APPSC CARE 9th September 2025 Current Affairs

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APPSC CARE 9th September 2025 Current Affairs

News at a Glance

Government constitutes 360° GCC Council to attract MNCs

Source: The New Indian Express

APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Economy in Andhra Pradesh

Context: Global Capability Centres (GCCs)

Why in News?

The Andhra Pradesh government has constituted a 360° GCC Advisory Council under HRD & IT Minister Nara Lokesh to position the state as a leading hub for Global Capability Centres (GCCs) in India.

Key Highlights

Council Composition:

CXOs of leading MNCs (AXA XL, Mastercard, Novartis, Warner Bros. Discovery, Syngenta, BT Group), NASSCOM, US-India Business Council, EU Business & Technology Centre (EBTC), consulting leaders, real estate developers, and top academic institutions like IIT Tirupati and IIM Visakhapatnam.

Mandate:

Draft a five-year roadmap for GCC-led growth in Andhra Pradesh.
Create a future-ready talent pool through academic partnerships and skill development programmes.
Promote R&D and innovation ecosystems via global tie-ups.
Develop Grade-A IT infrastructure—IT parks, plug-and-play facilities, and commercial office spaces.
Monitor implementation of IT & GCC Policy 4.0.
Lead national and international branding campaigns and investor roadshows.
Investment Outreach: Three-month global roadshow campaign across the US, Europe, and Asia to attract GCC investments.
Strategic Objective: Position Andhra Pradesh as a digital economy hub and national leader in GCC operations.

Source: The New Indian Express

About Global Capability Centres (GCCs)

Definition: In-house strategic units of global corporations managing R&D, IT, finance, HR, procurement, analytics, and customer services.
Significance: Unlike outsourcing, GCCs are wholly owned, ensuring tighter integration with parent firms and leading to innovation-led growth.

Indian Context:

Over 1,600 GCCs are operating in India.
Employs 1.6 million professionals, with projections of rapid expansion over the next decade.
Key hubs: Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Pune, Chennai, and Gurugram. Andhra Pradesh aims to join this leadership group.

National and International Conventions/Examples

National:

Karnataka’s GCC success through the “Beyond Bengaluru” initiative in Mysuru and Mangaluru.
Telangana’s GCC push through the Hyderabad IT Growth Corridor attracting Microsoft, Amazon, Meta.
Gujarat GIFT City positioning itself for BFSI and Fintech GCCs.

International:

Poland, Ireland, and the Philippines are major GCC destinations outside India.
Global firms increasingly prefer India due to cost competitiveness, talent availability, and policy support.

Challenges

Talent Supply: Bridging industry-academia gaps in emerging technologies (AI, cybersecurity, data engineering).
Infrastructure: Need for rapid creation of high-quality digital and urban infrastructure in tier-2/3 cities of Andhra Pradesh.
Competition: Other Indian states (Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Gujarat) already have established GCC ecosystems.
Policy Stability: Consistency in long-term IT and investment policies is critical to attract global players.
Brand Positioning: Andhra Pradesh requires aggressive marketing to match Hyderabad and Bengaluru’s global reputation.

Way Forward

Strengthening academia-industry linkages with IITs, IIMs, and skill development programmes to produce a future-ready workforce.
Developing world-class infrastructure including IT corridors, smart townships, and international-standard workspaces.
Policy continuity and procedural ease for global firms—clearances, taxation incentives, and stable investment climate.
Focus on Tier-2 cities like Visakhapatnam, Tirupati, Vijayawada, enabling distributed GCC hubs instead of just one metro-centric model.
Global outreach and branding to attract Fortune 500 firms through active roadshows and collaboration with international business councils.

CARE MCQ

Q1. Consider the following statements about Global Capability Centres (GCCs):

1. GCCs are wholly owned subsidiaries of multinational corporations responsible for strategic business functions such as R&D, IT, finance, and customer services.

2. GCCs primarily represent outsourced service providers without direct ownership by parent firms.

3. Andhra Pradesh has formed a 360-degree GCC Advisory Council to create a five-year roadmap for GCC sector growth.

Which of the above statements are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 1- B

Statement 1 is correct. GCCs are strategic units that are wholly owned by their parent multinational corporations and play crucial roles in key business functions such as research and development (R&D), information technology (IT) services, finance, procurement, and customer support. Unlike mere outsourcing or third-party vendors, GCCs reflect a deeper integration with the parent company, enabling innovation, better control, and alignment with global business goals.

Statement 2 is incorrect. GCCs are not outsourced service providers lacking ownership or control by the parent firm. This is a fundamental distinction: GCCs operate as internal subsidiaries rather than external contracts, ensuring tighter coordination and strategic value addition across the global organizational footprint.

Statement 3 is correct. In a significant move to boost its stature as a global GCC hub, the Andhra Pradesh government has announced the constitution of a 360-degree GCC Advisory Council under the leadership of HRD and IT Minister Nara Lokesh. This council is mandated to prepare a comprehensive five-year strategic roadmap to accelerate GCC investments, talent development, infrastructure growth, and global outreach.

Vizag railway station gets GGBC’s ‘Platinum’ rating for eco practices

Source: The New Indian Express

APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Infrastructure

Context: Awards and Honours

Why in News?

Visakhapatnam Railway Station, under the East Coast Railway Zone, has been awarded the Green Railway Station Certification with the highest ‘Platinum’ rating by the Global Green Building Council (GGBC) for its eco-friendly and sustainable practices aimed at minimizing environmental impact.

Key Highlights

The Green Railway Station rating system was developed by the Environment Directorate of Indian Railways, in collaboration with the GGBC.
The certification recognises the station’s adoption of sustainable measures such as water conservation, scientific waste management, energy efficiency, reduced dependence on fossil fuels, minimal use of virgin materials, and ensuring health and well-being of passengers and staff.
These efforts reflect coordinated work across departments to promote a sustainable environment at the station.
The certification, issued on September 5, 2025, is valid until September 4, 2028.
Modern technologies and passenger facilities implemented under the guidance of the Ministry of Railways played a significant role in securing this distinction.

Source: The Hindu

About the Green Railway Station Certification

A voluntary environmental rating system developed by the Indian Railways Environment Directorate and GGBC.
It assesses railway stations based on sustainability parameters aligned with national priorities such as efficient water and energy use, waste management, clean fuel usage, passenger health, and infrastructure innovation.
The Platinum rating denotes the highest level of sustainability and environmental stewardship.

Importance for Sustainability

The certification advances India’s climate goals by promoting green infrastructure and reducing the carbon footprint of public transportation.
It also enhances passenger experience through improved hygiene, water, and energy conservation measures.
This certification sets a benchmark for other railway stations and transport hubs to adopt similar eco-friendly practices.

Related National Initiatives

Indian Railways plans to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2030 through solar power, electrification, and water recycling.
Green certification programs also exist under the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) for buildings and urban infrastructure.

Challenges and Way Forward

Scaling up green initiatives across the vast railway network requires continuous technological upgrades and investments.
Staff training and inter-departmental coordination remain critical for sustaining such certifications.

CARE MCQ

Q2. With reference to the Green Railway Station Certification and Indian Railways’ sustainability initiatives, consider the following statements:

1. Visakhapatnam Railway Station in Andhra Pradesh has been awarded the highest ‘Platinum’ Green Railway Station Certification for implementing sustainable and eco-friendly practices.

2. Indian Railways aims to achieve 100% electrification of its broad-gauge network by 2030 to reduce dependence on fossil fuels and lower carbon emissions.

3. The Green Railway Station Certification, jointly developed by the Indian Railways Environment Directorate and the Global Green Building Council (GGBC), assesses stations on water conservation, energy efficiency, waste management, and passenger health.

4. The certification system includes only two rating levels, with ‘Gold’ being the highest standard of environmental sustainability.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 3 only

B) 2, 3, and 4 only

C) 1, 3, and 4 only

D) All of the above

Answer 2- A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Visakhapatnam Railway Station has received the highest ‘Platinum’ rating, reflecting Andhra Pradesh’s progress in sustainable railway infrastructure.

Statement 2 is correct: Indian Railways targets full electrification of its broad-gauge routes by 2030 to lower its carbon footprint.

Statement 3 is correct: The rating system developed by Indian Railways Environment Directorate and GGBC evaluates key sustainability parameters including water conservation, energy efficiency, and passenger well-being.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The certification has multiple rating levels — Bronze, Silver, Gold, and Platinum — with Platinum being the highest, not Gold.

Bihar SIR: Supreme Court Directs EC to Treat Aadhaar as 12th Document

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance

Context: Aadhaar card as a valid document for voter identity verification

Why in News

The Supreme Court of India has directed the Election Commission of India (ECI) to recognize Aadhaar card as a valid document for voter identity verification under Bihar’s ongoing Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of the electoral rolls.

Key Details and Significance:

This order mandates Aadhaar to be accepted as the 12th valid document, enhancing flexibility for voters facing difficulties in providing other prescribed proofs.

Increased Flexibility:
Including Aadhaar widens the scope of acceptable verification proofs, preventing exclusion of genuine voters who lack traditional identification documents such as ration cards, passports, or voter ID cards.
Response to Allegations:
The move addresses concerns raised over voter disenfranchisement during the rigorous Bihar SIR process, which has faced criticism for excluding a significant number of eligible voters.
Strengthening Electoral Inclusion:
Accepting Aadhaar helps uphold the constitutional right to vote by facilitating inclusion of citizens who possess this widely-held biometric-backed ID, reinforcing democratic participation.
Supreme Court’s Role:
The intervention underscores the judiciary’s vigilance in ensuring electoral processes are fair, transparent, and inclusive while holding electoral authorities accountable.

Source: Indian Express

Operational and Legal Challenges:

Privacy Concerns:
With Aadhaar being a biometric and demographic database, there are ongoing worries regarding data privacy and potential misuse in the voter verification process.
Verification Protocols:
Ensuring robust mechanisms to authenticate Aadhaar’s genuineness without violating privacy norms is essential. This includes secure digital integration with ECI’s systems while preventing identity fraud.
Technical Integration:
ECI needs to develop clear guidelines and streamlined workflows to incorporate Aadhaar into the existing SIR framework without causing administrative hassles.

Next Steps and Way Forward:

Develop Clear Guidelines:
Authorities should formalize the role of Aadhaar in verification, specify procedural details, and train field officers for sensitive handling of data.
Privacy Safeguards:
Strict data protection norms and audit trails should be instituted to prevent unauthorized access or data sharing.
Public Awareness and Outreach:
Efforts must be intensified to educate citizens about Aadhaar’s acceptability and help them submit documents timely to avoid exclusion.
Balanced Implementation:
While Aadhaar adds convenience, officials must remain vigilant against the use of forged or bogus cards, preserving electoral roll integrity.

CARE MCQ

Q1. Consider the following statements about the inclusion of Aadhaar as a valid document in Bihar’s Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls:

The Supreme Court has directed the Election Commission of India (ECI) to accept Aadhaar as a valid 12th document for voter verification in Bihar’s SIR.
Aadhaar card is accepted as proof of citizenship for inclusion in the electoral roll during the SIR.
Aadhaar’s inclusion aims to reduce voter exclusion by providing an additional flexible identity document.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A) 1 and 3 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 2 only
D) All of the above

Answer 1- A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the Supreme Court mandated Aadhaar’s acceptance as a valid identification document to improve inclusivity in the SIR process.
Statement 2 is incorrect since Aadhaar is accepted for identity and address verification purposes but does not serve as proof of citizenship. Citizenship status is verified through other legal provisions.
Statement 3 is correct as adding Aadhaar as an accepted document increases flexibility and accessibility, helping to prevent voter exclusion in the stringent voter roll revision process.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Consider the following statements: (2017)

The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Answer – (d)

India Rankings 2025: Flaws in Peer Perception Undermine Equity

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS 2 Social Justice

Context: India Rankings 2025

Why in News

India Rankings 2025, released under the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF), has faced editorial critiques highlighting various systemic shortcomings of the ranking methodology and its outcomes.

Key Critiques & Pitfalls:

Over-Reliance on Quantitative Parameters:
The current ranking system heavily depends on measurable data points such as infrastructure size, faculty numbers, and publication volumes.
While these are important, this emphasis often sidelines qualitative aspects like the quality of teaching, student engagement, and overall learning outcomes. Critics argue that this skew promotes a numbers game rather than genuine educational excellence.
Lack of Transparency & Susceptibility to Gaming:
The methodology and data collection process have sometimes been opaque.
This creates avenues for institutions to manipulate or inflate figures, such as submitting exaggerate data or focusing on metrics that minimally reflect academic quality but boost rank. Such gaming undermines credibility and casts doubts on the fairness of the rankings.

Source: Hindustan Times

Neglect of Regional and Subject Diversity:
India’s diverse higher education landscape encompasses institutions with varied mandates, strengths, and regional roles.
The rankings tend to prioritize large, research-intensive universities over smaller or more specialized institutions in niche subjects or rural areas, thereby discouraging a balanced development across all types of universities and colleges.
Possible Penalization of Research-Intensive Institutions:
Certain research-oriented universities may receive lower ranks due to heavy emphasis on parameters like size and student population.
However, this point is debated as these institutions often score well in research and innovation indicators, though teaching and inclusivity might receive lesser weightage.

Challenges:

Quality vs. Quantity: The metrics incline toward quantity of output (e.g., papers published) rather than quality or societal impact.
Gaming Vulnerability: Institutions may tweak practices to appear better ranked without actual improvement.
Equity Blindness: Rankings insufficiently capture accessibility, social equity, and inclusion efforts.

Way Forward:

Recalibration of Evaluation Metrics:
To better reflect comprehensive educational quality, metrics need to incorporate student success, teaching quality, societal impact, and equity.
Greater Transparency & Auditability:
Open disclosure of data sources, methodologies, and verification processes can curb manipulation.
Focus on Inclusivity & Regional Representation:
Special emphasis should be placed on encouraging development in underserved regions and subject domains.
Holistic Approach:
Integrating qualitative assessments, stakeholder feedback, and sustainable development goals into ranking frameworks aligns better with education policy objectives.

Summary:

India Rankings 2025 have showcased considerable progress in institutional participation and data-driven evaluation.
However, the system faces challenges in balancing quantitative metrics with nuanced, qualitative educational realities.
Critiques urge reforms aimed at making rankings fairer, more reflective of actual academic and social value, and less prone to manipulation.

CARE MCQ

Q2. Recently, National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2025 has been criticised for the following reasons:

Over-reliance on quantitative parameters, potentially overlooking teaching quality and equity.
Lack of transparency and susceptibility to gaming or manipulation by institutions.
Penalizing research-oriented universities in the ranking process.

Select the correct answer:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 2- A

Explanation

Critical analysis of the NIRF 2025 points toward excessive dependence on easily quantifiable metrics such as number of publications, faculty-student ratios, or infrastructure scores. While useful, this tends to undervalue less easily measurable attributes like teaching quality, inclusiveness, student diversity, and equitable access.
Additionally, critiques highlight a lack of transparency in the ranking methodology and data verification, leading to concerns that some institutions may manipulate or ‘game’ the system by inflating statistics or selectively reporting data.
However, the claim that research-oriented universities are penalized is not robustly supported. In fact, many top research universities score high due to research output and patents. Issues lie more in the lack of nuanced weightage towards teaching and equity, rather than penalization of research.

This calls for reforms to integrate qualitative assessments and stronger audit mechanisms to make rankings more holistic and reliable.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index? (2019)

(a) Maintenance of law and order

(b) Paying taxes

(d) Dealing with construction permits

Ans – a

Himachal Pradesh Declared Fully Literate State (2025)

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 Social Justice

Context: Education

Why in News?

Himachal Pradesh has achieved the status of a “Fully Literate State” with a literacy rate surpassing 99.30%, exceeding the

national benchmark of 95%.

Introduction

This milestone was announced by Chief Minister Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu on International Literacy Day 2025 at the Puran Sakshar Himachal Samaroh and ULLAS Mela in Shimla. With this achievement, Himachal joins a group of select Indian states and union territories that have attained full functional literacy under the New India Literacy Programme (ULLAS).
Historic Literacy Leap:
The state’s literacy rate rose from around 7% at the time of India’s independence to 99.3% in 2025, reflecting decades of focused educational development.
National Leadership in Student-Teacher Ratio:
Himachal ranks first nationally in student-teacher ratio, enabling improved personal attention and learning outcomes for students.
Impact of ULLAS Programme:
The New India Literacy Programme (ULLAS) has been pivotal, promoting literacy that includes reading, writing, digital, and financial literacy among learners of all ages.

Source: Indian Express

Near-Zero Dropout Rate:
Through reforms and mobilization of resources, the dropout rate in the state’s schools has almost been eliminated.
Widespread Community Involvement:
The achievement was supported by thousands of volunteers, women’s groups, and newly literate citizens recognized during the ULLAS Mela, illustrating the power of community participation.
Commitment to Quality Education:
The government is committed to transforming government schools into centers of excellence equipped with world-class infrastructure.

Examples and Conventions

Himachal Pradesh becomes the fourth fully literate state joining Mizoram, Tripura, and Goa recognized under the ULLAS scheme.
Earlier, Ladakh became the first Union Territory to be declared fully literate in 2024.
ULLAS criteria for “fully literate state” includes achieving over 95% literacy, digital and financial literacy, alongside the ability to read and write.

Challenges

Sustaining such a high literacy rate amidst demographic changes, including migration and population growth.
Upgrading school infrastructure and curriculum to keep pace with modern skill requirements, including digital literacy.
Ensuring equitable access to quality education in remote and difficult terrains.

Way Forward

Further enhancement of adult and rural literacy programs emphasizing skill and digital literacy.
Continuous strengthening of the education system with a focus on transforming government schools into centers of educational excellence.
Encouraging youth and students to engage actively as literacy volunteers and integrate literacy initiatives with academic pursuits.
Maintaining and improving student-teacher ratios and investing in teacher capacity building.

CARE MCQ

Q3. Under the ULLAS programme, a state is declared fully literate if it achieves:

A literacy rate of over 95%
Inclusion of digital and financial literacy for learners
Near zero dropout rate in schools
At least 90% enrolment in schools

Select the correct answer:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 3 and 4 only
D) All of the above

Answer 3- B

Explanation

Literacy Rate ≥ 95%: A state is declared fully literate if 95% or more of its population aged 15 and above is literate.
Inclusive Literacy Definition: Literacy includes the ability to read, write, and perform basic arithmetic with understanding, along with essential life skills such as digital literacy and financial literacy.
Near Zero Dropout Rate: States must also demonstrate very low dropout rates in schools to ensure sustainability of literacy achievement.

Why not 4th option (90% enrolment)?
Although school enrolment is important, the ULLAS certification focuses on actual literacy outcomes and functional skills rather than enrolment percentages.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Consider the following statements : (2018)

1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.

2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.

3. In India, more than 90% of teacher’s education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Ans- b

India-Israel Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) Signed

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 International Relations

Context: India and Israel Agreement

Why in News?

On September 8, 2025, India and Israel formalized a significant milestone in their economic partnership by signing a Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) in New Delhi.

Context and Overview

The BIT was signed between Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman and Israeli Finance Minister Bezalel Smotrich, underscoring the deepening financial and investment ties between the two nations.
This treaty is strategic as Israel becomes the first Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD) member country with which India has signed a BIT under its newly formulated investment treaty framework.

Key Highlights of the BIT

Reciprocal Investment Protection:
The treaty guarantees mutual protection of investments made by investors from both countries. This includes standards like fair and equitable treatment to avoid discrimination and arbitrary measures.
Dispute Resolution:
A robust, independent arbitration mechanism is instituted to resolve any investment-related disputes, thereby providing investors confidence in legal protection irrespective of jurisdiction.

Source: The Times of India

Non-Discrimination:
Both countries commit to treating investors from the other party not less favorably than domestic or third-country investors, fostering a level playing field.
Economic Ties and Flows:
Bilateral trade currently stands at approximately $4 billion annually, reflecting growing commerce.
Since 2000, India’s overseas direct investment (ODI) in Israel totaled $443 million, while Israel’s foreign direct investment (FDI) in India reached around $334.2 million.

Broader Context and Strategic Importance

Investment Synergies:
The BIT aligns with India’s goal of attracting quality foreign investments and securing its investors abroad under the updated BIT template emphasizing transparency, investor rights, and dispute mechanisms.
Precedents:
Israel already maintains BITs with other key economies like the UAE and Japan, and this treaty signals a fresh benchmark under India’s new BIT policy regime.
Trade & Technology Collaboration:
The Indian Finance Ministry and Israeli counterparts are envisioning enhanced cooperation beyond investments, with discussions underway for a comprehensive Free Trade Agreement (FTA), further facilitating trade and technology partnerships.

Challenges Ahead

Regulatory Alignment:
Harmonizing differing regulatory frameworks and ensuring predictability for investors amid global economic shifts will be crucial.
Investor Protection:
Guaranteeing timely, impartial dispute resolution is essential to maintain investor confidence.
Sustainable Investment:
Encouraging investments that also align with sustainable development, cybersecurity, and innovation goals.

Way Forward

Expand Private Sector Engagement:
Harness the BIT to boost investments in critical sectors such as high-tech industries, agriculture technology, and water management.
Innovation and Cybersecurity:
Capitalize on Israel’s strengths in innovation and cybersecurity, synergizing with India’s digital and startup ecosystem.
Environmental Cooperation:
Leverage partnerships in water conservation, desalination, and sustainable agriculture for mutual benefit

CARE MCQ

Q4. Consider the following statements about the Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) signed between India and Israel in 2025:

It is the first BIT signed between India and any OECD member under India’s revised BIT framework.
The treaty provides protection against expropriation and ensures independent arbitration for disputes.
The BIT makes it mandatory for both countries to abolish all tariffs on bilateral agricultural trade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer – 4 – A

Explanation –

Statement 1 is correct: India’s new investment treaty framework was introduced to modernize and standardize its bilateral investment treaties. Israel became the first OECD member country with which India has signed a BIT under this new framework in 2025. This signifies a new era in India’s investment policy emphasizing transparency, protection, and defined dispute resolution mechanisms.
Statement 2 is correct: Key features of the BIT include protection against expropriation of investments without adequate compensation, guarantees of fair and equitable treatment, and the facility of independent arbitration to resolve disputes, thereby enhancing investor confidence and legal certainty for investments flowing both ways.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The BIT primarily covers investment protection, facilitation, and dispute resolution but does not mandate the abolition of tariffs. Tariffs fall under trade agreements such as Free Trade Agreements (FTAs). Although India and Israel are engaged in discussions toward an FTA, the BIT itself does not impose tariff elimination obligations on agricultural or other goods.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Consider the following statements: (2023)

Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement-II : The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement- I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c)

WHO Endorses Weight-loss Drugs and Pushes for Affordable Generics

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 2 Public Health

Context: Weight-loss medications

Why in News?

The World Health Organization (WHO) has, for the first time, officially endorsed a new class of weight-loss medications — the GLP-1 receptor agonists for managing obesity.

Background

WHO experts acknowledged that while non-pharmacological strategies like diet and exercise remain foundational, they have failed to reverse the global obesity epidemic.
They emphasize that GLP-1 RAs “have the potential to be transformative” in obesity care.
This endorsement comes amid ongoing developments to introduce affordable generic versions, especially important for countries like India, where leading pharmaceutical companies like Dr. Reddy’s, Cipla, and Biocon are preparing to launch biosimilar drugs post-patent expiry expected around 2025-2026.

Key Highlights

WHO Guidelines in Progress:
The WHO is drafting detailed guidelines for clinical use of GLP-1 RAs in adult obesity, expected by July 2025, to standardize treatment indications, dosage, monitoring, and programmatic considerations globally.
Affordable Generics on Horizon:
With patents for semaglutide and tirzepatide expiring soon, Indian pharma players are conducting bioequivalence trials to offer low-cost generics. This is poised to significantly improve accessibility in low- and middle-income countries.
Efficacy:
These drugs have demonstrated impressive outcomes, with clinical trials showing average weight loss of 10% to 25% of body weight, surpassing results of older therapies.

Examples of Popular Drugs:

- Semaglutide-based: Ozempic (originally for diabetes), Wegovy (approved for weight loss).
- Tirzepatide-based: Mounjaro (diabetes; off-label weight loss), Zepbound (approved for weight management).
  Due to off-label use and media attention, demand has surged internationally, including in India.

Challenges and Risks

Side Effects:
GLP-1 RAs can cause significant adverse effects including gastroparesis (stomach paralysis), pancreatitis, and increased risk of thyroid cancer. Hence, detailed clinical guidelines and caution in prescribing are necessary.
Long-term Safety and Efficacy:
The sustainability of weight loss after discontinuation is uncertain; many patients regain weight once treatment stops. Research into long-term use and safety profiles is ongoing.
Affordability and Availability:
Current branded drugs are expensive and suffer from shortages, leading to a thriving grey market and counterfeit risks, particularly in countries with poor regulatory oversight.

Global and Indian Context

Global Obesity Stats:
As of 2022, about 1 in 8 adults globally are obese — roughly 890 million adults and 160 million adolescents, exerting significant burdens on healthcare systems with associated non-communicable diseases.
India’s Burden:
India’s obese population includes 44 million women and 26 million men, with rising trends in childhood obesity as well. The economic and health costs are set to escalate sharply if unchecked.
Economic Impact:
Obesity-related health expenditure is projected to hit $3 trillion globally by 2030, potentially consuming up to 18% of national health budgets in highly affected countries.

Way Forward & Policy Recommendations

Facilitate Production and Distribution of Generics:
Encourage manufacturing of quality-assured generic GLP-1 RAs with robust regulatory oversight to ensure drug safety and reduce prices.
Develop Comprehensive Clinical Guidelines:
WHO and national governments to launch detailed usage protocols covering selection criteria, dosing, managing side effects, and monitoring patients.
Enhance Public Education:
Raise awareness about obesity’s health impacts and realistic expectations from drug therapies, including risks and the need for lifestyle changes.
Counter Counterfeits:
Strengthen supply chains and enforcement against fake or substandard drugs, especially in low-income markets.
Integrate With Public Health Strategy:
Weight-loss drug therapies to complement ongoing preventive policies on diet, physical activity, and social determinants of health.

Summary

The WHO’s endorsement of GLP-1 receptor agonists marks a significant turning point in obesity management, signaling acceptance of pharmacotherapy as a key tool alongside lifestyle measures.
The imminent arrival of affordable generics could democratize access globally, especially in populous countries like India.
However, careful regulation, post-marketing surveillance, and integration into wider health systems remain critical to maximize benefits and minimize harms.

CARE MCQ

Q5. Assertion-Reason Questions
Assertion (A): WHO has endorsed GLP-1 receptor agonists as a transformative treatment for obesity.
Reason (R): Current lifestyle interventions like diet and exercise have largely failed to control the global obesity pandemic.

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(D) A is false, but R is true

Answer – 5 – A

Explanation:
WHO’s endorsement of GLP-1 agonists (such as semaglutide and tirzepatide) represents a shift recognizing that traditional approaches like diet and physical activity alone have not succeeded in reversing obesity trends globally.
GLP-1 drugs, which regulate appetite and blood sugar, offer a new, effective pharmacological option for managing obesity, making them transformative in this context.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? (2019)

1.Genetic predisposition of some people

2.Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases

3.Using antibiotics in livestock farming

4.Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (d)

Are New Neurons Born in the Adult Human Brain?

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3 Science and Technology

Context: Recent advances in neuroscience

Why in News?

Recent advances in neuroscience have revived the long-standing debate about adult neurogenesis—whether new neurons are generated in the adult human brain.

Key Highlights

Cutting-edge research techniques, including single-cell RNA sequencing combined with AI-driven analysis, have provided important insights into adult neurogenesis process.

Adult Neurogenesis Confirmed in the Hippocampus:
The hippocampus, particularly its dentate gyrus region, has been conclusively identified as a site where new neurons are generated throughout adulthood. This process plays a key role in learning, memory formation, and emotional regulation.
Neural Progenitor Cells Identified:
Scientists recently detected neural progenitor cells in adult human hippocampal tissue—precursors that divide and mature into new neurons. The number of these progenitors varies between individuals, suggesting biological or environmental influences on neurogenesis rates.
Limited Neurogenesis Elsewhere:
Contrary to earlier hypotheses, regions like the cerebral cortex and hypothalamus do not show consistent new neuron formation in adults, marking the hippocampus as uniquely capable of ongoing neurogenesis.

Source: The Hindu

International Research Context

Comparable studies from Europe and the US have contributed to confirming adult hippocampal neurogenesis, using stable isotope labeling and genetic markers.
Despite advances, the full extent and functional significance of adult neurogenesis in humans remain active areas of research, with debates on the variation among individuals and its impact on cognition.

Challenges in the Field

Technical Difficulty:
Detecting and precisely measuring new neuron formation in living human brains is technically challenging, requiring postmortem studies and advanced genomic methods.
Reconciling Conflicting Evidence:
Earlier studies had contradictory findings; some failed to find conclusive evidence, leading to continuing scientific dialogue.

Way Forward and Implications

Research Funding and Global Collaboration:
Increased investment and international cooperation in brain research aim to clarify neurogenesis mechanisms.
Therapeutic Potential:
Understanding adult neurogenesis could unlock novel treatments for Alzheimer’s, stroke, depression, and other neurodegenerative or psychiatric disorders by promoting brain regeneration and plasticity.

Summary

Adult neurogenesis in humans is now recognized as a real phenomenon primarily occurring in the hippocampus, underpinning key cognitive functions. Continued research promises important clinical and therapeutic innovations by leveraging this endogenous brain plasticity.

CARE MCQ

Q6. With reference to the latest research on neurogenesis in adult humans, which of the following is correct?
A) New neurons are routinely produced in the adult human hypothalamus.
B) No new neurons are produced in any part of the adult human brain.
C) Limited neurogenesis occurs in the hippocampus region and is linked to memory functions.
D) Adult neurogenesis is possible in all regions of the cerebral cortex.

Answer – 6 – C

Explanation –

Recent scientific studies and advanced imaging techniques have confirmed that the adult human brain does generate new neurons, but uniquely, this process is largely restricted to the hippocampus — particularly the dentate gyrus region. This adult neurogenesis in the hippocampus plays a critical role in learning, memory formation, and cognitive flexibility.
Contrary to some earlier hypotheses or findings in animal models, the cerebral cortex and hypothalamus do not show routine or significant neurogenesis in adult humans. The cortex’s neuronal population remains largely stable post-development, and no conclusive evidence shows ongoing neuron creation there.

Thus, neurogenesis is limited but functionally important, with the hippocampus at the center of this regenerative capability in adults, supporting ongoing brain plasticity and cognitive health.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Consider the following statements: (2020)

Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
Human /induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)