APPSC CARE 3rd September 2025 Current Affairs

News at a Glance

• Andhra Pradesh: Annamayya district declared “illicit liquor-free”
• Air pollution reducing life expectancy in Andhra Pradesh by 2.1 years
• International Relations: The ‘Axis of Upheaval’ and Global Realignments: Implications for India
• Polity and Governance: Right to Education (RTE) exemption for minority schools
• Immigration and Foreigners Order, 2025
• Universal Health Care in India: Challenges and the Illusion of Insurance-Driven Models
• Economy: Semicon India 2025: Vikram Processor Boosts India’s Chip Ambitions
• Environment and Ecology: Expansion of Glacial Lakes in India: A Growing Climate Challenge
  Annamayya district declared “illicit liquor-free”

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/annamayya-district-declared-illicit-liquor-free/article70004266.ece

APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Governance

Context: Illicit liquor-free

Why in News

Annamayya district (Andhra Pradesh) was declared an “illicit liquor-free” district under the Navodayam 2.0 initiative.

Introduction

• Illicit liquor brewing and consumption has been a persistent socio-economic and public health problem across several parts of India.
• On September 2, 2025, Annamayya district (Andhra Pradesh) was declared an “illicit liquor-free” district under the Navodayam 2.0 initiative, marking a significant achievement in community sensitisation, law enforcement, and rehabilitation.

Key Highlights of the Initiative

1. District-Level Mobilisation
   • Committees at the district, mandal, and village levels conducted awareness campaigns.
   • Emphasis was placed on the health hazards (e.g., liver damage, deaths from spurious liquor) and legal consequences of illicit brewing.
2. Extent of the Problem
   • 71 villages in the district were previously affected by illicit brewing.
   • 650 offenders identified; of these, 494 were rehabilitated into mainstream society.

(Image Source: New Indian Express)

1. Law Enforcement Measures
   • Police and revenue officials conducted raids in vulnerable areas.
   • 65 jaggery merchants (key suppliers of raw material for brewing) were questioned and monitored to choke supply chains.
2. Rehabilitation and Alternatives
   • 325 individuals were given loans to pursue alternative livelihoods.
   • 125 individuals received District Rural Development Agency (DRDA) support for income generation.
3. Leadership & Coordination
   • Initiative spearheaded by District Collector Sridhar Chamakuri and Superintendent of Police V. Vidyasagar Naidu.
   • Involvement of Excise, Revenue, and Police departments ensured convergence.

Broader Significance

1. Public Health
   • Curtailing illicit liquor prevents alcohol poisoning, blindness, and fatalities often caused by methanol-laced brews.
   • Reduction in long-term health burden on hospitals and families.
2. Law & Order
   • Weakening of local brewing networks prevents associated crimes such as smuggling, extortion, and gang activities.
3. Socio-Economic Impact
   • Rehabilitation through loans and DRDA support promotes economic self-reliance.
   • Reduces dependency on an illegal and exploitative trade.
4. Community Engagement
   • Sustained awareness campaigns built social pressure against illicit liquor consumption.
   • Strengthened local governance mechanisms at the village level.

Challenges Ahead

• Sustainability: Preventing relapse into brewing requires continuous vigilance and alternative livelihoods.
• Supply Chain Networks: Jaggery and spirit smuggling networks may shift to neighbouring districts.
• Cultural Practices: In some rural areas, liquor brewing has traditional and social roots, making eradication harder.
• Monitoring Mechanisms: Need for real-time data collection and surveillance to ensure compliance.

Policy and Governance Linkages

• Navodayam 2.0 Initiative: Focused on eradicating illicit liquor and providing alternatives for offenders.
• NDPS Act & State Excise Acts: Legal framework to penalize brewing, possession, and sale of illicit liquor.
• Rehabilitation Schemes: Alignment with skill development, SHGs, and rural employment programmes.
• SDG Alignment: Supports SDG 3 (Good Health & Well-being) and SDG 16 (Peace, Justice & Strong Institutions).

Way Forward

1. Institutionalisation: Develop a District Illicit Liquor Monitoring Cell for continuous oversight.
2. Alternative Livelihoods: Expand access to microfinance, skill training, and SHG-based enterprises.
3. Technology Use: Employ GIS mapping and surveillance drones to detect hidden brewing units.
4. Community Ownership: Strengthen Gram Sabhas and SHGs to act as watchdogs against illicit brewing.
5. Replication Model: The Annamayya experiment can serve as a model for other districts facing similar challenges.

Conclusion

• The declaration of Annamayya as an illicit liquor-free district under Navodayam 2.0 is a significant governance success showcasing how a coordinated approach—combining awareness, enforcement, and rehabilitation—can tackle deep-rooted social issues.
• However, sustained vigilance and livelihood alternatives will be crucial to ensure that the district remains free of illicit brewing in the long term.

CARE MCQ

Q1. With reference to the Navodayam 2.0 initiative recently in news, consider the following statements:

1. Under Navodayam 2.0, Annamayya has been declared an “illicit liquor-free” district.
2. The initiative combines awareness campaigns, law enforcement measures, and rehabilitation support for offenders.
3. Loans and District Rural Development Agency (DRDA) support were provided to rehabilitated individuals as part of the programme.
4. The initiative was launched by the Central Government under the National Policy on Drug Demand Reduction (NPDDR).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 1 and 4 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer 1- A

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Annamayya district in Andhra Pradesh was officially declared “illicit liquor-free” on September 2, 2025, under the Navodayam 2.0 initiative.
• Statement 2 is correct: The initiative adopted a three-pronged approach—awareness campaigns by committees at the district, mandal, and village levels; strict law enforcement raids against brewing units and suppliers; and rehabilitation support for offenders.
• Statement 3 is correct: As part of rehabilitation, 325 individuals were given loans and 125 were supported by the District Rural Development Agency (DRDA) to pursue alternative livelihoods.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Navodayam 2.0 is a State-level programme of Andhra Pradesh, not a Central Government initiative under NPDDR.
• Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Air pollution reducing life expectancy in Andhra Pradesh by 2.1 years

Source: Times of India

https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/vijayawada/air-pollution-reducing-life-expectancy-in-andhra-pradesh-by-2-1-years-aqli-report/articleshow/123619139.cms? .

APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Ecology and Environment

Context: Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) 2025 report

Why in News

The Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) 2025 report shows that air pollution is reducing the life expectancy of people in Andhra Pradesh by 2.1 years.

Introduction

• Air pollution has emerged as one of the most pressing environmental and public health challenges of the 21st century.
• According to the Air Quality Life Index (AQLI), prepared by the Energy Policy Institute at the University of Chicago (EPIC), air pollution is the greatest external risk to human health in India, reducing life expectancy more than malnutrition, tobacco, or unsafe water.
• For Andhra Pradesh, the report shows that air pollution is reducing life expectancy by 2.1 years, with urban areas such as Visakhapatnam and Vijayawada facing particularly high levels of PM2.5 pollution.

Key Findings of the AQLI Report

1. India-wide Scenario
   • India’s average PM2.5 concentration in 2023 was 41 µg/m³.
   • This is over 8 times higher than the WHO guideline of 5 µg/m³.
   • If levels were reduced to meet WHO standards, average life expectancy in India would increase by 3.5 years.

(Image Source: Times of India)

1. Andhra Pradesh
   • Average PM2.5 concentration: 26 µg/m³, nearly 5 times higher than WHO’s safe limit.
   • Life expectancy loss: 2.1 years.
   • Visakhapatnam: 40–50 µg/m³ (8× WHO limit).
   • Vijayawada: 30–40 µg/m³.
2. Comparison with Other Risk Factors
   • Air pollution: 3.5 years (potential life expectancy gain if WHO standards met).
   • Malnutrition: 1.6 years.
   • Tobacco use: 1.5 years.
   • Unsafe water, sanitation & hygiene: 8.4 months.
3. Trend Over Time
   • 1998: 17.8 µg/m³.
   • 2021: >30 µg/m³ (increase of over 70% in 23 years).
   • Today, 50% of AP’s population exposed to >30 µg/m³ levels.
4. Northern Plains Contrast
   • The most polluted region in India (Delhi, Punjab, Haryana, UP, Rajasthan).
   • Residents could gain 5 years of life expectancy if WHO standards were met.

Causes of Air Pollution in Andhra Pradesh

1. Industrial Emissions – Major factor in Visakhapatnam, due to steel plants, power plants, and ports.
2. Vehicular Pollution – Rising number of vehicles in urban centres.
3. Construction Dust – Unregulated urban growth, especially in Vijayawada.
4. Road Dust Resuspension – Poor road conditions add to particulate levels.
5. Biomass Burning – Domestic cooking and agricultural residue burning.

Global and National Standards

• WHO Guidelines (2021 update):
  • PM2.5 annual safe limit: 5 µg/m³ (revised from 10).
  • PM10 annual limit: 15 µg/m³ (revised from 20).
• India’s National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS):
  • PM2.5 annual limit: 40 µg/m³.
  • PM10 annual limit: 60 µg/m³.

India’s standards remain far weaker than WHO’s thresholds.

Policy and Governance Dimensions

1. National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
   • Launched in 2019, aims to reduce PM2.5 and PM10 levels by 20–30% by 2024 (extended to 2026).
   • Covers 132 non-attainment cities.
2. Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM):
   • Supervises pollution control in the Delhi NCR and adjoining states.
3. State-Level Measures:
   • Andhra Pradesh State Pollution Control Board (APPCB) monitoring and enforcement.
   • Promotion of electric vehicles, renewable energy, and cleaner fuels.

Challenges

• Weak Standards: India’s NAAQS much higher than WHO’s safe limits.
• Urbanisation Pressure: Expanding cities increasing vehicular and construction pollution.
• Industrial Compliance: Inadequate monitoring of industrial emissions.
• Limited Rural Monitoring: Air quality data sparse outside major cities.
• Climate Linkage: Rising temperatures worsen smog and ground-level ozone.

Way Forward

1. Strengthening Standards: Align India’s NAAQS more closely with WHO guidelines.
2. Industrial Controls: Stricter emission norms for industries and power plants.
3. Transport Reforms: Expansion of public transport, EVs, and CNG-based mobility.
4. Construction Regulation: Mandate dust suppression, waste recycling, and green building codes.
5. Awareness and Health Interventions: Educating citizens, providing air purifiers in schools/hospitals, and expanding access to healthcare.
6. Regional Cooperation: Addressing transboundary pollution in Northern Plains through inter-state mechanisms.

Conclusion

• The AQLI report underscores that air pollution is India’s leading health risk, cutting more years from life expectancy than malnutrition, unsafe water, or tobacco.
• Andhra Pradesh alone loses 2.1 years of life expectancy on average, with Visakhapatnam and Vijayawada among the most polluted cities in the state.
• Tackling this crisis demands a multi-pronged approach—stricter standards, cleaner technologies, industrial compliance, urban planning reforms, and community participation.
• Unless urgent action is taken, India’s demographic dividend risks being undermined by the silent but deadly burden of polluted air.

CARE MCQ

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Air Quality Life Index (AQLI) 2025 report in India:

1. Andhra Pradesh recorded an average PM2.5 concentration of 26 µg/m³, nearly five times higher than the WHO guideline.
2. Air pollution reduces life expectancy in Andhra Pradesh by 2.1 years, higher than the national average of 3.5 years.
3. The WHO revised its safe annual PM2.5 guideline in 2021, lowering it from 10 µg/m³ to 5 µg/m³.
4. In Visakhapatnam, PM2.5 levels are nearly eight times higher than WHO’s guideline.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1, 3 and 4 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1, 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer 2- A

Explanation:

• Statement (1) is correct: Andhra Pradesh recorded an annual average PM2.5 concentration of 26 µg/m³, nearly five times higher than the WHO’s revised guideline of 5 µg/m³ (2021). This directly links to the 2.1 years reduction in life expectancy.
• Statement (2) is incorrect: The reduction in life expectancy for Andhra Pradesh is 2.1 years, which is lower than the national average of 3.5 years. Thus, the statement wrongly mentions it as higher.
• Statement (3) is correct: The World Health Organization revised its air quality guidelines in 2021, reducing the annual safe PM2.5 limit from 10 µg/m³ to 5 µg/m³. This was the first revision since 2005 and reflects growing health concerns from even lower pollution exposure.
• Statement (4) is correct: Visakhapatnam reports an average PM2.5 concentration of 40–50 µg/m³, which is nearly eight times higher than WHO’s prescribed limit, making it one of the most polluted cities in Andhra Pradesh.
• Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

The ‘Axis of Upheaval’ and Global Realignments: Implications for India

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/axis-of-upheaval-10226150/

UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations

Context: Axis of Upheaval

Why in News

The “Axis of Upheaval” (CRINK: China, Russia, Iran, North Korea) is an informal alignment of dissatisfied states challenging the US-led global order through economic, military, and political cooperation.

Introduction

• The international order today is witnessing turbulence marked by wars, tariffs, and the rise of strongman leaders.
• A new loose alignment of states—China, Russia, Iran, and North Korea—has been described as the “Axis of Upheaval” (also called CRINK).
• This grouping is not a formal alliance but represents a convergence of dissatisfied powers seeking to challenge the US-led global order.
• The recent Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Summit (August 31–September 1, 2025) highlighted this shift, with China advocating for a “multipolar world” and denouncing Western dominance.

Origins of the ‘Axis of Upheaval’

• The term was first popularised in April 2024 in an article on Foreign Affairs by Andrea Kendall-Taylor and Richard Fontaine of the Center for a New American Security (CNAS).
• It described China, Russia, Iran, and North Korea as states with “deepening economic, military, political, and technological ties,” united by dissatisfaction with the US-led order.
• The grouping is not an alliance but a coalition of convenience with the shared aim of overturning global rules and institutions dominated by the West.
• The idea gained traction quickly: NATO hosted a 2024 panel discussion on the topic, and military leaders in the UK cited it as a direct security concern.

(Image Source: Indian Express)

Historical Context

• The term “Axis of Upheaval” was earlier used in 2009 by historian Niall Ferguson, though in a different sense. He referred to unstable countries (Somalia, Mexico, Afghanistan) facing crises like anarchy, drug wars, and terrorism, rather than revisionist states.
• The concept thus evolved from describing global instability to characterising a strategic anti-Western alignment in the 2020s.

Members of the Axis (CRINK)

1. China

• Aspires to reshape global institutions and promote multipolarity.
• Maintains strong economic ties with the West but backs Russia diplomatically over Ukraine.
• Seeks to act as a peace broker in conflicts like Ukraine and the Middle East to protect its trade and investments.

2. Russia

• Increasingly isolated after the 2014 Crimea annexation and the 2022 Ukraine war.
• Strengthened ties with China through energy pacts (e.g., new natural gas pipelines).
• Relies on Iranian drones and North Korean weapons amid Western sanctions.

3. Iran

• Heavily dependent on China for trade; supplies oil despite sanctions.
• Deepened ties with Russia post-Ukraine invasion.
• However, both China and Russia maintain cautious distance to protect broader regional interests.

4. North Korea

• Provided weapons and troops to Russia for the Ukraine war.
• Sought to reduce dependence on China but strained relations with Beijing in the process.
• Recent military parade attendance in China signals attempts to repair ties.

Dynamics of the Axis

• Not a formal alliance: Unlike NATO, CRINK lacks binding commitments or a shared security framework.
• Shared interests but conflicting goals:
  • China avoids being fully tied to Russia’s Ukraine war.
  • Russia benefits from Iran and North Korea but does not share deep defence cooperation.
  • North Korea risks marginalisation if overly dependent on either China or Russia.
• Anti-West orientation remains the only binding glue.

India’s Position

Engagement with the Axis Powers

• Member of SCO and BRICS, where China, Russia, and Iran are present.
• Historical defence and energy ties with Russia.
• Gradual stabilisation of ties with China post-border tensions.
• Growing economic partnership with Iran (particularly in energy and Chabahar Port).

Relations with the US

• Despite participation in groupings with CRINK states, India maintains deep engagement with the US (trade, technology, defence, QUAD).
• Current tensions:
  • US tariffs on Indian exports and penalties on Russian oil imports.
  • Trump administration’s criticism of India’s high tariff regime.

Strategic Balancing

• India emphasises strategic autonomy—engaging with multiple poles without aligning exclusively with any.
• Example: Continued import of discounted Russian oil despite Western pressure.
• Simultaneously expands cooperation with Japan, ASEAN, and the US on Indo-Pacific security.

Implications for India

1. Geopolitical Opportunities
   • India can leverage multipolarity to enhance its bargaining power.
   • Shared forums (SCO, BRICS) allow India to voice its perspectives and avoid isolation in Eurasia.
2. Economic Challenges
   • Trade tensions with the US may affect India’s export-driven sectors.
   • Over-reliance on Russian energy may expose India to secondary sanctions.
3. Security Concerns
   • CRINK’s deepening military cooperation could alter power balances in Eurasia and the Indo-Pacific.
   • North Korea’s missile exports or Iran’s drone supply chains may indirectly affect India’s security environment.
4. Diplomatic Tightrope
   • India must avoid being perceived as siding with either the West or CRINK.
   • Maintaining neutrality on issues like Ukraine, while pursuing its own energy and security interests, is critical.

Conclusion

• The “Axis of Upheaval” reflects the ongoing transformation of the global order into a more contested, multipolar system.
• For India, the challenge lies in navigating between its long-standing partnerships with Russia and Iran, its pragmatic engagement with China in multilateral forums, and its growing strategic convergence with the United States and other democracies in the Indo-Pacific.

CARE MCQ

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the “Axis of Upheaval”:

1. The term was first popularised in 2024 by analysts Andrea Kendall-Taylor and Richard Fontaine.
2. It is a formal military alliance between China, Russia, Iran, and North Korea, created in response to NATO expansion.
3. Its primary aim is to overturn the principles and institutions of the prevailing US-dominated international system.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 3 – C

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: The term “Axis of Upheaval” was first used in Foreign Affairs (April 2024) by Andrea Kendall-Taylor and Richard Fontaine of the Center for a New American Security (CNAS).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: CRINK (China, Russia, Iran, North Korea) is not a formal alliance like NATO; it is a loose grouping of dissatisfied states without binding commitments.
• Statement 3 is correct: The collective aim of this alignment is to challenge and overturn the US-led global order, its principles, and institutions.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.   
UPSC PYQ

Q.  “Belt and Road Initiative” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of: (2016)

(a) African Union

(b) Brazil

(c) European Union

(d) China

Ans: d

Right to Education (RTE) exemption for minority schools

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/sc-revisit-right-to-education-minority-schools-10226037/

UPSC Relevance: GS 2 Polity and Governance

Context: Right to Education (RTE)

Why in News

The Supreme Court has referred the 2014 Pramati judgment exempting minority institutions from the RTE Act to a larger bench.

Introduction

• The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 was enacted to universalize elementary education for children aged 6–14. It mandated norms such as free seats for disadvantaged groups, teacher eligibility standards, and infrastructure requirements.
• However, in Pramati Educational & Cultural Trust vs Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court exempted minority institutions (aided and unaided) from compliance with the Act, particularly the 25% quota under Section 12(1)(c).
• In September 2025, a two-judge bench questioned whether this blanket exemption was justified, observing that it undermined the goal of inclusive education. The matter has now been referred to a larger bench for reconsideration.

Provisions of the RTE Act (2009)

The Act operationalizes Article 21A, which guarantees free and compulsory education. It mandates:

• Government schools: Free education for all children.
• Aided schools: Free seats proportional to aid received.
• Private unaided schools: Reservation of 25% of entry-level seats for disadvantaged groups (with state reimbursement).
• Norms and standards: Teacher qualifications (TET), pupil-teacher ratio, infrastructure, ban on capitation fees and corporal punishment.

The philosophy, as R. Govinda (RTE draft committee) noted, was child-centric, aiming at equality, social justice, and inclusivity.

(Image Source: Indian Express)

Judicial Developments

1. Initial Challenges (2010–2012)

• Private schools and minority groups challenged RTE, citing violation of Article 19(1)(g) (freedom of occupation) and Article 30(1) (minority rights).
• In Society for Unaided Private Schools of Rajasthan vs Union of India (2012), the SC upheld the Act as a “reasonable restriction” on school management.
• However, it exempted unaided minority schools, ruling that imposing quotas could alter their character.

2. The Pramati Case (2014)

• A five-judge Constitution Bench extended the exemption to both aided and unaided minority schools.
• It held that forcing compliance with RTE would violate Article 30(1), which protects minorities’ right to establish and administer educational institutions.
• Result: A large number of schools were excluded from RTE’s purview.

3. Current Debate (2025)

• In a case concerning the applicability of Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) to minority schools, Justices Dipankar Datta and Manmohan held that the Pramati judgment went “too far.”
• Observations:
  • Blanket exemption undermines universal education under Article 21A.
  • Teacher quality and infrastructure standards do not erode minority identity.
  • The 25% quota may be implemented flexibly — e.g., by admitting disadvantaged children from the same minority group.
  • Articles 21A (child’s right) and 30(1) (minority rights) must coexist.
• Since a two-judge bench cannot overrule a five-judge ruling, the case has been referred to a larger bench (likely seven judges).

Concerns with Blanket Exemption

1. Educational Exclusion: Millions of children from disadvantaged groups remain outside elite classrooms.
2. Misuse of Minority Status: Several private schools obtained minority certification only to bypass RTE norms.
3. Equity Deficit: The 25% quota was intended as a tool of social integration — enabling children of different backgrounds to learn together.
4. Regulatory Loophole: Minority schools (even aided ones funded by the state) escape accountability on teacher quality, infrastructure, and inclusivity.

Implications of Reconsideration

• If Pramati is overturned:
  • Minority schools (especially those receiving state aid) will need to comply with RTE provisions.
  • Greater diversity in classrooms, reducing social and economic segregation.
  • Uniform standards of teacher qualifications and infrastructure across all schools.
• If upheld:
  • Minority schools will continue to enjoy exemption, perpetuating inequalities and creating dual standards in education.

Broader Significance

• Child Rights Perspective: Education is a fundamental right of the child, not merely an administrative matter for institutions.
• Constitutional Balance: The challenge is to reconcile Article 21A (right to education) with Article 30(1) (minority rights).
• Policy Direction: The debate highlights whether India prioritizes institutional autonomy or children’s entitlements in its education framework.

Conclusion

• The exemption granted in Pramati (2014) diluted the inclusive vision of the RTE Act. By reopening the debate, the Supreme Court is attempting to re-align minority rights with the constitutional mandate of universal education.
• A balanced approach may involve respecting minority autonomy while ensuring that no child is denied equitable access to quality education.
• The upcoming larger bench ruling will thus have far-reaching consequences for India’s education system, social equity, and constitutional interpretation.

CARE MCQ

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009:

1. The Act operationalises Article 21A of the Constitution, making education a fundamental right for children aged 6–14.
2. Section 12(1)(c) of the Act mandates 25% reservation in private unaided schools for children from disadvantaged groups.
3. In Pramati Educational and Cultural Trust vs Union of India (2014), the Supreme Court held that the RTE Act cannot be applied to minority schools, aided or unaided.
4. The Supreme Court in 2025 held that Articles 21A and 30(1) cannot co-exist, and therefore minority schools must remain exempt from RTE provisions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 1, 3 and 4 only

(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer 4- B

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 operationalises Article 21A of the Constitution, making free and compulsory education a fundamental right for children aged 6–14 years.
• Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 12(1)(c), all private unaided schools are required to reserve 25% of entry-level seats for children belonging to disadvantaged groups and economically weaker sections, with reimbursement from the State.
• Statement 3 is correct: In Pramati Educational and Cultural Trust vs Union of India (2014), a five-judge Constitution Bench ruled that the RTE Act would not apply to minority schools (aided or unaided), as it would violate their rights under Article 30(1) to establish and administer institutions.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: In 2025, the Supreme Court held that Articles 21A and 30(1) can and must co-exist. It observed that blanket exemption “went too far,” and norms such as teacher qualifications and infrastructure standards do not undermine minority character. Thus, minority schools need not remain fully exempt.
• Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Consider the following statements: (2018)

1. As per the right to education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State council of Teacher education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90 % of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Ans: (b)

Immigration and Foreigners Order, 2025

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/foreigners-tribunals-can-issue-arrest-warrants-send-people-to-detention-centres/article70005218.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 Polity and Governance

Context: Immigration and Foreigners Order, 2025

Why in News

The Immigration and Foreigners Order, 2025, notified by MHA, grants judicial powers to Foreigners Tribunals (FTs) and codifies detention, deportation, and employment restrictions for foreigners.

Introduction

• On September 1, 2025, the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) notified the Immigration and Foreigners Order, 2025, replacing the Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 1964.
• This order, issued under the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025 (passed by Parliament in April), seeks to strengthen the legal framework for identifying, detaining, and deporting illegal migrants in India.
• Importantly, it grants Foreigners Tribunals (FTs)—so far unique to Assam—the powers of a first-class judicial magistrate.

Key Provisions of the Immigration and Foreigners Order, 2025

1. Empowering Foreigners Tribunals (FTs)

• FTs, earlier limited to Assam, are now given powers equivalent to a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class.
• Can issue arrest warrants against individuals who fail to appear in person when their nationality is under dispute.
• Can send individuals to detention/holding centres if they fail to prove they are not foreigners.
• FT membership capped at three members (earlier unspecified).
• Ex-parte orders can be reviewed if appealed within 30 days.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

2. Applicability Across India

• Though FTs are functional only in Assam (100 tribunals at present), the order extends across the country.
• In other states, illegal migrants continue to be produced before local courts.

3. Provisions on Detention & Deportation

• For the first time, detention of suspected foreigners has a clear legal basis, earlier enforced through executive orders.
• A Nodal Officer designated by each State will monitor matters relating to detection and deportation of illegal migrants.
• Border Guarding Forces and the Coast Guard empowered to capture biometric and demographic details of illegal entrants before sending them back.

4. Restrictions on Employment of Foreigners

• Bars employment of foreigners in sensitive sectors (without Central approval):
  • Power and water supply
  • Petroleum sector
  • Defence, space technology, and nuclear energy
  • Human rights-related work

5. Grounds for Refusal of Entry or Stay in India

A foreigner may be refused entry/stay if convicted or involved in:

• Anti-national activities, espionage, terrorism, subversive acts
• Rape, murder, crimes against humanity
• Money laundering, hawala financing, narco-trafficking
• Human trafficking (including child trafficking)
• Fake travel documents, fake currency, cryptocurrency rackets
• Cybercrime and child abuse

6. Exemptions from the Act

The Immigration and Foreigners (Exemption) Order, 2025 exempts certain groups from its provisions:

• Nepalese and Bhutanese citizens
• Tibetans
• Sri Lankan Tamils

Historical Background

• IMDT Act, 1983: Established tribunals in Assam for detecting illegal migrants.
• 2005: Supreme Court struck down the IMDT Act as unconstitutional → 11 IMDTs converted into FTs.
• 2019: Publication of Assam’s National Register of Citizens (NRC) excluded 19 lakh individuals. FTs became critical in giving them a chance to prove citizenship.
• Earlier Framework: The 1964 Order lacked clarity on detention and number of FT members, relying heavily on executive discretion.

Significance of the 2025 Order

1. Codification of Procedures
   • Provides a statutory framework for detention and deportation of foreigners.
2. Strengthening FTs
   • Judicial powers ensure greater authority and reduce dependence on executive orders.
3. National Applicability
   • Expands the Assam-centric FT model to potentially all states, standardizing adjudication of foreigner disputes.
4. National Security & Border Management
   • Enhances powers of border forces, Coast Guard, and states in preventing illegal entry.
5. Employment Safeguards
   • Restricts foreign involvement in strategic sectors, strengthening internal security.

Challenges & Concerns

1. Humanitarian Concerns
   • Risk of wrongful detention of Indian citizens, particularly marginalized communities.
2. Burden on Tribunals
   • FTs in Assam already overburdened post-NRC; expanding their role may lead to backlogs and delays.
3. Implementation Capacity
   • Need for infrastructure such as detention/holding centres across the country.
4. Federal Issues
   • States may resist expanding FTs beyond Assam, especially in border-sensitive regions.
5. Exemptions vs Inclusivity
   • While Nepalese, Bhutanese, Tibetans, and Sri Lankan Tamils are exempt, other vulnerable groups (e.g., Rohingya) face uncertain futures.

Way Forward

• Robust Safeguards: Ensure adequate legal aid and appeals process to prevent harassment of genuine citizens.
• Technology Integration: Use biometrics, digital records, and centralised databases to reduce errors.
• Balanced Approach: Combine security concerns with human rights obligations under international law.
• Capacity Building: Increase number of tribunals, improve training of members, and strengthen detention infrastructure.
• Public Awareness: Prevent misinformation and protect vulnerable populations during verification.

Conclusion

• The Immigration and Foreigners Order, 2025 marks a major shift in India’s approach towards illegal migration, border security, and citizenship disputes.
• By empowering Foreigners Tribunals with judicial authority and codifying detention provisions, the government seeks to balance national security with legal due process.

CARE MCQ

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the Immigration and Foreigners Order, 2025:

1. The order grants Foreigners Tribunals (FTs) powers equivalent to those of a first-class judicial magistrate.
2. The order explicitly empowers FTs to issue arrest warrants and send persons to detention centres if they fail to prove they are not foreigners.
3. Nepalese and Bhutanese citizens, Tibetans, and Sri Lankan Tamils are exempted from the provisions of the Immigration and Foreigners Act, 2025.
4. The order permits employment of foreigners in the defence and nuclear energy sectors without prior Central Government approval.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 5- B

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: The Immigration and Foreigners Order, 2025 grants Foreigners Tribunals (FTs) powers equivalent to those of a first-class judicial magistrate, strengthening their authority beyond the earlier executive framework.
• Statement 2 is correct: The order empowers FTs to issue arrest warrants and send individuals to detention/holding centres if they fail to appear or prove they are not foreigners, a provision absent in the 1964 order.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Immigration and Foreigners (Exemption) Order, 2025 exempts Nepalese, Bhutanese, Tibetans, and Sri Lankan Tamils from the provisions of the Act, reflecting India’s special ties and humanitarian considerations.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: The order explicitly bars employment of foreigners in sensitive sectors such as defence, nuclear energy, space technology, power, and water supply without Central Government approval; it does not permit free employment in these areas.
• Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Consider the following statements: (2009)

1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal Bahadur Shastri.

2. The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

Universal Health Care in India: Challenges and the Illusion of Insurance-Driven Models

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-rise-and-risks-of-health-insurance-in-india/article70000208.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3 Public Health

Context: Universal Health Care

Why in News?

India’s reliance on insurance-driven health care (PMJAY and SHIPs) has expanded rapidly, but it poses structural challenges to achieving genuine Universal Health Care (UHC).

Introduction

• The Bhore Committee Report (1946) defined Universal Health Care (UHC) as ensuring quality health care to all members of the community irrespective of their ability to pay.
• Nearly eight decades later, India is still far from this goal, even as several countries — rich and poor — have made significant progress.
• In recent years, there has been an increasing reliance on State-sponsored health insurance schemes such as Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) and various State Health Insurance Programmes (SHIPs).
• While these schemes provide partial relief to some sections, they cannot substitute for a comprehensive UHC framework.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Growth of Health Insurance Schemes in India

• PMJAY (2018, Ayushman Bharat): Provides coverage up to ₹5 lakh per household per year, focused on in-patient care.
• Coverage: In 2023–24, PMJAY covered 58.8 crore individuals with a budget of about ₹12,000 crore.
• SHIPs: Similar structure at State level, with combined budget around ₹16,000 crore.
• Total budget: ~₹28,000 crore, still a small share of India’s public health expenditure but growing rapidly (8–25% annually in some States).

Major Faultlines of Insurance-Driven Health Care

1. Profit-Oriented Health Care

• Two-thirds of PMJAY expenditure goes to private hospitals, most of which are profit-driven and poorly regulated.
• Leads to overdependence on private sector and risks of unnecessary procedures.

2. Bias Towards Hospitalisation

• Schemes cover mainly in-patient care, neglecting primary and outpatient care.
• Risk of rising expenditure on tertiary care (especially with ageing population), while basic health needs remain underfunded.

3. Utilisation Gaps

• Despite ~80% nominal coverage, only 35% of insured hospital patients used their insurance (2022–23 survey).
• Lack of awareness, procedural hurdles, and hospital reluctance reduce effective utilisation.

4. Discrimination and Access Issues

• Private hospitals prefer uninsured patients (higher profits).
• Public hospitals prefer insured patients (reimbursement inflows).
• Results in discriminatory treatment and pressure to enrol on the spot.

5. Provider Concerns and Financial Strains

• Complaints of low reimbursement rates and delayed payments.
• Pending dues under PMJAY alone exceeded ₹12,000 crore, leading to suspension of services by some hospitals.
• Since inception, 609 hospitals have opted out of PMJAY.

6. Corruption and Abuse

• NHA flagged 3,200 hospitals for fraud under PMJAY.
• Common issues: denial of treatment, overcharging insured patients, unnecessary procedures.
• Weak monitoring and lack of transparency (audit reports often missing).

Structural Problems in India’s Health Care System

• Low Public Expenditure: Just 1.3% of GDP (2022, World Bank), against world average of 6.1%.
• Profit-Driven Model: Health system dominated by private providers with inadequate regulation.
• Neglect of Public Health Facilities: Persistent under-investment has led to poor infrastructure, staff shortages, and unequal access.

International Experience

• Canada & Thailand: UHC built on social health insurance with strong public/non-profit health systems and universal access.
• India’s insurance-driven model lacks:
  • Universal coverage
  • Emphasis on non-profit providers
  • Strong primary health infrastructure

Way Forward

1. Strengthen Public Health Infrastructure: Expand and upgrade government hospitals, PHCs, and CHCs.
2. Increase Public Health Spending: Move towards 2.5% of GDP target (National Health Policy 2017).
3. Focus on Primary and Preventive Care: Reduce unnecessary hospitalisation and financial burden.
4. Regulate Private Sector: Enforce strict quality, pricing, and ethical standards.
5. Improve Scheme Transparency: Regular audits, grievance redressal, and real-time data sharing.
6. Integrate Insurance with Public Health: Ensure insurance is supplementary, not a substitute, for universal provisioning.

Conclusion

• India’s current reliance on insurance-driven health care is only a painkiller for deeper systemic issues. UHC cannot be achieved without transforming public health infrastructure, increasing public investment, and ensuring equity in access.
• While schemes like PMJAY provide some relief, they cannot replace a strong, publicly funded, and accountable health care system that prioritises people over profits.
• In essence, UHC in India requires healing the system, not just masking its ailments with health insurance.

CARE MCQ

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding health insurance schemes in India:

1. Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY) provides coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per household per year, restricted mainly to in-patient care.
2. A major share of PMJAY expenditure is directed towards private hospitals, which account for around two-thirds of the spending.
3. India’s public health expenditure is about 1.3% of GDP, significantly lower than the global average.
4. PMJAY and State Health Insurance Programmes (SHIPs) together currently cover less than 20% of India’s population.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 4 only

(D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer – 6 – B

Explanation –

• Statement 1 is correct: PMJAY provides coverage up to ₹5 lakh per household per year and is primarily restricted to in-patient care, as per scheme guidelines.
• Statement 2 is correct: About two-thirds of PMJAY’s budget is spent on private hospitals, highlighting the scheme’s reliance on profit-oriented providers.
• Statement 3 is correct: India’s public health expenditure is around 1.3% of GDP (2022), which is significantly lower than the global average of 6.1%, reflecting chronic under-investment in public health infrastructure.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: PMJAY and SHIPs together cover nearly 80% of India’s population, not less than 20%, though effective utilisation is much lower due to awareness and procedural issues.
• Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2017)

1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans: (a)

Semicon India 2025: Vikram Processor Boosts India’s Chip Ambitions

Source: The Hindu

https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/it-minister-ashwini-vaishnaw-presents-first-made-in-india-chip-to-pm-modi-at-semicon-2025/article70004784.ece

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 Economy

Context: Semiconductors in India

Why in News?

At Semicon India 2025, India showcased its indigenously developed Vikram 32-bit processor and reiterated its ambition to capture a share of the $1 trillion global semiconductor market.

Introduction

• On September 2, 2025, at the annual Semicon India Conference, Union Minister for Electronics & Information Technology Ashwini Vaishnaw presented Prime Minister Narendra Modi with a special memento containing the ‘Made in India’ Vikram 32-bit Processor Launch Vehicle Grade chip.
• This marks a significant milestone in India’s pursuit of technological self-reliance and global semiconductor leadership.
• The event not only highlighted India’s achievements in indigenous chip design but also reiterated the government’s ambition to position India as a global semiconductor hub with a share in the projected $1 trillion semiconductor market.

Indigenous Technological Breakthrough: Vikram 32-bit Processor

• The Vikram 32-bit processor is an advanced version of the indigenously designed VIKRAM1601 16-bit microprocessor, which has been used in ISRO’s avionics systems since 2009.
• Developed jointly by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (ISRO) and the Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL), Chandigarh, the chip is launch-vehicle grade, designed for space flight operations.
• The memento also showcased 31 additional prototype chips developed by Indian academic institutions such as IIT Jammu, IIT Roorkee, IIT Dhanbad, IIT Ropar, NIT Durgapur, and NIT Calicut, underscoring the research–industry–academia collaboration.
• This initiative demonstrates India’s progress towards Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) in critical technologies like microprocessors and semiconductor design.

(Image Source: the Hindu)

Indian Semiconductor Mission (ISM): Progress So Far

Launched in December 2021, the Indian Semiconductor Mission (ISM) is a dedicated program under the Ministry of Electronics and IT aimed at developing a sustainable semiconductor and display manufacturing ecosystem in India.

According to Minister Vaishnaw’s address at Semicon India 2025:

• Five semiconductor fabrication units are under construction.
• The pilot line of one unit has been completed.
• Two more units are expected to commence production within the next few months.
• The government has ensured stable policies, ease of approvals, and end-to-end coverage of the semiconductor ecosystem, from design to manufacturing.

This reflects the government’s strategic focus on building the “foundational industry of the digital economy.”

India’s Semiconductor Opportunity

Global Context

• The global semiconductor industry is projected to reach $1 trillion by 2030–2035, driven by demand in AI, 5G/6G, IoT, EVs, robotics, defence and space technologies.
• Geopolitical tensions, supply chain vulnerabilities (as seen during COVID-19), and overdependence on East Asia (Taiwan, South Korea) have prompted nations to diversify supply chains.

India’s Potential

• Policy stability and incentive schemes such as Production-Linked Incentives (PLI), Design-Linked Incentives (DLI), and the Semicon India Program are attracting global players.
• India has a large talent pool in chip design (20% of global semiconductor design engineers are Indian).
• The Make in India–Digital India synergy creates demand for chips in telecom, mobility, defence, consumer electronics, and emerging technologies.

Challenges Ahead

Despite progress, India faces multiple challenges:

1. High Capital Intensity – Semiconductor fabs require investments upwards of $10 billion.
2. Technological Dependence – Critical equipment and materials are imported.
3. Skilled Manpower Gap – Although India has strong chip design talent, fabrication engineers are limited.
4. Global Competition – Established ecosystems in Taiwan, South Korea, and the U.S. remain far ahead.
5. Supply Chain Ecosystem – Ancillary industries (chemicals, gases, wafers, etc.) need parallel growth.

Government Vision and Strategy

PM Modi emphasized that India is ready to provide faster clearances and stable policies to encourage global investors. The vision is twofold:

1. Self-reliance in critical technologies – ensuring strategic autonomy for space, defence, and digital infrastructure.
2. Becoming a global manufacturing hub – positioning India as a key link in the semiconductor global value chain.

Conclusion

• The unveiling of the Vikram 32-bit processor at Semicon India 2025 symbolizes more than a technological achievement—it represents India’s transition from consumer to creator in the semiconductor space. With the Indian Semiconductor Mission progressing steadily, the country is laying the foundation for a $1 trillion opportunity, while also strengthening its strategic sovereignty in technology.
• If successful, India could emerge as not just a participant but a leader in the global semiconductor revolution, bridging the gap between advanced nations and the Global South.

CARE MCQ

Q7. With reference to the Vikram 32-bit Processor recently in news, consider the following statements:

1. It has been developed jointly by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (ISRO) and the Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL), Chandigarh.
2. It is an advanced version of the indigenously designed VIKRAM1601 16-bit microprocessor.
3. It is primarily designed for launch vehicle avionics systems.
4. It was developed under the Semicon India Program launched in 2023.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer – 7 – B

Explanation –

• Statement 1 is correct: The Vikram 32-bit processor was jointly developed by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (ISRO) and the Semiconductor Laboratory (SCL), Chandigarh, reflecting India’s capability in indigenous chip design.
• Statement 2 is correct: It is an advanced version of the VIKRAM1601 16-bit microprocessor, which has been used in ISRO’s launch vehicle avionics systems since 2009.
• Statement 3 is correct: The processor is launch-vehicle grade, primarily designed for space flight and avionics systems, ensuring reliability under harsh conditions.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: The processor was not developed under the Semicon India Program launched in 2021; it builds on ISRO’s earlier initiatives in space-grade microprocessor design.
• Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.  Which one of the following laser types is used in a laser printer? (2008)

(a) Dye laser

(b) Gas laser

(c) Semiconductor laser

(d) Excimer laser

Ans: (c)

Expansion of Glacial Lakes in India: A Growing Climate Challenge

Source: Indian Express

https://indianexpress.com/article/india/over-400-himalayan-glacial-lakes-expanding-need-vigorous-monitoring-central-water-commission-10226154/

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS3 Environment and Ecology

Context: Glacial Lakes and climate issue

Why in News?

The Central Water Commission (CWC)’s June 2025 report reveals that 432 glacial lakes within India are expanding, raising risks of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) in the Himalayan region.

Introduction

• The Central Water Commission (CWC), in its Glacial Lakes and Water Bodies Monitoring Report for June 2025, has flagged alarming trends in the expansion of Himalayan glacial lakes.
• Out of 681 glacial lakes within India, 432 lakes across Ladakh, Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh have shown worrying expansion, raising concerns of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) and their associated risks to downstream populations.
• The report underlines the urgent need for vigorous monitoring, real-time warning systems, and disaster preparedness.

Key Findings of the CWC Report

1. Scale of Expansion
   • Total glacial lake area in India increased from 1,917 hectares (2011) to 2,508 hectares (2025), a 30.83% rise.
   • In June 2025, 1,435 glacial lakes across the Himalayan region showed expansion.

(Image Source: Indian Express)

1. State-wise Distribution of Expanding Lakes (within India)
   • Arunachal Pradesh – 197
   • Ladakh – 120
   • Jammu & Kashmir – 57
   • Sikkim – 47
   • Himachal Pradesh – 6
   • Uttarakhand – 5
2. Overall Himalayan Region (including transboundary lakes)
   • Monitored: 2,843 glacial lakes & water bodies.
   • 1,435 increased in area, 1,008 decreased, 108 remained unchanged, 292 unanalysed.
3. Link to Climate Change
   • Glacial retreat and expansion of lakes are direct impacts of rising temperatures.
   • The Himalayan Region is one of the world’s most climate-vulnerable zones.

Why Expansion of Glacial Lakes is a Concern?

1. Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs)
   • Sudden release of water due to dam breach (ice/moraine failure) can cause catastrophic downstream flooding.
   • Past incidents: Dig Tsho (Nepal, 1985), South Lhonak Lake (Sikkim, 2023).
2. Impacts on Population & Infrastructure
   • Himalayan states are densely populated in river valleys.
   • Threats to hydropower projects, roads, bridges, pilgrimage routes (e.g., Kedarnath tragedy 2013, Vaishno Devi yatra disruptions 2025).
3. Cascading Disasters
   • GLOFs often trigger landslides, flash floods, and river course changes.
   • Worsens monsoon flood situations, as seen in Himachal and Punjab in June 2025.
4. Transboundary Risks
   • Many glacial lakes lie in Nepal, Bhutan, Tibet (China) but feed Indian rivers (Ganga, Brahmaputra, Indus basins).
   • Requires international coordination for monitoring and alerts.

Institutional Recommendations by CWC

• Real-time monitoring systems for vulnerable lakes.
• Satellite-based alerts integrated with ISRO data.
• Early warning systems (EWS) for downstream communities.
• Inter-agency coordination: Ministry of Jal Shakti, NDMA, State Disaster Management Authorities (SDMAs).
• Transboundary cooperation with Nepal, Bhutan, China.

Broader Context: Climate Change and the Himalayas

• The IPCC Sixth Assessment Report warns of accelerated glacial melt in the Hindu Kush Himalaya.
• Nearly two-thirds of Himalayan glaciers may vanish by 2100 under high-emission scenarios.
• Expansion of glacial lakes is among the most visible signs of climate change in this fragile ecosystem.

Way Forward

1. Technological Solutions
   • AI-based modelling of lake stability.
   • Use of drones, remote sensing for real-time mapping.
   • Expansion of National Centre for Seismology and Hydrology monitoring to cover GLOFs.
2. Community Preparedness
   • Awareness programmes for local communities.
   • Training in evacuation drills and flood response.
3. Infrastructure Safety
   • Climate-resilient planning for hydropower, highways, railways in Himalayan states.
   • Regulated tourism and pilgrimage routes in fragile zones.
4. Policy and Governance
   • Integration of glacial risk assessment into state disaster management plans.
   • Strengthening of National Mission on Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE) under NAPCC.
   • Enhanced cooperation under BIMSTEC & SAARC frameworks for GLOF monitoring.

Conclusion

• The CWC’s June 2025 report is a stark reminder of the Himalayan region’s vulnerability to climate change.
• With over 400 glacial lakes in India expanding at alarming rates, the risks of catastrophic floods and human tragedies are rising.
• Addressing this requires science-based monitoring, robust disaster preparedness, resilient infrastructure, and international cooperation.

CARE MCQ

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding Glacial Lakes in India, as per the Central Water Commission (CWC) June 2025 report:

1. More than 400 glacial lakes within India have been flagged for vigorous monitoring due to expansion trends.
2. Arunachal Pradesh accounts for the highest number of expanding lakes among Indian Himalayan states.
3. The total glacial lake area within India has increased by over 50% between 2011 and 2025.
4. Expansion of glacial lakes is among the most visible impacts of climate change in the Himalayan region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 4 only

(B) 1, 3 and 4 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

Answer – 8 – A

Explanation –

• Statement 1 is correct: The CWC report (June 2025) highlighted that 432 glacial lakes within India are expanding and require vigorous monitoring due to the risk of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs).
• Statement 2 is correct: Among Indian Himalayan states, Arunachal Pradesh accounts for the highest number of expanding lakes (197), followed by Ladakh (120) and Jammu & Kashmir (57).
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The report noted a 30.83% increase in total glacial lake area (from 1,917 ha in 2011 to 2,508 ha in 2025). It is not over 50%.
• Statement 4 is correct: The report explicitly linked glacial lake expansion and glacier shrinkage to climate change, making it one of the most visible and dynamic impacts in the Himalayas.
• Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

 

UPSC PYQ

Q.   When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following: (2012)

1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidence for Himalayas being young fold mountains?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (d)