Apex Advisory Council Formed to Help AP Achieve 6,000 MW Data Centre Capacity by 2030

Source: The Hindu

APPSC Relevance: Polity and Governance

Context: Apex Data Centre Advisory Council

Why in News?

The Government of Andhra Pradesh has constituted an Apex Data Centre Advisory Council to help achieve 6,000 MW of data centre capacity by 2030.

Introduction

  • The Government of Andhra Pradesh has taken a major step towards transforming the State into India’s premier digital infrastructure hub by constituting an Apex Data Centre Advisory Council.
  • The formation of this Council aligns with the State’s ambition to achieve 6,000 MW of data centre capacity by 2030, under the vision of promoting high-value investments, digital inclusion, and technological leadership.
  • The initiative, announced through G.O. 46 issued on October 27, 2025, aims to bring together global technology leaders, domestic industry stakeholders, policy bodies, and academic institutions to develop a time-bound execution roadmap for building sustainable, secure, and world-class data infrastructure in Andhra Pradesh.

Vision and Strategic Objective

  • The establishment of the Advisory Council is rooted in the Andhra Pradesh Data Centre Policy 4.0, which seeks to position the State—especially Visakhapatnam—as a flagship destination for next-generation, AI-driven data infrastructure.
  • The primary goal is to achieve 6,000 MW of data centre capacity by 2030, which will not only attract foreign investment but also create a robust foundation for AI, cloud computing, and digital services ecosystems.
  • The move builds upon major private sector commitments such as:
    • Google’s 1 GW (1,000 MW) data centre project, and
    • Sify Infinity’s 550 MW capacity expansion plan.
  • Together, these projects symbolize the growing global confidence in Andhra Pradesh’s policy environment and investment climate.

Composition of the Advisory Council

The Apex Advisory Council includes representation from leading global and domestic stakeholders across multiple domains that constitute the data centre ecosystem.

1. Global and Domestic Industry Representatives

  • Microsoft Azure (Cloud & AI)
  • NTT GDC India and ST Telemedia GDC – Global data centre operators
  • Cushman & Wakefield and JLL – Real estate and land advisory experts
  • Pi Data Centers – State ecosystem partner
  • Schneider Electric – Power and cooling infrastructure provider
  • Jio Platforms – Connectivity and digital backbone provider

2. Policy and Institutional Support

  • NASSCOMData Security Council of India (DSCI)ISPAI, and IEEMA will provide policy and ecosystem support.

3. Academic and Research Institutions

  • Andhra UniversityIIM Visakhapatnam, and IIT Tirupati will contribute academic and research depth, supporting talent development and innovation in the sector.

4. Cybersecurity and Resilience Partners

  • CERT-InAndhra Pradesh State Disaster Management Authority (APSDMA)APTS (State Cyber Security Operations Centre), and AP State FiberNet Ltd (APSFL) will strengthen cybersecurity, resilience, and operational continuity.

(Image Source: The Hindu)

Core Functions and Focus Areas

The Council’s mandate covers a comprehensive range of objectives designed to accelerate digital infrastructure growth while ensuring sustainability and inclusivity. Its functions include:

Advisory Role:

  • To advise the State government on a time-bound execution roadmap for achieving 6,000 MW capacity.
  • To monitor policy implementation, investor facilitation, and regulatory coordination.

Infrastructure Development:

  • Integration of renewable energy into data centre operations.
  • Establishment of high-capacity fibre connectivity and dedicated data centre parks.
  • Promotion of plug-and-play campuses for investors.
  • Simplification of clearances and real estate policies for hyperscale data centre projects.

Skill Development and Research:

  • Focus on talent creation through collaboration with academic institutions.
  • Encourage AI, cloud, and cybersecurity training programs to build a future-ready workforce.

Cybersecurity and Resilience:

  • Strengthen State-level cybersecurity infrastructure to ensure data protection, operational resilience, and compliance with global standards.

Investment Promotion:

  • Facilitate global investor outreach and accelerate the conversion of anchor investments from major players like Google and Sify into operational capacity.

Operational Structure

The Advisory Council will operate through:

  • Domain-specific sub-committees and task forces focusing on specialized areas such as power, connectivity, and policy.
  • Secretariat, drawn from the Information Technology, Electronics & Communications (ITE&C) Department and the Andhra Pradesh Economic Development Board (APEDB), to provide administrative and technical support.
  • Primus Partners will act as the technical coordinator, ensuring alignment between policy decisions, utilities, and project execution timelines.
  • This structured approach ensures seamless coordination between various stakeholders and accelerates on-ground implementation.

Significance and Expected Impact

The formation of the Apex Data Centre Advisory Council marks a transformative step in Andhra Pradesh’s digital growth trajectory. It will:

  • Enhance data sovereignty and digital resilience.
  • Attract global tech investments and generate high-skilled jobs.
  • Boost the State’s renewable energy adoption in the digital infrastructure sector.
  • Strengthen India’s position as a global data centre destination.
  • By 2030, the initiative aims to make Andhra Pradesh a key node in India’s AI, cloud computing, and digital economy network, propelling the State toward becoming a self-reliant and sustainable digital powerhouse.

CARE MCQ

Q1.  With reference to the Apex Data Centre Advisory Council recently formed by the Government of Andhra Pradesh, consider the following statements:

  1. The Council aims to steer the State’s roadmap to achieve 6,000 MW of data centre capacity by 2030 under the Andhra Pradesh Data Centre Policy 4.0.
  2. The Council includes representation from global players such as Microsoft Azure, NTT GDC India, and ST Telemedia GDC.
  3. Andhra University, IIM Visakhapatnam, and IIT Tirupati will support the Council through academic and research collaboration.
  4. The Council will be coordinated by the NITI Aayog with technical support from MeitY.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 1- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Council’s objective is to guide Andhra Pradesh in achieving 6,000 MW of data centre capacity by 2030 under the Data Centre Policy 4.0.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Global data centre and cloud operators such as Microsoft Azure, NTT GDC India, and ST Telemedia GDC are part of the Council.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Academic and research support will be provided by Andhra University, IIM Visakhapatnam, and IIT Tirupati.
  • Statement 4 is incorrect: The Council is coordinated by the Andhra Pradesh Government through ITE&C and APEDB, with technical coordination by Primus Partners, not NITI Aayog or MeitY.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

Andhra Pradesh’s Role in India’s e-Bus Initiative under PM e-Bus Sewa Programme

Source: New Indian Express

APPSC Relevance: Governance

Context: e-Bus Initiative in Andhra Pradesh

Why in News?

Andhra Pradesh is set to receive a major share in India’s 10,900 e-bus procurement under the PM e-Bus Sewa Programme, led by CESL to promote green mobility and achieve Net Zero by 2070. Introduction

  • The India’s electric mobility mission is entering a transformative phase with the launch of one of the country’s largest-ever electric bus procurement drives, marking a major step towards sustainable public transport and the national goal of Net Zero Emissions by 2070.
  • Under this initiative, Andhra Pradesh (AP) has emerged as a key beneficiary, set to receive a major share of the 10,900 electric buses being procured by the Convergence Energy Services Limited (CESL) under the PM e-Bus Sewa Programme.

PM e-Bus Sewa Programme

  • The PM e-Bus Sewa Programme, launched under the National Movement for PM e-Drive, is a flagship component of India’s broader electric mobility and climate action strategy.
  • It aligns with the Union Government’s commitment to achieving net-zero carbon emissions by 2070 and aims to revolutionize public transportation by replacing conventional diesel buses with clean, energy-efficient electric vehicles.
  • The programme not only promotes environmental sustainability but also supports domestic manufacturingemployment generation, and technological innovation under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat vision.

Logo used for representative purposes only.

(Image Source: New Indian Express)

Role of Convergence Energy Services Limited (CESL)

  • The CESL, a Government of India enterprise under the Ministry of Power, is spearheading this initiative. It recently floated a mega tender for 10,900 e-buses, covering five major metropolitan clusters. The tender has drawn robust participation from both domestic and international manufacturers, reflecting investor confidence in India’s electric vehicle (EV) ecosystem.
  • Following extensive stakeholder consultations and clarifications to pre-bid queries, CESL extended the bid submission deadline to November 2025, with bid opening scheduled for November 6, 2025.
  • This will be India’s largest e-bus procurement initiative to date, signaling a strong step toward sustainable urban mobility.

Andhra Pradesh’s Strategic Role

  • Recognized as one of the most proactive states in energy transition, Andhra Pradesh is poised to play a pivotal role in the first phase of implementation. CESL has identified five key cities in the state—
    • Visakhapatnam,
    • Vijayawada,
    • Rajahmundry,
    • Nellore, and
    • Tirupati— as the initial focus areas for e-bus deployment.
  • These cities were chosen based on their high public transport demand, readiness of urban infrastructure, and state government initiatives supporting renewable and clean energy.

Andhra Pradesh’s Commitment to Green Mobility

  • The Andhra Pradesh government has taken several strategic steps toward promoting energy efficiency, renewable energy, and sustainable transport. It has a strong track record in implementing initiatives related to:
    • Energy Efficiency,
    • Renewable Energy Integration,
    • Electric Mobility (E-Mobility), and
    • Economic Growth through Energy Transition.
  • Acknowledging these efforts, CESL has initiated the preparation of an exclusive state action plan for the time-bound implementation of e-mobility projects.
  • A CESL spokesperson also commended the Andhra Pradesh State Road Transport Corporation (APSRTC) for its strategic goal of 100% electrification of its public transport fleet, which will make AP one of the first states in India to achieve complete green public mobility.

Broader Significance

The inclusion of Andhra Pradesh in the first phase of the PM e-Bus Sewa initiative has multiple implications:

  • It will reduce urban air pollution and carbon footprint.
  • It will enhance commuter comfort and transport efficiency.
  • It will stimulate local manufacturing and service industries in the EV sector.
  • It will contribute to India’s net-zero and sustainable development targets.
  • Furthermore, this initiative will set a model for other states to replicate, accelerating the country’s transition to a clean, connected, and energy-secure transport future.

CARE MCQ

Q2. With reference to the PM e-Bus Sewa Programme, consider the following statements:

  1. The initiative is being implemented by Convergence Energy Services Limited (CESL), a Government of India enterprise under the Ministry of Power.
  2. Andhra Pradesh has been selected for the first phase, focusing on cities such as Visakhapatnam, Vijayawada, Rajahmundry, Nellore, and Tirupati.
  3. The programme aims to promote electric mobility as part of India’s Net Zero Emissions target by 2070.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 2: D

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: CESL, a Government of India enterprise under the Ministry of Power, is the nodal agency for the PM e-Bus Sewa Programme and has floated a tender for 10,900 e-buses.
  • Statement 2 is correct: In the first phase, CESL will focus on Visakhapatnam, Vijayawada, Rajahmundry, Nellore, and Tirupati in Andhra Pradesh, recognizing the state’s proactive role in e-mobility.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The programme supports India’s broader goal of achieving Net Zero Emissions by 2070 through the promotion of sustainable and electric public transport systems.
  • Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

SC Upholds Calcutta High Court Order Directing Centre to Resume MGNREGS in West Bengal

Source: Down To Earth

UPSC Relevance: GS 2 Polity and Governance

Context: MGNREGS

Why in News?

The Supreme Court upheld the Calcutta High Court’s directive ordering the Centre to resume MGNREGS in West Bengal.

Introduction

  • In a landmark judgment reinforcing the constitutional right to work, the Supreme Court of India on October 27, 2025, upheld the Calcutta High Court’s June 2025 directive ordering the Union Government to resume works under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) in West Bengal.
  • The verdict marks a crucial victory for nearly 25 million rural workers who had been deprived of employment opportunities and wages for almost three years.

Background of the Case

  • The Calcutta High Court, on June 18, 2025, had directed the Centre to restore MGNREGS operations in the state from August 1, 2025, emphasizing that “the scheme of the Act does not envisage a situation where it would be put to cold storage for eternity.”
  • Despite this clear order, neither the central nor the state government initiated steps for its implementation. Instead, the Centre moved the Supreme Court, seeking repeated adjournments that further delayed justice and extended the hardship faced by workers.
  • The suspension of payments and work under MGNREGS in West Bengal dated back to December 21, 2021, when the Union government stopped releasing funds, citing alleged irregularities.
  • By March 2022, the issuance of work permits had also been halted, effectively bringing the employment guarantee scheme to a standstill. The decision impacted millions of rural households, many of whom depend on MGNREGS wages for subsistence.

The Petition and Court Proceedings

  • The case was filed by the Paschim Banga Khet Majoor Samity (PBKMS), a trade union representing rural laborers. Advocate Purbayan Chakraborty, who appeared on behalf of PBKMS, stated that the prolonged suspension of the scheme deprived workers of their rightful entitlements under the MGNREG Act.
  • The apex court’s decision came after dismissing the Union government’s appeal, affirming the High Court’s stance that indefinite suspension of a statutory welfare scheme was contrary to both the spirit and the purpose of the Act.
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS)

 

  • The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) is a rights-based rural employment programme launched in 2006 under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), 2005.
  • It aims to enhance livelihood security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.
  • Key Features:
    • Legal entitlement: It is a demand-driven, rights-based scheme, not a welfare programme.
    • Coverage: Applicable to all districts of India except those with 100% urban population.
    • Funding pattern: Shared between the Centre and States —
      • Wages: 100% funded by the Centre.
      • Material and administrative costs: 75% Centre, 25% State.
    • Implementation: Executed mainly by Gram Panchayats.
    • Wage payment: Through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) into workers’ bank or post office accounts.
    • Unemployment allowance: If work is not provided within 15 days of demand, workers are entitled to an unemployment allowance.
    • Transparency mechanisms:
    • Social audit by Gram Sabha.
    • Management Information System (MIS) for real-time monitoring.

Reactions and Implications

  • Anuradha Talwar, convenor of the NREGA Sangharsh Morcha (NSM), drew attention to the evolving challenges faced by MGNREGS workers in recent years, describing a “three-pronged attack” on the scheme:
    • Technological barriers that have made access to work and wage payments more difficult.
    • Entrenched corruption within the state machinery, where funds are allegedly misused for electoral and personal gains.
    • Insufficient budgetary support from the Centre, leading to delayed payments and limited employment generation.

(Image Source: Down To Earth)

Significance of the Verdict

  • The Supreme Court’s affirmation of the High Court’s directive is being seen as a reassertion of the constitutional right to livelihood and an important step in safeguarding social security legislation.
  • The judgment underlines that welfare schemes like MGNREGS cannot be arbitrarily suspended, as they form an integral part of India’s rural safety net.
  • By restoring MGNREGS in West Bengal, the Court has not only revived employment opportunities but also reinforced the principles of federal accountabilitytransparency, and citizen entitlement under the law.

Conclusion

  • The dismissal of the Centre’s plea marks a decisive moment for rural workers in West Bengal and across India.
  • As MGNREGS activities resume, the focus now shifts to effective implementation, timely wage disbursement, and restoration of trust among rural households.
  • The judgment stands as a reminder that the right to work, as enshrined under the MGNREG Act, is not a privilege—but a legal and moral guarantee owed to every rural citizen.

CARE MCQ

Q1.  Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s verdict on resumption of MGNREGS in West Bengal:

Assertion (A): The Supreme Court upheld the Calcutta High Court’s order directing the Centre to resume MGNREGS operations in West Bengal, emphasizing that suspension of a statutory welfare scheme cannot be indefinite.

Reason (R): Under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005, the right to employment is a legally enforceable entitlement, and the Centre is solely responsible for implementation and funding of all components of the scheme.

Which of the following is correct?
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.

Answer 1- C

Explanation

Assertion (A) – Correct:

  • The Supreme Court of India on October 27, 2025, upheld the Calcutta High Court’s June 2025 directive ordering the Union Government to resume MGNREGS works in West Bengal.
  • The Court reaffirmed that an indefinite suspension of a statutory welfare scheme like MGNREGS violates the constitutional right to livelihood and contradicts the spirit and purpose of the MGNREG Act, 2005.
  • The ruling restored wage-based employment rights to nearly 25 million rural workers who had been deprived since December 2021.

Reason (R) – Incorrect:

  • While the MGNREG Act provides a legal right to demand work, implementation is shared between Centre and States.
  • The Centre funds 100% of wages and 75% of material costs, but States are responsible for execution, including providing work within 15 days, maintaining records, and conducting social audits.
  • Therefore, the Centre is not solely responsible for implementation and funding of all components.
  • Hence, R is partly incorrect and does not correctly explain A.
  • Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.  Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”? (2011)

(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
(c) Adult members of households of all backward communities
(d) Adult members of any household

Ans: (d)

Bharat International Rice Conference (BIRC) 2025

Source: PIB

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Agriculture

Context: Bharat International Rice Conference (BIRC) 2025

Why in News?

  • The Bharat International Rice Conference (BIRC) 2025 is scheduled to be held at Bharat Mandapam, Pragati Maidan, New Delhi, on 30–31 October 2025.

BIRC 2025 - Bharat International Rice Conference | Oct 30-31, New Delhi

(Image Source: BIRC.org)

Background

  • India regularly engages with private trade bodies and farmer-producer organizations to promote participatory decision-making in trade development.
  • In this context, the Department of Commerce has extended non-financial facilitative support to the upcoming BIRC 2025.
  • The event is organized by the Indian Rice Exporters’ Federation (IREF) — an independent private body representing major rice exporters.
  • The government clarified that it plays no role in IREF’s internal appointments or financial management.

Significance of the Rice Sector

  • Economic weight: Rice is India’s largest agricultural export commodity, earning US $ 12.95 billion in FY 2024–25.
  • Global position: India remains the largest rice producer and a leading exporter, catering to both basmati and non-basmati markets.
  • Livelihoods: The sector sustains millions of small and marginal farmers and contributes significantly to rural employment and food security.
  • Strategic dimension: Balancing export potential and domestic food buffer stock is vital to India’s food-policy equilibrium.

About BIRC 2025

  • Venue: Bharat Mandapam, Pragati Maidan, New Delhi
  • Dates: 30–31 October 2025
  • Organiser: Indian Rice Exporters’ Federation (IREF), a private federation of exporters and stakeholders in the rice value chain.
  • Collaborating Associations:
    • The Rice Exporters Association, Chhattisgarh (TREA-CG)
    • The Rice Exporters Association, Kakinada
    • Other state-level associations representing non-basmati rice exporters.
  • Financial Model: The entire event is privately financed — IREF and partners bear costs of venue, logistics, hospitality, and creative arrangements through internal funds or sponsorships.
  • Government’s Role: The Department of Commerce and APEDA provide institutional and coordination support without financial outlay.

Institutional Role – APEDA’s Contribution

➤ Background of APEDA

  • Full Form: Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority
  • Establishment: Under the APEDA Act, 1985 (operative from 13 February 1986)
  • Administrative Control: Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce & Industry
  • Headquarters: New Delhi

➤ Mandate

APEDA promotes and develops exports of scheduled agricultural and processed food products through:

  1. Registration and financial assistance to exporters.
  2. Infrastructure creation – packhouses, cold-chains, quality-testing labs.
  3. Quality certification and compliance (e.g. National Programme for Organic Production – NPOP).
  4. Branding and marketing of “Brand India” agri-products globally.
  5. Support to Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) for export readiness.

➤ Role in BIRC 2025

  • Coordinator: Facilitates inter-ministerial collaboration (Agriculture, Commerce, External Affairs, Finance) to promote a unified export strategy.
  • Facilitator: Helps IREF align event themes with India’s Agriculture Export Policy (2018) and One District One Product (ODOP) framework.
  • Non-financial Supporter: Offers technical inputs, branding support, and international outreach through its trade networks.

Thus, APEDA’s involvement ensures that BIRC 2025 strengthens export competitiveness, quality assurance, and sustainability in India’s rice sector.

CARE MCQ

Q2.  With reference to the Bharat International Rice Conference (BIRC) 2025, consider the following statements:

  1. The Department of Commerce is providing financial assistance for organizing the conference.
  2. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) is facilitating coordination among relevant ministries for promoting rice exports.
  3. The Indian Rice Exporters’ Federation (IREF) and its co-partners are fully bearing the expenditure of the event.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 3 only

Answer 2- B

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Department of Commerce is only extending non-financial support to the Bharat International Rice Conference (BIRC) 2025. It is not providing any financial assistance for organizing the event.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) is supporting the event by bringing relevant ministries and departments on board to ensure a holistic and coordinated approach toward the promotion of rice exports.
  • Statement 3 is correct: The Indian Rice Exporters’ Federation (IREF) and its co-partners (including The Rice Exporters Association, Chhattisgarh, and The Rice Exporters Association, Kakinada) are bearing all expenses related to the event — such as venue booking, logistics, buyer hosting, and creative arrangements — through their own funds or private sponsorships.
  • Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Consider the following statements: (2020)

  1. In the case of all cereals, pulses, and oil seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India.
  2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d)

CSE’s New Report Charts a Roadmap for Climate-Resilient and Sustainable Agriculture

Source: Down To earth

UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Agriculture

Context: Climate-resilient and sustainable agriculture

Why in News?

The Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) released two new reports at a national conclave in Rajasthan outlining a roadmap for making Indian agriculture more climate-resilient and sustainable.

Introduction

  • Agriculture lies at the heart of India’s economy, employing nearly half of the population and shaping rural livelihoods.
  • Yet, it is also among the most climate-vulnerable sectors, facing increasing threats from rising temperatures, erratic rainfall, and land degradation. Recognising this dual challenge — that agriculture is both a victim and a contributor to climate change — the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) has released a comprehensive roadmap to make Indian agriculture more climate-resilient, sustainable, and nutrition-secure.
  • The report, launched during the National Conclave on Sustainable Food Systems held at Anil Agarwal Environment Training Institute (AAETI), Nimli, Rajasthan (October 27–29, 2025), highlights how transforming India’s food systems is essential for long-term ecological and economic stability.

Context and Background

  • In 2018, around 11% of global greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions came from food production systems — including agriculture, livestock, and pesticide use.
  • Despite this, farmers and livestock rearers remain among the most vulnerable to climate impacts, facing declining productivity, soil fertility loss, and water scarcity.
  • India’s own agricultural landscape reflects this vulnerability:
    • 90% of rural districts face climate-related risks.
    • Rain-fed rice yields may decline by 20% by 2050 and 47% by 2080 without adaptation measures.
    • Rising input costs, poor infrastructure, and extreme weather further compound farmers’ distress.
  • Against this backdrop, CSE’s twin reports — Sustainable Food Systems: An Agenda for Climate-Risked Times and Missing from the Plate: Edible Plants in Wetlands Lose Favour — provide a policy and ecological framework for strengthening India’s food systems.

Key Highlights of the Reports

1. Sustainable Food Systems: An Agenda for Climate-Risked Times

  • This flagship report provides a roadmap for climate-resilient agriculture in India. It recommends:
  • Transitioning to low-input, ecologically sound farming practices that reduce dependence on chemical fertilizers and pesticides.

Diversifying crops and livestock to manage risks from climatic variability.

  • Promoting nutrition-rich, locally suited, and traditional crops such as millets and pulses.
  • Strengthening carbon markets and soil health monitoring as tools for sustainability.
  • Encouraging climate-conscious food consumption patterns among citizens.

2. Missing from the Plate: Edible Plants in Wetlands Lose Favour

  • This companion report documents the diversity of edible wetland plants across India and their role in food security, nutrition, and climate adaptation.
  • It warns that these species are disappearing from local diets, leading to a loss of both biodiversity and nutritional value. By restoring traditional food systems, India can simultaneously enhance resilience, reduce emissions, and preserve cultural heritage.

Embracing Earth Observation for Resilient Climate-Smart Agriculture

(Image Source: geospatial World)

The Food-Climate-Nutrition Nexus

CSE’s reports stress that the food-climate-nutrition connection is not limited to dietary preferences such as veganism or organic farming. Instead, it is about:

  • How food is grown — with minimal ecological impact.
  • What we eat — focusing on nutritional adequacy and diversity.
  • How much we consume — avoiding waste and overproduction.
  • This holistic approach aligns with the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) — particularly SDG 2 (Zero Hunger)SDG 12 (Responsible Consumption and Production), and SDG 13 (Climate Action).

Climate-Resilient Agriculture

  • Climate-Resilient Agriculture (CRA) refers to an integrated approach that helps agricultural systems prepare for, adapt to, and recover from the adverse impacts of climate change while ensuring productivity and sustainability.
  • According to the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), CRA aims to achieve three core objectives:
    • Sustainably increase agricultural productivity and incomes.
    • Adapt and build resilience to climate change at multiple levels (farm, ecosystem, and community).
    • Reduce greenhouse gas emissions where possible.
  • In essence, it combines adaptation (coping with climate impacts) and mitigation (reducing emissions) through improved land, water, and input management practices.

Climate Change and Indian Agriculture

  • India’s agriculture is highly climate-sensitive due to its dependence on monsoon rains, fragmented land holdings, and limited irrigation coverage.
  • 90% of rural districts face climate-related risks.
  • Rain-fed areas, accounting for 60% of net sown area, are particularly vulnerable.
  • Government data indicate that rain-fed rice yields may fall by 20% by 2050 and 47% by 2080 if no adaptation measures are taken.
  • Increased frequency of heatwaves, floods, and cyclones disrupts cropping patterns, soil fertility, and rural livelihoods.
  • These trends underscore the urgency of adopting climate-resilient strategies at both the policy and grassroots levels.

Key Components of Climate-Resilient Agriculture

Diversified Cropping Systems

  • Promoting millets, pulses, and oilseeds that are drought-tolerant and nutrition-rich.
  • Reducing monoculture dependency to enhance resilience.

Improved Soil and Water Management

  • Conservation tillage, micro-irrigation, and watershed development.
  • Organic manure and composting to restore soil carbon and fertility.

Agroforestry and Integrated Farming Systems

  • Combining trees, crops, and livestock to improve productivity and ecological balance.

Use of Climate-Smart Technologies

  • Weather-based crop advisories, drought-resistant seed varieties, and early warning systems.
  • Digital tools for precision farming and insurance.

Institutional and Policy Support

  • Strengthening crop insurance (PM Fasal Bima Yojana), soil health cards, and market access.
  • Integrating CRA into rural development and national climate policies.

Challenges in Achieving Climate-Resilient Agriculture

  • Despite policy initiatives like National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) and Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY), several challenges persist:
  • Fragmented policy implementation across states.
  • Inadequate investment in soil health and irrigation infrastructure.
  • Lack of integration between agricultural research and climate adaptation strategies.
  • Limited awareness among farmers about low-carbon practices.
  • Without a coordinated and evidence-based approach, these structural issues may undermine progress toward resilience.

Way Forward

CSE’s roadmap provides clear strategic directions:

  • Mainstream agroecological practices into national and state agricultural policies.
  • Incentivize low-carbon farming through green credit and carbon markets.
  • Invest in soil health restoration and decentralized water management.
  • Promote traditional and climate-suited crops, especially millets, pulses, and oilseeds.
  • Strengthen agricultural extension services to spread awareness about adaptive technologies.
  • Integrate nutrition goals into agricultural planning, ensuring dietary diversity and food security.

Conclusion

  • The CSE’s reports mark a significant step toward aligning India’s agricultural development with climate and nutritional imperatives. By embracing this vision, India can transition toward a low-carbon, nutrition-sensitive, and climate-resilient agricultural system — ensuring the well-being of both farmers and consumers in an era of growing climate uncertainty.

CARE MCQ

Q3.  ‘Which of the following measures can contribute to climate-resilient agriculture in India?

  1. Crop diversification and intercropping.
  2. Conservation of soil moisture and fertility.
  3. Use of climate-suited and traditional crop varieties.
  4. Dependence on single high-yielding crop types for all regions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 2 and 4 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (D)

Answer 3: A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 – Correct: Crop diversification and intercropping help farmers spread risk and reduce vulnerability to climate variability. By growing multiple crops together, soil fertility is maintained, and dependency on a single crop is minimized, enhancing resilience.
  • Statement 2 – Correct: Conservation of soil moisture and fertility through methods like mulching, contour bunding, and organic manure application improves water retention and soil health, which are vital for sustaining productivity under changing climatic conditions.
  • Statement 3 – Correct: Use of climate-suited and traditional crop varieties—such as millets, pulses, and drought-resistant species—enhances the adaptive capacity of agriculture, making it more resilient to temperature fluctuations and rainfall variability.
  • Statement 4 – Incorrect: Dependence on a single high-yielding crop type across all regions increases vulnerability to pests, diseases, and climatic shocks. It also reduces biodiversity and weakens long-term sustainability.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. In the context of India’s preparation for Climate -Smart Agriculture, consider the following statements:(2021)

  1. The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
  2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
  3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Global Capital and India’s Banking Transformation

Source: Indian Express

UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Economy

Context: Banking Sector Reforms

Why in News?

Global financial giants like Blackstone, Emirates NBD, SMBC, Zurich Insurance, and IHC are making major acquisitions in Indian banks and NBFCs

Background

  • India’s financial landscape is witnessing a historic transformation. Over the last two years, several global financial giants — including Blackstone, Emirates NBD, Sumitomo Mitsui Banking Corporation (SMBC), Zurich Insurance, and Abu Dhabi’s International Holding Company (IHC) — have made major investments in Indian banks, insurance firms, and NBFCs.
  • Once perceived as over-regulated and inward-looking, India’s banking sector is now emerging as one of the most attractive global investment destinations — driven by strong growth potential, regulatory reforms, and digital expansion.

Major Recent Acquisitions

  • Blackstone Inc. – 9.99% stake in Federal Bank for ₹6,196 crore.
  • Emirates NBD (Dubai) – $3 billion acquisition of a 60% stake in RBL Bank.
  • SMBC (Japan) – $1.6 billion investment for a 25% stake in Yes Bank.
  • Zurich Insurance – 70% majority stake in Kotak General Insurance for $670 million.
  • IHC (Abu Dhabi) – Nearly $1 billion investment in Sammaan Capital (formerly Indiabulls Housing).
  • Bain Capital – ₹4,385 crore investment for 18% stake in Manappuram Finance.
  • Fairfax (Canada) – Allowed majority stake in CSB Bank for five years — a rare RBI relaxation beyond the usual 40% foreign cap.
  • These moves mark a shift in the global perception of India’s financial institutions as dynamic, reform-oriented, and growth-centric.

Why India’s Financial Sector is Attracting Global Investors

1. Strong Economic Fundamentals and Growth Potential

  • India’s economy is projected to grow at 6.8% (RBI), powered by strong domestic demand and digital integration.
  • With 400+ million underbanked citizens, the scope for financial expansion is enormous.
  • Rising income levels and formalisation have widened the financial inclusion base.

2. Sectoral Clean-up and Improved Governance

  • Post-crisis reforms (after IL&FS, DHFL, and Yes Bank collapses) have strengthened financial discipline.
  • Implementation of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), better asset recognition, and tighter supervision have restored investor confidence.

3. Regulatory Liberalisation

  • FDI cap increased to 100% in insurance and 74% in private banks (with approval).
  • This signals a shift toward openness while maintaining regulatory sovereignty.
  • 4. Attractive Valuations and Ready Infrastructure
  • Acquiring stakes gives investors immediate access to digital platforms, retail networks, and large customer bases.
  • Compared to other emerging markets, Indian banks offer cost-efficient entry points with long-term growth prospects.

5. Global Context: India as a Safe Bet

  • In contrast to China’s tightening markets and geopolitical risks, India provides macroeconomic stabilitypolitical continuity, and rising consumption — making it a preferred global investment hub.

Performance and Potential of India’s Banking Industry

According to McKinsey & Company (2024):

  • Indian banks earned $46 billion in net income, a 31% year-on-year growth.
  • India now outpaces global peers in profitability, liquidity, and capital adequacy.
  • Key Strengths:
  • High capital adequacy ratio and low external vulnerability.
  • Growth driven by secured retail lending.
  • Deepening formalisation through GST and digital payments ecosystem.

Risks and Concerns

  • While foreign capital enhances capacity and innovation, it also brings structural challenges.

1. Strategic Control and Sovereignty Issues

  • Majority foreign ownership could shift decision-making power offshore, especially during crises.
  • Strategic objectives may not always align with national priorities.

2. Exposure to Global Financial Shocks

  • High foreign participation could make India’s system more sensitive to global interest rate changes, liquidity crunches, or trade disruptions.

3. Unequal Playing Field

  • Foreign banks may enjoy cheaper global credit and advanced risk management tools, potentially marginalising domestic lenders that face higher capital costs.

4. Regulatory Vigilance

  • With increasing complexity in cross-border ownership, the RBI and SEBI need to constantly refine frameworks for fit-and-proper norms, transparency, and capital adequacy.

(Image Source: Indian Express)

Implications for India’s Financial Future

India’s vision of becoming a $7 trillion economy by early 2030 demands deep financial capacity and capital inflow. Foreign investments offer not only funds but also technological expertise and governance best practices.

  • However, India must:
  • Preserve financial sovereignty.
  • Prevent market concentration by foreign entities.
  • Maintain inclusive financial access for small borrowers and rural sectors.
  • For investors: India offers scale, digital readiness, and policy stability.
    For India: The challenge lies in ensuring that global participation complements — not compromises — its developmental priorities.

Conclusion

  • The surge of global acquisitions in India’s financial sector reflects international confidence in India’s growth trajectory and regulatory maturity.
  • Yet, as India integrates deeper with global finance, calibrated liberalisation and robust supervision will be critical to safeguard systemic stability.
  • In essence, India stands at a strategic crossroads — embracing global capital to accelerate growth, while ensuring that its financial independence, inclusion goals, and long-term resilience remain uncompromised.

CARE MCQ

Q4.  Which of the following factors have contributed to the surge of foreign investments in India’s banking and financial sector?

  1. Strengthened financial governance through IBC and NPA reforms.
  2. Liberalisation of FDI limits in banking and insurance.
  3. Decline in India’s economic growth rate and domestic consumption.
  4. Attractive valuations and digital financial infrastructure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) 1, 2 and 4 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 4- A

Explanation

  • Statements 1 & 2 are correct: Reforms like the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) and relaxed FDI limits have boosted investor confidence.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: India’s economy is growing at around 6.8% with strong domestic demand, not declining.
  • Statement 4 is correct: India offers attractive valuations, digital inclusion, and ready infrastructure, making it a preferred global investment destination.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. Which among the following steps is most likely to be taken at the time of an economic recession? (2021)

A Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate

B Increase in expenditure on public projects

C Increase in tax rates accompanied by reduction of interest rate

D Reduction of expenditure on public projects

Ans: (b)

Himachal Pradesh Records Higher HDI Than National Average

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Economy

Context: Human Development Report 2025.

Why in News?

Himachal Pradesh recorded a Human Development Index (HDI) of 0.78, higher than the national average of 0.63, according to the Human Development Report 2025.

Introduction

  • The Himachal Pradesh Human Development Report 2025, released by Chief Minister Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu in Chandigarh, highlights the State’s remarkable progress in human development despite its challenging geographical and climatic conditions.
  • The report, prepared in collaboration with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), presents Himachal Pradesh as a model of resilience, sustainability, and inclusive growth.

Key Findings of the Report

1. Human Development Index (HDI)

  • The average HDI of Himachal Pradesh stands at 0.78, significantly higher than the national average of 0.63.
  • This reflects the State’s success in enhancing living standards, literacy, and life expectancy—three core components of HDI.

2. Literacy and Education

  • Himachal Pradesh has achieved the distinction of becoming a fully literate state, with a literacy rate of 99.3%.
  • The State ranks fifth nationally in reading and writing competencies, a remarkable improvement from 21st position in 2021.
  • These achievements underscore effective educational investments and the expansion of school infrastructure, especially in rural and hilly regions.

3. Health and Life Expectancy

  • The infant mortality rate (IMR) has dropped to 21 per 1,000 live births, indicating a robust primary healthcare system.
  • Life expectancy has risen to 72 years, a key indicator of improved nutrition, healthcare accessibility, and sanitation.
  • Continuous investments in healthcare, women’s welfare, and elderly care have strengthened the State’s social infrastructure.

4. Poverty Reduction

  • The poverty rate in the State has fallen below 7%, reflecting the impact of targeted welfare schemes, rural development initiatives, and self-employment programmes.
  • Himachal’s focus on equitable growth has ensured that development benefits reach remote and tribal areas.

Human Development Index (HDI)

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite measure developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to assess a country’s overall achievement in three basic dimensions of human development:

  1. Health – measured by life expectancy at birth
  2. Education – measured by mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling
  3. Standard of living – measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita (PPP adjusted)

It reflects how people in a country live long, educated, and decent lives rather than focusing only on economic growth.

India’s Performance (HDR 2025):

  • India’s HDI: 0.63
  • Global Rank: 130 out of 193 countries
  • Category: Medium Human Development
  • Top-ranked country: Switzerland

Loss Of Rs 46,000 Crore Due To Climate Change And Disaster In Four Years, Reveals Report - Amar Ujala Hindi News Live - Himachal:चार साल में जलवायु परिवर्तन और आपदा से 46

(Image Source: Amar Ujala)

Focus on Sustainable and Climate-Resilient Development

  • Despite geographical constraints, Himachal Pradesh has maintained a strong commitment to environment-friendly growth and climate resilience.

1. Climate Change Challenges

  • The State faces severe consequences of global warming, including heavy rainfall, landslides, floods, and cloudbursts during monsoons.
  • These disasters have caused substantial loss of lives, property, and infrastructure, emphasizing the urgency for adaptive strategies.

2. Sustainable Development Initiatives

  • Himachal Pradesh follows a sustainable development framework that balances ecological preservation with economic growth.
  • The government has avoided exploitative use of forests, rivers, and mountains, ensuring long-term ecological balance.

Innovative Government Schemes for Green Growth

1. Rajiv Gandhi Self-Employment Start-up Scheme

  • Launched with an outlay of ₹680 crore, the scheme aims to promote green entrepreneurship and self-employment.
  • In its first phase, a 50% subsidy is offered for the purchase of electric taxis (e-taxis) to promote sustainable mobility.

2. Rajiv Gandhi Self-Employment Solar Energy Scheme

  • Provides interest subsidies for establishing ground-mounted solar projects (100 kW–2 MW):
    • 5% subsidy in tribal areas.
    • 4% subsidy in non-tribal areas.
  • This scheme encourages local energy generation and employment opportunities in renewable sectors.

3. Electric Vehicle Policy and Green Targets

  • Himachal has become the first hill state to adopt a strong electric vehicle policy.
  • The goal is to electrify public transport by 2030, aligning with India’s national climate commitments and green mobility agenda.

Conclusion

  • Himachal Pradesh’s performance in the Human Development Report 2025 exemplifies how socio-economic progress and environmental sustainability can coexist.
  • The State’s HDI of 0.78, high literacy, low poverty, and improved health indicators position it as a model for inclusive and climate-resilient development in India.
  • Its focus on human-centric policiesgreen innovation, and sustainable livelihoods offers valuable lessons for other Indian states striving to balance growth with ecological preservation.

CARE MCQ

Q5.  With reference to the Himachal Pradesh Human Development Report 2025, consider the following statements:

  1. The Human Development Index (HDI) of Himachal Pradesh is higher than the national average.
  2. The State has achieved a literacy rate of over 99 percent.
  3. The infant mortality rate in the State has increased to 21 per 1,000 live births.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 5- A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Human Development Report 2025 states that the average Human Development Index (HDI) of Himachal Pradesh is 0.78, which is higher than the national average of 0.63. This reflects the State’s strong performance in literacy, health, and life expectancy indicators.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Himachal Pradesh has recently achieved the status of a fully literate state with a literacy rate of 99.30%. It also ranks fifth in reading and writing competencies, showing significant improvement in education outcomes.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The infant mortality rate (IMR) in Himachal Pradesh has declined to 21 per 1,000 live births, not increased. This decline highlights the success of the State’s healthcare system and maternal-child welfare programmes.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following? (2012)

  1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
  2. Purchasing power parity at national level
  3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

INS Ikshak: Strengthening India’s Maritime Self-Reliance and Inclusivity

Source: India Today

UPSC Relevance: GS 3 Defence

Context: INS Ikshak

Why in News?

INS Ikshak, the third indigenously built Survey Vessel (Large) of the Indian Navy with over 80% indigenous content and women-specific accommodation, will be commissioned on November 6, 2025, at Kochi.

Introduction

  • The Indian Navy is set to commission INS Ikshak, the third vessel in the Survey Vessel (Large) [SVL] class, on November 6, 2025, at the Naval Base in Kochi. The commissioning ceremony will be presided over by Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi, Chief of the Naval Staff.
  • This milestone marks a significant advancement in India’s pursuit of self-reliance in naval shipbuilding and its broader goal under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative.

(Image Source: India Today)

A Major Leap Toward Indigenous Naval Capability

  • INS Ikshak has been constructed by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE) Ltd, Kolkata, under the supervision of the Directorate of Ship Production and the Warship Overseeing Team (Kolkata).
  • The ship stands as a testament to India’s growing expertise in indigenous shipbuilding, boasting over 80% indigenous content.
  • This achievement showcases the successful collaboration between the Indian Navy, GRSE, and numerous MSMEs, reinforcing the domestic industrial base’s capability to deliver technologically advanced and complex maritime platforms.
  • The project not only enhances India’s hydrographic capacity but also strengthens the nation’s defense manufacturing ecosystem.

Dual-Role Functionality: Strategic and Humanitarian Utility

  • INS Ikshak is designed with dual-role capability, making it more than just a hydrographic survey vessel.
  • While its primary mission is to conduct hydrographic surveys—critical for charting maritime boundaries, ensuring safe navigation, and supporting naval operations—it can also be swiftly converted into a Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) platform or a hospital ship during emergencies.
  • This versatile design enables the vessel to play a pivotal role in both strategic defense operations and humanitarian missions, thereby enhancing the Navy’s operational flexibility and responsiveness in times of crisis.

Promoting Inclusivity in Naval Design

  • In a significant step towards gender inclusion, Ikshak is the first ship in the SVL class to feature dedicated accommodation for women officers and sailors.
  • This inclusion reflects the Indian Navy’s progressive approach towards building a modern, gender-integrated force.
  • By incorporating women-specific facilities, the Navy reaffirms its commitment to inclusivity, aligning with broader national efforts to ensure greater participation of women in all sectors of defense and public service.

Symbolism and Significance of the Name

  • The name Ikshak—which means “The Guide”—beautifully captures the vessel’s core mission and spirit. As a survey ship, its primary role is to guide mariners through uncharted waters, contributing to safe navigation and maritime domain awareness.
  • The ship embodies the Navy’s vision of being a “guide” to India’s waters, symbolizing safety, precision, and exploration.

Enhancing India’s Hydrographic and Maritime Strength

  • With its commissioning, INS Ikshak will significantly enhance India’s hydrographic survey capabilities, ensuring accurate charting of coastal and deep-sea regions.
  • This improvement directly contributes to regional maritime safety, supports blue economy initiatives, and strengthens India’s role in maritime cooperation and navigation safety across the Indo-Pacific region.
  • The induction of Ikshak reflects a broader vision of the Indian Navy—to build a future-ready, self-reliant, and inclusive fleet that upholds India’s maritime interests and contributes to regional peace and security.

Conclusion

  • INS Ikshak represents more than a technological achievement—it embodies India’s commitment to self-reliance, inclusivity, and maritime excellence. By guiding the nation’s maritime journey toward a safer and more self-reliant future, INS Ikshak truly lives up to its name—“The Guide.”

CARE MCQ

Q6.  With reference to INS Ikshak, recently in the news, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the third vessel in the Survey Vessel (Large) class, constructed by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata.
  2. The ship has dual-role capability, enabling it to function as a hydrographic survey and a humanitarian assistance vessel.
  3. It is the first vessel in its class to include accommodation for women officers and sailors.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 6-A

Explanation

  • Statement 1 is correct: INS Ikshak is the third vessel in the Survey Vessel (Large) class, constructed by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE) Ltd., Kolkata under the supervision of the Directorate of Ship Production and Warship Overseeing Team (Kolkata). This highlights India’s indigenous shipbuilding capability under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The vessel possesses dual-role functionality — it can perform hydrographic survey operations and can also be deployed for Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) missions or as a hospital ship during emergencies.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Ikshak is the first ship in the SVL class to feature dedicated accommodation for women officers and sailors, reflecting the Indian Navy’s commitment to gender inclusivity and modernization.
  • Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

UPSC PYQ

Q.  Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (2016)

  1. Amphibious warfare ship
  2. Nuclear-powered submarine
  3. Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
  4. Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

Ans: (c)

 
APPSC CARE 29th October 2025 Current Affairs
APPSC CARE 27th October 2025 Current Affairs
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