APPSC CARE 29th September 2025 Current Affairs

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APPSC CARE 29th September 2025 Current Affairs

News at a Glance

Andhra Pradesh: Sacred groves of Andhra Pradesh face decline

Source: The New Indian Express

APPSC Relevance: Environment and Ecology

Context: Sacred groves of Andhra Pradesh

Why in News?

A 2025 study on Thimmappakonda Sacred Grove in Anantapur, Andhra Pradesh revealed it hosts 380 plant species but faces decline due to temple modernisation, grazing, and loss of cultural protection.

Introduction

Sacred groves are patches of forest vegetation traditionally protected by local communities due to religious beliefs and cultural practices.
In Andhra Pradesh, these groves, locally called “Pavithravanas”, are integral to biodiversity conservation and spiritual heritage.
A recent study titled “A Preliminary Floristic Exploration in Thimmappakonda Sacred Grove, Anantapur district, Andhra Pradesh State” (2013–2024) by Miryala R., Lakshmi P.A., Panuganti S., Rani V.J.S., Nagendra C., Akkulanna S., and Naik M.C. highlights both the ecological richness and the challenges faced by these groves.

Key Findings of the Study

1. Floristic Diversity of Thimmappakonda Sacred Grove

Species richness: 380 wild and naturalised species
- Trees: 42
- Shrubs: 54
- Herbs: 246
- Climbers: 37
- Liana: 1
Belonging to 242 genera and 63 families.
These figures demonstrate the grove’s role as a biodiversity hotspot despite its limited area.

2. Religious and Cultural Significance

Sacred groves in Andhra Pradesh are traditionally dedicated to local deities and Hindu gods such as:
Shiva, Rudrakoteswara, Hanuman, Saraswati, Thimmaraya Swamy, Gangamma, Nagadevatha, Chennakesava, Narasimha, Akkamma.
Communities often believe their well-being and security depend on the blessings of the grove’s deity, creating a strong sense of protection.

3. Ecological Roles

Sacred groves provide critical ecosystem services:
Biodiversity conservation: act as refuges for rare and endemic species.
Regulation of microclimates: moderating local temperatures and humidity.
Soil conservation: roots of dense vegetation prevent soil erosion.
Carbon sinks: help in carbon sequestration and mitigating climate change.

4. Cultural-Ecological Linkages

Sacred groves represent an indigenous conservation ethos, sustained through religious taboos and rituals.
Historically, cultural beliefs restricted cutting of trees or hunting in these areas, ensuring their long-term survival.

(Image Source: New Indian Express)

Decline of Sacred Groves

The study warns of steady decline due to:

Modernisation of Temples: Expansion and renovation activities often clear native vegetation within the grove. Weakens traditional protection once enforced by religious taboos.
Urbanisation and Development Pressures: Encroachment for agriculture, infrastructure, and tourism.
Overgrazing and Deforestation: Livestock grazing damages natural regeneration of flora.
Invasive Species: Non-native species outcompete local biodiversity.
Erosion of Cultural Practices: Younger generations’ declining connection to traditional beliefs reduces community-based protection.

Sacred Groves in India: Wider Context

Formally documented groves: Over 13,000.
Estimated total: Between 1,00,000 and 1,50,000.
Regional Names:
- Devrai – Maharashtra
- Oran – Rajasthan
- Sarpa Kavu – Kerala
- Law Lyngdoh – Meghalaya
These groves, although often small in size, collectively make significant contributions to:
Carbon sequestration
Soil and water conservation
Local climate regulation

Global Perspective

Sacred groves are not unique to India; culturally protected forest patches exist in:
- Ghana and Senegal (West Africa)
- Sumatra (Indonesia)
- Bangladesh
This highlights the universal link between culture and biodiversity conservation.

Conclusion

Sacred groves of Andhra Pradesh, exemplified by Thimmappakonda Sacred Grove, embody the synergy of culture and ecology.

CARE MCQ

Q1. With reference to the sacred groves of India, consider the following statements:

Sacred groves act as carbon sinks, regulate microclimates, and help prevent soil erosion.
The Thimmappakonda Sacred Grove in Andhra Pradesh is known to host over 350 wild and naturalised species belonging to more than 60 plant families.
Sacred groves in India are unique and have no parallels in other parts of the world.
In Andhra Pradesh, sacred groves are locally known as Pavithravanas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer 1- B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Sacred groves provide ecosystem services such as carbon sequestration, microclimate regulation, and soil conservation.
Statement 2 is correct: The 2025 study documented 380 species (42 trees, 54 shrubs, 246 herbs, 37 climbers, 1 liana) in 63 families at Thimmappakonda Sacred Grove.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Sacred groves are also found in other countries such as Ghana, Senegal, Sumatra, and Bangladesh.
Statement 4 is correct: In Andhra Pradesh, they are locally called “Pavithravanas.”
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Operational guidelines for Tourism Policy released in Andhra Pradesh

Source: The New Indian Express

APPSC Relevance: Governance

Context: AP Tourism Policy 2024-29

Why in News?

The Andhra Pradesh Government released Operational Guidelines for its Tourism Policy 2024-29 on 29 September 2025 to ensure transparent, timely, and accountable delivery of incentives to tourism stakeholders across the state.

Introduction

The Government of Andhra Pradesh released the Operational Guidelines for implementing its Tourism Policy 2024-29.
These guidelines serve as a rulebook to ensure that benefits and incentives under the policy are delivered to eligible tourism stakeholders in a timely, transparent, and accountable manner.

(Image Source: New Indian Express)

Key Highlights of the Guidelines

1. Clarity for Applicants

The guidelines provide step-by-step instructions to tourism entrepreneurs, investors, and service providers to apply for incentives and support.
They specify eligibility criteria, required documents, timelines, and verification procedures.

2. Transparency & Accountability

Committees are constituted for screening, approval, and disbursement of incentives.
Roles and responsibilities of departments, conveners, and officials are clearly defined to avoid overlaps or delays.
Inspection and monitoring mechanisms are included to ensure compliance and prevent misuse of funds.

3. Efficiency in Implementation

Strict timelines for processing applications and releasing incentives aim to eliminate delays.
Mechanisms are in place to minimize confusion, mismanagement, and red tape in tourism project approvals.

4. Investment Promotion

The policy extends financial and non-financial incentives to promote:
Tourism infrastructure projects (like hotels, resorts, convention centres)
Eco-tourism, heritage tourism, wellness tourism, and adventure activities
Skill development for local communities in tourism services

Significance

1. Boost to State Economy

Tourism is a major driver of employment generation and state GDP.
The guidelines provide a predictable and investor-friendly framework, encouraging domestic and foreign investment in the sector.

2. Good Governance

By setting clear rules, defined responsibilities, and monitoring mechanisms, the guidelines enhance transparency, accountability, and efficiency in policy implementation.

3. Rural and Regional Development

Targeted incentives will help develop less-explored tourist destinations across Andhra Pradesh, reducing regional disparities.

4. Ease of Doing Business

The operational guidelines reduce bureaucratic hurdles, making it easier for stakeholders to access incentives and set up tourism-related enterprises.

Challenges

Timely fund release and maintaining transparency at all levels.
Ensuring capacity building of local tourism staff and proper coordination among departments.
Preventing corruption or misallocation of incentives during inspections and disbursements.

Way Forward

Regular review of the guidelines to adapt to emerging tourism trends.
Strengthening digital platforms for online applications, grievance redressal, and real-time tracking of fund disbursement.
Public–private partnerships (PPPs) to attract large-scale investment in eco-friendly and sustainable tourism projects.

CARE MCQ

Q2. Consider the following statements about the Operational Guidelines for Andhra Pradesh Tourism Policy 2024-29:

The guidelines aim to provide clear eligibility criteria, verification procedures, and step-by-step instructions for tourism stakeholders to claim incentives.
They constitute committees for approvals and define responsibilities of conveners and officials for transparent fund disbursement.
The guidelines restrict the incentives only to projects in heritage tourism.
They set strict timelines for application processing and inspections to avoid delays and mismanagement.

Options:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 2- B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The guidelines act as a rulebook, providing eligibility, verification, and step-by-step processes for applicants.
Statement 2 is correct: They detail the constitution of approval committees and define duties of officials to ensure transparent disbursement of incentives.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The policy covers all tourism projects across the state, not just heritage tourism.
Statement 4 is correct: They include strict timelines for application processing, inspections, and fund release to prevent delays and mismanagement.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Tariffs as a Weapon: Threatening Medicine Access

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations

Context: Tariffs as a Weapon

Why in News?

The U.S. imposed 100% tariffs on imported branded and patented medicines, affecting global pharmaceutical trade and healthcare costs.

Introduction

India the United States, under President Donald Trump, announced the imposition of 100% tariffs on imports of branded and patented medicines.
This policy marks a significant shift in U.S. trade and health policy, effectively weaponising access to healthcare.
Prescription drugs constitute roughly 10% of household medical expenditures in the U.S., making this a critical concern for both patients and the pharmaceutical industry.

Key Provisions of the Tariff Policy

100% Tariffs on Imported Branded Medicines:
- Aimed at patented and branded drugs from most countries.
- Exemptions for imports from the European Union and Japan, capped at 15%, which account for nearly 75% of U.S. pharma imports.
Specialty Drugs Affected:
- Includes medicines for obesity, diabetes, cancer, and rare diseases, such as Danish-produced Wegovy and Ozempic.
- Higher costs will likely affect patients requiring advanced therapies.
Potential Spillover:
- Health Insurance Sector: Insurers may pass increased drug costs to policyholders.
- Global Trade Impact: Countries outside the exemptions, such as UK, Switzerland, and Singapore, could face full 100% tariffs.

Implications for U.S. Patients

Increase in Medical Bills: A study by Ernst & Young indicates that a 25% tariff on patented drugs could increase annual U.S. drug costs by $51 billion.
Access to Treatment: Patients relying on specialty or rare disease drugs may face reduced affordability and limited access.
Health Equity: The tariffs could exacerbate inequalities, as middle- and lower-income households bear the brunt of rising costs.

(Image Sourcee: Medical Independent)

Implications for Global Pharmaceutical Trade

India’s Generics Industry:
Currently exempt, as generics account for 90% of U.S. prescriptions but only 13% of spending.
India exported over $10.5 billion worth of pharmaceutical formulations to the U.S. in FY25.
Expansion of tariffs to include generics or biosimilars could significantly impact India’s pharma export sector.
Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs):
India and China are dominant suppliers of global APIs.
Uncertainty exists on whether APIs will be included under the new tariffs. This could have wide-ranging effects on global drug production and pricing.
U.S. Pharmaceutical Exports:
The U.S. remains a major exporter of innovative medicines.
Interaction between tariffs and the price competitiveness of U.S. exports remains unclear, potentially affecting its global market share.
Global Supply Chains:
- The move highlights the vulnerability of post–Second World War global supply chains to geopolitical shifts.
- Export-dependent nations, including India, may need to diversify trade partners and strengthen alternative markets.

Domestic Policy and Industry Response

PhRMA Objections: The U.S. pharmaceutical lobby warned that tariffs would increase patient costs without addressing structural supply chain inefficiencies.
Domestic Manufacturing Pressure: The policy may incentivize domestic drug production, but the transition is likely long-term and complex.

Strategic Implications for India

Diversification of Export Markets:
Heavy reliance on U.S. demand makes Indian pharma vulnerable.
Need to explore European, African, and Southeast Asian markets.
Innovation and Self-Reliance:
Encourages Indian firms to invest in R&D and patentable innovations.
Strengthening API manufacturing domestically ensures resilience against global trade shocks.
Policy Advocacy:
India must engage in trade diplomacy and negotiate exemptions where feasible.

Conclusion

The U.S. tariffs on imported medicines represent a strategic use of trade policy to influence healthcare access, with significant implications for patients, insurers, and the global pharmaceutical sector.

CARE MCQ

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the U.S. tariffs on imported medicines:

The tariffs target patented and branded medicines, with exemptions for imports from the EU and Japan.
India’s generics industry is currently affected by the tariffs.
The policy could raise retail drug costs for U.S. patients, especially for specialty and rare disease drugs.
Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs) from India and China are confirmed to be included under the new tariffs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer 1- A

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The tariffs target patented and branded medicines, with exemptions for imports from the EU and Japan, which account for nearly three-fourths of U.S. pharma imports.
Statement 2 is incorrect: India’s generics industry, which accounts for 90% of prescriptions in the U.S., is currently exempt from these tariffs.
Statement 3 is correct: The policy is likely to raise retail drug costs for U.S. patients, particularly for specialty drugs and medicines for rare diseases, as insurers may pass on higher prices.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The inclusion of Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients (APIs) from India and China under the new tariffs remains uncertain; it has not been confirmed.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? (2019)

Genetic predisposition of some people
Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
Using antibiotics in livestock farming
Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (b)

UN Reimposes Sanctions on Iran: Causes and Potential Impact

Context: Sanctions on Iran

UPSC Relevance: GS2 International Relations

Context: Donald Trump’s Drug Tariff

Why in News?

The United Nations Security Council reimposed sanctions on Iran in September 2025 under the JCPOA snapback mechanism due to violations of its nuclear commitments.

Introduction

The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) reimposed stringent sanctions on Iran over its nuclear program, following a failed diplomatic effort to reach a compromise on the sidelines of the UN General Assembly.
These sanctions mark a significant escalation in international pressure on Tehran and have widespread geopolitical and economic ramifications.

(Image Source: Indian Express)

Background

2015 Nuclear Deal (Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action – JCPOA)
- The 2015 agreement between Iran and six world powers (US, UK, France, Russia, China, Germany) aimed to curb Iran’s nuclear enrichment in exchange for lifting international sanctions.
- The deal allowed a “snapback” mechanism, enabling the reinstatement of sanctions if Iran violated the terms.
US Withdrawal from JCPOA (2018)
- The United States unilaterally exited the deal under President Donald Trump, reinstating sanctions.
- Iran alleges that this action and subsequent European trade restrictions breached the spirit of the agreement.
Recent Tensions
- Israel and the US conducted airstrikes on Iranian nuclear sites in June 2025.
- Iran restricted access to international inspectors post-strikes, accelerating its uranium enrichment to 60% and accumulating 400 kilograms of highly enriched uranium.

Key Provisions of the New UN Sanctions

The new UNSC sanctions are broader than existing US sanctions and include:
- Financial Restrictions: Freeze assets of Iranian entities and individuals linked to the nuclear program.
- Travel Bans: Prohibit travel for key officials associated with nuclear activities.
- Cargo Inspections: Authorize countries to stop and inspect Iranian shipments by air and sea, including oil tankers.
Nuclear and Missile Restrictions:
- Ban uranium enrichment at any level.
- Prohibit launching ballistic missiles capable of carrying nuclear warheads.
- Restrict transfer of ballistic missile technology.
Arms Embargo: Reinstate the prohibition on arms trade with Iran.

Iran’s Response

President Masoud Pezeshkian termed the sanctions “unjust and illegal”.
Iran recalled ambassadors from France, Germany, and the UK for consultations.
Hardline factions urged withdrawal from the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty, though Pezeshkian dismissed this option.
Iran emphasized that its nuclear program remains peaceful and expressed willingness to cooperate with inspectors, but found US demands on uranium stockpile removal unreasonable.

International Dynamics

Europe: Accused Iran of violating the 2015 JCPOA and triggered the snapback mechanism.
US: Supports the sanctions, emphasizing accountability for threats and violations.
Russia & China: Opposed the sanctions and plan to continue trade with Iran, mitigating economic impact.
Russia imports Iranian drones for its military operations.
China is the primary buyer of discounted Iranian crude oil.

Economic Impact

Iran faces compounded challenges due to:
Existing US sanctions, chronic mismanagement, and corruption.
Ongoing energy and water crisis, causing mandatory cuts in many cities.
Currency depreciation: Rial dropped 4% to 1,126,000 per USD on the black market.
Inflation and unemployment: Inflation exceeds 40%, leading to growing public hardship.

Geopolitical Implications

Middle East Stability: Heightened tensions may trigger further confrontations with Israel and the US.
Global Oil Market: Sanctions on Iranian oil exports could impact global crude prices.
International Law and Diplomacy: The legitimacy of the snapback mechanism remains contested, especially by China and Russia.
Nuclear Non-proliferation: Iran’s compliance or defiance will influence global nuclear governance and non-proliferation regimes.

Conclusion

The reimposition of UN sanctions on Iran underscores the fragility of international agreements and the complex interplay between national sovereignty, regional security, and global diplomacy.

CARE MCQ

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the 2025 UN sanctions on Iran:

They were triggered under the snapback mechanism of the 2015 JCPOA.
The sanctions allow countries to inspect Iranian shipments, including oil tankers.
Iran’s main allies, Russia and China, fully supported the sanctions and enforced them.
The sanctions prohibit Iran from enriching uranium at any level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer 2- B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The 2025 UN sanctions on Iran were triggered under the snapback mechanism of the 2015 JCPOA, which allows reinstating sanctions automatically if Iran violates the terms of the nuclear agreement.
Statement 2 is correct: The sanctions authorize countries to inspect Iranian shipments, including oil tankers and other cargo, to ensure compliance with the nuclear restrictions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Russia and China opposed the sanctions and planned to continue trade with Iran; they did not fully support or enforce the sanctions.
Statement 4 is correct: The sanctions prohibit Iran from enriching uranium at any level, aiming to prevent nuclear weapon development.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Which of the following is not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation Council’? (2016)

(a) Iran
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Oman
(d) Kuwait

Ans: (a)

Reimagining a Sustainable Green Economy through Landscapes

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Economy

Context: Green Economy

Why in News?

India’s green economy requires a landscape-based approach integrating rural-urban equity, ecological sustainability, and inclusive growth to address climate, social, and economic challenges.

Introduction

The India stands at a critical juncture in its development trajectory, where traditional growth models are proving insufficient to address the challenges of climate change, resource depletion, and socio-economic inequalities.
The transition to a green economy-one that balances economic growth, social inclusion, and environmental sustainability-is not merely aspirational but inevitable.
A key strategy in this transition is adopting a landscape approach, integrating ecological, social, and economic dimensions across rural and urban regions.

The Green Economy and Rural-Urban Divide

India’s green economy has expanded rapidly over the past decade. The bioeconomy, a core component of the green economy, grew from $10 billion in 2014 to $165.7 billion in 2024, contributing 4.25% of GDP and supported by over 10,000 start-ups.
Industrial bioeconomy segments like biofuels and bioplastics account for nearly 47%, while pharmaceuticals contribute 35%, with emerging areas such as bioinformatics and research also growing rapidly. India is now the third-largest pharmaceutical producer globally and has achieved 20% ethanol blending in petrol.
Despite these advances, there exists a significant rural-urban divide:
- Urban areas attract green investments, EV infrastructure, solar rooftops, and green jobs.
- Rural areas lag in access to clean energy, water-efficient irrigation, and sustainable livelihoods, with slower technology adoption.
- Digital gaps further exacerbate inequality, as smart grids, carbon markets, and other tech-driven solutions often bypass rural landscapes.
This divide highlights the need for inclusive strategies that ensure rural communities are not merely beneficiaries but active climate frontline leaders.

Disruptions, Disparities, and Regional Imbalances

India’s green economy faces multiple challenges and disparities:

International economic pressures affect energy and bioeconomy investments.
Climate disruptions impact agriculture, energy demand, and supply chains.
Regional concentration: Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, Gujarat, and Andhra Pradesh contribute two-thirds of bioeconomy value, while eastern and northeastern states account for less than 6%.
States like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal have high potential in agri-waste, medicinal plants, and biomass but are underrepresented due to fragmented policies and low industrial investment.
Gender disparities are also pronounced: women hold only 11% of jobs in rooftop solar, with 1–3% representation in operations, construction, and commissioning.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Trade-offs in the Green Economy

The green economy is not free from trade-offs:

Promoting renewable energy while still subsidizing fossil fuels up to 40%.
Solar irrigation boosts clean energy but may lead to groundwater depletion.
Heavy industrial sectors (steel, cement, power) are hard to decarbonize and require upfront investments four times higher than traditional energy sources.
A rapid green shift can disproportionately impact coal workers, MSMEs, small manufacturers, and rural livelihoods, particularly in agriculture, which supports 58% of rural populations.
Other trade-offs include:
- Food miles and carbon emissions versus food security.
- Ethanol production versus animal feed and maize trade-offs.
- Crop diversification versus monocropping driven by policy and market incentives.
These complexities underline the need for localized, landscape-specific strategies rather than one-size-fits-all approaches.

Landscape Approach: The Way Forward

A landscape approach emphasizes understanding the interconnected system of land, water, biodiversity, energy, markets, institutions, and communities.
Key features include:
- Participatory assessment from village (nano) to regional (macro) levels.
- Integration of ecosystem valuation into policy and economic strategies.
- Addressing ecological functions: air and water quality, habitat support, climate regulation.
- Enhancing human benefits: health, livelihoods, food security, recreation.
Implementation Strategies:
- Leverage existing institutions: 2.5 lakh Panchayati Raj Institutions, 12 million women-led organizations, and local authorities.
- Promote circularity and bioeconomy with gender mainstreaming and inclusive governance.
- Encourage local enterprises: Example—rural women producing cold-pressed oils or medicinal products from local resources.
- Integrate green budgeting and fiscal incentives, green public procurement, and capacity building at the local level.
- Address bottlenecks: waste management SOPs, decentralized renewable financing, policy coordination, and greening R&D.

Potential Outcomes

Economic: New jobs (projected 35 million by 2030), diversified livelihoods, and rural industrialization.
Social: Gender inclusion, improved health, local capacity building, and resilience.
Environmental: Climate regulation, sustainable land use, biodiversity conservation, and reduced carbon emissions.
India’s landscape-driven green economy can simultaneously achieve climate goals, sustainable development objectives, and socio-economic equity, positioning the country as a global leader in green growth.

Conclusion

The green economy is no longer an abstract or distant vision. By adopting a landscape approach, India can integrate environmental sustainability, social inclusion, and economic growth. Rural communities, women, and local institutions must be central to this transition.

CARE MCQ

Q3. Consider the following statements about India’s green economy:

Urban areas attract more green investments compared to rural areas.
Women hold more than 50% of jobs in the rooftop solar sector.
A landscape approach integrates ecological, social, and economic parameters.

Which of the statements is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer 3- B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Urban areas attract the majority of green investments, including EV infrastructure, solar rooftops, and green jobs, while rural regions face slower and inequitable adoption of clean energy, water-saving technologies, and sustainable livelihoods.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Women hold only about 11% of jobs in India’s rooftop solar sector, with extremely low representation in operations (1%) and construction/commissioning (3%), far below 50%.
Statement 3 is correct: A landscape approach integrates ecological, social, and economic parameters, considering land, water, biodiversity, energy systems, local markets, institutions, and communities to promote inclusive and sustainable green growth.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2015)

It is a Public Limited Government Company.
It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

RBI MPC Preview: Factors Influencing Repo Rate Decision

Source: Indian Express

UPSC Relevance: GS Economy

Context: RBI MPC

Why in News?

The RBI MPC met from September 29 to October 1, 2025, to review monetary policy amid strong GDP growth and benign inflation, with the repo rate expected to remain unchanged.

Introduction

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) met from September 29 to October 1, 2025.
The key agenda was the repo rate decision amid strong GDP growth, moderated inflation, and evolving domestic and global economic conditions.

Current Economic Scenario:

GDP Growth:
- India’s GDP grew at 7.8% in Q1 FY26, the highest in five quarters, compared to 6.5% in the same period last year.
- Growth drivers include rural demand, government capital expenditure, and positive effects from GST reforms.
- Urban consumption and private capex remain subdued.
Inflation Trends:
- CPI inflation accelerated to 2.7% in August 2025, up from 1.61% in July, but remains below RBI’s comfort level.
- GST rationalisation (shift from four-rate to two-rate system: 5% & 18%) is expected to further reduce inflationary pressures.
Global Context:
- US Federal Reserve cut rates by 25 bps to 4-4.25%, its first cut in 2025.
- India-US trade talks are ongoing, with US tariffs on Indian goods at 50%, impacting trade outlook.

(Image Source: Indian Express)

RBI Repo Rate and Policy Stance:

Repo Rate:
- Currently at 5.5%, after cumulative cuts of 100 bps between February and June 2025.
- Most economists expect the MPC to maintain the status quo, citing strong GDP growth and benign inflation.
- Some suggest a 25 bps cut is possible, depending on evolving economic conditions.
Policy Stance:
- The MPC is expected to retain a ‘neutral’ stance, allowing flexibility to either hike or cut rates as per economic data.
- Neutral stance indicates RBI is monitoring growth-inflation dynamics without committing to a fixed direction.
Impact on Lending Rates:
- External Benchmark Lending Rates (EBLR) linked to repo remain unchanged.
- Marginal Cost of Fund-based Lending Rate (MCLR)-linked loans may see rate revisions by banks.

Forecasts:

GDP Projection:
RBI may retain FY26 GDP growth at 6.5%, reflecting strong early-year momentum.
Inflation Projection:
- FY26 average CPI inflation may fall to ~2.6%, aided by GST rationalisation.
- Quarterly CPI projections:
- Q3 FY26: 3.1%
- Q4 FY26: 4.4%
- Q1 FY27: 4.9%

Conclusion:

The upcoming RBI policy is expected to pause on repo rate, maintaining a neutral stance to balance strong growth and moderate inflation.
Rate adjustments will be contingent on GST impact, domestic demand recovery, and global economic developments, particularly US trade and monetary policy.

CARE MCQ

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the RBI’s monetary policy stance:

The repo rate is expected to remain at 5.5% after cumulative cuts of 100 bps earlier in 2025.
The MPC is likely to maintain a neutral stance, allowing flexibility for future rate adjustments.
External Benchmark Lending Rates (EBLR) linked to the repo rate will automatically decrease if the repo rate remains unchanged.
GST rationalisation is expected to dampen headline inflation, influencing RBI’s policy decision.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer- B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The RBI repo rate currently stands at 5.5% after cumulative cuts of 100 bps earlier in 2025. Most economists expect the MPC to maintain this rate in the October 2025 review.
Statement 2 is correct: The MPC is likely to maintain a neutral monetary policy stance, allowing flexibility for rate adjustments in either direction depending on economic conditions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: External Benchmark Lending Rates (EBLR) linked to the repo rate remain unchanged if the repo rate is steady; they do not automatically decrease.
Statement 4 is correct: The GST rationalisation (from four rates to two rates: 5% & 18%) is expected to lower headline inflation, influencing RBI’s decision to pause rate changes.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? (2017)

It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Ans: (a)

Rising Cardiovascular Risks Among India’s Youth: Beyond the ‘Young at Heart’ Metaphor

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS1 Public Health

Context: Cardiovascular Risks Among India’s Youth

Why in News?

Rising cardiovascular diseases among young Indians are increasingly linked to lifestyle changes, sedentary habits, stress, and diet, making heart health a national concern.

Introduction

India, with over half of its population under the age of 35, is often considered a nation of youth, vigour, and vitality.
The popular expression “young at heart” usually compliments the elderly or middle-aged for their energy and vitality.
However, in contemporary India, this phrase has taken on a more alarming significance. Cardiovascular diseases (CVDs), once largely associated with old age, are increasingly affecting young adults between 20–40 years.
This trend poses not only a public health challenge but also threatens the socio-economic fabric of the nation.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Emerging Trend and Statistics:

Recent hospital data from 2020 to 2023 indicate a worrying rise in heart attacks among young Indians.
Approximately 50% of heart attack patients in India are now under 40, highlighting a shift in the age profile of cardiovascular disease sufferers.
Experts attribute this surge to the convergence of modern lifestyle factors with genetic predispositions.
According to him, 50% of poor heart health in young adults is lifestyle-induced, underscoring the critical need for preventive healthcare.

Lifestyle Determinants of Heart Disease:

The shift in cardiovascular disease incidence is closely linked to the following lifestyle determinants:

Sedentary Lifestyles: Long working hours, screen time, and lack of physical activity reduce cardiovascular resilience.
Unhealthy Diets: Increased consumption of processed foods, high salt, sugar, and trans-fat-laden diets contribute to obesity, hypertension, and diabetes.
Stress and Sleep Deficiency: Aggressive, high-pressure environments cause chronic stress, a known trigger for cardiac events.
Substance Abuse: Smoking and alcohol consumption significantly exacerbate heart disease risk.

Warning Signs and Early Detection:

Early recognition of cardiovascular risk is vital. Young adults must be aware of subtle red flags:
- Chest discomfort during physical activity
- Sudden or persistent chest pain
- Unexplained breathlessness
- Excessive sweating without exertion
- Chronic fatigue affecting routine activities
Advanced diagnostic tools such as cardiac calcium scoring, CT coronary angiograms, and coronary physiology assessments can identify high-risk individuals early, allowing timely interventions.

Preventive Measures:

A proactive approach combining lifestyle modification, medical monitoring, and public awareness is essential.
The Health of the Nation 2025 report recommends:
- Regular imaging-based screenings alongside lab tests
- Targeted and personalised dietary interventions
- Routine monitoring of vital health indicators
Lifestyle adjustments including physical activity, stress management, and abstinence from harmful substances
Government initiatives such as the National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, Cardiovascular Diseases and Stroke (NPCDCS) and Ayushman Bharat aim to enhance early detection, strengthen healthcare infrastructure, and increase access to treatment.

Challenges:

Despite awareness campaigns, knowledge gaps persist:
- Only 25% of Indians could accurately identify heart disease symptoms in 2024
- Misinterpretation of warning signs as digestive issues or muscle spasms leads to delays in seeking care
- Limited access to diagnostic facilities and trained health workers in rural areas
- Improving public education, frontline health worker training, and diagnostic access are crucial to prevent premature cardiovascular deaths.

Conclusion:

Cardiovascular health is no longer an issue exclusive to older adults-it is a national concern affecting India’s youth.

CARE MCQ

Q5. Which of the following statements regarding cardiovascular disease (CVD) trends in young Indians is/are correct?

More than 50% of heart attack patients in India are now under the age of 40.
Genetic factors no longer contribute to early-onset heart disease in young adults.
Lifestyle factors such as sedentary habits, stress, and unhealthy diets contribute significantly to CVD risk.
Early detection through cardiac calcium scoring and CT coronary angiograms can help manage high-risk individuals.

Options:
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1, 3, and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) All of the above

Answer 5-B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Data from hospitals across India (2020–2023) show that around 50% of heart attack patients are under 40, highlighting the rising prevalence of cardiovascular diseases among young Indians.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While genetics play a role in early-onset heart disease, lifestyle factors such as sedentary habits, stress, and diet now have a dominant synergistic effect, so it is not correct to say genetics no longer contribute.
Statement 3 is correct: Lifestyle factors, including long working hours, sedentary routines, unhealthy diets, stress, smoking, and alcohol consumption, significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular disease in young adults.
Statement 4 is correct: Advanced diagnostic tools such as cardiac calcium scoring, CT coronary angiograms, and coronary physiology assessments allow early detection of high-risk individuals, enabling timely intervention and prevention of severe cardiac events.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’? (2017)

To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans: (a)

Assisted Death Debate: Balancing the Right to Die with the Value of Life

Source: Indian Express

UPSC Relevance: GS1 public Health

Context: Assisted dying debate

Why in News?

The recent deaths of Ruth and Michael Posner in Switzerland reignited debates on assisted dying, highlighting the tension between individual autonomy, suffering, and ethical, legal safeguards.

Introduction

The recent deaths of actress Ruth Posner, 96, and her husband Michael at a suicide clinic in Switzerland have reignited the ongoing debate around assisted death.
Their decision, motivated by a desire to avoid life constrained by failing senses and diminished energy, highlights the complex ethical, legal, and social questions surrounding the right to die.

(image Source: Indian Express)

What is Assisted Dying?

Assisted dying is a broad term that encompasses:
- Physician-assisted suicide (PAS): The individual self-administers a lethal substance provided by a doctor.
- Voluntary active euthanasia (VAE): A doctor directly administers a life-ending procedure with the patient’s consent.
While both approaches involve a deliberate act to end life, PAS emphasizes patient autonomy, whereas VAE involves a proactive role of the physician.
Globally, assisted dying remains illegal in most jurisdictions, though countries like Switzerland and the Netherlands have legal frameworks regulating the practice.

The Argument for Assisted Death: Autonomy and Dignity

Proponents argue that assisted death represents the ultimate exercise of autonomy. Ruth Posner’s words capture this sentiment: she saw her remaining years as “existing rather than living,” with no intervention capable of improving her quality of life.
Autonomy at the end of life: Sociologists and anthropologists describe human agency as the capacity to act within socio-cultural constraints. While most life decisions are shaped by social, economic, or cultural forces, death—by one’s volition—remains beyond mediation, making it the most profound expression of autonomy.
Quality of life vs. mere survival: When life becomes dominated by suffering, loss of faculties, or diminished dignity, individuals argue that choosing death is a rational extension of self-determination. Surveys indicate that fear of losing independence is the most common rationale among elderly seeking assisted dying.
Historical and philosophical backing: Philosophers like Plato recognized the moral permissibility of allowing those burdened by illness to die, underlining that the debate is not merely contemporary.

The Argument Against Assisted Death: Ambiguity and Social Risks

Critics highlight that autonomy is meaningless without life. Philosopher Stephen Richards cautions that framing death as a solution to suffering can erode the ethical foundation of society. Key concerns include:
Subjective definition of suffering: Unlike terminal illness, experiences like sensory decline or chronic fatigue are subjective, raising questions about where the threshold for “justifiable” death lies.
Slippery slope: Legalizing assisted death could normalize it for non-terminal cases, potentially including teenagers, postpartum women, or those facing temporary mental distress.
Potential misuse and coercion: Socio-cultural or familial pressures could influence decisions, particularly in vulnerable populations like the elderly or disabled. Historical examples, such as Nazi policies against disabled individuals, highlight the potential for grave ethical abuse.

Legal Frameworks: Global and Indian Context

Globally, assisted dying laws differ in scope and regulation:

United Kingdom: The 2024 Terminally Ill Adults (End of Life) Bill permits only terminally ill adults to seek assisted death, excludes mental illness or disability, mandates High Court approval, and enforces multiple reflection periods.
Switzerland: Laws are less restrictive, allowing non-residents and enabling “death tourism.”
India:
The Supreme Court recognized the right to die with dignity under Article 21 in 2018, permitting passive euthanasia (withdrawal of life support in terminally ill or permanently vegetative patients).
Active assisted dying, however, remains illegal due to concerns over misuse, particularly in cases where elderly individuals may face coercion or exploitation.

Ethical and Policy Considerations

Balancing autonomy and protection: Any policy must safeguard vulnerable groups while respecting the agency of competent individuals.
Clear criteria and safeguards: Eligibility criteria, mental health assessments, consent verification, and judicial oversight are necessary to prevent misuse.
Public perception and social fabric: Normalizing assisted death could shift societal attitudes toward valuing life differently, raising ethical and moral questions.

Conclusion

The debate over assisted death centres on suffering, autonomy, and dignity. In a country with diverse socio-cultural realities, the conversation must balance individual rights with societal responsibility, emphasizing safeguards, ethical clarity, and public awareness.

CARE MCQ

Q6. Consider the following statements about assisted dying and related legal frameworks:

Switzerland allows assisted dying for non-residents and has less restrictive procedures compared to most countries.
The UK’s Terminally Ill Adults (End of Life) Bill, 2024 allows assisted death for all adults above 18 years of age.
The UK law excludes persons with mental illness and disability from eligibility and requires judicial approval.
In India, the Supreme Court recognized the legality of passive euthanasia in 2018 but active assisted dying remains illegal.

Options:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 3, and 4 only
C. 2, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: B

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Switzerland permits assisted dying for non-residents and has relatively less restrictive procedures, making it a destination for “death tourism.”
Statement 2 is incorrect: The UK’s Terminally Ill Adults (End of Life) Bill, 2024, allows assisted dying only for terminally ill adults, not all adults above 18 years.
Statement 3 is correct: The UK law excludes persons with mental illness and disability, requires High Court approval, and imposes reflection periods to ensure informed consent.
Statement 4 is correct: In India, the Supreme Court in 2018 legalized passive euthanasia (withdrawal of life support in terminally ill or permanently vegetative patients), but active assisted dying is still illegal.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (2018)

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution.

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV.

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution.

Ans: (c)