protect the interests of all the border States
Answer A |
Answer 4 B
Explanation · Article 244(A) enabled Parliament to pass an Act to form within the State of Assam an autonomous State comprising (whether wholly or in part) all or any of tribal area. It was inserted by The Constitution (Twenty-second Amendment) Act, 1969. Hence, statement 1 is correct. · The autonomous councils under the Sixth Schedule have elected representatives for more decentralised governance of these tribal areas, but they have limited legislative powers, do not have control over law and order, and have only limited financial powers. Hence Statement 2 is correct. · The three tribal-majority hill districts of Assam: Karbi Anglong, West Karbi Anglong, and Dima Hasao. These three districts are administered under the provisions of the Sixth Schedule (NOT Fifth Schedule) of the Constitution, which describes the “Provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram”. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. · Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
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Phi-3-mini- Smallest AI Model
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Science and Technology- Developments and their Applications and Effects in Everyday Life)
Context: Microsoft recently unveiled the latest version of its ‘lightweight’ AI model – the Phi-3-Mini.
Why in News
Microsoft claims that Phi-3-Mini is the latest small language models. It has outperformed several AI models of its size, as well as bigger ones. India’s ITC also leveraged the new Phi-3-mini.
What is Phi-3-mini?
- Phi-3-mini is a 3.8B language model.
- It is available on AI development platforms such as Microsoft Azure AI Studio, Hugging Face, and Ollama.
- It is the first among the three small models that Microsoft is planning to release.
- It is the first to support a context window of up to 128K tokens, with little impact on quality.
Variants of Phi-3-mini:
- Phi-3-mini is available in two variants, one with 4K content-length, and another with 128K tokens.
- Phi-3-small (7B) and Phi-3-Medium will be available in the Azure AI model catalogue and other model libraries shortly.
Features of Phi-3-mini:
- Phi-3-mini is instruction-tuned, which means that it is trained to follow the different types of instructions given by users.
- This also means that the model is ‘ready to use out-of-the-box’.
- Phi-3-mini demonstrates strong reasoning and logic capabilities.
- The Phi-3 belongs to a family of open AI models that are the most capable and cost-effective small language models (SLMs) available.
- It has reportedly outperformed models of the same size and the next size up across a variety of benchmarks, in areas like language, reasoning, coding, and maths.
- The Phi-3-mini model expands the selection of high-quality language models available to customers, offering more practical choices as they build generative AI applications.
What are Large Language Models?
- A language model is a type of machine learning model trained to conduct a probability distribution over words.
- Language models are the backbone of AI applications like ChatGPT, Claude, Gemini, etc.
- These models are trained on existing data to solve common language problems such as text classification, answering questions, text generation, document summarisation, etc.
Small Language Models (SLMs):
- Small Language Models (SLMs) are a type of neural network designed to process and generate human-like text.
- SLMS are optimized for smaller size and faster training times, making them more accessible and scalable.
Large Language Models (LLMs):
- Large language models are AI systems capable of understanding and generating human language by processing vast amounts of text data.
- The ‘Large’ in LLMs has two meanings — the enormous size of training data; and the parameter count.
- They define the skill of the model in solving a specific problem.
- The amount of conversation that an AI can read and write at any given time is called the context window, and is measured in something called tokens.
How is Phi-3-mini different from LLMs?
- Phi-3-mini is a small language model (SLMs).
- SLMs are more streamlined versions of large language models.
- When compared to LLMs, smaller AI models are also cost-effective to develop and operate, and they perform better on smaller devices like laptops and smartphones.
- SLMs are great for “resource-constrained environments including on-device and offline inference scenarios.”
- SLMs is good for scenarios where fast response times are critical, say for chabots or virtual assistants.
- They are ideal for cost-constrained use cases, particularly with simpler tasks.
Benefits of employing an SLM for developing AI applications
- Phi-3-mini is a small language model (SLMs).
- While LLMs are trained on massive general data, SLMs stand out with their specialization. Through fine-tuning, SLMs can be customized for specific tasks and achieve accuracy and efficiency in doing them.
- Most SLMs undergo targeted training, demanding considerably less computing power and energy compared to LLMs.
- SLMs also differ when it comes to inference speed and latency.
- Their compact size allows for quicker processing.
- Their cost makes them appealing to smaller organisations and research groups.
Phi-2 and Phi-3 models
- Phi-2 was introduced in December 2023 and reportedly equaled models like Meta’s Llama 2.
- Microsoft claims that the Phi-3-mini is better than its predecessors and can respond like a model that is 10 times bigger than it.
- Phi-3 models significantly outperformed several models of the same size or even larger ones, including Gemma 7B and Mistral 7B, in key areas.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q5. Which of the following are the examples of
Large Language Models? 1. BERT 2. Llama 3. Phi-3-mini 4. Gemma Which among the following option is correct? A. 1, 2 Only B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. All of the above
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Q. Consider the following: (UPSC Prelims 2022)
1. Aarogya Setu 2. CoWIN 3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2,3 and 4 only C. 1,3 and 4 only D. 1, 2 , 3 and 4 Answer: D
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Answer 5 C
Explanation · Large language models (LLMs) represent a cutting-edge class of artificial intelligence systems capable of comprehending and producing human-like text through the analysis of extensive datasets. Examples of LLMs are BERT, Llama, Gemma, ChatGPT etc. o BERT (Bidirectional Encoder Representations from Transformers) is a language representation model developed by Google. Hence, statement 1 is correct. o Llama (Large Language Model Meta AI) is a family of autoregressive large language models (LLMs), released by Meta AI. Hence, statement 2 is correct. o Gemma stands as Google’s newest lineup of four Large Language Models (LLMs). It helps support low-latency generative AI use cases such as streaming text. Hence, statement 4 is correct. · Small Language Models (SLMs) are a type of neural network designed to process and generate human-like text. Phi-3-mini is a small language model (SLMs). Hence, statement 3 is not correct. · Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer. |
Lithium Reserves and India
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3 (Economy- Effects of liberalization on the economy, changes in industrial policy and their effects on industrial growth)
Context: India’s Ministry of Mines began discussions with Australia and the United States last year, said the four sources, two from India’s government and two industry participants.
Why in news
India’s Ministry of Mines began discussions with Australia and the United States last year. The Indian government and some private companies have also sought help from Bolivia, Britain, Japan, and South Korea.
What is Lithium?
- Lithium is a soft, silvery-white, metal.
- It belongs to alkali metals group, of the periodic table of the elements.
- This metal is the lightest and the least dense of all metals.
- Being the third element in the periodic table after gases hydrogen and helium, the alkali metal lithium is highly reactive.
What is the Lithium Triangle?
- The Lithium Triangle is a region of the Andes that is rich in lithium reserves, encompassed by the borders of Argentina, Bolivia, and Chile.
Significance of Lithium
- Lithium-ion batteries are used in wind turbines, solar panels, and electric vehicles, all of which are crucial in a green economy.
- Multiple countries have ramped up efforts to find reserves of lithium, sometimes dubbed ‘white gold’.
- Besides being used in batteries to power smartphones, laptops and other gadgets, lithium is an essential component in the rechargeable batteries that run electric vehicles (EVs) and in storage batteries for energy from renewable sources.
Lithium and Indian Market
- India’s market is projected to register a CAGR of 23.76% by 2028. India is seeking to secure its critical mineral supplies and build self-sufficiency in this sector.
- As India currently imports all of its Li from Australia and Argentina and 70% of its Li-ion cell requirement from China and Hong Kong.
- India aims to establish itself as a viable source of lithium-ion batteries, competing with China.
- India has also set a target of 30% sales penetration of EVs in private cars and 80% in two- and three-wheelers by 2030.
- lithium is an essential part of virtually all electric vehicle batteries and those used in consumer electronics.
Lithium deposits and mining laws in India
- India is argued to become the sixth-largest holder of lithium resources worldwide, ahead of China.
- China is the largest importer of raw lithium and producer of lithium-ion batteries.
- Australia is currently the leading producer of lithium.
- The Indian Parliament passed a law on 2 August 2023 permitting the government to auction and mine newly discovered lithium reserves and other minerals. This will increase the mining of the crucial raw material used in EV batteries.
- The law has removed lithium and other minerals from the list of atomic minerals, which bans private companies from mining and auctioning these minerals, opening up lithium exploration to private companies.
CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
Q6. Which of the following countries are part of Lithium Triangle?
1. Australia 2. Chile 3. Bolivia 4. Argentina Which among the following statement/s is/are not correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2, 3 and 4 only C) 1 3, and 4only D) All of the above |
Q. Which one of the following pairs of metals constitutes the lightest metal and the heaviest metal, respectively? (UPSC Prelims 2008)
(a) Lithium and mercury (b) Lithium and osmium (c) Aluminium and osmium (d) Aluminium and mercury
Answer B |
Answer 6– B
Explanation · Lithium is a soft, silvery-white, metal which belongs to alkali metals group. · The Lithium Triangle is a region of the Andes that is rich in lithium reserves. · The countries involved in Lithium triangle are o Argentina, o Bolivia, o Chile. · Australia, the world’s leading producer, extracts lithium directly from hard rock mines, specifically the mineral spodumene. But not part of Lithium Triangle. · Therefore, correct answer is option B.
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