APPSC CARE 7th October 2025 Current Affairs
News at a Glance
- Andhra Pradesh: Nellore-based teacher bags top rank in iGOT Karmayogi national test
- Vizag selected for Rs 200 crore flood risk mitigation programme
- Economy: Ensuring Drug Safety in India’s Pharma Sector: Zero Tolerance for Poor-Quality Medicines
- Public Health: Nobel Prize 2025 — Peripheral Immune Tolerance
- International Relations: India’s Geopolitical Balancing in a Changing Global Trade Order
- UNESCO’s Executive Board nominates Khaled El-Enany: significance, context and implications
- India’s Strategic Autonomy in a Multipolar World
Nellore-based teacher bags top rank in iGOT Karmayogi national test
Source: The Hindu
APPSC Relevance: Governance
Context: Karmayogi National Online Test
Why in News?
Challa Chandrasekhar Reddy, a mathematics teacher from Nellore, topped the national iGOT Karmayogi online test by scoring 5,001 karma points.
Introduction
- Challa Chandrasekhar Reddy, a mathematics teacher from Chilakalamarri Zilla Parishad High School in Ananthasagaram mandal, SPSR Nellore district, secured the first position in the national-level iGOT Karmayogi online test by scoring 5,001 karma points.
- The test was conducted on the Integrated Government Online Training (iGOT) Karmayogi platform, a flagship initiative for capacity building of government officials.
About iGOT Karmayogi / Mission Karmayogi:
- Launched in 2022, Mission Karmayogi aims to enhance the skills and efficiency of Central and State government officials through structured digital learning.
- The iGOT platform provides online courses, assessments, and training modules tailored to improve professionalism, administrative capacity, and readiness for future challenges in governance.
- Officials and personnel earn karma points by completing courses, taking assessments, and finishing modules within specified deadlines. Bonus points are awarded for early completion.
Achievement Highlights:
- Challa Chandrasekhar Reddy scored 5,001 karma points, securing top national rank.
- In the previous month, he was already in the top ten with 2,953 karma points.
- The substantial increase in points was attributed to bonus points for early completion of courses.
- Reddy emphasized consistent preparation, allocating specific time daily for these courses and assessments. His dedication reflects effective time management and goal-oriented learning.
(Image Source: The Hindu)
Significance of the Achievement:
- Recognition of Teacher Excellence: Reddy’s achievement highlights that educators, even beyond administrative roles, can actively engage in continuous professional development.
- Promoting Digital Learning in Government: The success illustrates the efficacy of digital platforms like iGOT Karmayogi in building skills, knowledge, and capacity across the government ecosystem.
- Motivating Grassroots Officials: Reddy’s example serves as an inspiration for teachers and government employees, especially from rural and semi-urban areas, to engage in skill enhancement programs.
- Integration of Performance Metrics: The karma point system incentivizes timely and consistent learning, showing how gamified learning models can improve participation and performance in e-governance training programs.
CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding iGOT Karmayogi:
- It is a digital learning platform for capacity building of Central and State government officials.
- Participants earn karma points by completing courses and assessments, with bonus points for early completion.
- It was launched in 2025 as part of the Mission Karmayogi initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer 1- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: iGOT Karmayogi is indeed a digital platform aimed at enhancing skills and capacity of government officials.
- Statement 2 is correct: Karma points are awarded for completing courses, with bonus points for timely completion.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Mission Karmayogi and iGOT were launched in 2022, not 2025.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Vizag selected for Rs 200 crore flood risk mitigation programme
Source: New Indian Express
APPSC Relevance: Governance
Context: flood risk mitigation programme
Why in News?
The Visakhapatnam has been selected under Phase-II of the Urban Flood Risk Mitigation Programme (UFRMP) of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), with an allocation of Rs 200 crore to enhance the city’s resilience against flood-related disasters.
About UFRMP:
- The Urban Flood Risk Mitigation Programme is an initiative sanctioned by the Central Finance Commission to strengthen flood preparedness and disaster resilience in Indian cities.
- Phase-II includes 11 cities: Bhopal, Bhubaneswar, Guwahati, Jaipur, Kanpur, Patna, Raipur, Thiruvananthapuram, Visakhapatnam, Indore, and Lucknow.
- Funding is structured with 90% from the Centre (Rs 2,200 crore) and 10% from the respective States (Rs 244.42 crore), totaling Rs 2,444.42 crore for all cities.
- The programme aims to reduce flood risks through structural and non-structural interventions, nature-based solutions, early warning systems, and community engagement.
Objectives of the Programme:
- Conduct studies to assess urban flood hazards and map vulnerable areas.
- Develop structural, non-structural, and nature-based flood mitigation projects.
- Strengthen early warning and emergency response systems.
- Engage communities in disaster risk reduction and climate change adaptation.
- Amend or frame building bylaws to enhance flood resilience.
Proposed Interventions in Visakhapatnam:
- Structural Measures (Rs 140 crore)
- Storm water management system: Rs 80 crore
- Rejuvenation of water bodies and cascading lakes: Rs 24 crore
- Walkways and road curbs with permeable materials: Rs 10 crore
- Sponge parks and sponge zones: Rs 6 crore
- Rainwater harvesting initiatives: Rs 5 crore
- Pilot bioswale projects (combination of structural and non-structural solutions): Rs 15 crore
- Non-Structural Measures (Rs 60 crore)
- Green spaces, green roofs, urban forests: Rs 20 crore
- GIS and IT-based flood monitoring and early warning systems: Rs 20 crore
- Training programs for officials and staff: Rs 5 crore
- Community-based disaster risk management in flood-prone areas: Rs 5 crore
- Hazard and vulnerability assessments: Rs 2 crore
- City and ward-level disaster management plans: Rs 2.5 crore
- Urban flood management cell: Rs 5.5 crore
(Image Source: New Indian Express)
Significance of the Programme:
- Urban resilience: Enhances the city’s preparedness against climate-induced disasters.
- Integrated approach: Combines engineering, environmental, and community-based solutions.
- Sustainable development: Encourages nature-based solutions such as sponge parks, urban forests, and rainwater harvesting.
- Replication model: Other flood-prone cities can adopt similar integrated frameworks for disaster risk reduction.
CARE MCQ
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Urban Flood Risk Mitigation Programme (UFRMP):
- It is implemented by the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) to reduce urban flood risks.
- Funding for the programme is shared 90% by the Centre and 10% by the respective State governments.
- The programme focuses only on structural interventions such as stormwater management systems and waterbody rejuvenation.
- Visakhapatnam, along with cities like Bhopal, Jaipur, and Lucknow, has been selected under Phase-II of the programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer 2-B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: UFRMP is implemented by NDMA for urban flood risk reduction.
- Statement 2 is correct: Centre contributes 90% and States 10% of the total funding.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The programme includes both structural and non-structural interventions, as well as nature-based solutions.
- Statement 4 is correct: Visakhapatnam and 10 other cities, including Bhopal, Jaipur, and Lucknow, are part of Phase-II.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Ensuring Drug Safety in India’s Pharma Sector: Zero Tolerance for Poor-Quality Medicines
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS3- Economy
Context: India’s Pharma Sector
Why in News?
Recent deaths of children due to contaminated cough syrup highlight the urgent need for strict enforcement of drug quality norms in India’s pharmaceutical sector.
Introduction
- India’s pharmaceutical industry is often called the “pharmacy of the world”, supplying affordable generics and life-saving medicines to over 200 countries, including vaccines and antiretroviral drugs.
- However, recent cough syrup-related deaths in India and abroad have shaken global trust in India’s drug quality standards.
- A recent case where Coldrif cough syrup manufactured by a private firm was found contaminated with diethylene glycol (DEG), a toxic substance that caused the death of at least 16 children in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.
- The Union Health Ministry, after initial denial, has demanded strict compliance with revised Schedule M norms (relating to Good Manufacturing Practices (GMPs)).
- The case underscores systemic lapses in drug quality control and regulatory oversight, which threaten the credibility of India’s “Atmanirbhar Bharat” ambition in pharmaceuticals.
Context and Background
- India’s Pharma Landscape
- 3rd largest by volume, 14th by value globally.
- Accounts for 20% of global generic drug supply and 60% of vaccine demand.
- Pharma exports worth USD 25–27 billion annually.
- Previous Controversies
- India’s drug quality issues are not new:
- 2022: Over 60 child deaths in Gambia linked to DEG-contaminated syrups from an Indian manufacturer.
- 2023: Similar incident in Uzbekistan (at least 18 deaths).
- 2025: Coldrif syrup deaths in India (Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh).
- These tragedies reveal recurrent lapses in manufacturing practices and regulatory enforcement.
(Image Source: Ciron Drugs)
Key Issues
- Quality Lapses
- Detection of DEG and ethylene glycol due to use of non-pharmacopoeial grade propylene glycol as an excipient.
- Violations of Good Manufacturing Practices (GMPs) and Good Laboratory Practices (GLPs).
- Inconsistent test results: Health Ministry denied DEG presence initially, while Tamil Nadu’s lab confirmed it in some batches — showing coordination failures among regulators.
- Weak Regulatory Oversight
- Action taken only after deaths occurred — indicates reactive rather than preventive regulation.
- Insufficient surprise inspections and batch-wise monitoring.
- Gaps in enforcing Schedule M norms despite their existence.
- Accountability Issues
- The manufacturing firm’s licence recommended for cancellation.
- A doctor arrested for unscientific prescription practices.
- But systemic accountability (supply chain checks, state-Central coordination) remains weak.
Implications of Poor-Quality Drugs
Public Health
- Contaminated drugs can cause acute kidney failure, blindness, neurological damage, and death — especially in children.
- Increases antimicrobial resistance (AMR) due to substandard dosages.
Economic and Trade Implications
- Damages India’s reputation as a trusted global supplier.
- Risk of export bans, trade sanctions, and loss of international markets.
Legal and Ethical Dimensions
- Violates Article 21 (Right to Life) of the Indian Constitution.
- Reflects ethical lapses in medical and manufacturing practices.
National Image and Atmanirbhar Bharat
- Quality failures undermine the “Make in India” and Atmanirbhar Bharat initiatives.
- Weakens India’s bid to be a global hub for affordable healthcare products.
Government’s Response So Far
- Revised Schedule M norms: Stricter standards for GMP compliance.
- CDSCO action: Recommended cancellation of the manufacturer’s licence.
- State-level investigations: Tamil Nadu Drugs Control Dept. detected violations.
- Arrest of the doctor involved in irrational prescriptions.
- While necessary, these measures are case-specific and reactive — lacking a systemic deterrence framework.
Way Forward
- Zero Tolerance Policy
- “Zero threshold for poor quality drugs” — strict penalties for all violations, not just those causing deaths.
- Strengthening Regulatory Framework
- Hawk-like monitoring through frequent and unannounced inspections of manufacturing units.
- Batch-wise testing of drugs by accredited labs before market release.
- Single-window digital reporting system for State and Central regulators to avoid contradictory findings.
- Capacity Building
- Upgrade testing laboratories with advanced technology (HPLC, GC-MS, etc.).
- Train inspectors and auditors in risk-based assessment.
- Legal Reforms
- Amend Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 to impose stricter criminal liability and fines on violators.
- Introduce product recall obligations similar to US FDA norms.
- Transparency and Accountability
- Mandatory public disclosure of test results, violations, and penalties.
- Implement a National Pharmacovigilance Database to track adverse drug reactions.
- Supply Chain Management
- Ensure pharmacopoeial grade raw materials for excipients and APIs.
- Strengthen traceability using QR codes/barcodes to track every batch.
CARE MCQ
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the recent cough syrup controversy in India:
- Strict enforcement of Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) and Good Laboratory Practices (GLP) can prevent incidents like this.
- Reactive penalties imposed only after adverse events are sufficient to ensure drug safety.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer 1- A
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Enforcement of Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) and Good Laboratory Practices (GLP) ensures proper manufacturing standards, quality control, and laboratory practices, which can prevent contamination of drugs like the Coldrif cough syrup.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Acting only after deaths or adverse events is reactive and fails to prevent harm. Proactive monitoring and regulatory framework are essential.
- Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? (2019)
- Genetic predisposition of some people
- Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
- Using antibiotics in livestock farming
- Multiple chronic diseases in some people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Nobel Prize 2025 — Peripheral Immune Tolerance
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS 2 Public Health
Context: 2025 Nobel Prize
Why in News?
The 2025 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded for discoveries on regulatory T cells (T-regs) and FOXP3, explaining how the immune system prevents attacks on the body’s own tissues.
Introduction
- The 2025 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded jointly to Shimon Sakaguchi, Mary E. Brunkow and Frederick J. Ramsdell for discoveries that explain how the immune system prevents attacks on the body’s own tissues — a process called peripheral immune tolerance.
- Their work identified regulatory T cells (T-regs) and the key gene FOXP3 that controls their function. These findings reshaped our understanding of autoimmunity, transplantation, and cancer immunotherapy.
Background: Why the Question Matters
- The immune system must discriminate between foreign threats such as pathogens and the body’s own cells.
- Earlier, the focus was on central tolerance — the deletion of self-reactive T-cells in the thymus.
- However, many autoimmune disorders and transplant-related responses indicated that further regulation existed outside the thymus.
- This led to the discovery of peripheral immune tolerance, which actively suppresses self-reactive cells throughout the body.
(Image Source: UCIR.org)
Contributions of the Laureates
Shimon Sakaguchi (1995)
- Through experiments in mice, Sakaguchi demonstrated that a small subset of CD4⁺ T cells expressing the CD25 marker prevents autoimmune disease. Removing these CD4⁺CD25⁺ cells caused widespread autoimmunity. This work established the existence and suppressive function of regulatory T cells (T-regs).
Mary E. Brunkow and Frederick J. Ramsdell (2001)
- These researchers identified the transcription factor FOXP3 as essential for the development and function of T-regs. Mutations in FOXP3 were linked to a rare but severe autoimmune disorder — IPEX syndrome — in humans, as well as a similar condition in mice known as the scurfy phenotype. This discovery proved that T-regs are genetically programmed to maintain self-tolerance.
Significance and Applications
- Autoimmune Diseases: The findings explain the underlying mechanism of diseases such as type-1 diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, and IPEX syndrome. Therapeutic strategies now focus on enhancing T-reg activity to control these diseases.
- Transplantation: Strengthening T-reg function could reduce transplant rejection and limit the need for life-long immunosuppressive drugs.
- Cancer Immunotherapy: Tumours often evade immune attacks by recruiting T-regs. Reducing T-reg activity in cancer patients can help activate the immune system against tumours.
- Drug Development: These discoveries have opened the door for clinical trials exploring cell-based therapies targeting T-regs and FOXP3 for a range of diseases.
Policy Relevance for India
- Health R&D: India should invest in immunology research, develop specialised centres for autoimmune diseases, and encourage academia-industry collaboration for affordable therapies.
- Clinical Trials & Infrastructure: Expanding ethically regulated cell-therapy facilities and clinical trial centres will enable India to participate in global research.
- Public Health Preparedness: Better diagnostics for autoimmune disorders and genetic screening for conditions like IPEX can support early interventions.
- Equity & Access: Policies must ensure new therapies are affordable and included in public health insurance schemes.
CARE MCQ
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding peripheral immune tolerance and regulatory T cells (T-regs):
- Regulatory T cells (T-regs) suppress immune responses to prevent autoimmunity.
- Peripheral immune tolerance occurs only in the thymus.
- FOXP3 gene mutations impair T-reg function and can lead to autoimmune disorders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer 2- A
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: T-regs actively suppress self-reactive immune cells, preventing autoimmune attacks and maintaining peripheral immune tolerance.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Peripheral tolerance occurs outside the thymus. T-cell deletion in the thymus is part of central tolerance, not peripheral tolerance.
- Statement 3 is correct: FOXP3 is a key transcription factor for T-reg development. Mutations in FOXP3 impair T-reg function, causing autoimmune disorders such as IPEX syndrome.
- Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022)
(a) They protect the environmental allergens. body
(b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
(c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
(d) They protect the body from diseases caused by pathogens.
Ans: (d)
India’s Geopolitical Balancing in a Changing Global Trade Order
Source: The Hindu
UPSC Relevance: GS 2 International Relations
Context: India’s Geopolitical role in global trade
Why in News?
Recently, EAM S. Jaishankar emphasised that India’s national interests are best secured through strategic autonomy and multi-alignment in a multipolar world.
Background:
- On October 6, 2025, at the launch of the Aravalli Summit at Jawaharlal Nehru University’s School of International Studies (SIS) — marking its 70th anniversary — External Affairs Minister (EAM) Dr. S. Jaishankar emphasised that India’s national interests are best secured by “strategic autonomy” rather than exclusive alignment with any one power bloc.
What is “Strategic Autonomy”?
- Strategic autonomy refers to India’s ability to take independent foreign-policy decisions guided by national interests, without being constrained by military, economic, or ideological alignments with major powers.
- Historical roots: The policy emerged during the Cold War, shaped by the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) under leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru.
- Evolution: While NAM emphasised neutrality between blocs, strategic autonomy is more pragmatic, enabling India to cooperate flexibly with all partners (a concept often described as multi-alignment).
Historical Precedent: The 1971 Indo-Soviet Treaty
- Jaishankar recalled India’s decision during the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War to sign the Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation with the Soviet Union.
- At that time, India faced a “triangular threat” from the U.S. and China, which supported Pakistan.
- Aligning with the USSR was a “necessary choice in the national interest”, illustrating that autonomy means choosing partners based on circumstances, not ideology.
- This decision strengthened India’s strategic security during a major crisis.
Key Points from Jaishankar’s Address
(a) Multi-Alignment and Multipolarity
- The world is no longer bipolar or unipolar; emerging multipolarity demands that countries like India diversify partnerships.
- Recent U.S. tariff impositions and global volatility prove that relying on one power can be risky.
- Multi-alignment enables India to “maximise its options and maintain freedom of choices.”
(b) Preserving Autonomy amid U.S. Pressure
- While India seeks closer ties with the U.S., Jaishankar underlined that relations “cannot come at any cost.”
- Trade negotiations must respect India’s “red lines.”
- On Russian oil imports, India prioritises energy security and affordability, balancing relations with both the U.S. and Russia.
(c) Neighbourhood First Policy
- India should “underwrite the infrastructure for cooperation” with its neighbours — roads, railways, energy grids, people-to-people movement — to become the “go-to option” for the region.
- Except for one problematic neighbour (implied Pakistan), India has brought “transformational changes” in regional connectivity.
- Managing neighbours is about “managing relationships to national advantage, not merely solving problems.”
(d) India-Pakistan Equation
- India cannot “wish away a difficult neighbour”; managing Pakistan remains a strategic reality.
- Jaishankar stressed that the world no longer draws equivalence between India and Pakistan, despite recent developments like Operation Sindoor and shifting Saudi-China-Turkiye engagement with Islamabad.
(Image Source: Nice Nepal)
Significance of Jaishankar’s Position
(i) For India’s Foreign Policy
- Reaffirms the doctrine that foreign policy is interest-driven, not alliance-bound.
- Provides intellectual justification for India’s purchase of Russian oil, participation in QUAD, and engagement with Global South simultaneously.
(ii) For Global South Leadership
- Shows that middle powers like India can retain agency amid great-power rivalries.
- Highlights the demand for reform of global governance institutions to reflect multipolar realities.
(iii) For Regional Diplomacy
- Strengthens the case for neighbourhood development assistance to counter Chinese influence.
- Encourages India to act as a “net security provider” in the Indian Ocean and South Asia.
Challenges to Strategic Autonomy
- Economic interdependence: Heavy reliance on energy imports and trade ties with the U.S./EU.
- Geopolitical pressures: Western sanctions on Russia, China’s assertiveness, and Middle-East instability.
- Technology dependence: Need for cooperation in critical tech (semiconductors, defence, AI).
- Regional instability: Fragile governments in neighbours like Sri Lanka, Nepal, and Afghanistan.
Policy Implications
- Continue to diversify energy sources and defence partnerships.
- Invest in regional connectivity and infrastructure financing to enhance goodwill and reduce neighbours’ dependence on external powers.
- Strengthen domestic capabilities (Atmanirbhar Bharat) to reduce vulnerability to external pressure.
- Promote rule-based multilateralism and reforms in WTO, UNSC, IMF to secure developing countries’ interests.
Conclusion
As the global order becomes more fragmented, India’s emphasis on strategic autonomy, multi-alignment, and neighbourhood development provides a roadmap to safeguard sovereignty, optimise choices, and enhance India’s global stature.
CARE MCQ
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding India’s strategic autonomy:
- Strategic autonomy allows India to take independent foreign-policy decisions based on national interests.
- India’s 1971 Indo-Soviet Treaty during the Bangladesh Liberation War is cited as an example of exercising strategic autonomy.
- Multi-alignment implies India should avoid all international alliances.
- India’s “Neighbourhood First” policy focuses on becoming the preferred partner by supporting regional infrastructure and connectivity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. All of the above
Answer 3- B
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Strategic autonomy means India makes independent foreign-policy decisions guided by national interests.
- Statement 2 is correct: The 1971 Indo-Soviet Treaty during the Bangladesh Liberation War is a historical example of India exercising strategic autonomy.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Multi-alignment does not mean avoiding alliances; it refers to flexible engagement with multiple powers while retaining independence.
- Statement 4 is correct: India’s Neighbourhood First policy aims to support regional infrastructure and connectivity, making India the preferred partner for neighbouring countries.
- Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. Consider the following statements: (2020)
- The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade.
- “Textile and textile articles” constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh.
- In the last five years, Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
UNESCO’s Executive Board nominates Khaled El-Enany: significance, context and implications
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations
Context: About UNESCO
Why in News?
UNESCO’s Executive Board nominated Egypt’s former Minister of Antiquities, Khaled El-Enany, as its candidate for Director-General, pending approval by the General Conference.
Introduction
- On 6 October 2025, UNESCO’s Executive Board nominated Khaled El-Enany, former Egyptian Minister of Antiquities and Tourism, as its candidate for Director-General. The nomination now goes to the UNESCO General Conference for final appointment.
What happened — procedural facts
- The UNESCO Executive Board, in its 222nd session, voted to nominate Khaled El-Enany for the post of Director-General.
- El-Enany defeated his main rival, Édouard Firmin Matoko of the Republic of Congo.
- The final appointment will be decided by UNESCO’s General Conference in Uzbekistan next month.
(Image Source : Indian Express)
Candidate profile
- Professional background: Khaled El-Enany is an Egyptologist and academic. He served as Egypt’s Minister of Antiquities (2016–2019) and later as Minister of Tourism and Antiquities. He led major cultural and museum projects in Egypt.
- Support base: He has backing from the African Union and the Arab League. His supporters argue that his outsider status in the UN system may help him implement reforms effectively.
Broader context
- Funding crisis: The nomination follows the United States’ withdrawal from UNESCO in July 2025, creating a significant budgetary gap.
- Regional representation: If confirmed, El-Enany would be the first Arab Director-General, marking a milestone in regional representation.
- Reform expectations: Member states expect the incoming DG to pursue institutional reforms, diversify funding, and strengthen transparency.
Key challenges
- Budget shortfall and funding diversification.
- Perception of politicisation: Ensuring technical credibility while addressing political criticism.
- Operational reforms: Strengthening administrative efficiency, programme delivery, and results-orientation.
- External relations: Engaging major donors, regional blocs, and balancing geopolitical influences.
Implications for India
- Heritage and technical cooperation: Changes in UNESCO priorities or funding could affect India’s World Heritage projects and cultural programmes.
- Diplomatic engagement: India can use cultural diplomacy, technical assistance, and coalition-building to maintain influence in UNESCO decision-making.
Policy recommendations
- For UNESCO leadership:
- Ensure rapid and transparent fiscal planning.
- Strengthen independent technical arms of UNESCO to insulate programmes from political pressure.
- Diversify donor base while safeguarding independence.
- For India:
- Protect technical norms in World Heritage processes.
- Offer capacity-building partnerships to maintain visibility.
- Engage in coalition-building to influence UNESCO priorities.
Conclusion
- The nomination of Khaled El-Enany is both symbolic and institutional. It highlights Arab representation in UNESCO and comes at a time of financial and political challenges.
- Effective leadership will require balancing funding, governance reforms, and member-state expectations while safeguarding UNESCO’s mission in education, science, and culture.
CARE MCQ
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding UNESCO:
- UNESCO was established in 1945 and is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
- Its mandate includes promoting education, science, culture, and protecting World Heritage sites.
- The Director-General of UNESCO is appointed directly by the UN General Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer 4-A
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) was established in 1945 as a UN specialized agency.
- Statement 2 is correct: Its mandate includes education, science, culture, and safeguarding World Heritage sites globally.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The Director-General is nominated by the UNESCO Executive Board and formally appointed by the UNESCO General Conference, not the UN General Assembly.
- Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. India is a member of which among the following? (2013)
- Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
- Association of South-East Asian Nations
- East Asia Summit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- 1 and 2 only
- 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
- India is a member of none of them
Ans: (b)
India’s Strategic Autonomy in a Multipolar World
Source: Indian Express
UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations
Context: India’s Strategic Autonomy
Why in News?
US tariffs on Russian oil imports via India highlight the challenges of global trade uncertainty and India’s strategic balancing between the West and other powers.
Introduction
- The recent US tariffs on Russian-origin oil imported by India have highlighted the growing use of trade measures as instruments of geopolitical strategy.
- This has brought attention to India’s balancing role in a changing global trade order amid rising uncertainty and protectionism.
(Image Source: The Indian Express)
Changing US Trade Policy
- US trade actions focus on protecting “old-style” industries (like steel, aluminium, manufacturing) instead of leveraging its comparative advantage in high-tech sectors.
- Short-term effects of tariffs appear limited, but long-term uncertainty is “toxic”:
- Corporations hesitate or suspend investments.
- Uncertainty weakens confidence in markets.
- Effects are slow to appear but hard to reverse once entrenched.
- US-EU trade arrangements are often security-driven rather than purely economic.
- Landau warns that a proliferation of ad-hoc deals with different countries, driven by geopolitical motives, risks fragmenting global trade norms.
India’s Russian Oil Imports & US Tariffs
- India increased Russian oil imports after the Ukraine war, benefiting from discounted crude.
- The US responded by imposing tariffs on products refined from Russian oil, including those re-exported by India.
- Expert’s concerns:
- Tariffs as geopolitical coercion is counterproductive; they introduce volatility and distrust in the trading system.
- Sanctions may sometimes be used as alternatives to military conflict, but tariffs disrupt trade flows and investments.
- India, as a stabilising force in geopolitics, may sometimes take steps not aligned with Western preferences, which is natural for a balancing power.
- West should not perceive India’s balancing act as conflict with Western goals.
India’s Geopolitical Balancing Act
- India is a key “force for equilibrium and stabilisation” in global affairs:
- India’s foreign policy seeks strategic autonomy — maintaining relations with both the West (US, EU) and the Global South (Russia, Africa).
- This positioning benefits global stability but can also create friction with Western partners.
- Key concern: India’s efforts at balancing should not take it too far away from the Western world, which could undermine its technology and investment partnerships.
- Optimistic note: India’s technology, industrious workforce, and adaptability make it well-positioned for continued growth.
Globalisation: Winners, Losers & the African Challenge
- Despite criticisms, globalisation has lifted billions out of poverty and must not be abandoned.
- Africa will be a crucial region for the future:
- Its population is projected to double in 30 years.
- Growth opportunities in Africa will largely depend on continued globalisation.
- A stagnating Africa could lead to global social, economic, and migration crises.
- India’s growing interest in Africa could make it a bridge between globalisation and African development.
China’s Bid to Lead Global Trade
- China aims to offer an “alternative globalisation model” to challenge the US-led system.
- Its main instrument has been the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI):
- Successful for China’s influence but disruptive for global trade flows.
- Contrary to earlier hopes, China has not co-managed global systems with other nations.
- Landau stresses the need for the global community to integrate China’s ambitions within a coherent framework to prevent further fragmentation.
Implications for India
- Opportunities
- Leverage strategic location: India can serve as a bridge between the West and Global South.
- Technology-driven growth: India’s innovation ecosystem and demographic advantage support its rise in global supply chains.
- African outreach: Collaborating with Africa offers new markets and strengthens India’s global standing.
- Challenges
- Balancing energy security and Western alignment: Dependence on Russian oil must be weighed against Western sensitivities.
- Navigating uncertainty in global trade: India must protect its export-oriented industries from tariff shocks.
- Competing with China’s influence: India needs alternative initiatives to BRI, such as the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC).
CARE MCQ
Q5. Considering India-China-US-Africa dynamics, which of the following statements is most accurate?
- Over-dependence on one bloc (West or China) can reduce India’s strategic flexibility.
- Africa represents both an opportunity and a challenge in terms of population growth and resource needs.
- Tariffs and sanctions as geopolitical tools can affect global trust and investment.
Select the correct answer:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1, 2, and 3
d. 2 and 3 only
Answer: C
Explanation
- Statement 1 is correct: Over-reliance on either the Western bloc or China can limit India’s strategic autonomy, reducing its ability to act as an independent stabilising power in global geopolitics.
- Statement 2 is correct: Africa’s rapid population growth and resource potential present both opportunities for trade and investment and challenges related to infrastructure, governance, and sustainability.
- Statement 3 is correct: Tariffs and sanctions, such as US measures on Russian oil imports via India, can disrupt investment flows, create uncertainty, and erode trust among trading partners, impacting global trade stability.
- Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
UPSC PYQ
Q. The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions? (2022)
a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
d) The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea
Ans: (a)