APPSC CARE 27th August 2025 Current Affairs

News at a Glance

Andhra Pradesh: Forest officer wins silver at World Transplant Games

Andhra Pradesh government approves Smart Street Vending Markets in seven cities

Ecology and Environment: Environment Ministry finalises National Designated Authority to kickstart carbon markets

Polity and Governance: New online gaming Act

Public Health: India’s drug safety deficit: critical gaps and urgent remedies

Science and Technology: Scientists discover a rare quadruple star system in the Milky Way

US confirms its first human case of flesh-eating New World screwworm

Defence: INS Udaygiri and INS Himgiri commissioned into the Indian Navy

Forest officer wins silver at World Transplant Games

Source: The Hindu

APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Awards

Context: World Transplant Games

Why in News

Forest Section Officer Nagavasu Naidu Sunkara from the Jangareddygudem Forest Division, Telangana, won a silver medal in the 5-kilometre racewalking event at the World Transplant Games 2025 held in Dresden, Germany.

Introduction

• Diagnosed with liver disease in 2015, he underwent a liver transplant in 2020, with his mother being the donor. Initially a cyclist, he shifted to racewalking on medical advice post-transplant.

Games

• The World Transplant Games is a global sporting event showcasing the abilities of organ transplant recipients and promoting awareness on organ donation.
• Mr. Naidu participated individually in the organ recipient category and clinched silver for Telangana on the international stage.
• His journey from a patient to a medal-winning athlete highlights resilience and the importance of organ transplantation in extending quality life.

Source : The Hindu

Highlights & Participation

• The Games brought together about 2,500 transplant recipients competing across 17 different sports.
• Ivan Klasnic, former Werder Bremen striker and three-time kidney transplant recipient, served as an ambassador for the event.
• The Games featured a vibrant schedule including the Parade of Nations, a Darts Night with well-known players, and a Gala Dinner to close the event.
• The event concluded with Dresden bidding farewell to participants from 51 countries.
• Raj Sarki, a 33-year-old from Jaigaon in the Dooars, triumphed over renal failure and a kidney transplant to clinch a bronze medal in a running event at the World Transplant Games 2025.

CARE MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements: The World Transplant Games is a biennial international multi-sport event for transplant recipients, living donors, and donor families that promotes awareness about organ donation. Nagavasu Naidu Sunkara won a gold medal in the cycling event at the 2025 World Transplant Games held in Hyderabad. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Options: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 1- A Statement 1 is correct. The World Transplant Games is a global biennial sporting event organized by the World Transplant Games Federation, that features transplant recipients, living donors, and donor families to showcase the positive impact of organ donation and transplant success. The 2025 edition was held in Dresden, Germany. Statement 2 is incorrect. Nagavasu Naidu Sunkara won the silver medal in racewalking, not a gold medal or cycling event. The games were held in Germany, not Hyderabad.

Andhra Pradesh government approves Smart Street Vending Markets in seven cities

Source: The Hindu

APPSC Syllabus Relevance: Governance

Context: Smart Street Vending Markets

Why in News

• The Andhra Pradesh government has approved the establishment of Smart Street Vending Markets in seven cities under the DAY-NULM Support to Urban Street Vendors (SUSV) scheme.

Key Highlights

• Cities Covered: Anantapur, Kurnool, Tadepalli-Mangalagiri, Ongole, Srikakulam, Vijayawada, and Kadapa.
• Infrastructure:
  • Organised vending hubs with 40–200 modular shops.
  • Features include solar power, free Wi-Fi, CCTV surveillance, and digital payment facilities.
• Beneficiaries: 580 vendors directly, with priority for women, differently-abled, and marginalised groups.
• Funding: ₹26 crore project cost, financed via SHG bank loans, MEPMA support, and government contributions.
• Implementation: By MEPMA under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Urban Livelihood Mission.

Important Information

• Skill Training & Support: Hygiene, food safety, entrepreneurship, digital marketing, and e-commerce tie-ups.
• Image Source: The Hindu
• Impact:
  • Ensures dignity for vendors, convenience for customers, and orderliness in cities.
  • Will empower nearly 2,500 dependents and generate new revenue streams for municipalities.
  • Promotes eco-friendly and sustainable urban livelihoods.

Significance of the Initiative

• Urban Livelihood Security: Provides safe, organised, and dignified vending spaces, ending the cycle of eviction and harassment for street vendors.
• Women & Social Inclusion: Prioritises women, differently-abled, and marginalised groups, promoting inclusive urban development.
• Digital & Skill Empowerment: Integration of digital payments, Wi-Fi, and e-commerce tie-ups boosts financial literacy and market reach.
• Sustainability: Eco-friendly design with solar power and green practices aligns with sustainable urbanisation goals.
• Municipal Revenue & Orderliness: Creates new revenue streams for municipalities while ensuring city order, hygiene, and customer convenience.
• Policy Model: Sets a replicable template for other states in implementing smart, livelihood-friendly urban reforms under DAY-NULM.

CARE MCQ

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Smart Street Vending Markets in Andhra Pradesh: The project is being implemented under the PM SVANidhi scheme with direct funding from the State budget. Each vending hub will have 40–200 modular shops, equipped with solar power, Wi-Fi, CCTV surveillance, and digital payment facilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 2- B Wrong Fact (Statement 1): The initiative is not under PM SVANidhi; it is under DAY–NULM (Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Urban Livelihood Mission) through MEPMA. Funding is a blended model of SHG bank loans, MEPMA support, and government contribution, not purely State budget. Correct Fact (Statement 2): Each market will have 40–200 modular shops, with technology-enabled features like solar power, free Wi-Fi, CCTV, and digital payments.

National Designated Authority to Kickstart Carbon Markets

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS3 Climate change, conservation

Context: Carbon Markets

Why in News

• On 22 August 2025, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) notified the creation of a National Designated Authority (NDA).

Introduction

• Creation of a National Designated Authority (NDA) is a mandatory requirement under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement (2015) to enable the functioning of carbon markets.
• The move comes in the backdrop of COP29 (Baku, November 2024) finalising rules for operationalising carbon credit trading.

Key Highlights

Committee Structure:

• 21-member body headed by Secretary, MoEFCC.
• Representation from MEA, Ministry of Renewable Energy, NITI Aayog, Steel Ministry among others.
• Maximum representation from MoEFCC.

Functions of NDA:

• Recommend list of activities eligible for generating tradable emission reduction units (carbon credits).
• Periodically revise activities based on national priorities and sustainability goals.
• Approve and authorise projects for participation in carbon markets.
• Allow use of emission reduction units towards achieving India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).

Image Source: Asian Development Bank

India’s NDC Targets (2030):

• Reduce emissions intensity of GDP by 45% (from 2005 levels).
• Achieve 50% installed electricity capacity from non-fossil fuel sources.
• Create an additional carbon sink of 2.5–3 billion tonnes of CO₂ equivalent through afforestation/reforestation.

Understanding International Framework

• Paris Agreement (2015): Global treaty to limit warming to below 2°C (preferably 1.5°C).
• Article 6:
• Provides a legal basis for carbon markets & cooperative approaches.
• Allows countries to trade emissions reductions via internationally transferred mitigation outcomes (ITMOs).
• Goal: Lower global abatement cost and incentivise climate-friendly projects.
• COP29 (Baku, 2024): Finalised long-delayed implementation rules for Article 6.

Challenges

• Integrity of Carbon Credits: Concerns about double counting, transparency, and verification of emissions reductions.
• Balancing Trade & Domestic Needs: Credits sold abroad shouldn’t compromise domestic NDC targets.
• Institutional Coordination: Multiple ministries and sectors (energy, industry, forestry) need effective collaboration.
• Market Volatility: Uncertainty in pricing and demand for carbon credits.
• Equitable Access: Ensuring participation from small and developing enterprises/sectors in carbon markets.

Significance for India

• Establishes India’s role in the global carbon trading system.
• Could mobilise climate finance and investment in renewable energy, forestry, and industrial decarbonisation.
• Enhances India’s credibility in meeting its NDC commitments.
• Positions India as a major supplier of carbon credits due to its vast renewable energy and afforestation potential.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the National Designated Authority (NDA) recently notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC): The creation of an NDA is a mandatory requirement under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement (2015) for enabling participation in international carbon markets. The NDA will approve projects, recommend eligible activities, and also permit the use of carbon credits for India’s Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). Which of the above statements is/are correct? Options: A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture’ (GACSA) which of the following statements is/are correct? (2018) GACSA is an outcome of the climate summit held in Paris in 2015 Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (b)

Answer 1- C Explanation Statement 1 – Correct: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement (2015) provides the legal framework for cooperative approaches, including carbon markets and internationally transferred mitigation outcomes (ITMOs). It mandates countries to set up a National Designated Authority (NDA) to ensure transparency, credibility and authorisation of carbon credit trading. India notified its NDA on 22 August 2025. Statement 2 – Correct: The NDA has multiple functions: Recommending a list of activities that are eligible to generate tradable emission reduction units. Approving and authorising projects for participation in carbon markets. Allowing emission credits to be counted towards India’s NDC targets (such as 45% reduction in emissions intensity of GDP by 2030, 50% installed capacity from non-fossil fuels, and creation of 2.5–3 billion tonnes CO₂ sink via afforestation). Thus, both statements are correct.

New online gaming Act

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Relevance: GS2 (Polity, Governance): Federalism

Context: New Online Gaming act

Why in News

• On August 22, 2025, the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Bill became law after Parliamentary approval and Presidential assent.

Introduction

• The Act seeks to ban Real Money Games (RMGs) while promoting e-sports and social gaming.
• It was brought in light of rising concerns about addiction, financial fraud, suicides related to gaming, and links with money laundering and tax evasion.

Key Provisions of the Act

1. Classification of Online Games:

E-sports:

• Recognised under National Sports Governance Act, 2025, regulated through a registration mechanism.
• May include entry fees, but prize money is performance-based.
• Examples: Call of Duty, Grand Theft Auto (competitive formats).

Social Gaming:

• Casual, recreational or educational online games operated via internet/digital devices.
• No betting or monetary prizes; promoted by the government.

Real Money Games (RMGs):

• Online games played with fee-payment, money, tokens, or convertible credits with expectation of winning monetary or equivalent rewards.
• Examples: Poker, Rummy, Fantasy Sports, Ludo (paid variants).

Completely banned under this law.

Image Source: Hindustan Times

2. WHO Concerns on RMGs:

• Linked to compulsive behaviour, mental distress, financial hardship, and family disruption.
• Report: 32 gaming-related suicides in Karnataka in last 31 months.

3. Penalties:

• Offering RMGs / Fund Transactions: Up to 3 years imprisonment, fine up to ₹1 crore, or both.
• Unlawful Advertising of RMGs: Up to 2 years imprisonment, fine up to ₹50 lakh, or both.
• All offences under BNSS 2023 are cognisable and non-bailable.
• CERT-IN empowered to block offending apps/websites; Interpol may be roped in for foreign operators.
• Importantly: No penal action prescribed for players (only operators/advertisers targeted).

4. Institutional Features:

• Regulatory Authority to categorise, register, and oversee online games.
• Budgetary provisions from the Consolidated Fund of India to promote social gaming.
• Builds on IT Rules, 2021 amendments (2023) which brought gaming firms under intermediary norms (KYC, parental controls, age-rating).

Government’s Rationale

• Protect citizens from losses—around ₹15,000 crore lost annually in RMGs.
• Prevent financial fraud, money laundering, terror funding, and tax evasion.
• Examples cited:
• ₹2,000 crore tax evasion (2022 report).
• Fraud of ₹400 crore via Chinese app FIEWIN.
• ₹30,000 crore in GST evasion linked to gaming portals.
• Gaming firms accused of deploying opaque algorithms, bots, undisclosed agents, undermining fairness.

Judicial Context

• Constitutional Entry Issues:
• Entries 34 & 62, State List: Betting & Gambling are State subjects, raising questions on Parliament’s jurisdiction.
• Past SC Observations:
• Games like Rummy & Fantasy Sports involve substantial skill — cannot be equated with gambling.
• Taxation Dispute (2023–25):
• Uniform 28% GST imposed on entry fee/deposit (not just platform fee). Gaming industry opposed, citing retrospective taxation and violation of trade freedoms.
• SC stayed notices; final judgment awaited on:
• Whether RMGs = gambling or skill-based activity.
• Validity of retrospective tax regime.
• Potential Constitutional Challenge:
• Critics argue the Act erases distinction between games of skill vs chance, thus violating Article 19(1)(g) – Right to Trade/Occupation.
• SC may be approached for interim relief.

Challenges

• Enforcement Difficulty: Offshore operators, VPN circumvention, informal cash play may bypass bans.
• Jurisdictional Clash: Gaming regulation is on the State List, but Centre has legislated via IT Act authority. States may contest.
• Economic Impact: Industry claims 2 lakh jobs at stake across 400+ firms.
• No Child Protection Mechanism: Unlike earlier IT Rules, no explicit provisions to limit minors’ access to e-sports/social games.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q2. Consider the following challenges associated with the Online Gaming Act, 2025: Enforcement is difficult due to offshore operators, VPNs, and cash play. Jurisdictional issues arise since gaming regulation is constitutionally a State subject. The Act has strong provisions to restrict minors’ access to e-sports and social games. The gaming industry fears job losses and economic disruption due to a blanket RMG ban. Options: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2018) It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b)  2 only (c)  Both 1 and 2 (d)  Neither 1 nor 2 Ans- d

Answer 2- C Explanation Challenges under Online Gaming Act, 2025: Enforcement issues (True): The Act faces major enforcement challenges because many offshore gaming operators can still function by using servers outside India, VPN technology, or informal cash-based play. This makes it difficult for Indian authorities to effectively regulate or block such platforms. Jurisdiction clash (True): Betting and gambling fall under the State List (Entries 34 & 62) of the Constitution. Since the central government has legislated on online gaming using its powers under the IT Act, there is potential for conflict between Centre and States, leading to jurisdictional disputes. No child-protection provisions (False): Unlike earlier IT Rules (2021 amendments), the new Act does not include explicit provisions such as age-rating, parental control or restrictions on minors’ access to e-sports and online social games. Therefore, the statement that strong child-protection provisions are included is false. Economic/job impact (True): The blanket ban on Real Money Games has raised industry concerns. The RMG sector claims that more than 2 lakh jobs across over 400 companies are at risk, highlighting significant economic disruption and potential job losses.

India’s Drug Safety Deficit – Critical Gaps in Drug Regulation

Source: The Hindu

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS2 Health sector regulation

Context: Public Health, consumer protection

Why in News

• Despite being the leading exporter of generics and vaccines, India faces quality failures, weak enforcement, and fragmented regulation, undermining both domestic safety and international trust.

Key Findings of the Study

1. Delayed Safeguards:

   • Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) introduced only in 2005.
   • Post-marketing surveillance & annual inspections made mandatory only in 2015.
   • Before this, India lacked critical oversight mechanisms.

2. Fragmented Regulatory Process:

   • Many reforms introduced as piecemeal gazette notifications rather than comprehensive laws.
   • Overlapping jurisdictions:
     • CDSCO is not independent → reports to DGHS → Health Ministry.
     • States also have licensing powers → coordination problem.

3. Drug Quality and Trust Deficit:

   • WHO: 1 in 10 drugs in developing countries is fake/substandard.
   • Multiple reports of Indian-made cough syrups, chemotherapy drugs failing quality tests → damaging trust globally.
   • Branded generics dominate 87% of Indian market (more expensive than true generics but without exclusivity benefits).

Image Source: Business Standard

Challenges Identified

1. Inspection Inefficiencies:

   • Regulatory system is understaffed.
   • Even where inspectors exist, inspections are pre-announced (gives companies time to cover violations).
   • US FDA’s surprise checks (2013–15) exposed widespread fraud; later inspections went back to “pre-announced.”
   • Issue isn’t just number of inspectors, but design & deployment of inspections.

2. Consumer Mistrust:

   • Indians prefer overpriced branded generics over true generics due to perceptions shaped by decades of pharma marketing.
   • No significant government campaigns to educate people on drug quality or identifying fake drugs.

3. Online Pharmacies – Under-Regulated:

   • E-pharmacies sell prescription drugs without requiring prescriptions.
   • A Jaipur study: 2 out of 8 online pharmacies bypassed prescription requirements.

4. Systemic Complexity:

   • Central and state regulators overlap → confusion.
   • Focus largely on illicit/fake drugs, but inadequate enforcement of ignored rules in day-to-day drug quality.

Economic & Global Stakes

• India’s Pharma Sector:
  • Current size: $50 billion; projected $130 billion by 2030.
  • Supplies 40% of generics in the US and 50–60% of the world’s vaccines.
• Quality lapses could seriously undermine India’s global credibility as a reliable pharma hub.
• Recent global episodes (deaths from Indian cough syrups in Gambia, Uzbekistan) have already raised alarms.

Opportunities and Suggested Remedies

• Strengthen Inspections: Shift from just increasing manpower to strategic, surprise, and risk-based inspections.
• Regulatory Independence: Make CDSCO an independent body separate from executive hierarchy.
• Public Awareness Campaigns : Government needs to educate citizens about drug quality, generics, and fake medicines.
• Retail Pharmacy Chains: Evidence shows they improve drug quality (+5%) and reduce prices (-2%) compared to scattered individual pharmacies.
• Policy Coherence: Replace fragmented rules with a comprehensive Drug Safety & Regulation Act debated in Parliament.
• Digital Oversight: Use technology for supply chain tracking, barcoding, blockchain solutions to curb counterfeit medicines.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q3. With reference to India’s drug regulation and quality framework, consider the following statements: Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) and post-marketing surveillance have been part of India’s drug regulation since the 1980s. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is an independent regulator of drug quality in India. Branded generics dominate India’s pharmaceutical market, accounting for nearly 87% of drug sales. The World Health Organization (WHO) has estimated that one in ten medicines in developing countries is either fake or substandard. Which of the above statements are correct? Options: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 4 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Q. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?(2019) 1.Genetic predisposition of some people 2.Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases 3.Using antibiotics in livestock farming 4.Multiple chronic diseases in some people Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Ans: (d)

Answer 3- C Explanation Statement 1 – Incorrect: Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) were introduced only in 2005 in India, and post-marketing surveillance & annual inspections became mandatory only in 2015. They were not present since the 1980s. Statement 2 – Incorrect: The CDSCO is not independent. It reports to the Director General of Health Services (DGHS), which comes under the Health Ministry. States also retain licensing powers → leading to coordination issues. Statement 3 – Correct: Nearly 87% of India’s drug market consists of branded generics → medicines that are not under patent but sold under brand names, often priced higher than unbranded generics. Statement 4 – Correct: The WHO has estimated that 1 in 10 drugs in developing countries is fake or substandard, underlining the global drug quality crisis.

Artificial Discovery of Rare Quadruple Star System in the Milky Way

Source: The Indian Express

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 Space research

Context: Celestial objects

Why in News?

Astronomers have discovered a unique quadruple star system –UPM J1040−3551 AabBab – in our Milky Way Galaxy.

Key aspects

• Uniqueness: UPM J1040−3551 AabBab  consists of two cold brown dwarfs orbiting a pair of young red dwarf stars — never observed before in this arrangement.
• Published in: Monthly Notices of the Royal Astronomical Society (Sept 2025 issue).
• Research led by Prof. Zenghua Zhang, Nanjing University with international collaboration (UK, Brazil, Chile, Spain).

What are Brown Dwarfs?

• Celestial objects between planets & stars:
  • Formed like stars, from collapsing clouds of gas & dust.
  • But not massive enough to sustain hydrogen fusion → no steady shining like normal stars.
  • Known as “failed stars.”
• Mass: Up to 70 times Jupiter.
• Atmosphere: Similar to gas giants (Jupiter, Saturn) → contains clouds & molecules (e.g., H₂O).

Why are Brown Dwarfs Hard to Detect?

• They are cold and faint, emit almost no visible light.
• Usually detected when companion to brighter stars → easier indirect measurement.
• Studying the brighter stars helps scientists estimate properties of the fainter brown dwarfs (age, temperature, chemical composition).
• Image Source: The Indian Express

Significance of this Discovery

1. Extremely Rare Configuration:
   • Quadruple systems are known, but this is the first with two T-type brown dwarfs orbiting a pair of stars.
   • Normally, high-mass stars form multiples, while low-mass stars & brown dwarfs mostly remain single (chance of a low-mass brown dwarf having a companion is < 5%).
2. Better Understanding of Brown Dwarfs:
   • Provides a “benchmark system” as the stars and brown dwarfs likely formed together.
   • Enables precise study of brown dwarf evolution, composition, and cooling rates.
3. Implications for Star & Planet Formation:
   • Studying such systems helps test theories of how stars vs. planets form.
   • Brown dwarfs represent the “intermediate” category — bridging stellar and planetary physics.
4. Contribution to Cosmic Mass Distribution Studies:
   • Brown dwarf population tells us about how mass is distributed in the galaxy.
   • Important for studying “missing mass” problem and links with dark matter research.

About Red Dwarfs

• The most common stars in the Milky Way (make up ~70% of stars).
• Small, relatively cool stars (much dimmer than Sun).
• Long lifespans, prime candidates for hosting potentially habitable exoplanets.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q4. Consider the following pairs: Celestial Object/System Key Feature 1. Brown Dwarfs Failed stars; cannot sustain hydrogen fusion 2. Red Dwarfs Most common, small and long-lived stars 3. UPM J1040−3551 AabBab Quadruple: 2 brown dwarfs + 2 red dwarfs 4. Blue Supergiants Coldest and densest stellar objects Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? Options: A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 1 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. Consider the following pairs: (2023) Objects in space : Description 1. Cepheids : Giant clouds of dust and gas in space 2. Nebulae : Stars which brighten and dim periodically 3. Pulsars : Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ? a) Only one b) Only two c) All three d) None Ans: (a)

Answer – 4 – A Explanation – Pair 1 (Brown Dwarfs – Failed stars): This statement is correct. Brown dwarfs are sub-stellar objects formed like stars but are not massive enough to sustain hydrogen fusion. Therefore, they are often called “failed stars.” Pair 2 (Red Dwarfs – Most common stars): This statement is correct. Red dwarfs are the most numerous stars in the Milky Way galaxy, making up about 70% of all stars. They are small, relatively cool, and have very long lifespans compared to our Sun. Pair 3 (UPM J1040−3551 AabBab – Quadruple system): This statement is correct. Astronomers have discovered this star system in which two cold T-type brown dwarfs orbit a pair of red dwarf stars. This configuration has never been observed before, making it a unique quadruple system. Pair 4 (Blue Supergiants – Coldest and densest objects): This statement is incorrect. Blue supergiants are among the hottest and most luminous stars in the universe. They are not cold or dense; instead, they emit enormous amounts of energy and have relatively short lifespans.

US Confirms First Human Case of Flesh-Eating New World Screwworm

Source: The Indian Express

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS 3 Science & Tech

Context: Vector-borne diseases, zoonoses

Why in News?

• On August 24, 2025, the US Department of Health and Human Services and CDC confirmed the country’s first human case of New World Screwworm infestation (myiasis).

Introduction

• US first human case of New World Screwworm infestation (myiasis)
• Patient: A traveller returning from El Salvador.
• This is the first travel-associated human case from an outbreak-affected country identified in the US.

What is the New World Screwworm?

• A blue-grey blowfly species: Cochliomyia hominivorax (literally “man-eater”).
• Native to South America & Caribbean.
• The parasite’s life cycle:
  1. Females lay eggs (up to 300 at a time, 3,000 in lifetime) in open wounds of warm-blooded animals (rarely humans).
  2. Eggs hatch into larvae (maggots) → burrow screw-like into living flesh for food.
  3. After feeding, larvae fall to soil → pupate → emerge as adult blowflies.
• Named “screwworms” due to their screw-like burrowing motion.

Image Source: Indian Express

Symptoms of Infestation (Myiasis)

• Excruciating pain.
• Wounds or sores that do not heal.
• Bleeding, foul-smelling odour from wound.
• Sensation of larvae movement in skin.
• Can progress to sepsis, severe tissue destruction, or even brain invasion if untreated.
• High mortality rate if left untreated.

Historical Context

• US Eradication (1960s):
  • Declared eradicated in 1966 using the Sterile Insect Technique (SIT):
    • Billions of sterilised male flies mass-reared & released.
    • Females mate only once → if mate with sterile male → produce no offspring.
  • Technique later eliminated screwworms from:
    • Mexico (1970s)
    • Central America (2000s)
    • Controlled outbreaks (e.g., Florida, 2017).
• Current Threat:
  • Fresh outbreaks in Panama, Costa Rica, Nicaragua, Honduras.
  • Possible causes:
    • Movement of infested cattle.
    • Current strain of sterilised flies may be less effective.
• For humans in US: Risk assessed as very low at present.

Why This Matters (Significance)

1. Rare but serious for human health:
   • Can be rapidly fatal without treatment.
   • First confirmed US case in decades.
2. Livestock Industry Threat:
   • Screwworms devastate cattle & sheep, causing huge economic damage.
   • Eradication saved US livestock industry billions of dollars annually.
3. Public Health Surveillance:
   • Highlights importance of global cooperation in biosecurity, travel-related disease monitoring, and vector control.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q5. Assertion–Reason Question Assertion (A): US confirmed its first human case of New World Screwworm infestation (myiasis), in a traveller returning from El Salvador. Reason (R): The New World Screwworm (Cochliomyia hominivorax) was eradicated from the US in 1966 using the Sterile Insect Technique (SIT), but recent outbreaks in Central America show that factors like livestock movement and reduced efficacy of sterilised strains may be causing re-emergence. Options A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A is true, but R is false. D. A is false, but R is true.

Q. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022) 1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. 2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. 3 COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (b)

Answer – 5 – A Explanation – Assertion (True): The US Department of Health and Human Services and CDC confirmed on August 24, 2025, the first ever travel-associated human case of New World Screwworm infestation (myiasis) in the US. The patient had recently travelled from El Salvador, where active outbreaks exist. Reason (True): The New World Screwworm, a flesh-eating blowfly parasite (literally “man-eater”), was eradicated in the US in 1966 using SIT. SIT worked by releasing billions of sterilised male flies, preventing reproduction (females mate only once).However, new outbreaks in Panama, Costa Rica, Nicaragua, Honduras have been reported. Causes: Movement of infested cattle across borders. Reduced effectiveness of current sterilised fly strains in controlling populations. Explanation: Since screwworms resurfaced in neighbouring countries, travelers and livestock imports pose a transmission risk. This explains why, despite eradication in the past, the first US case has been reported now. Hence, Reason explains Assertion correctly.

INS Udaygiri & INS Himgiri – Nilgiri-class Stealth Frigates commissioned into the Indian Navy

Source: Indian Express

UPSC Syllabus Relevance: GS Paper 3 (Defence & Technology)

Context:: Atmanirbhar Bharat in defence, naval shipbuilding, indigenisation of weapons.

Why in News?

• On 26 August 2025, the Indian Navy simultaneously commissioned INS Udaygiri and INS Himgiri, two Nilgiri-class (Project 17A) stealth guided-missile frigates, at Vishakhapatnam.

Introduction

• This is the first time that two major surface combatants from two different Indian shipyards (Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. – Mumbai, and Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers – Kolkata) have been commissioned together.
• Marks a major milestone in India’s indigenous warship design & construction capabilities.

About Project 17A (Nilgiri-class)

• Follow-on to Project 17 (Shivalik-class) frigates.
• Total 7 ships planned – 4 built by MDL (Mumbai) and 3 by GRSE (Kolkata).
• INS Nilgiri was the first ship commissioned (Jan 2025), Udaygiri and Himgiri are the second & third.
• Around 75% equipment sourced indigenously, involving 200+ MSMEs and thousands of jobs.
• Uses integrated construction philosophy (pre-outfitting blocks before assembly) → reduces building time, improves efficiency.

Image Source: News18

Key Features & Weapons

Dimensions & Propulsion:

• Length: 149 m
• Displacement: ~6,670 tonnes
• Speed: 28 knots (~52 km/h)
• Range/Endurance: 5,500 NM at cruising speed; 1,000 NM at max speed
• Propulsion: CODOG (Combined Diesel or Gas)
• Crew size: ~225 personnel

Stealth & Surveillance:

• Hull ~4.5% larger than Shivalik-class, but smaller radar cross-section → “sleek & stealthy” design.
• Equipped with multi-mission surveillance radars, surface surveillance radar, airborne early warning systems.
• ‘Shakti’ Electronic Warfare Suite for protection.

Weapons Arsenal:

• Long Range Surface-to-Air Missiles (LRSAM) – air defence.
• 8 Vertical Launch BrahMos cruise missiles – anti-ship/land attack.
• Barak 8 anti-aircraft missiles.
• Light-weight anti-submarine torpedoes + Indigenous Rocket Launchers (IRL).
• 127 mm Main gun + 2 AK-630 Close-in Weapon Systems (CIWS).
• Sonar Humsa (NG) – underwater detection.

Roles:

• Anti-surface warfare (ASuW)
• Anti-air warfare (AAW)
• Anti-submarine warfare (ASW)
• Capable of carrying multi-role helicopters → enhances reach and ASW capabilities.
• Designed for blue-water operations (deep-sea, global deployments).

Legacy & Naming

INS Udaygiri

• Named after mountain range in Andhra Pradesh.
• Legacy ship (1976–2007): Participated in Op Pawan (Sri Lanka 1987), Op Dolphin, Op Cactus (Maldives 1988), Op Madad (1991), Op Castor (2005 tsunami relief).
• New Udaygiri assigned to Eastern Naval Command (Sunrise Fleet).
• Motto: Sanyuktaha Paramojayaha – “In togetherness there is great victory.”

INS Himgiri

• Refers to the snow-capped Himalayas.
• Legacy ship (1974–2005): Patrolled Bombay High Oilfields (1985), Op Cactus, and relief work in Gujarat earthquake (2001).
• New Himgiri assigned to Western Naval Command.
• Motto: Adrushyam Ajayam – “Invisible and Invincible.”

Strategic and Industrial Significance

1. Self-Reliance (Atmanirbhar Bharat) : Marks the 100th ship designed by Navy’s Warship Design Bureau, showcasing indigenous capability.
2. Economic Boost: Built with contribution from 200+ MSMEs, generating direct & indirect employment.
3. Modernization Drive: Part of a larger naval expansion – 2025 has already seen commissioning of INS Surat (destroyer), INS Nilgiri, INS Vaghsheer (submarine), INS Arnala (ASW craft), INS Nistar (diving support vessel).
4. Future Roadmap:

• Remaining 4 Nilgiri-class ships to be commissioned within 1.5 years.
• Project 17B (P-17B) approved, with 7 next-gen frigates planned, carrying more indigenous content and futuristic systems.

CARE MCQ

UPSC PYQ

Q6. With reference to the recently commissioned INS Udaygiri and INS Himgiri, consider the following statements: INS Udaygiri and INS Himgiri are part of the Project 17A Nilgiri-class stealth guided missile frigates, which are successors of the Shivalik-class frigates. Both ships were commissioned in August 2025 but were constructed at the same shipyard, namely Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Ltd. in Mumbai. Their weapons package includes supersonic BrahMos cruise missiles, Barak-8/LRSAM missiles, anti-submarine torpedoes, and advanced sensors like HUMSA (NG) sonar and Shakti electronic warfare suite. INS Udaygiri has been assigned to the Eastern Naval Command (Visakhapatnam), while INS Himgiri has been inducted into the Western Naval Command (Mumbai). Which of the above statements are correct? Options: A. 1, 3 and 4 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (2014) It is surface-to-surface missile. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only. It can deliver one tonne nuclear warhead about 7500 km away. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. [2014]  (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans-a

Answer – 6 – A Explanation – Statement 1 – Correct: Both belong to Project 17A Nilgiri-class frigates, India’s new generation stealth guided-missile frigates, a follow-on of Project 17 (Shivalik-class). Statement 2 – Incorrect: They were indeed commissioned together in August 2025, but built at different shipyards – INS Udaygiri at MDL, Mumbai and INS Himgiri at GRSE, Kolkata – making this the first-ever dual commissioning from two different shipyards. Statement 3 – Correct: Both ships have a powerful multi-role weapons suite, including 8 BrahMos vertical launch supersonic missiles, Barak-8 LRSAMs, lightweight torpedoes, rocket launchers, a 127 mm gun, AK-630 CIWS, HUMSA sonar, Shakti EW suite, and advanced surveillance radars. Statement 4 – Correct: INS Udaygiri is part of the Eastern Naval Command, while INS Himgiri operates under the Western Naval Command, giving balance across India’s two coasts.