Relevance:APPSC – Environment | Governance | Sustainable Development | Urban Planning
For Prelims:
Article 48A, Article 51A(g), Article 21, Environment Protection Act 1986, Water Act 1974, Air Act 1981, Sustainable Development, Amaravati
For Mains:
Sustainable Development, Environmental Governance, Urban Planning, Climate Change, Resource Management, Ecological Balance
Why in News?
Lanka Dinakar, Chairperson of the Andhra Pradesh 20-Point Programme Implementation Committee, stressed the need to integrate environmental sustainability into development planning while addressing the HARIT-2 national conference at the School of Planning and Architecture, Vijayawada.
Background and Context
- Andhra Pradesh is undergoing rapid urban expansion, particularly with the development of Amaravati as a planned capital city.
- At the same time, environmental concerns such as climate change, resource depletion, urban pollution, and loss of biodiversity have become increasingly visible across regions.
- Urban planning and infrastructure development therefore require integration of environmental safeguards to ensure long-term sustainability.
Key Observations
- Lanka Dinakar emphasised that infrastructure development in Andhra Pradesh must integrate environmental safeguards at the planning stage itself, particularly in emerging urban centres such as Amaravati.
- He pointed out that rapid economic growth over recent decades has resulted in environmental challenges including climate change, depletion of natural resources, rising pollution levels, and biodiversity loss.
- The need for designing cities with improved livability standards was highlighted, focusing on reducing environmental stress while supporting urban expansion.
- The importance of incorporating renewable energy, efficient building design, and green infrastructure into urban planning was stressed.
- Water conservation measures such as rainwater harvesting and recycling were identified as essential components of sustainable infrastructure.
Sustainable Urban Planning Measures
The approach discussed at the conference includes practical strategies for environmentally responsible development:
- Use of renewable energy sources such as solar and wind energy
- Construction of buildings with natural lighting and ventilation systems
- Development of urban green spaces such as parks, urban forests, and eco-corridors
- Implementation of water conservation systems including rainwater harvesting and wastewater recycling
These measures aim to reduce environmental impact while improving urban living conditions.
Constitutional Framework of Environmental Protection
The Indian Constitution did not originally contain explicit provisions on environment, but over time a comprehensive framework has developed through Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, Fundamental Duties, and judicial interpretation.
- Fundamental Rights (Part III)
- Environmental protection has been read into Article 21, which guarantees the right to life. The Supreme Court has interpreted this to include the right to a clean and healthy environment, pollution-free air and water, and ecological balance. In Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar, the Court held that the right to pollution-free water and air is part of the right to life.
- Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV)
- Article 48A, added by the 42nd Amendment, directs the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife. Although non-justiciable, it plays an important role in guiding environmental legislation and policy.
- Fundamental Duties (Part IVA)
- Article 51A(g) imposes a duty on every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, rivers, lakes, and wildlife, and to show compassion for living creatures. This provision emphasizes participatory environmental governance.
- Seventh Schedule (Distribution of Powers)
- The 42nd Amendment shifted forests and wildlife from the State List to the Concurrent List, enabling both Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws on environmental protection, ensuring coordinated action.
- Judicial Interpretation and Activism
- The judiciary has significantly expanded environmental jurisprudence by evolving principles such as sustainable development, the polluter pays principle, and the precautionary principle. These were clearly articulated in Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India.
- Other Relevant Provisions
- Article 47 directs the State to improve public health, which is closely linked to environmental quality. Article 253 empowers Parliament to enact laws to implement international environmental agreements.
Key Environmental Laws in India
India has developed a strong statutory framework for environmental protection, especially after the 1970s, influenced by global environmental movements and constitutional commitments.
- Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- This is an umbrella legislation enacted after the Bhopal Gas Tragedy. It empowers the Central Government to take measures to protect and improve environmental quality, regulate industrial pollution, and set standards for emissions and discharges. It provides wide-ranging powers including closure of polluting industries.
- Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
- This was the first major environmental law in India. It aims to prevent and control water pollution and maintain or restore the wholesomeness of water. It led to the establishment of Central and State Pollution Control Boards.
- Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
- Enacted to control and reduce air pollution, this law authorizes Pollution Control Boards to monitor air quality and regulate industrial emissions. It was enacted following India’s commitments at the Stockholm Conference.
- Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
- This Act restricts the de-reservation of forests and use of forest land for non-forest purposes without prior approval of the Central Government. It aims to check deforestation and preserve ecological balance.
- Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
- This law provides for the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants. It led to the creation of protected areas such as national parks and wildlife sanctuaries and forms the basis for biodiversity conservation in India.
- Biological Diversity Act, 2002
- Enacted to conserve biological diversity, ensure sustainable use, and facilitate fair sharing of benefits arising from biological resources. It implements India’s obligations under the Convention on Biological Diversity.
- National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
- This Act established the National Green Tribunal for effective and speedy disposal of environmental cases. It applies principles like sustainable development, precautionary principle, and polluter pays principle.
Concept of Sustainable Development
- Sustainable development refers to a model of development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. This definition was popularized by the World Commission on Environment and Development in its 1987 report Our Common Future.
- It is based on the idea that economic growth, environmental protection, and social equity must go hand in hand. Development cannot be pursued at the cost of environmental degradation, nor can environmental protection ignore human development needs.
- The concept rests on three core pillars: economic sustainability (efficient and inclusive growth), environmental sustainability (conservation of natural resources and ecosystems), and social sustainability (equity, justice, and improvement in quality of life).
- In India, sustainable development has been recognized through judicial interpretation as part of the right to life under Article 21. The Supreme Court in Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India affirmed that sustainable development is a balancing concept between ecology and development and forms an integral part of environmental jurisprudence.
- Thus, sustainable development emphasizes inter-generational equity, responsible resource use, and long-term ecological balance while ensuring continuous human progress.
Implications for Andhra Pradesh
- Planned development of Amaravati can incorporate environmentally sustainable urban design
- Adoption of green infrastructure can improve long-term urban livability
- Integration of environmental considerations can reduce ecological degradation
Challenges
- Managing rapid urbanisation without environmental damage
- Ensuring effective implementation of environmental regulations
- Limited awareness and technical capacity in urban planning systems
- Financial and infrastructural constraints
Way Forward
- Strengthening environmental planning in urban development projects
- Promoting renewable energy and green infrastructure
- Enhancing coordination between departments
- Increasing awareness and capacity building
Conclusion
The emphasis on integrating environmental responsibility into development planning highlights the need for sustainable urbanisation in Andhra Pradesh. Proper planning and implementation can ensure balanced growth while protecting natural resources.
CARE MCQ
Q.With reference to photochemical smog, consider the following statements:
- It is formed by the reaction of nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds in the presence of sunlight.
- It is more common in urban areas with high vehicular emissions.
- It contains pollutants such as ozone and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Photochemical smog is a secondary type of air pollution, meaning it is not directly emitted into the atmosphere. It forms when nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) react in the presence of sunlight, particularly ultraviolet radiation. These reactions produce a series of oxidizing pollutants, making sunlight a necessary condition for its formation.
Statement 2 is correct: This type of smog is typically observed in urban areas with dense vehicular traffic, as automobiles are major sources of NOx and VOCs. Cities with high emissions combined with warm, sunny climatic conditions experience higher levels of photochemical smog. Therefore, its occurrence is strongly linked with urbanization and transport-related pollution.
Statement 3 is correct: Photochemical smog contains harmful secondary pollutants, mainly:
- Ground-level ozone (O₃), which causes respiratory problems and damages crops
- Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN), which irritates eyes and affects plant tissues
These substances are formed during atmospheric chemical reactions and are key indicators of photochemical smog.
Q. Consider the following points of criticism against the Fundamental Duties:
- They are non-justiciable and lack legal enforcement.
- Some duties, like promoting harmony, are considered too idealistic.
- They were added as an “afterthought” to the Constitution.
- They do not include the duty to cast a vote.
How many of the above are valid criticisms of the Fundamental Duties?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Fundamental Duties are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by courts. This weakens their practical impact and is a commonly cited limitation.
Statement 2 is correct: Certain duties, such as promoting harmony or developing scientific temper, are considered vague and idealistic. Their abstract nature makes them difficult to implement or measure.
Statement 3 is correct: Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution. They were added later by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, which leads to the criticism that they were an “afterthought” rather than a foundational element.
Statement 4 is correct: The list of duties is often seen as incomplete. Important civic responsibilities like voting, paying taxes, or participating in democratic processes are not explicitly included.
Q.With reference to biomagnification, consider the following statements:
- It refers to the increase in concentration of toxic substances at successive trophic levels in a food chain.
- It is commonly associated with substances that are non-biodegradable and fat-soluble.
- It occurs due to the dilution of pollutants as they move up the food chain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation :
Statement 1 is correct: Biomagnification is the process by which the concentration of toxic substances increases at each higher trophic level in a food chain. When lower organisms (like plankton) absorb pollutants from water, and these are then consumed by higher organisms (fish, birds, humans), the concentration of toxins becomes progressively higher at each step.
Statement 2 is correct: Biomagnification is typically associated with non-biodegradable and fat-soluble substances such as DDT, mercury, and PCBs. These substances:
- Are not easily broken down in the environment
- Accumulate in fatty tissues of organisms
- Remain in the body for long periods, leading to higher concentrations over time
Statement 3 is incorrect: Biomagnification involves increase (magnification) of pollutants, not dilution. As organisms at higher trophic levels consume multiple contaminated organisms, the total concentration of toxins in their bodies becomes significantly higher rather than getting diluted.
Q.The principle of “polluter pays” in sustainable development implies which of the following?
(a) Equal environmental responsibility for all countries
(b) Cost internalization of environmental externalities by the polluter
(c) State-funded compensation for environmental damage
(d) Voluntary compliance by industries
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
The polluter pays principle requires that the polluting entity bears the cost of environmental damage, ensuring internalization of externalities rather than shifting the burden to society or the state.
FAQs
Q. Which Article directs the State to protect the environment?
Article 48A.
Q. Which Article imposes duty on citizens?
Article 51A(g).
Q. Which Article provides enforceable environmental rights?
Article 21.
Q. Which Act is the umbrella environmental law?
Environment Protection Act, 1986.
Relevance: GS Paper III – Science & Technology | Cybersecurity | Internal Security
For Prelims:
Large Language Models, Zero-Day Vulnerability, Bug Bounty, Exploit, Cybersecurity
For Mains:
AI-enabled cyber threats, vulnerability economics, cyber deterrence, technological sovereignty, dual-use technology
Why in News?
A powerful AI model named “Mythos,” developed by Anthropic, has demonstrated the ability to autonomously identify and exploit software vulnerabilities, raising significant concerns about its implications for global cybersecurity.
What is Mythos AI Model?
- Mythos is an advanced Artificial Intelligence system capable of detecting, analysing, and generating exploits for software vulnerabilities without continuous human intervention.
- Due to its high-risk capabilities, the model is not being publicly released and will instead be selectively shared with organisations working on critical infrastructure under controlled initiatives such as Project Glasswing.
Nature of the Cybersecurity Concern
- The key concern is that such AI systems can drastically lower the barrier to entry for cyberattacks by automating complex tasks like vulnerability discovery and exploit generation.
- This shifts the balance of power in cyberspace, enabling both defensive and offensive actors to operate at unprecedented speed and scale.
- The technology represents a classic case of dual-use innovation, where the same capability can enhance security or amplify threats.
Understanding Zero-Day Vulnerabilities
Zero-day vulnerabilities refer to software flaws that are unknown to developers and therefore lack patches or fixes.
These vulnerabilities are highly valuable because they can be exploited before detection, making them critical tools for cybercriminals and state-sponsored attackers.
AI models like Mythos can accelerate the discovery of such vulnerabilities, increasing both their availability and risk.
Impact on Cybersecurity Ecosystem
- The automation of vulnerability discovery and exploitation is expected to transform cybersecurity operations.
- Routine tasks such as scanning, triaging, and initial exploit development may become automated, raising the skill threshold required for cybersecurity professionals.
- At the same time, the speed of attacks may increase, making traditional reactive security models less effective.
Impact on Bug Bounty and Vulnerability Markets
- Bug bounty programmes, which incentivise ethical hackers to report vulnerabilities, may face disruption as AI reduces the cost and time required to discover flaws.
- The increased supply of vulnerabilities could reduce their market price, altering the economics of cybersecurity.
- However, this may also shorten the lifespan of zero-day exploits, forcing attackers to act more quickly
Role of Large Language Models in Cybersecurity
1.Threat Detection & Intelligence
LLMs can process vast threat data (logs, malware reports, dark web chatter) to:
- Identify patterns of attacks in real time
- Generate actionable threat intelligence summaries
- Correlate seemingly unrelated vulnerabilities
2.Automated Malware & Exploit Generation
- LLMs can assist in writing malicious code
- Help identify and exploit zero-day vulnerabilities
AI and Cybersecurity
- AI-based intrusion detection systems differ from traditional systems because they rely on machine learning algorithms that identify abnormal patterns in network behavior rather than only matching known attack signatures, which makes them effective against previously unknown or zero-day attacks.
- In cybersecurity, artificial intelligence is used in malware analysis through both static methods, where the code structure is examined without execution, and dynamic methods, where the behavior of the program is observed in a controlled environment called a sandbox.
- AI systems themselves can be targeted through adversarial attacks, where inputs are deliberately manipulated to mislead the model, and through data poisoning, where corrupted data is introduced during the training phase to compromise the system’s accuracy.
- Natural Language Processing, a subset of AI, is widely used in cybersecurity to detect phishing attacks by analyzing the linguistic patterns, sender information, and metadata of emails to identify suspicious or fraudulent communication.
- AI-powered threat intelligence platforms integrate data from multiple sources such as network logs, open-source intelligence, and dark web activities, enabling real-time analysis and early identification of potential cyber threats.
- Explainable Artificial Intelligence (XAI) is increasingly used in cybersecurity to address the “black box” nature of AI models by making their decision-making processes interpretable, which is crucial for accountability in sensitive systems.
- AI-enabled Endpoint Detection and Response systems continuously monitor devices such as computers and servers, detect unusual behavior, and can automatically isolate compromised systems to prevent the spread of cyberattacks.
- Deepfake technology, which uses AI to generate realistic audio and video content, has emerged as a cybersecurity threat because it can be used for identity theft, financial fraud, and disinformation campaigns.
- In India, the CERT-In utilizes AI-based tools for monitoring cyber threats, issuing alerts, and coordinating responses to cybersecurity incidents.
- Artificial intelligence is increasingly being integrated into cyber warfare capabilities, including automated attack systems and real-time defense mechanisms, raising concerns about escalation and the absence of clear international regulations.
• Zero-day vulnerability → Unknown software flaw without patch |
Global Strategic Implications
- The controlled distribution of advanced AI tools among select countries and corporations may deepen technological asymmetries globally.
- Such developments are increasingly viewed through the lens of national security, with AI becoming part of the strategic competition among major powers.
- The analogy with nuclear technology reflects the disruptive potential of AI in altering global power dynamics.
India’s Position and Preparedness
- India is currently evaluating the implications of such AI models through government and industry bodies.
- The country faces a strategic choice between remaining a service-based technology provider and investing in indigenous AI capabilities.
- Leveraging domestic technological capacity and financial resources is essential to ensure digital sovereignty and resilience.
Way Forward
Developing robust AI governance frameworks is essential to regulate the use of high-risk models. Strengthening cybersecurity infrastructure and adopting proactive defence strategies can mitigate risks. Investment in indigenous AI research and development will enhance technological self-reliance. Capacity building among cybersecurity professionals is necessary to adapt to evolving threats.
Conclusion
The emergence of AI models like Mythos marks a transformative moment in cybersecurity, where the speed and scale of both attacks and defences are significantly enhanced.
While the technology raises serious concerns, it also provides an opportunity to rethink cybersecurity strategies and build more resilient digital systems.
Effective governance and strategic investment will determine whether such innovations become tools of protection or sources of disruption.
CARE MCQ
Q. With reference to Artificial Intelligence in cybersecurity, consider the following statements:
- Zero-day vulnerabilities are software flaws that have already been patched by developers.
- AI models can automate the identification and exploitation of software vulnerabilities.
- Bug bounty programmes aim to encourage ethical disclosure of vulnerabilities.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Zero-day vulnerabilities refer to previously unknown software flaws for which no patch exists at the time of discovery. The term “zero-day” indicates that developers have had zero days to fix the issue, making such vulnerabilities highly dangerous and actively exploitable.
Statement 2 is correct: Advanced AI models are increasingly capable of automating the detection of vulnerabilities in code and, in some cases, even simulating or generating exploits. This raises both opportunities (defensive security testing) and risks (AI-assisted cyberattacks), especially with highly capable models.
Statement 3 is correct: Bug bounty programmes are structured initiatives by organizations to incentivize ethical hackers to responsibly disclose vulnerabilities. By rewarding discovery and reporting, these programmes help improve system security while reducing the risk of malicious exploitation.
Q.In LLM sampling, what does temperature control?
(a) The GPU cooling during training
(b) The randomness/flatness of the probability distribution
(c) The learning rate
(d) The tokenization granularity
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
Temperature controls the degree of randomness in output generation. A higher temperature makes the probability distribution flatter (more diverse outputs), while a lower temperature makes it sharper (more deterministic outputs).
Q.What is the role of a loss function in AI?
(a) To measure prediction errors
(b) To store training data
(c) To visualize model outputs
(d) To encrypt data
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
A loss function quantifies the difference between predicted output and actual output, guiding the model during training to minimize errors and improve accuracy.
Q.Which model is an example of a large language model?
(a) MySQL
(b) GPT-4
(c) CSS3
(d) Apache Spark
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
GPT-4 is a large language model (LLM) trained on vast text data to generate human-like responses. The other options are database, styling language, and data processing framework respectively.
Q.Consider the following statements regarding tokenization in Large Language Models (LLMs):
- Tokenization converts raw text into units that may represent whole words, subwords, or characters.
- Different tokenization schemes can influence the model’s efficiency and representation of language.
- Tokenization determines the architecture of the neural network used in LLMs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Tokenization converts text into tokens, which may be whole words, subwords (like Byte Pair Encoding), or even characters, depending on the tokenizer design. This flexibility is central to modern LLMs.
Statement 2 is correct: Different tokenization schemes affect sequence length, memory usage, and how meaning is captured. For example, subword tokenization balances vocabulary size and generalization, directly influencing model efficiency and output quality.
Statement 3 is incorrect : Tokenization affects input representation, not the core neural architecture (e.g., Transformer). The architecture is defined independently of how text is tokenized, although tokenization interacts with model performance.
MAINS QUESTION
Q.“Artificial Intelligence is redefining the nature of cybersecurity threats and responses.” Examine the dual role of AI in both strengthening and undermining cybersecurity systems.
[250 WORDS]
FAQs
Q. What makes Mythos AI different from earlier AI models?
Its ability to autonomously identify and exploit vulnerabilities without continuous human input.
Q. Why are zero-day vulnerabilities dangerous?
Because they can be exploited before developers create patches, making systems highly vulnerable.
Q. How does AI change cybersecurity?
It increases the speed and scale of both attacks and defensive responses.
Q. What is the biggest risk of AI in cybersecurity?
The potential misuse by malicious actors to automate and scale cyberattacks.
Q.What is India’s key challenge in this context?
Balancing technological advancement with cybersecurity preparedness and regulatory oversight.
Relevance: APPSC – Andhra Pradesh Specific (Polity, Political Parties, Women Empowerment, Representation)
For Prelims:
Khasi language, Garo language, Eighth Schedule, Official Languages, Linguistic diversity
For Mains:
linguistic federalism, cultural recognition, constitutional status of languages, identity politics, cooperative federalism
Why in News?
The Cabinet of Meghalaya has approved the Meghalaya Official Languages Ordinance, 2026, declaring Khasi and Garo as official languages of the State alongside English, while also renewing demands for their inclusion in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
Background of the Decision
- Khasi and Garo are the dominant tribal languages of Meghalaya, reflecting the ethnic composition of the State.
- Despite their widespread use in daily life and cultural expression, these languages lacked formal recognition in official administrative functioning.
- The move comes in response to long-standing demands from indigenous communities seeking linguistic recognition and constitutional status.
What the Meghalaya Ordinance Provides?
- The Ordinance enables the use of Khasi and Garo in official communication within the State government.
- It also facilitates their use in legislative proceedings once amendments are made to the Meghalaya State Legislature (Continuance of English Language) Act, 1980.
- This marks a transition from English-only administration towards multilingual governance at the State level.
Constitutional Framework of Official Languages
Constitutional Basis The framework is rooted in Part XVII of the Constitution, divided into four chapters:
2. Language of the Union (Articles 343–344) The Constitution declares Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union.
Key Implication: Article 344 provides for:
3. Regional Languages (Articles 345–347) States are given flexibility regarding official languages.
Key Implication: 4. Language of Judiciary (Articles 348–349)
Key Implication: 5. Special Directives (Articles 350–351) These provisions protect linguistic rights and promote Hindi.
|
Eighth Schedule: Nature and Significance
Nature
- The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India contains a list of recognized languages.
- It was originally included with 14 languages and has been expanded to 22 languages through constitutional amendments.
- Inclusion in the Schedule does not make a language an official language of the Union.
- The Schedule is not part of Part XVII, but is separately placed in the Constitution
- Procedure for Inclusion in Eighth Schedule
- Inclusion of a language requires a Constitutional Amendment passed by Parliament.
Significance
- Languages in the Schedule are given recognition for development and promotion by the Government of India.
- They are used for representation in the Official Language Commission constituted under Article 344.
- Candidates are allowed to use these languages in UPSC and other examinations.
- The Government is expected to take measures for their enrichment and preservation.
- Inclusion in the Schedule has no direct constitutional provision for granting official language status.
Linguistic Identity and Federalism
- Language plays a central role in shaping regional identity and political mobilisation.
- Recognition of regional languages strengthens cooperative federalism by accommodating diversity within the constitutional framework.
- At the same time, it reflects India’s model of asymmetric federalism, where States are given flexibility to address local aspirations.
Implications of the Decision
- The decision strengthens cultural preservation by promoting indigenous languages in governance.
- It enhances administrative accessibility by allowing citizens to interact with the State in their native languages.
- It also increases political representation of tribal communities by integrating their linguistic identity into formal institutions.
- At the national level, it may intensify demands from other linguistic groups seeking inclusion in the Eighth Schedule.
Challenges and Limitations
- Inclusion in the Eighth Schedule remains uncertain, as it requires political consensus at the national level.
- Administrative transition to multilingual governance may face practical issues such as lack of standardisation, training, and translation infrastructure.
- There is also a broader concern that expanding the Eighth Schedule indefinitely may dilute its functional significance.
Way Forward
- A clear and transparent framework for inclusion in the Eighth Schedule should be developed to address growing demands.
- Investment in linguistic infrastructure such as translation systems, teacher training, and digital tools is essential for effective implementation.
- Balancing linguistic diversity with administrative efficiency remains crucial for long-term governance.
Conclusion
The recognition of Khasi and Garo as official languages by Meghalaya represents an important step in aligning governance with cultural identity.
It highlights the dynamic nature of India’s linguistic federalism, where regional aspirations are accommodated within a constitutional framework.
However, the larger question of inclusion in the Eighth Schedule requires a careful balance between representation, practicality, and national coherence.
CARE MCQ
Q. Regarding Article 345 of the Indian Constitution, which statement is correct?
(a) It allows the state legislature to adopt any one language used in the state as the official language of that state.
(b) It mandates Hindi as the official language for all states.
(c) It provides for the adoption of English as the sole official language of India.
(d) It prohibits states from declaring more than one official language.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Article 345 empowers the State Legislature to adopt any one or more languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official language(s) for that state. This provision reflects the federal flexibility of the Constitution, allowing linguistic diversity at the state level.
Q.Consider the following statements regarding the use of languages in the Indian Parliament:
- The presiding officer of each House has the discretion to allow a member to address the House in a language not listed in the Eighth Schedule if deemed necessary.
- While simultaneous interpretation is available for many scheduled languages, its provision for all 22 languages in both Houses during all sessions is not guaranteed.
- If a member submits a written question in a scheduled language other than Hindi or English, the reply provided must also be in that same language.
- The official records and authoritative texts of parliamentary proceedings are maintained and published exclusively in Hindi and English.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 120(1) of the Constitution, business in Parliament is conducted in Hindi or English. However, the presiding officer (Speaker/Chairman) has the discretion to allow a member to speak in their mother tongue, even if it is not included in the Eighth Schedule. This ensures inclusivity in parliamentary participation.
Statement 2 is correct: Although Parliament has developed systems for simultaneous interpretation in multiple scheduled languages, its availability depends on logistical and technical constraints, such as interpreter availability. Therefore, interpretation in all 22 languages is not guaranteed in every sitting.
Statement 3 is incorrect: As per parliamentary rules, answers to questions are provided only in Hindi or English, irrespective of the language in which the question is asked. There is no requirement to respond in the same regional language used by the member.
Statement 4 is correct: The authoritative records and official publications of Parliament are maintained in Hindi and English only, as per constitutional provisions and the Official Languages Act, ensuring uniformity and legal clarity.
Q. Which of the following statements about the recognition of classical languages in India is incorrect?
(a) The Government of India is responsible for conferring classical language status based on specific criteria.
(b) Once declared a classical language, it receives UGC support for establishing academic chairs in central universities.
(c) Classical language status also elevates the language to the rank of an official language under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
(d) Recorded history and independent literary tradition are key criteria for granting classical status.
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
Option (c) is incorrect: Classical language status is independent of the Eighth Schedule. A language can be classical without being listed in the Eighth Schedule and vice versa.
Q. Consider the following constitutional amendments:
- 21st
- 71st
- 92nd
- 102nd
How many of the above are related to the official languages under the Eighth Schedule?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
21st Amendment (1967) – Correct:
Added Sindhi to the Eighth Schedule, expanding the list of recognized languages.
71st Amendment (1992) – Correct:
Added Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali, increasing linguistic representation.
92nd Amendment (2003) – Correct:
Added Bodo, Santhali, Maithili, and Dogri, further expanding the Schedule.
102nd Amendment (2018) – Incorrect:
This amendment dealt with granting constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) and did not relate to languages or the Eighth Schedule.
UPSC CARE MAINS
Q.Critically examine the role of the Official Languages Act, 1963 in resolving the constitutional tensions arising from the transition to Hindi as the official language of the Union. [250 WORDS]
FAQs
Q. Why are Khasi and Garo important?
Ans: They represent the cultural and linguistic identity of major tribal communities in Meghalaya.
Q. Does official language status mean inclusion in the Eighth Schedule?
Ans:No, State-level recognition and constitutional recognition are separate processes.
Q. What is the benefit of inclusion in the Eighth Schedule?
Ans:It provides constitutional recognition and institutional support for language development.
Q. Which Article allows States to adopt official languages?
Ans:Article 345 of the Constitution.
Q. How many languages are currently in the Eighth Schedule?
Ans:Twenty-two languages.
