Current Affairs Reverse Engineering
Care (22-04-2024)
| News at a Glance
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| Telangana: Telangana government releases ₹50 crore to pay weaver dues |
| CSIR-IICT, BHEL developing tech to make clean fuel with CO2 |
| Science and Technology: Llama 3 – Large Language Model of Meta |
| International Relations: India delivers Brahmos Missile to Philippines |
| European Union in South-East Asia |
| Public Health: Added Sugars in Nestle’s Baby food Sold in African and Asian Countries |
| Appointments: CRPF ADG Nalin Prabhat appointed chief of NSG |
Telangana government releases ₹50 crore to pay weaver dues
Source: The Hindu
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Government policy, Telangana Textile Industry
Context: Government owed to the weavers for the Bathukamma saree work.
Why in news
- Telangana government has released ₹50 crore to pay the dues of weavers in the State.
Key highlights:
- In the last three months, the state government had paid ₹47 crore in advance for stitching Sarva Siksha Abhiyan uniforms and released ₹14 crore for purchasing yarn and sizing.
- Government’s fresh decision to pay ₹50 crore dues to the weavers will give a big relief to the weaving industry.
Textile industry in Telangana:
- Located on the banks of Maneru River, Sircilla, is popularly known as textile town due to the presence of a large number of power looms, textile processing and dyeing units.
- People from Sircilla used to migrate to other places due to lack of work or business. The situation changed after Telangana was formed.
- Labourers from other states are now coming from other states and working here.
- Efforts are on to provide livelihood to about 10,000 beedi workers of the area in the newly set up Apparel Park Sircilla.
PM Mega Integrated Textile Regions and Apparel (PM MITRA)
- The central government announced the sites for setting up of seven PM Mega Integrated Textile Regions and Apparel (PM MITRA) Parks for the Textile industry.
- According to the Ministry of Textiles, the Parks will come up in Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra.
- PM Mega Integrated Textile Regions and Apparel (PM MITRA) Park will generate over 3 lakh jobs in Telangana.
- Central government is investing around Rs 4,400 crore in the textile parks.
- The Telangana textile park will get more than Rs 10,000 crore of investments.
- Apart from this, many products from Telangana can be exported to various foreign countries.
- The textile park will bring in more than 1 lakh direct jobs and more than 2 lakh indirect jobs to the people of Telangana
Bathukamma
- Bathukamma, a floral festival representing the culture and spirit of Telangana, is celebrated for nine days during Navratri.
- The word Bathukamma comes from the Telugu words “Bathuku” meaning life and “Amma” meaning mother.
- As such, it is a celebration of life and womanhood.
- During the festival, the women come together in groups to prepare ornate stacks using local flowers such as Celosia, Senna, Marigold, Lotus, Cucurbita and Cucumis among others.
- This stack is called a Bathukamma and represents Goddess Maha Gauri and is worshipped for nine days.
- On the final day of the festival, Bathukamma is immersed in water bodies.
- Bathukamma was declared a state festival after the formation of Telangana in 2014.
Bathukamma Saree program
- The Bathukamma Saree scheme was launched in 2017 with a noble twin goal to support the weavers and to present a small gift to the women.
- The sarees are made by weavers in Sircilla, Pochampally, and Gadwal, and have become a symbol of self-respect.
- The programme was introduced to give much-needed reassurance to the weavers, who were in a crisis.
- Under the scheme, powerloom workers are paid Rs 5,000 per week for 12 hours of daily shift.
- When the programme was launched, there used to be work for six months and now it has reduced to three months
- Bathukamma sarees have been offered free of cost to all girls who have reached the age of 18.
- In 2023, the state government has allocated a budget of Rs 350 crore for the production of sarees.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to Bathukamma Saree scheme:
1. The scheme was launched in 2014. 2. Under the scheme, Bathukamma sarees have been offered free of cost to all girls who have reached the age of 21. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 |
| Answer 1– D
Explanation · The Telangana government launched the Bathukamma Saree scheme in 2017 to support weavers financially and give women a small gift. The sarees are made by weavers in Sircilla, Pochampally, and Gadwal, and have become a symbol of self-respect. So, statement 1 is incorrect. · The scheme aims to provide free sarees to girls who have reached the age of 18. The programme was introduced to give much-needed reassurance to the weavers, who were in a crisis. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
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CSIR-IICT, BHEL developing tech to make clean fuel with CO2
Source: The Hindu
TSPSC Syllabus Relevance: Ecology and Environment, Climate change, Energy Security
Context : Developing a technology for capturing and converting carbon dioxide (CO2) into Dimethyl Ether (DME) which can be blended with Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG).
Why in news
- CSIR-IICT (Indian Institute of Chemical Technology) and BHEL corporate R&D have joined hands to develop a technology for capturing and converting carbon dioxide (CO2) into Dimethyl Ether (DME) through direct catalytic conversion.
Key highlights
- CSIR-IICT (Indian Institute of Chemical Technology) and BHEL corporate R&D have joined hands to develop a technology for capturing and converting carbon dioxide (CO2) into Dimethyl Ether (DME) through direct catalytic conversion.
- This clean fuel can be blended with Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG).
- The project is being taken up under Carbon Capture and Utilisation (CCU), an initiative of the Department of Science and Technology.
- The strategic partnership seeks to develop technologies that can reduce carbon emissions.
Benefits
- The conversion of CO2 to DME holds immense promise in addressing the dual challenges of climate change and energy security.
- By utilising CO2 as a feedstock for DME production, the collaboration endeavours to not only reduce the greenhouse gas emissions also produce a clean and renewable energy source.
CSIR-IICT
- The CSIR-Indian Institute of Chemical Technology is a national-level research center located in Hyderabad, Telangana, under the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
- IICT conducts research in basic and applied chemistry, biochemistry, bioinformatics, chemical engineering and provides science and technology inputs to the industrial and economic development of the country.
- IICT has filed one of the maximum CSIR patents
BHEL
- Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) is an Indian central public sector undertaking and the largest government-owned power generation equipment manufacturer.
- It is owned by the Government of India, with administrative control by the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
- It was established in 1956 with the help of Soviet technology
- BHEL is based in New Delhi.
| CARE MCQ |
| Q2. Consider the following pairs:
Organisation Headquarters 1. BHEL : New Delhi 2. IICT : Hyderabad 3. ISRO : Bengaluru 4. CSIR : Chennai Which of the above pairs is not correctly matched? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 4 only D. 3 and 4 only |
| Answer 2– C
Explanation · Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) is the largest government-owned power generation equipment manufacturer. It works under the Ministry of Heavy Industries. · Established in 1956 with the help of Soviet technology, BHEL is based in New Delhi. · Indian Institute of Chemical Technology is a national-level research center located in Hyderabad. · Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the space agency of India. The organisation is involved in science, engineering and technology to harvest the benefits of outer space for India and the mankind. · ISRO has its headquarters in Bengaluru. · The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research is a research and development (R&D) organisation in India to promote scientific, industrial and economic growth. · It is Headquartered in New Delhi. · Therefore, correct answer is option C.
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Llama 3 – Large Language Model of Meta
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 (Science and Technology- Developments and their Applications and Effects in Everyday Life)
Context: Meta will be integrating its latest language model into its proprietary virtual assistant Meta AI.
Why in News
- Meta has recently introduced its most capable Large Language Model and image generator, which updates pictures in real-time.
What is Llama?
- Llama or Large Language Model Meta AI is a family of LLMs introduced by Meta AI in 2023.
- The first version of the model was released in four sizes — 7B, 13B, 33B, and 65 billion parameters.
- Parameters measures the size and complexity of an AI model. The 13B model of Llama outperformed OpenAI’s GPT-3 which had 135 billion parameters.
- A significantly upgraded version of its first LLM was later released in 2023. Llama 2 was released in 7B, 13B, and 70B parameters and it was trained on 40 per cent more data when compared to its predecessor.
Features of Llama 3:
- It is claimed to be most sophisticated model with significant progress in terms of performance and AI capabilities.
- Llama 3, which is based on the Llama 2 architecture, has been released in two sizes, 8B and 70B parameters.
- Both sizes come with a base model and an instruction-tuned version that has been designed to augment performance in specific tasks.
- The model is equipped with Instruction-tuned version which enables AI chatbots to hold conversations with users.
- It is the best open-source models that are on par with the best proprietary models available today.
- It has also embraced an open-source ethos of releasing early and enabling the dev community to get access to the models while they are still in development.
- For now, company has released text-based models in the Llama 3 collection of models. However, the company has plans to make Llama 3 multilingual and multimodal, accept longer context, all while continuing to improve performance across LLM abilities such as coding and reasoning.
- All models of Llama 3 support context lengths of 8,000 tokens, allowing for more interactions, and complex input handling.
- More tokens here mean more content input or prompts from users and more content as a response from the model.
- The model is equipped with safety tools like Llama Guard 2, Code Shield, and CyberSec Eval 2.
Superiority of Llama 3 model:
- It has improved capabilities like reasoning, code generation, and instruction making Llama 3 more steerable.
- In benchmark evaluations, Llama 3 8B surpassed other open-source AIs like Mistral 7B and Gemma 7B.
- It has outperformed Google’s Gemma 7B and Mistral’s Mistral 7B, Anthropic’s Claude 3 Sonnet in benchmarks such as MMLU 5-shot (Massive Multitask Language Understanding), GPQA 0-shot (A Graduate-Level Google-Proof Q&A Benchmark), HumanEval 0-shot (a benchmark for evaluating the multilingual ability of code generative models), GSM-8K 8-shot and Math 4-shot, CoT (maths and word problems).
Large Language Models:
- Large language models (LLMs) are advanced artificial intelligence systems that process and generate human-like text based on vast amounts of data.
- These models, like GPT (Generative Pre-trained Transformer) series, are trained on extensive datasets to understand and generate text in natural language.
- They are a special class of Generative AI.
- They utilize deep learning architectures, particularly transformer models, to learn patterns, relationships, and semantics in language.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q3. Consider the following pairs
LLM Organisation 1. Llama : Meta 2. BERT : Microsoft 3. Gemma : Google 4. ChatGPT : OpenAI Which among the following pair/pairs is correctly matched? A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Only 3 D. All
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Q. Consider the following: (UPSC Prelims 2022)
1. Aarogya Setu 2. CoWIN 3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2,3 and 4 only C. 1,3 and 4 only D. 1, 2 , 3 and 4 Answer: D
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| Answer 3 C
Explanation · Large language models (LLMs) represent a cutting-edge class of artificial intelligence systems capable of comprehending and producing human-like text through the analysis of extensive datasets. · They harness deep learning techniques, particularly transformer architectures, to discern patterns, understand semantics, and generate coherent language across various contexts. · Llama or Large Language Model Meta AI is a family of LLMs launched by Meta AI in 2023. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched. · BERT, short for Bidirectional Encoder Representations from Transformers, is a language representation model developed by Google. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched. · Gemma is the most recent lineup for LLMs developed as part of the Gemini Models initiative. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched. · ChatGPT exemplifies a large language model (LLM), developed by OpenAI. It belongs to the category of transformer-based neural networks renowned for their proficiency in forecasting the subsequent word within a sequence of words. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched. · Therefore, option (C) is the correct answer. |
India delivers Brahmos Missile to Philippines
Source: Indian Express
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/brahmos-missiles-philippines-development-9280055/
UPSC Relevance: GS 2 ( International Relations), GS 3 (Achievements of Indians in Science & Technology; Indigenization of Technology and Developing New Technology)
Context: Brahmos missile acquired from India would be deployed along the West Philippine Sea by Philippines, a move seen as a counter to China’s expansionist strategies.
Why in News
- India completed its first major defence equipment export order by delivering the first batch of BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles to the Philippines as a part of a $375 million deal signed by the two countries.
India-Philippines Brahmos Deal:
- The Philippines has entered into an agreement with BrahMos Aerospace Private Ltd. to procure a shore-based anti-ship version of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile.
- Under the contract, three missile batteries will be supplied, accompanied by comprehensive training for operators and maintainers, along with the essential Integrated Logistics Support (ILS) package.
Features of Brahmos:
- BrahMos is a two-stage missile with a solid propellant booster engine.
- Its first stage brings the missile to supersonic speed and then gets separated.
- The liquid ramjet or the second stage then takes the missile closer to three times the speed of sound in cruise phase.
- The missile has a very low radar signature, making it stealthy, and can achieve a variety of trajectories.
- The ‘fire and forget’ type missile can achieve a cruising altitude of 15 km and a terminal altitude as low as 10 m to hit the target.
- Cruise missiles such as BrahMos, called “standoff range weapons”, are fired from a range far enough to allow the attacker to evade defensive counter-fire.
- The BrahMos has three times the speed, 2.5 times flight range and higher range compared to subsonic cruise missiles.
Variants of BrahMos:
- Land-Based:
- The land-based BrahMos complex has four to six mobile autonomous launchers, each with three missiles on board that can be fired almost simultaneously.
- The upgraded land attack version, with capability of cruising at 2.8 Mach, can hit targets at a range up to 400 km with precision.
- The ground systems of BrahMos are described as ‘tidy’ as they have very few components.
- Ship-Based:
- The Naval version has been successful in sea-to-sea and sea-to-land modes.
- The BrahMos can be launched as a single unit or in a salvo of up to eight missiles, separated by 2.5-second intervals.
- These can target a group of frigates with modern missile defence systems.
- Air Based:
- BrahMos-equipped Sukhoi-30s, which have a range of 1,500 km at a stretch without mid-air refuelling.
- Submarine-Launched:
- This version can be launched from around 50 m below the water surface.
- The canister-stored missile is launched vertically from the pressure hull of the submarine, and uses different settings for underwater and out-of-the-water flights.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q4. Consider the following statements with regards to Brahmos:
1. BrahMos is a medium range supersonic ballistic missile with indigenous propulsion system. 2. Currently, it can operate from Land and Air borne surface only. 3. Philippines is a first country to procure Brahmos from India. Which among the following statement/s is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. None
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Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2023)
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. 2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D)
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| Answer 4– C
Explanation –
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European Union in South-East Asia
Source: The Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS 2 Bilateral, Regional and Global Groupings and Agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests.
Context: As per the recent study, Israel-Hamas war has been by far the most “damaging” issue for the EU over the past 12 months.
Why in News
- As per recent survey conducted by ISEAS-Yusof Ishak Institute in Singapore, the European Union reputation appears to have taken a hit in Southeast Asia.
Key Highlights of the Survey:
- The researchers gathered the data by questioning some 2,000 representatives of academia, business, government and civil society.
- The respondents come from Singapore, Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Thailand, Vietnam, Cambodia, Myanmar, Laos and Brunei.
- Less than 14% of the respondents see the EU as the leading champion of the global free trade agenda, down from almost 22% in last year’s survey.
- Last year, the EU ranked second as the country or bloc Southeast Asians trusted the most to uphold the international rules-based order and international law.
- However, in this year’s survey, the EU slipped into third place with its percentage score dipping to nearly 17% from 23%.
- The bloc was behind the United Sates and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN).
EU supporting Israel:
- As per the study, Israel-Hamas war has been by far the most “damaging” issue for the EU over the past 12 months.
- Many in Southeast Asia see EU’s support for Israel and the carnage against Palestinians in Gaza as unacceptable.
- Southeast Asians ranked the Gaza conflict as the most important geopolitical issue, beating the region’s own concerns, such as tensions in the South China Sea and a civil war raging in Myanmar.
Conflict with Malaysia and Indonesia:
- the EU had been locked in a spat with Malaysia and Indonesia, the world’s two largest palm oil producers, over Brussels’ deforestation legislation.
- As per the legislation, The EU plans to ban the import of goods that can be traced to deforestation.
- Several Southeast Asian states say this unfairly impacts their agricultural sectors and doesn’t recognize the climate efforts they are making.
EU as a Third Front:
- Although, EU’s position overall has weakened slightly, the overall assessment of the EU’s role remains strong and positive.
- It has maintained its leading position as ASEAN’s preferred strategic partner in hedging against US-China rivalry.
- EU is ASEAN’s fourth most important dialogue partner, after China, the US and Japan.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q5. Consider the following statements regarding European Union:
1. The Maastricht treaty is associated with European Union. 2. Schengen Area, is a specific area in Europe where one can move without visa/ passport checks. 3. Only European Union countries are part of Schengen area. Which among the following statement/s is/ are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. All of the above |
Q. Consider the following statements: (UPSC Prelims 2023)
The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that 1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union 2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities 3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct? A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None Answer A |
| Answer 5 A
Explanation · The European Union (EU) is a political and economic union of 27 member states located primarily in Europe. · The Maastricht Treaty (also called the Treaty on European Union) was signed in 1992 by the members of the European Community further European integration. Among other it provides for established of various financial institutions established with European Union. Hence, statement 1 is correct. · The Schengen Area is a zone of countries within Europe that have abolished passport and other types of border controls at their mutual borders. It allows for the free movement of people within the area without the need for passport checks. Hence, statement 2 is correct. · Non-EU countries like Iceland, Norway, Switzerland, Liechtenstein are also the members of European Union. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. · Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
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Added Sugars in Nestle’s Baby food Sold in African and Asian Countries
Source: The Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS 2 (Issues Relating to Development and Management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health, Education, Human Resources)
Context: World’s biggest baby cereal brand Cerelac, reportedly contained added sugars that averaged nearly 3 grams per serving when sold in Indian markets.
Why in News
- According to the recent report published by Public Eye, a Swiss organisation, Nestlé’s products for babies in Asia, Africa and Latin America were found to contain added sugars, while the same products sold in Europe did not have it.
Findings:
- The report faulted Nestlé for employing different nutritional standards in its offerings, depending on the country it served.
- Nestlé also did not make the quantity of sugar content clear on the products’ packaging.
- In Switzerland, Nestlé promotes its biscuit-flavoured cereals for babies aged from six months with the claim ‘no added sugar’, while in Senegal and South Africa, Cerelac cereals with the same flavour contain 6 grams of added sugar per serving,
- Currently, Nestlé controls 20 percent of the baby-food market, valued at nearly $70 billion, according to Public Eye.
Why are Added Sugar Harmful for Children?
- Free sugar or added sugar is added separately to a food item during preparation or processing.
- It can “include natural sugars such as white sugar, brown sugar and honey, as well as other caloric sweeteners that are chemically manufactured (such as high fructose corn syrup).
- Excessive consumption can lead to increased overall energy intake in a person’s overall diet.
- It may be at the cost of food items having nutritionally adequate calories, eventually leading to an unhealthy diet.
- The risks of contracting non-communicable diseases, such as diabetes, obesity and heart-related ailments, are then increased.
- The excess sugar consumption by children is unnecessary and highly addictive. Children get used to the sweet taste and start looking for more sugary foods, starting a negative cycle that increases the risk of nutrition-based disorders in adult life.
Guidelines for Sugar Consumption:
- WHO in its 2015 guideline recommended that “adults and children reduce their daily intake of free sugars to less than 10% of their total energy intake.”
- It would be even healthier to consume less than 5% (roughly 25 grams per person a day) of free sugars.
- WHO advises against the introduction of added sugars before the age of 2. A 2019 WHO study on baby foods also found that many products have “inappropriately high levels of sugar”.
- However, the use of sugar is permitted under national legislation (of some countries) despite the fact that they go against World Health Organisation guidelines.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q6. Consider the following Statements
1. World Health Organisation (WHO) mandates that the consumption of sugar must be below 5% of total energy take per day. 2. The legislation in India strictly prohibits the use of the added sugars in children food. 3. FSSAI is the authority responsible for maintaining food quality standards in the country. Which among the following statement/s is/are correct? A. 2 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 only D. 3 only
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Q. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (UPSC Prelims 2022) 1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. 2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. 3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3
Ans: C
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| Answer 6 D
Explanation · WHO in its 2015 guideline recommended that “adults and children reduce their daily intake of free sugars to less than 10% of their total energy intake.” · It would be even healthier to consume less than 5% (roughly 25 grams per person a day) of free sugars. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. · There is not law specifying or prohibiting the added sugar content in children food in India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. · Food Safety and Standards authority of India is an autonomous statutory body responsible to maintain food quality standards in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct. · Therefore, option (D) is the correct answer. |
CRPF ADG Nalin Prabhat appointed chief of NSG
Source: Indian Express
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/crpf-adg-nalin-prabhat-appointed-chief-of-nsg-9280534/
UPSC Relevance: GS 3 (Various Security Forces and Agencies and their Mandate)
Context: National Security Guard (NSG) was established in 1984 to handle high-risk situations
Why in News
- Senior IPS officer Nalin Prabhat has recently been appointed as the Director-General of National Security Guard (NSG), the country’s counter-terrorism force.
What is National Security Guard?
- The National Security Guard (NSG) is an elite counter-terrorism unit in India that operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- It was established in 1984 following the recommendation of the Justice M. P. Jain Commission, which was created in response to the 1984 anti-Sikh riots and the Operation Blue Star.
- It is the second line of defence for the nation.
- The motto of the organisation isSarvatra Sarvottama Suraksa.
- It is designed to be employed as a specialised counter-terrorism force “only in exceptional situations.
- It cannot to take over functions of the State Police Forces or other paramilitary forces.
Units of NSG
- The NSG, made up of three units is accessible to a wide selection of the most cutting-edge weapons in the world:
- Special Action Group (SAG), which has candidates only from Indian Army soldiers for counter-terrorist as well as anti-hijacking operations
- Special Ranger Groups (SRG), which has candidates both from the border guarding forces like BSF, ITBP and SSB and Internal Security Forces such as CRPF, CISF, and Assam Rifles for strictly counter-terrorist operations
- Special Composite Group (SCG), which consists of personnel both from Army and CAPFs for counter-terror operations.
- The electronic support group (ESG), positioned in Manesar, offers informational and technological assistance in addition to the three units mentioned above. A Group Commander-level official on assignment is in charge of the team.
- Established in 1988, the National Bomb Data Centre (NDBC) aims to conduct research in the area of explosive engineering.
- It deals with tracking, documenting, and studying each terrorist incident that occurs in the nation.
Role Of NSG:
- The primary role of the NSG is to handle counter-terrorism and counter-insurgency operations, including hostage rescue, anti-hijacking operations, and combating other forms of terrorism.
- The NSG is specifically trained and equipped to handle high-risk situations, and its personnel undergo rigorous training in marksmanship, close-quarters combat, explosives handling, and tactical operations.
| CARE MCQ | UPSC PYQ |
| Q7. Consider the following statements regarding “National Security Guards”:
1. National Security Guard is a colonial era counter-terrorism organisation. 2. It is the second line of defence for India. 3. The power of NSG is overriding on state police force and other security forces. Which among the following statement/s is/are not correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 and 3 only D) All of the above |
Q. Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC Prelims 2014)
(1). It is a surface-to-surface missile. (2). It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. (3). It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer A |
| Answer 7– C
Explanation · The National Security Guard (NSG) is an elite counter-terrorism unit in India established in 1984. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. · NSG is the second line of defence of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct. · NSG is designed to be employed as a specialised counter-terrorism force “only in exceptional situations. · It cannot to take over functions of the State Police Forces or other paramilitary forces. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. · Therefore, option C is the correct answer. |