Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Red alert issued for three AP districts.
• Statement 2 is correct: IMD predicted 45–55 kmph winds, gusting to 65 kmph.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Cyclone did not make landfall; it moved parallel to TN–Puducherry coast.

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct
The Heron Mk II can operate at 35,000 feet, fly at 150 knots, and stay airborne for up to 45 hours, giving it long-endurance capability.

Statement 2 – Correct
It falls under the Military Aircraft group and is deployed in both Air and Naval domains, making it a multi-service UAV.

Statement 3 – Incorrect
The Heron Mk II is not a short-range UAV.
It can carry multiple advanced sensors simultaneously, such as radars, EO/IR systems, and SIGINT payloads, enabling long-range surveillance and multi-mission flexibility.

Explanation
• Statement 1 — Correct
Judicial independence was declared part of the Basic Structure in Kesavananda Bharati (1973) and reaffirmed in multiple judgments including the 4th Judges Case (2015).
• Statement 2 — Incorrect
The NJAC Act (2014) and 99th Amendment were struck down, not upheld.
The Supreme Court held NJAC unconstitutional for compromising judicial independence.

Explanation:
Mobile ICTCs (Integrated Counselling and Testing Centres) were introduced specifically to reduce stigma and improve access to HIV testing in remote areas.

NAP-AMR 2.0 identifies pharma pollution, livestock overuse, and wastewater contamination as primary community-level drivers of AMR. ICU resistance emerges downstream; the main drivers occur outside hospitals.

Explanation

• Bioremediation refers to the use of microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi or algae to detoxify polluted environments.
• These microbes break down harmful pollutants (oil, pesticides, solvents, heavy metals) into harmless substances like CO₂, water, or simple organic acids.
• It can be in situ (treating pollution at the site) or ex situ (removing contaminated material and treating it elsewhere).

Explanation

1. Woraiyur Cotton Sari – Belongs to Tamil Nadu (Correct)

• Native to Tiruchi district; woven in Manamedu on the Cauvery riverbank.
• One of the five products that received the GI tag in 2025.

2. Kavindapadi Nattu Sakkarai – Belongs to Tamil Nadu (Correct)

• Produced in Erode district, irrigated by the Lower Bhavani Project canal.
• Its traditional jaggery powder has officially received the GI tag.

3. Namakkal Soapstone Cookware (Kalchatti) – Belongs to Tamil Nadu (Correct)

• Originates from Namakkal district, known for ancient soapstone cookware.
• Application filed by producer associations; GI tag granted in 2025.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 – Correct. Census Act, 1948 ensures confidentiality.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect. Census is a Union List (Entry 69) subject.
• Statement 3 – Correct. 1921 saw first decadal population decline → “Great Divide”.

Explanation

1. Woraiyur Cotton Sari – Belongs to Tamil Nadu (Correct)

• Native to Tiruchi district; woven in Manamedu on the Cauvery riverbank.
• One of the five products that received the GI tag in 2025.

2. Kavindapadi Nattu Sakkarai – Belongs to Tamil Nadu (Correct)

• Produced in Erode district, irrigated by the Lower Bhavani Project canal.
• Its traditional jaggery powder has officially received the GI tag.

3. Namakkal Soapstone Cookware (Kalchatti) – Belongs to Tamil Nadu (Correct)

• Originates from Namakkal district, known for ancient soapstone cookware.
• Application filed by producer associations; GI tag granted in 2025.

Explanation

1. RTG – Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generator

• Converts heat from radioactive decay of Pu-238 into electricity.
• Powers Voyager, New Horizons, Curiosity, Perseverance.
• Works even in dark, dusty, or distant environments.

2. Nuclear Thermal Propulsion (NTP)

• Nuclear reactor heats hydrogen → expands → expelled through nozzle.
• Provides high thrust, enabling faster Mars missions.
• Example: NASA–DARPA DRACO mission (planned test around 2026).

3. Nuclear Electric Propulsion (NEP)

• Reactor-generated electricity powers ion thrusters.
• Very high fuel efficiency, suitable for deep-space probes.
• Produces low thrust but can run for years continuously.

Explanation:

1. BrahMos Cruise Missile – Joint Development
   Co-developed by India’s DRDO & Russia’s NPOM → Joint development.
2. Sukhoi Su-30MKI – Licensed Production
   HAL manufactures under Russian license → Treated as joint production / co-production.
3. S-400 Triumf – Procurement Only
   Purely purchased; no joint development or manufacturing.
4. INS Vikramaditya – Refurbishment & Transfer
   Not joint development; aircraft carrier was refurbished by Russia and sold to India.
5. AK-203 Rifles – Joint Venture Production (But NOT counted here)
   Note: Your table shows AK-203 is produced under Indo-Russia Rifles JV.
   However, the table image has NOT clearly marked this row as joint production (UPSC trick).
   Therefore, based strictly on the provided table, UPSC would count only BrahMos & Su-30MKI.

Explanation:

Shakti Teams and the Shakti App enabled swift response to women’s distress calls—15 minutes in urban areas and 10 minutes in rural areas—greatly improving women’s safety metrics used in the NARI 2025 Report.

Explanation :

As per BAHS 2023, the top five milk-producing States and their percentage contribution are:

1. Uttar Pradesh (UP) – 15.72% → Highest
2. Rajasthan – 14.44%
3. Madhya Pradesh (MP) – 8.73%
4. Gujarat – 7.49%
5. Andhra Pradesh (AP) – 6.70%

Explanation:

• 1 ✓ Correct
• 2 ✓ Correct
• 3 ✗ Incorrect — tenure increased to 10 years, not 15.

Explanation:

Statement 1: The Full Reservoir Level (FRL) of Polavaram is 45.72 metres. Correct

• At this height, the dam stores 194.6 TMC of water.

Statement 2: The Left Main Canal covers a larger area than the Right Main Canal. Correct

• Left Main Canal (LMC) → Covers 4 lakh acres (East Godavari + Visakhapatnam)
• Right Main Canal (RMC) → Covers 3.2 lakh acres (West Godavari + Krishna)

Since 4 lakh acres > 3.2 lakh acres, LMC covers a larger area.

Statement 3: The Diaphragm Wall works are scheduled for completion in 2027. Incorrect

• Diaphragm Wall works are targeted to be completed by February 2026.
• 2027 is the early completion deadline for ECRF Gap-II, NOT the D-wall.

Statement 4: The project aims to stabilise more than 10 lakh acres of existing command area. Correct

• The project will stabilise 13.5 lakh acres under:
  • Sir Arthur Cotton Barrage
  • Prakasam Barrage

13.5 lakh > 10 lakh, so the statement is correct.

Therefore, Statement 4 is correct.

Explanation
Statement 1: Correct — Weekly rest increased to 48 hours.
Statement 2: Incorrect — Night landings capped at 2 (not 6).
Statement 3: Correct — Quarterly fatigue reporting mandated.
Statement 4: Incorrect — No more than two continuous night duties allowed.

Explanation:

• Statement I – Correct.
  As per NCERT, the CNS includes the brain and spinal cord, and is the site of information processing and control.
• Statement II – Incorrect.
  The PNS includes all nerves associated with the CNS—this means both cranial and spinal nerves, not cranial nerves alone.

Explanation

Statement 1 – Correct

• Section 194(D) provides penalties for riding without protective headgear. The rule is grounded in this provision.

Statement 2 – Incorrect

• Wearing helmets is compulsory for both rider and pillion rider as per police statement.

Statement 3 – Correct

• Petrol pumps have been instructed to deny fuel to those not wearing helmets.

Statement 4 – Correct

• The policy aims to reduce road accident deaths, especially among two-wheeler riders (>45% fatalities).

Explanation

• Biostimulants do NOT act like fertilisers.
  Fertilisers supply nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium directly to the plant. Their primary function is nutrient provision.
• Biostimulants work differently:
  They stimulate natural plant processes—such as nutrient uptake, hormone regulation, stress tolerance, root growth, and photosynthesis—without supplying nutrients themselves.
  This is why the FCO (1985, amended 2021) defines biostimulants as substances whose primary function is physiological stimulation, not nutrient addition.
• Option (c) is incorrect because biostimulants are not insecticides and are explicitly excluded from the Insecticides Act, 1968.
• Option (d) is incorrect because biostimulants can be derived from both microbial and non-microbial sources (seaweed extracts, humic acids, protein hydrolysates, botanical extracts, etc.).

Explanation

• Statement 1 – Correct
  Karnataka’s Bill is indeed the first to define hate speech formally.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect
  BNS 196 does not define hate speech; it deals with promoting enmity.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect
  Section 66A was struck down in Shreya Singhal (2015).
• Statement 4 – Correct
  Law Commission proposed 153C (incitement to hatred) and 505A (provocation of violence).

Explanation:

Andhra University, Visakhapatnam, became the first in AP to host a Gen-Z themed post office.

Explanation

Both are UNEP-led campaigns to raise global environmental awareness.

Explanation:

Statement 1 – Correct

West Asia—including Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Iran, and the UAE—is the largest importer of Indian basmati rice. These countries account for the bulk of India’s basmati exports due to strong cultural, culinary, and trade linkages.

Statement 2 – Correct

Africa—especially West African nations such as Benin, Togo, Côte d’Ivoire, Liberia, Sierra Leone, Guinea, and Senegal—is the biggest market for Indian non-basmati rice. These countries import affordable, non-aromatic rice varieties in large quantities.

Explanation:

• The phones are meant for real-time reporting, maternal-child health monitoring, and scheme implementation.
• Not meant for telemedicine, education, or e-commerce.

Explanation: Rajendra Prasad, as Chair of the Constituent Assembly, approved the 2-stanza version as national song.

Explanation:

Explanation

(a) Mining projects — Correct
• Mining causes large-scale land disturbance, habitat loss, groundwater depletion, and pollution.
• As per EIA Notification, 2006, mining (including coal, sand, and major minerals) requires prior environmental clearance.

(b) Thermal power plants — Correct
• Thermal plants emit pollutants (SO₂, NOx, particulates) and large carbon emissions.
• All coal-based and gas-based thermal power plants fall under the mandatory EIA category.

(c) River valley projects — Correct
• Dams, hydroelectric power stations, and irrigation barrages significantly impact river flow, sediment load, biodiversity, and displacement of people.
• These projects also require public hearings and EIA approval.

Therefore, all three categories require mandatory Environmental Impact Assessment.

Explanation:

• December 15 marks the death of Potti Sriramulu after a 58-day fast, which directly led to the formation of Andhra State in 1953.
• Andhra Pradesh was formed later in 1956, after linguistic reorganisation.Top of FormBottom of Form

Explanation:

• Approved in January 2023 with an outlay of ₹19,744 crore, the mission aims to make India a global green hydrogen hub.
• The target of 5 MMT per annum is expected to attract ₹8 lakh crore investment and reduce 50 MMT of GHG emissions annually.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct:
  • The money market deals with short-term instruments (maturity less than one year) such as Treasury Bills, Commercial Paper, Certificates of Deposit, etc.
  • It facilitates short-term borrowing and lending among banks and financial institutions.
• Statement 2 is not correct:
  • The capital market includes both:
    • Primary market → where new securities are issued
    • Secondary market → where existing securities are traded
  • Hence, it is incorrect to say it only includes the secondary market.

Additional Information:

• Foreign Exchange Market: Enables the buying and selling of currencies; crucial for cross-border trade.
• Derivatives Market: Trades futures, options, swaps—whose value is derived from underlying assets like stocks, commodities, or currencies.
• Financial markets improve capital formation, liquidity, risk management, and economic growth.

Explanation:

• Satellite monitoring enables precise detection of methane hotspots, overcoming data gaps in traditional models.
• It complements, not replaces, ground-level action and governance mechanisms.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct:
  • The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety is legally binding and falls under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
  • It aims to ensure the safe transfer, handling, and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology, considering risks to biodiversity and human health.
• Statement 2 is not correct:
  • Although the Protocol was named after Cartagena, Colombia, the city where negotiations were initially planned, the final adoption took place in Montreal, Canada on January 29, 2000, not in Cartagena.

Explanation:

• The EduCity focuses on integrated education, research, and training to address the skills deficit in aviation and aerospace, not infrastructure expansion or exports.

Explanation:

• Under MGNREGA, the Centre pays 100% of wages.
• The new Bill introduces cost-sharing:
  • 90:10 for NE and Himalayan states
  • 60:40 for other states
• This results in an estimated additional ₹30,000 crore annual burden on states, raising concerns about fiscal stress.

Explanation

Statement 1: Incorrect

• The Aravalli Range is indeed one of the world’s oldest fold mountains formed during the Proterozoic era.
• However, Guru Shikhar (1,722 m)—the highest peak of the Aravallis—is located in Rajasthan (Mount Abu region), not Gujarat.
• Hence, the statement becomes incorrect due to the wrong location.

Statement 2: Correct

• Three major rivers and tributaries originate in or flow from the Aravalli system:
  • Banas River – tributary of the Chambal/Yamuna system
  • Sahibi River – tributary of the Yamuna
  • Luni River – flows southwest into the Rann of Kutch

Explanation:
• The event is designed to boost domestic tourism through B2B networking, collaboration with ADTOI, destination showcases, and FAM trips.
• It does not focus exclusively on aviation or adventure-sport training.

Explanation:

The Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister announced that the Population Management Policy, to be introduced by Ugadi, will be supported by a comprehensive beneficiary database through Family Cards, which will register details of all individuals receiving government services and welfare schemes.

Explanation:

1. SHAKTI → IIT Madras (Correct)

• India’s first open-source RISC-V based microprocessor family.
• Designed for strategic, defence, and space use.

2. AJIT → IIT Bombay (Correct)

• India’s first commercially produced microprocessor developed with SAMEER.
• Targeted for industrial controllers, IoT devices, and robotics.

3. VIKRAM → C-DAC (Incorrect)

• This pair is incorrect because:
  • VIKRAM was developed by ISRO–SCL, not C-DAC.
  • It is used for space navigation, guidance, and mission operations.

4. THEJAS64 → C-DAC (Correct)

• A 64-bit RISC-V processor designed for industrial automation and embedded systems.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 – Correct: Cryptocurrencies are decentralised and not controlled by states or central banks.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Transactions are recorded on a blockchain, a distributed digital ledger.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: Cryptocurrencies are digital/virtual, not physical or government-issued.

Explanation:

• Naseem Al Bahr is a bilateral naval exercise conducted between India and Oman.
• It was initiated in 1993, symbolising the long-term strategic maritime partnership between the two countries.
• Oman is the first Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) country to conduct bilateral naval exercises with India.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 – Correct: MSMEs face challenges like limited trade finance, risk perception, and lack of insurance.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Ports, connectivity, and logistics infrastructure are crucial for cost-efficient trade.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: Services trade (IT, healthcare, skills) is a major pillar of India–Africa cooperation.

Explanation:

• Annamayya district recorded the highest rise in crime at 9.5%, followed by Konaseema (8.5%) and Nellore (7.8%).
• Urbanisation, migration, economic activity, and enforcement gaps are cited as contributing factors.

Explanation:

The Kanpur Conference of 1925 is regarded by CPI as the foundational moment of the Communist Party of India, representing the first coordinated indigenous effort to establish an all-India Communist organisation.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: BoPS is a statutory body under the Merchant Shipping Act, 2025.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It functions under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
• Statement 3 is correct: Enforcement of the ISPS Code is a core mandate of BoPS.

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct as the Sammelan focuses on linking traditional knowledge with modern science and involves national research institutions. Statement 3 is incorrect because the event includes student outreach programmes.

Explanation:

• Permanent magnets – Rare earth elements like Neodymium are used to make high-strength Nd-Fe-B magnets.
• Phosphors in display screens – Elements such as Europium, Yttrium, and Terbium are used in LEDs, TVs, and monitors.
• Wind turbines and electric vehicles – Rare earth magnets and lanthanum-based batteries are critical for clean energy technologies.
• Petroleum refining catalysts – Lanthanum and Cerium are widely used as catalysts in oil refining.

Explanation:

Infrastructure bonds provide long-duration funds that help banks reduce asset–liability mismatch arising from long-term infrastructure loans and short-term deposits, while also supporting infrastructure development.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Parakamani refers to cash-counting of temple offerings.
• Statement 2 is correct: The CBI-led SIT submitted a report to the Supreme Court.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Tests confirmed the Anga Vastrams were not mulberry silk.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 – Correct:
  The FTA eliminates customs duties on 100% of Indian exports, significantly enhancing market access.
• Statement 2 – Correct:
  New Zealand has committed USD 20 billion investment over 15 years, strengthening strategic and economic ties.
• Statement 3 – Correct:
  India successfully protected its dairy and agriculture sectors, while labour-intensive industries like textiles and leather gain export advantages.
• Statement 4 – Correct:
  The agreement includes provisions for student mobility and post-study work visas, opening pathways for 5,000 skilled professionals, including STEM graduates.

Additional Information:

• This is India’s first FTA with New Zealand, marking a milestone in India’s Indo-Pacific economic engagement.
• The Health and Traditional Medicine Services Annex was signed for the first time under this FTA.
• The agreement supports India’s trade diversification strategy and strengthens cooperation beyond goods—covering services, investment, and mobility.

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct.
  Electoral Trusts in India were introduced under the Electoral Trusts Scheme, 2013, which was notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). The scheme was aimed at channelising political donations through a regulated and transparent institutional mechanism.
• Statement 2 is correct.
  Electoral Trusts are mandated to disclose donor identities, amounts received, and the distribution of funds to political parties through annual filings to the Election Commission of India (ECI). This requirement is a key feature distinguishing electoral trusts from the now-invalidated Electoral Bond Scheme.
• Statement 3 is incorrect.
  Donations routed through electoral trusts are not anonymous. While trusts act as intermediaries, donor details are disclosed to the ECI and the Income Tax Department, ensuring traceability and regulatory oversight. Hence, anonymity to the Election Commission does not exist.

Explanation:
All three statements are correct. The craft originated in 1844, uses a single crochet hook technique, and has GI recognition with institutional support from EPCH.

Explanation:
INSV Kaundinya is a traditional sailing vessel that relies entirely on wind propulsion. It is built using the Tankai method, an ancient Indian shipbuilding technique in which the hull is stitched first and ribs are added later, completely avoiding the use of metal.

Additional Information:

• The vessel is about 19.6 metres long and 6.5 metres wide, with a draft of 3.33 metres.
• It is operated by a crew of around 15 trained sailors.
• The project aims to recreate ancient Indian maritime practices and highlight India’s seafaring heritage in the Indian Ocean region.

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct.
  The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) is a three-stage, all-solid launch vehicle developed by ISRO. It is specifically designed to support launch-on-demand missions with a quick turnaround time and is suitable for industrial production, catering to the growing small-satellite market.
• Statement 2 is correct.
  The third stage (SS3) of SSLV provides a velocity of up to about 4 km/s to the launch vehicle. This high velocity contribution is critical for inserting small satellites into their intended Low Earth Orbits.
• Statement 3 is correct.
  The improved version of the SS3 motor uses a carbon-epoxy composite motor case, which significantly reduces the inert mass of the stage. This weight reduction has resulted in an increase of about 90 kg in payload capacity, thereby enhancing the overall performance of SSLV.